CLAT Practice Test- 34 - CLAT
150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT - CLAT Practice Test- 34
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Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from William Maxwell, The Folded Leaf. ©1959 by William Maxwell. Originally published in 1945.
The Alcazar Restaurant was on Sheridan Road near Devon Avenue. Lymie sat down at the second table from the cash register, and ordered his dinner. The history book, which he propped against the catsup and the glass sugar bowl, had been used by others before him. While Lymie read about the Peace of Paris, signed on the thirtieth of May, 1814, between France and the Allied powers, his right hand managed again and again to bring food up to his mouth. Sometimes he chewed, sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating. The Congress of Vienna met, with some allowance for delays, early in November of the same year, and all the powers engaged in the war on either side sent plenipotentiaries. It was by far the most splendid and important assembly ever convoked to discuss and determine the affairs of Europe. The Emperor of Russia, the King of Prussia, the Kings of Bavaria, Denmark, and Wurttemberg, all were present in person at the court of the Emperor Francis I in the Austrian capital. When Lymie put down his fork and began to count them off, one by one, on the fingers of his left hand, the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away. He stopped her. A party of four, two men and two women, came into the restaurant, all talking at once, and took possession of the centre table nearest Lymie. They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for, while they were deciding between soup and shrimp cocktail, and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women's voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them. Fortunately he realised this and went back. But before Lymie got halfway through them, a coat that he recognised as his father's was hung on the hook next to his chair. Lymie closed the book and said, "I didn't think you were coming." Time is probably no more unkind to sporting characters than it is to other people, but physical decay unsustained by respectability is somehow more noticeable. Mr. Peters' hair was turning grey and his scalp showed through on top. He had lost weight also; he no longer filled out his clothes the way he used to. His colour was poor, and the flower had disappeared from his buttonhole. In its place was an American Legion button. Apparently he himself was not aware that there had been any change. He straightened his tie self-consciously and when Irma handed him a menu, he gestured with it so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.
Q. What impression of Mr. Peter is drawn from his description in the passage?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from William Maxwell, The Folded Leaf. ©1959 by William Maxwell. Originally published in 1945.
The Alcazar Restaurant was on Sheridan Road near Devon Avenue. Lymie sat down at the second table from the cash register, and ordered his dinner. The history book, which he propped against the catsup and the glass sugar bowl, had been used by others before him. While Lymie read about the Peace of Paris, signed on the thirtieth of May, 1814, between France and the Allied powers, his right hand managed again and again to bring food up to his mouth. Sometimes he chewed, sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating. The Congress of Vienna met, with some allowance for delays, early in November of the same year, and all the powers engaged in the war on either side sent plenipotentiaries. It was by far the most splendid and important assembly ever convoked to discuss and determine the affairs of Europe. The Emperor of Russia, the King of Prussia, the Kings of Bavaria, Denmark, and Wurttemberg, all were present in person at the court of the Emperor Francis I in the Austrian capital. When Lymie put down his fork and began to count them off, one by one, on the fingers of his left hand, the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away. He stopped her. A party of four, two men and two women, came into the restaurant, all talking at once, and took possession of the centre table nearest Lymie. They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for, while they were deciding between soup and shrimp cocktail, and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women's voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them. Fortunately he realised this and went back. But before Lymie got halfway through them, a coat that he recognised as his father's was hung on the hook next to his chair. Lymie closed the book and said, "I didn't think you were coming." Time is probably no more unkind to sporting characters than it is to other people, but physical decay unsustained by respectability is somehow more noticeable. Mr. Peters' hair was turning grey and his scalp showed through on top. He had lost weight also; he no longer filled out his clothes the way he used to. His colour was poor, and the flower had disappeared from his buttonhole. In its place was an American Legion button. Apparently he himself was not aware that there had been any change. He straightened his tie self-consciously and when Irma handed him a menu, he gestured with it so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.
Q. Lymie closed the book he was reading because
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from William Maxwell, The Folded Leaf. ©1959 by William Maxwell. Originally published in 1945.
The Alcazar Restaurant was on Sheridan Road near Devon Avenue. Lymie sat down at the second table from the cash register, and ordered his dinner. The history book, which he propped against the catsup and the glass sugar bowl, had been used by others before him. While Lymie read about the Peace of Paris, signed on the thirtieth of May, 1814, between France and the Allied powers, his right hand managed again and again to bring food up to his mouth. Sometimes he chewed, sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating. The Congress of Vienna met, with some allowance for delays, early in November of the same year, and all the powers engaged in the war on either side sent plenipotentiaries. It was by far the most splendid and important assembly ever convoked to discuss and determine the affairs of Europe. The Emperor of Russia, the King of Prussia, the Kings of Bavaria, Denmark, and Wurttemberg, all were present in person at the court of the Emperor Francis I in the Austrian capital. When Lymie put down his fork and began to count them off, one by one, on the fingers of his left hand, the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away. He stopped her. A party of four, two men and two women, came into the restaurant, all talking at once, and took possession of the centre table nearest Lymie. They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for, while they were deciding between soup and shrimp cocktail, and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women's voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them. Fortunately he realised this and went back. But before Lymie got halfway through them, a coat that he recognised as his father's was hung on the hook next to his chair. Lymie closed the book and said, "I didn't think you were coming." Time is probably no more unkind to sporting characters than it is to other people, but physical decay unsustained by respectability is somehow more noticeable. Mr. Peters' hair was turning grey and his scalp showed through on top. He had lost weight also; he no longer filled out his clothes the way he used to. His colour was poor, and the flower had disappeared from his buttonhole. In its place was an American Legion button. Apparently he himself was not aware that there had been any change. He straightened his tie self-consciously and when Irma handed him a menu, he gestured with it so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.
Q. The word 'convoked' means
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from William Maxwell, The Folded Leaf. ©1959 by William Maxwell. Originally published in 1945.
The Alcazar Restaurant was on Sheridan Road near Devon Avenue. Lymie sat down at the second table from the cash register, and ordered his dinner. The history book, which he propped against the catsup and the glass sugar bowl, had been used by others before him. While Lymie read about the Peace of Paris, signed on the thirtieth of May, 1814, between France and the Allied powers, his right hand managed again and again to bring food up to his mouth. Sometimes he chewed, sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating. The Congress of Vienna met, with some allowance for delays, early in November of the same year, and all the powers engaged in the war on either side sent plenipotentiaries. It was by far the most splendid and important assembly ever convoked to discuss and determine the affairs of Europe. The Emperor of Russia, the King of Prussia, the Kings of Bavaria, Denmark, and Wurttemberg, all were present in person at the court of the Emperor Francis I in the Austrian capital. When Lymie put down his fork and began to count them off, one by one, on the fingers of his left hand, the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away. He stopped her. A party of four, two men and two women, came into the restaurant, all talking at once, and took possession of the centre table nearest Lymie. They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for, while they were deciding between soup and shrimp cocktail, and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women's voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them. Fortunately he realised this and went back. But before Lymie got halfway through them, a coat that he recognised as his father's was hung on the hook next to his chair. Lymie closed the book and said, "I didn't think you were coming." Time is probably no more unkind to sporting characters than it is to other people, but physical decay unsustained by respectability is somehow more noticeable. Mr. Peters' hair was turning grey and his scalp showed through on top. He had lost weight also; he no longer filled out his clothes the way he used to. His colour was poor, and the flower had disappeared from his buttonhole. In its place was an American Legion button. Apparently he himself was not aware that there had been any change. He straightened his tie self-consciously and when Irma handed him a menu, he gestured with it so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.
Q. Which of the following traits are exhibited by 'party of four' as described in the passage?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from William Maxwell, The Folded Leaf. ©1959 by William Maxwell. Originally published in 1945.
The Alcazar Restaurant was on Sheridan Road near Devon Avenue. Lymie sat down at the second table from the cash register, and ordered his dinner. The history book, which he propped against the catsup and the glass sugar bowl, had been used by others before him. While Lymie read about the Peace of Paris, signed on the thirtieth of May, 1814, between France and the Allied powers, his right hand managed again and again to bring food up to his mouth. Sometimes he chewed, sometimes he swallowed whole the food that he had no idea he was eating. The Congress of Vienna met, with some allowance for delays, early in November of the same year, and all the powers engaged in the war on either side sent plenipotentiaries. It was by far the most splendid and important assembly ever convoked to discuss and determine the affairs of Europe. The Emperor of Russia, the King of Prussia, the Kings of Bavaria, Denmark, and Wurttemberg, all were present in person at the court of the Emperor Francis I in the Austrian capital. When Lymie put down his fork and began to count them off, one by one, on the fingers of his left hand, the waitress, whose name was Irma, thought he was through eating and tried to take his plate away. He stopped her. A party of four, two men and two women, came into the restaurant, all talking at once, and took possession of the centre table nearest Lymie. They laughed more than there seemed any occasion for, while they were deciding between soup and shrimp cocktail, and their laughter was too loud. But it was the women's voices, the terrible not quite sober pitch which caused Lymie to skim over two whole pages without knowing what was on them. Fortunately he realised this and went back. But before Lymie got halfway through them, a coat that he recognised as his father's was hung on the hook next to his chair. Lymie closed the book and said, "I didn't think you were coming." Time is probably no more unkind to sporting characters than it is to other people, but physical decay unsustained by respectability is somehow more noticeable. Mr. Peters' hair was turning grey and his scalp showed through on top. He had lost weight also; he no longer filled out his clothes the way he used to. His colour was poor, and the flower had disappeared from his buttonhole. In its place was an American Legion button. Apparently he himself was not aware that there had been any change. He straightened his tie self-consciously and when Irma handed him a menu, he gestured with it so that the two women at the next table would notice the diamond ring on the fourth finger of his right hand.
Q. Why does the waitress Irma draw the impression that Lymie had finished with his food?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
I decided at 10 years of age that I was going to be a teacher, because I wanted superpowers. There! I've said it. It's true. When I was in primary school I could clearly see that some of my teachers had extraordinary powers. My classmates went about their day with joyful abandon. Not me. I was the quietly observant one, noticing things.
There was our English-language teacher in fifth grade who could magically transport us to different worlds every day, simply by telling us stories and reading to us from books we would otherwise never pick up. This was our secret, because fifth graders were considered too old to have stories read out to them.
Then there was the founder–principal of the school, a teacher as well, who knew everything about every child, knew not just their parents but even their grandparents. You couldn't escape her superpowered laser-like eyes that could see right into you—through flesh, bones and all. That was a scary superpower. Her hawk-eyed scrutiny often left us feeling like there was no escape.
But, our class teacher in fourth standard could see the invisible. I was one of those who remained invisible, being rather quiet and shy as a child. Yet my teacher would notice me, even when I was unnoticeable. The unspoken message in her superpowered eyes told me: "I see you, I know you, I understand you." She knew, without needing to be told, the days I felt sad and lost and needed that extra pat. Being a dreamer, I found school a bit trying at times. She clearly had a superpower if, after four decades, I can still vividly remember her lessons about the great masters of art, expanding our horizons and kindling, at least in me, a lifelong interest in the subject. She did this even though her area of specialization wasn't art; it was geography. I don't remember much of the geography now, but I do remember how she made me feel. The lessons went beyond the textbook. As I learnt from her, the role of a primary school educator is to teach children, not subjects.
I knew I wanted to be such a teacher, one of those all-seeing ones with superpowers that made children feel safe and valued.
What seems amazing to me is that all those extraordinary men and women went about their business, calmly creating daily magic in their ordinary classrooms. No one noticed, no one gave them medals for bravery or Nobel prizes for creativity, although they were being the most creative anyone could be, in shaping and moulding young human beings.
Q. According to the passage, what does the author find amazing about the extraordinary teachers?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
I decided at 10 years of age that I was going to be a teacher, because I wanted superpowers. There! I've said it. It's true. When I was in primary school I could clearly see that some of my teachers had extraordinary powers. My classmates went about their day with joyful abandon. Not me. I was the quietly observant one, noticing things.
There was our English-language teacher in fifth grade who could magically transport us to different worlds every day, simply by telling us stories and reading to us from books we would otherwise never pick up. This was our secret, because fifth graders were considered too old to have stories read out to them.
Then there was the founder–principal of the school, a teacher as well, who knew everything about every child, knew not just their parents but even their grandparents. You couldn't escape her superpowered laser-like eyes that could see right into you—through flesh, bones and all. That was a scary superpower. Her hawk-eyed scrutiny often left us feeling like there was no escape.
But, our class teacher in fourth standard could see the invisible. I was one of those who remained invisible, being rather quiet and shy as a child. Yet my teacher would notice me, even when I was unnoticeable. The unspoken message in her superpowered eyes told me: "I see you, I know you, I understand you." She knew, without needing to be told, the days I felt sad and lost and needed that extra pat. Being a dreamer, I found school a bit trying at times. She clearly had a superpower if, after four decades, I can still vividly remember her lessons about the great masters of art, expanding our horizons and kindling, at least in me, a lifelong interest in the subject. She did this even though her area of specialization wasn't art; it was geography. I don't remember much of the geography now, but I do remember how she made me feel. The lessons went beyond the textbook. As I learnt from her, the role of a primary school educator is to teach children, not subjects.
I knew I wanted to be such a teacher, one of those all-seeing ones with superpowers that made children feel safe and valued.
What seems amazing to me is that all those extraordinary men and women went about their business, calmly creating daily magic in their ordinary classrooms. No one noticed, no one gave them medals for bravery or Nobel prizes for creativity, although they were being the most creative anyone could be, in shaping and moulding young human beings.
Q. According to the passage, what does the author find amazing about the extraordinary teachers?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
I decided at 10 years of age that I was going to be a teacher, because I wanted superpowers. There! I've said it. It's true. When I was in primary school I could clearly see that some of my teachers had extraordinary powers. My classmates went about their day with joyful abandon. Not me. I was the quietly observant one, noticing things.
There was our English-language teacher in fifth grade who could magically transport us to different worlds every day, simply by telling us stories and reading to us from books we would otherwise never pick up. This was our secret, because fifth graders were considered too old to have stories read out to them.
Then there was the founder–principal of the school, a teacher as well, who knew everything about every child, knew not just their parents but even their grandparents. You couldn't escape her superpowered laser-like eyes that could see right into you—through flesh, bones and all. That was a scary superpower. Her hawk-eyed scrutiny often left us feeling like there was no escape.
But, our class teacher in fourth standard could see the invisible. I was one of those who remained invisible, being rather quiet and shy as a child. Yet my teacher would notice me, even when I was unnoticeable. The unspoken message in her superpowered eyes told me: "I see you, I know you, I understand you." She knew, without needing to be told, the days I felt sad and lost and needed that extra pat. Being a dreamer, I found school a bit trying at times. She clearly had a superpower if, after four decades, I can still vividly remember her lessons about the great masters of art, expanding our horizons and kindling, at least in me, a lifelong interest in the subject. She did this even though her area of specialization wasn't art; it was geography. I don't remember much of the geography now, but I do remember how she made me feel. The lessons went beyond the textbook. As I learnt from her, the role of a primary school educator is to teach children, not subjects.
I knew I wanted to be such a teacher, one of those all-seeing ones with superpowers that made children feel safe and valued.
What seems amazing to me is that all those extraordinary men and women went about their business, calmly creating daily magic in their ordinary classrooms. No one noticed, no one gave them medals for bravery or Nobel prizes for creativity, although they were being the most creative anyone could be, in shaping and moulding young human beings.
Q. What does the phrase 'expanding our horizons' as used in the passage mean?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
I decided at 10 years of age that I was going to be a teacher, because I wanted superpowers. There! I've said it. It's true. When I was in primary school I could clearly see that some of my teachers had extraordinary powers. My classmates went about their day with joyful abandon. Not me. I was the quietly observant one, noticing things.
There was our English-language teacher in fifth grade who could magically transport us to different worlds every day, simply by telling us stories and reading to us from books we would otherwise never pick up. This was our secret, because fifth graders were considered too old to have stories read out to them.
Then there was the founder–principal of the school, a teacher as well, who knew everything about every child, knew not just their parents but even their grandparents. You couldn't escape her superpowered laser-like eyes that could see right into you—through flesh, bones and all. That was a scary superpower. Her hawk-eyed scrutiny often left us feeling like there was no escape.
But, our class teacher in fourth standard could see the invisible. I was one of those who remained invisible, being rather quiet and shy as a child. Yet my teacher would notice me, even when I was unnoticeable. The unspoken message in her superpowered eyes told me: "I see you, I know you, I understand you." She knew, without needing to be told, the days I felt sad and lost and needed that extra pat. Being a dreamer, I found school a bit trying at times. She clearly had a superpower if, after four decades, I can still vividly remember her lessons about the great masters of art, expanding our horizons and kindling, at least in me, a lifelong interest in the subject. She did this even though her area of specialization wasn't art; it was geography. I don't remember much of the geography now, but I do remember how she made me feel. The lessons went beyond the textbook. As I learnt from her, the role of a primary school educator is to teach children, not subjects.
I knew I wanted to be such a teacher, one of those all-seeing ones with superpowers that made children feel safe and valued.
What seems amazing to me is that all those extraordinary men and women went about their business, calmly creating daily magic in their ordinary classrooms. No one noticed, no one gave them medals for bravery or Nobel prizes for creativity, although they were being the most creative anyone could be, in shaping and moulding young human beings.
Q. What, according to the author, was scary about the founder-principal?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
I decided at 10 years of age that I was going to be a teacher, because I wanted superpowers. There! I've said it. It's true. When I was in primary school I could clearly see that some of my teachers had extraordinary powers. My classmates went about their day with joyful abandon. Not me. I was the quietly observant one, noticing things.
There was our English-language teacher in fifth grade who could magically transport us to different worlds every day, simply by telling us stories and reading to us from books we would otherwise never pick up. This was our secret, because fifth graders were considered too old to have stories read out to them.
Then there was the founder–principal of the school, a teacher as well, who knew everything about every child, knew not just their parents but even their grandparents. You couldn't escape her superpowered laser-like eyes that could see right into you—through flesh, bones and all. That was a scary superpower. Her hawk-eyed scrutiny often left us feeling like there was no escape.
But, our class teacher in fourth standard could see the invisible. I was one of those who remained invisible, being rather quiet and shy as a child. Yet my teacher would notice me, even when I was unnoticeable. The unspoken message in her superpowered eyes told me: "I see you, I know you, I understand you." She knew, without needing to be told, the days I felt sad and lost and needed that extra pat. Being a dreamer, I found school a bit trying at times. She clearly had a superpower if, after four decades, I can still vividly remember her lessons about the great masters of art, expanding our horizons and kindling, at least in me, a lifelong interest in the subject. She did this even though her area of specialization wasn't art; it was geography. I don't remember much of the geography now, but I do remember how she made me feel. The lessons went beyond the textbook. As I learnt from her, the role of a primary school educator is to teach children, not subjects.
I knew I wanted to be such a teacher, one of those all-seeing ones with superpowers that made children feel safe and valued.
What seems amazing to me is that all those extraordinary men and women went about their business, calmly creating daily magic in their ordinary classrooms. No one noticed, no one gave them medals for bravery or Nobel prizes for creativity, although they were being the most creative anyone could be, in shaping and moulding young human beings.
Q. Why did the author believe that by becoming a teacher the author would receive superpowers?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed summoned his secretary, K. Balachandran, at around 11:15 p.m. on 25 June 1975. Ten minutes later, Balachandran met the pyjama-clad president in the private sitting room of his official residence at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The president handed his secretary a one-page letter from Indira Gandhi marked 'Top Secret'. Referring to the prime minister's discussion with the president earlier that day, the letter said she was in receipt of information that internal disturbances posed an imminent threat to India's internal security. It requested a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 (1) if the president was satisfied on this score. She would have preferred to have first consulted the cabinet, but there was no time to lose. Therefore, she was invoking a departure from the Transaction of Business Rules in exercise of her powers under Rule 12 thereof. The president asked for his aide's opinion on the letter, which did not have the proposed proclamation attached. Balachandran said that such a proclamation was constitutionally impermissible on more than one ground. At this, the president said that he wanted to consult the Indian Constitution. Balachandran retreated to his office to locate a copy. Meanwhile, the deputy secretary in the president's secretariat showed up. The two officials launched into a discussion about the constitutionality of the prime minister's proposal before they returned to President Ahmed with a copy of the Constitution. Balachandran explained that the president's personal satisfaction that internal disturbances posed a threat to internal security was constitutionally irrelevant. What the Constitution required was the advice of the council of ministers. Balachandran withdrew when the president said he wanted to speak to the prime minister. When he re-entered the room 10 minutes later, President Ahmed informed him that R. K. Dhawan had come over with a draft Emergency proclamation, which he had signed. Then the president swallowed a tranquilizer and went to bed.
This late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing. What we see unfolding in the hunt for a copy of the Constitution, the leafing through of its pages to make sure that the draft proclamation met the letter of the law, is the meticulous process of the paradoxical suspension of the law by law. The substance of the discussion concerns the legality of the procedures to follow in issuing the Emergency proclamation. The political will behind the act goes unmentioned. This is because Article 352 (1) of the Constitution itself had left the judgement of the necessity for the Emergency proclamation outside the law. The doctrine of necessity regards the judgement of crisis conditions as something that the law itself cannot handle; it is a lacuna in the juridical order that the executive is obligated to remedy.
Q. What can be inferred from the passage about the request for the Emergency proclamation?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed summoned his secretary, K. Balachandran, at around 11:15 p.m. on 25 June 1975. Ten minutes later, Balachandran met the pyjama-clad president in the private sitting room of his official residence at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The president handed his secretary a one-page letter from Indira Gandhi marked 'Top Secret'. Referring to the prime minister's discussion with the president earlier that day, the letter said she was in receipt of information that internal disturbances posed an imminent threat to India's internal security. It requested a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 (1) if the president was satisfied on this score. She would have preferred to have first consulted the cabinet, but there was no time to lose. Therefore, she was invoking a departure from the Transaction of Business Rules in exercise of her powers under Rule 12 thereof. The president asked for his aide's opinion on the letter, which did not have the proposed proclamation attached. Balachandran said that such a proclamation was constitutionally impermissible on more than one ground. At this, the president said that he wanted to consult the Indian Constitution. Balachandran retreated to his office to locate a copy. Meanwhile, the deputy secretary in the president's secretariat showed up. The two officials launched into a discussion about the constitutionality of the prime minister's proposal before they returned to President Ahmed with a copy of the Constitution. Balachandran explained that the president's personal satisfaction that internal disturbances posed a threat to internal security was constitutionally irrelevant. What the Constitution required was the advice of the council of ministers. Balachandran withdrew when the president said he wanted to speak to the prime minister. When he re-entered the room 10 minutes later, President Ahmed informed him that R. K. Dhawan had come over with a draft Emergency proclamation, which he had signed. Then the president swallowed a tranquilizer and went to bed.
This late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing. What we see unfolding in the hunt for a copy of the Constitution, the leafing through of its pages to make sure that the draft proclamation met the letter of the law, is the meticulous process of the paradoxical suspension of the law by law. The substance of the discussion concerns the legality of the procedures to follow in issuing the Emergency proclamation. The political will behind the act goes unmentioned. This is because Article 352 (1) of the Constitution itself had left the judgement of the necessity for the Emergency proclamation outside the law. The doctrine of necessity regards the judgement of crisis conditions as something that the law itself cannot handle; it is a lacuna in the juridical order that the executive is obligated to remedy.
Q. Why does the author state that the late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed summoned his secretary, K. Balachandran, at around 11:15 p.m. on 25 June 1975. Ten minutes later, Balachandran met the pyjama-clad president in the private sitting room of his official residence at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The president handed his secretary a one-page letter from Indira Gandhi marked 'Top Secret'. Referring to the prime minister's discussion with the president earlier that day, the letter said she was in receipt of information that internal disturbances posed an imminent threat to India's internal security. It requested a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 (1) if the president was satisfied on this score. She would have preferred to have first consulted the cabinet, but there was no time to lose. Therefore, she was invoking a departure from the Transaction of Business Rules in exercise of her powers under Rule 12 thereof. The president asked for his aide's opinion on the letter, which did not have the proposed proclamation attached. Balachandran said that such a proclamation was constitutionally impermissible on more than one ground. At this, the president said that he wanted to consult the Indian Constitution. Balachandran retreated to his office to locate a copy. Meanwhile, the deputy secretary in the president's secretariat showed up. The two officials launched into a discussion about the constitutionality of the prime minister's proposal before they returned to President Ahmed with a copy of the Constitution. Balachandran explained that the president's personal satisfaction that internal disturbances posed a threat to internal security was constitutionally irrelevant. What the Constitution required was the advice of the council of ministers. Balachandran withdrew when the president said he wanted to speak to the prime minister. When he re-entered the room 10 minutes later, President Ahmed informed him that R. K. Dhawan had come over with a draft Emergency proclamation, which he had signed. Then the president swallowed a tranquilizer and went to bed.
This late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing. What we see unfolding in the hunt for a copy of the Constitution, the leafing through of its pages to make sure that the draft proclamation met the letter of the law, is the meticulous process of the paradoxical suspension of the law by law. The substance of the discussion concerns the legality of the procedures to follow in issuing the Emergency proclamation. The political will behind the act goes unmentioned. This is because Article 352 (1) of the Constitution itself had left the judgement of the necessity for the Emergency proclamation outside the law. The doctrine of necessity regards the judgement of crisis conditions as something that the law itself cannot handle; it is a lacuna in the juridical order that the executive is obligated to remedy.
Q. What does the word 'propriety' as used in the passage mean?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed summoned his secretary, K. Balachandran, at around 11:15 p.m. on 25 June 1975. Ten minutes later, Balachandran met the pyjama-clad president in the private sitting room of his official residence at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The president handed his secretary a one-page letter from Indira Gandhi marked 'Top Secret'. Referring to the prime minister's discussion with the president earlier that day, the letter said she was in receipt of information that internal disturbances posed an imminent threat to India's internal security. It requested a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 (1) if the president was satisfied on this score. She would have preferred to have first consulted the cabinet, but there was no time to lose. Therefore, she was invoking a departure from the Transaction of Business Rules in exercise of her powers under Rule 12 thereof. The president asked for his aide's opinion on the letter, which did not have the proposed proclamation attached. Balachandran said that such a proclamation was constitutionally impermissible on more than one ground. At this, the president said that he wanted to consult the Indian Constitution. Balachandran retreated to his office to locate a copy. Meanwhile, the deputy secretary in the president's secretariat showed up. The two officials launched into a discussion about the constitutionality of the prime minister's proposal before they returned to President Ahmed with a copy of the Constitution. Balachandran explained that the president's personal satisfaction that internal disturbances posed a threat to internal security was constitutionally irrelevant. What the Constitution required was the advice of the council of ministers. Balachandran withdrew when the president said he wanted to speak to the prime minister. When he re-entered the room 10 minutes later, President Ahmed informed him that R. K. Dhawan had come over with a draft Emergency proclamation, which he had signed. Then the president swallowed a tranquilizer and went to bed.
This late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing. What we see unfolding in the hunt for a copy of the Constitution, the leafing through of its pages to make sure that the draft proclamation met the letter of the law, is the meticulous process of the paradoxical suspension of the law by law. The substance of the discussion concerns the legality of the procedures to follow in issuing the Emergency proclamation. The political will behind the act goes unmentioned. This is because Article 352 (1) of the Constitution itself had left the judgement of the necessity for the Emergency proclamation outside the law. The doctrine of necessity regards the judgement of crisis conditions as something that the law itself cannot handle; it is a lacuna in the juridical order that the executive is obligated to remedy.
Q. According to the passage, why did Balachandran advise the President that Gandhi's request for a proclamation of Emergency was impermissible?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed summoned his secretary, K. Balachandran, at around 11:15 p.m. on 25 June 1975. Ten minutes later, Balachandran met the pyjama-clad president in the private sitting room of his official residence at Rashtrapati Bhavan. The president handed his secretary a one-page letter from Indira Gandhi marked 'Top Secret'. Referring to the prime minister's discussion with the president earlier that day, the letter said she was in receipt of information that internal disturbances posed an imminent threat to India's internal security. It requested a proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 (1) if the president was satisfied on this score. She would have preferred to have first consulted the cabinet, but there was no time to lose. Therefore, she was invoking a departure from the Transaction of Business Rules in exercise of her powers under Rule 12 thereof. The president asked for his aide's opinion on the letter, which did not have the proposed proclamation attached. Balachandran said that such a proclamation was constitutionally impermissible on more than one ground. At this, the president said that he wanted to consult the Indian Constitution. Balachandran retreated to his office to locate a copy. Meanwhile, the deputy secretary in the president's secretariat showed up. The two officials launched into a discussion about the constitutionality of the prime minister's proposal before they returned to President Ahmed with a copy of the Constitution. Balachandran explained that the president's personal satisfaction that internal disturbances posed a threat to internal security was constitutionally irrelevant. What the Constitution required was the advice of the council of ministers. Balachandran withdrew when the president said he wanted to speak to the prime minister. When he re-entered the room 10 minutes later, President Ahmed informed him that R. K. Dhawan had come over with a draft Emergency proclamation, which he had signed. Then the president swallowed a tranquilizer and went to bed.
This late-night concern for constitutional propriety is revealing. What we see unfolding in the hunt for a copy of the Constitution, the leafing through of its pages to make sure that the draft proclamation met the letter of the law, is the meticulous process of the paradoxical suspension of the law by law. The substance of the discussion concerns the legality of the procedures to follow in issuing the Emergency proclamation. The political will behind the act goes unmentioned. This is because Article 352 (1) of the Constitution itself had left the judgement of the necessity for the Emergency proclamation outside the law. The doctrine of necessity regards the judgement of crisis conditions as something that the law itself cannot handle; it is a lacuna in the juridical order that the executive is obligated to remedy.
Q. What reason for declaring Emergency does Indira Gandhi provide in her letter to President Ahmed marked 'Top Secret'?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."
Q. What can be inferred from the passage about the general regarding his decision to fire at the crowd?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."
Q. Why would the general have resorted to individual firing over volley firing?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."
Q. What does the word 'incredulity' as used in the passage mean?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."
Q. According to the passage, why did the general believe it was his duty to continue firing?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
"Did you continue firing?"
"Yes," replied the general.
There was an audible gasp that echoed through this crowded room in response to that single word. His Lordship waited for silence to be restored, sitting with eyes lowered, hands clasped tightly on the long table that separated the Committee from everyone else. The folds of his black robe pinched against the table's edge as he hunched forward, leaning heavily on his elbows, asking in a voice strained thin by incredulity:
"If the crowd was going to disperse, why did you not stop firing?"
"I thought it my duty to go on firing until it dispersed. If I fired a little, the effect would not be sufficient. If I had fired a little I should be wrong in firing at all."
"What reason had you to suppose that if you had ordered the assembly to leave the Bagh they would not have done so without the necessity of your firing, continued firing for a length of time?"
"Yes, I think it is quite possible that I could have dispersed them perhaps even without firing."
"Why did you not adopt that course" His Lordship asked, shaking his head, more in wonder than horror, as he asked the question.
"I could not disperse them for some time," the General answered, speaking slowly, sounding distracted as he stared over the heads of the judges, "then they would all come back and laugh at me, and I considered I would be making myself a fool."
A wave of startled comment greeted this remark, and the clamour became so loud that His Lordship was obliged to rap his gavel before continuing his interrogation.
"You know that the casualties were something between four hundred and five hundred."
"Yes I have seen it in the papers. I divided all my rounds by five--" He paused and touched his fingertips to his lips, staring vacantly at the ceiling, mumbling, "I am in doubt whether by five or six--to arrive at the number."
"I understood that the shooting that took place was individual shooting, and it was not volley shooting?"
"No, there was no volley shooting."
"The crowd was very dense?"
"It was very dense."
"It was unlikely that a man shooting into the crowd will miss?"
"No, according to the circumstances of the case," the General replied, shaking his head, sounding bewildered. "They were running, and I noticed only a certain number of men were hit. In the centre of the section, the crowd was very dense and therefore if a man directed his fire well he should not miss."
Q. According to the passage, why did the crowd in the room gasp when they heard the general's answer?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Gifted journalist Ved Mehta, believed that Gandhi was hard to copy. Writing about Martin Luther King's struggle against racism in the United States, Mehta wondered if Gandhi could be replicated in that country. He thought that Gandhi was lucky not to have been born in Leopold's Congo or Stalin's Russia or Hitler's Germany.
In the same article, Mehta recalls a dialogue between Gandhi and Nehru during the non-cooperation movement of the 1920s. On hearing about a violent incident in the Chauri Chaura village of Uttar Pradesh, Gandhi decided to withdraw the first all-India movement he had led. Jawaharlal Nehru asked him, 'Must we train the 300 and odd millions of India in the theory and practice of non-violent action before we (can) move forward?'
Gandhi's reply was short and unequivocal: 'Yes.' Gandhi's rigour did mellow with age and experience, but some of his tall contemporaries remained sceptical of his strategy of mass mobilisation. Tagore foresaw that Gandhi's legacy might prove tough to follow in the absence of his leadership.
However, Gandhi's legacy is complex and evokes some fundamental issues embedded in the theory of peaceful settlement of conflicts. It is useful to visit these issues today when we are in the middle of a mass movement focused on a subject of Gandhi's deep concern: rural economy. Those in the forefront of this movement are farmers. The questions their protest brings into public attention go well beyond the validity of their apprehensions and doubts. Gandhi is highly relevant to these questions. His legacy for India, and the rest of the modern world, is not confined to the culture of protest. It also involves an interpretation of peace: its logic and the method of inquiry it demands.
Q. Which of the following is FALSE as per the passage?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Gifted journalist Ved Mehta, believed that Gandhi was hard to copy. Writing about Martin Luther King's struggle against racism in the United States, Mehta wondered if Gandhi could be replicated in that country. He thought that Gandhi was lucky not to have been born in Leopold's Congo or Stalin's Russia or Hitler's Germany.
In the same article, Mehta recalls a dialogue between Gandhi and Nehru during the non-cooperation movement of the 1920s. On hearing about a violent incident in the Chauri Chaura village of Uttar Pradesh, Gandhi decided to withdraw the first all-India movement he had led. Jawaharlal Nehru asked him, 'Must we train the 300 and odd millions of India in the theory and practice of non-violent action before we (can) move forward?'
Gandhi's reply was short and unequivocal: 'Yes.' Gandhi's rigour did mellow with age and experience, but some of his tall contemporaries remained sceptical of his strategy of mass mobilisation. Tagore foresaw that Gandhi's legacy might prove tough to follow in the absence of his leadership.
However, Gandhi's legacy is complex and evokes some fundamental issues embedded in the theory of peaceful settlement of conflicts. It is useful to visit these issues today when we are in the middle of a mass movement focused on a subject of Gandhi's deep concern: rural economy. Those in the forefront of this movement are farmers. The questions their protest brings into public attention go well beyond the validity of their apprehensions and doubts. Gandhi is highly relevant to these questions. His legacy for India, and the rest of the modern world, is not confined to the culture of protest. It also involves an interpretation of peace: its logic and the method of inquiry it demands.
Q. What was Tagore's attitude towards legacies of Gandhi?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Gifted journalist Ved Mehta, believed that Gandhi was hard to copy. Writing about Martin Luther King's struggle against racism in the United States, Mehta wondered if Gandhi could be replicated in that country. He thought that Gandhi was lucky not to have been born in Leopold's Congo or Stalin's Russia or Hitler's Germany.
In the same article, Mehta recalls a dialogue between Gandhi and Nehru during the non-cooperation movement of the 1920s. On hearing about a violent incident in the Chauri Chaura village of Uttar Pradesh, Gandhi decided to withdraw the first all-India movement he had led. Jawaharlal Nehru asked him, 'Must we train the 300 and odd millions of India in the theory and practice of non-violent action before we (can) move forward?'
Gandhi's reply was short and unequivocal: 'Yes.' Gandhi's rigour did mellow with age and experience, but some of his tall contemporaries remained sceptical of his strategy of mass mobilisation. Tagore foresaw that Gandhi's legacy might prove tough to follow in the absence of his leadership.
However, Gandhi's legacy is complex and evokes some fundamental issues embedded in the theory of peaceful settlement of conflicts. It is useful to visit these issues today when we are in the middle of a mass movement focused on a subject of Gandhi's deep concern: rural economy. Those in the forefront of this movement are farmers. The questions their protest brings into public attention go well beyond the validity of their apprehensions and doubts. Gandhi is highly relevant to these questions. His legacy for India, and the rest of the modern world, is not confined to the culture of protest. It also involves an interpretation of peace: its logic and the method of inquiry it demands.
Q. Why did the author call Gandhi lucky?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Gifted journalist Ved Mehta, believed that Gandhi was hard to copy. Writing about Martin Luther King's struggle against racism in the United States, Mehta wondered if Gandhi could be replicated in that country. He thought that Gandhi was lucky not to have been born in Leopold's Congo or Stalin's Russia or Hitler's Germany.
In the same article, Mehta recalls a dialogue between Gandhi and Nehru during the non-cooperation movement of the 1920s. On hearing about a violent incident in the Chauri Chaura village of Uttar Pradesh, Gandhi decided to withdraw the first all-India movement he had led. Jawaharlal Nehru asked him, 'Must we train the 300 and odd millions of India in the theory and practice of non-violent action before we (can) move forward?'
Gandhi's reply was short and unequivocal: 'Yes.' Gandhi's rigour did mellow with age and experience, but some of his tall contemporaries remained sceptical of his strategy of mass mobilisation. Tagore foresaw that Gandhi's legacy might prove tough to follow in the absence of his leadership.
However, Gandhi's legacy is complex and evokes some fundamental issues embedded in the theory of peaceful settlement of conflicts. It is useful to visit these issues today when we are in the middle of a mass movement focused on a subject of Gandhi's deep concern: rural economy. Those in the forefront of this movement are farmers. The questions their protest brings into public attention go well beyond the validity of their apprehensions and doubts. Gandhi is highly relevant to these questions. His legacy for India, and the rest of the modern world, is not confined to the culture of protest. It also involves an interpretation of peace: its logic and the method of inquiry it demands.
Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Gifted journalist Ved Mehta, believed that Gandhi was hard to copy. Writing about Martin Luther King's struggle against racism in the United States, Mehta wondered if Gandhi could be replicated in that country. He thought that Gandhi was lucky not to have been born in Leopold's Congo or Stalin's Russia or Hitler's Germany.
In the same article, Mehta recalls a dialogue between Gandhi and Nehru during the non-cooperation movement of the 1920s. On hearing about a violent incident in the Chauri Chaura village of Uttar Pradesh, Gandhi decided to withdraw the first all-India movement he had led. Jawaharlal Nehru asked him, 'Must we train the 300 and odd millions of India in the theory and practice of non-violent action before we (can) move forward?'
Gandhi's reply was short and unequivocal: 'Yes.' Gandhi's rigour did mellow with age and experience, but some of his tall contemporaries remained sceptical of his strategy of mass mobilisation. Tagore foresaw that Gandhi's legacy might prove tough to follow in the absence of his leadership.
However, Gandhi's legacy is complex and evokes some fundamental issues embedded in the theory of peaceful settlement of conflicts. It is useful to visit these issues today when we are in the middle of a mass movement focused on a subject of Gandhi's deep concern: rural economy. Those in the forefront of this movement are farmers. The questions their protest brings into public attention go well beyond the validity of their apprehensions and doubts. Gandhi is highly relevant to these questions. His legacy for India, and the rest of the modern world, is not confined to the culture of protest. It also involves an interpretation of peace: its logic and the method of inquiry it demands.
Q. What is the meaning of the word 'unequivocal' as used by the author in the passage?
Direction: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
The time has come when some introspection by the Indian media is required. Many people, not only those in authority but even ordinary people, have started saying that the media have become irresponsible and wayward, and need to be reined in. A couple of days back, the Union government has issued some regulations regarding licences for news channels, to which there was a lot of reaction. Under the Constitution of India, freedom of the media is part of the freedom of speech guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a). However, no freedom can be absolute, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on it. One of the basic tasks of the media is to provide truthful and objective information to the people that will enable them to form rational opinions, which is a sine qua non in a democracy. But are the Indian media performing this role properly?
One of the defects is that the media often twist facts. They would misinterpret words, publish news that are false and defamatory, with the obvious intention of creating a sensation. A second defect concerns the issue of paid news that has become prominent of late. In the 2009 elections, it was a scandal. How this vicious practice could be stopped needs to be discussed. A third defect is that the media often portray non-issues as real issues, while the real issues are sidelined. The real issues in India are economic, that is, the terrible economic conditions in which 80 per cent of our people are living, the poverty, unemployment, lack of housing and medical care and so on. Instead of addressing these real issues, the media often try to divert the attention of people to non-issues.
There are two ways to remove these defects in the media. One is the democratic way, that is, through discussions, consultations and persuasion. The other way is by using harsh measures against the media, for example, by imposing heavy fines on defaulters, stopping government advertisements to them, suspending their licences, and so on.
India is passing through a transitional period in its history, from a feudal agricultural society to a modern industrial society. The media must help society in going through this transitional period as quickly as possible. This they can do by attacking feudal ideas, for example, casteism and communalism, and promoting modern scientific ideas.
Q. Which of the following is a near synonym of the word ‘persuasion’?
Direction: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
The time has come when some introspection by the Indian media is required. Many people, not only those in authority but even ordinary people, have started saying that the media have become irresponsible and wayward, and need to be reined in. A couple of days back, the Union government has issued some regulations regarding licences for news channels, to which there was a lot of reaction. Under the Constitution of India, freedom of the media is part of the freedom of speech guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a). However, no freedom can be absolute, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on it. One of the basic tasks of the media is to provide truthful and objective information to the people that will enable them to form rational opinions, which is a sine qua non in a democracy. But are the Indian media performing this role properly?
One of the defects is that the media often twist facts. They would misinterpret words, publish news that are false and defamatory, with the obvious intention of creating a sensation. A second defect concerns the issue of paid news that has become prominent of late. In the 2009 elections, it was a scandal. How this vicious practice could be stopped needs to be discussed. A third defect is that the media often portray non-issues as real issues, while the real issues are sidelined. The real issues in India are economic, that is, the terrible economic conditions in which 80 per cent of our people are living, the poverty, unemployment, lack of housing and medical care and so on. Instead of addressing these real issues, the media often try to divert the attention of people to non-issues.
There are two ways to remove these defects in the media. One is the democratic way, that is, through discussions, consultations and persuasion. The other way is by using harsh measures against the media, for example, by imposing heavy fines on defaulters, stopping government advertisements to them, suspending their licences, and so on.
India is passing through a transitional period in its history, from a feudal agricultural society to a modern industrial society. The media must help society in going through this transitional period as quickly as possible. This they can do by attacking feudal ideas, for example, casteism and communalism, and promoting modern scientific ideas.
Q. How can the media help the Indian society, which is going through a transitional period?
(i) By attacking prominent people in the society.
(ii) By promoting modern scientific ideas.
(iii) By raising their voice against feudal ideas.
(iv) By attacking casteism and innovative ideas.
Direction: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
The time has come when some introspection by the Indian media is required. Many people, not only those in authority but even ordinary people, have started saying that the media have become irresponsible and wayward, and need to be reined in. A couple of days back, the Union government has issued some regulations regarding licences for news channels, to which there was a lot of reaction. Under the Constitution of India, freedom of the media is part of the freedom of speech guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a). However, no freedom can be absolute, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on it. One of the basic tasks of the media is to provide truthful and objective information to the people that will enable them to form rational opinions, which is a sine qua non in a democracy. But are the Indian media performing this role properly?
One of the defects is that the media often twist facts. They would misinterpret words, publish news that are false and defamatory, with the obvious intention of creating a sensation. A second defect concerns the issue of paid news that has become prominent of late. In the 2009 elections, it was a scandal. How this vicious practice could be stopped needs to be discussed. A third defect is that the media often portray non-issues as real issues, while the real issues are sidelined. The real issues in India are economic, that is, the terrible economic conditions in which 80 per cent of our people are living, the poverty, unemployment, lack of housing and medical care and so on. Instead of addressing these real issues, the media often try to divert the attention of people to non-issues.
There are two ways to remove these defects in the media. One is the democratic way, that is, through discussions, consultations and persuasion. The other way is by using harsh measures against the media, for example, by imposing heavy fines on defaulters, stopping government advertisements to them, suspending their licences, and so on.
India is passing through a transitional period in its history, from a feudal agricultural society to a modern industrial society. The media must help society in going through this transitional period as quickly as possible. This they can do by attacking feudal ideas, for example, casteism and communalism, and promoting modern scientific ideas.
Q. Which of the following is a more democratic way to remove defects in media?
Direction: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
The time has come when some introspection by the Indian media is required. Many people, not only those in authority but even ordinary people, have started saying that the media have become irresponsible and wayward, and need to be reined in. A couple of days back, the Union government has issued some regulations regarding licences for news channels, to which there was a lot of reaction. Under the Constitution of India, freedom of the media is part of the freedom of speech guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a). However, no freedom can be absolute, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on it. One of the basic tasks of the media is to provide truthful and objective information to the people that will enable them to form rational opinions, which is a sine qua non in a democracy. But are the Indian media performing this role properly?
One of the defects is that the media often twist facts. They would misinterpret words, publish news that are false and defamatory, with the obvious intention of creating a sensation. A second defect concerns the issue of paid news that has become prominent of late. In the 2009 elections, it was a scandal. How this vicious practice could be stopped needs to be discussed. A third defect is that the media often portray non-issues as real issues, while the real issues are sidelined. The real issues in India are economic, that is, the terrible economic conditions in which 80 per cent of our people are living, the poverty, unemployment, lack of housing and medical care and so on. Instead of addressing these real issues, the media often try to divert the attention of people to non-issues.
There are two ways to remove these defects in the media. One is the democratic way, that is, through discussions, consultations and persuasion. The other way is by using harsh measures against the media, for example, by imposing heavy fines on defaulters, stopping government advertisements to them, suspending their licences, and so on.
India is passing through a transitional period in its history, from a feudal agricultural society to a modern industrial society. The media must help society in going through this transitional period as quickly as possible. This they can do by attacking feudal ideas, for example, casteism and communalism, and promoting modern scientific ideas.
Q. Which of the following are the defects of the media pointed out by the author?
(i) Media acts as a pillar of democracy.
(ii) Media often twist facts.
(iii) Media encouraging paid news.
(iv) Media giving prominence to non-issues, instead of real issues.
Direction: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
The time has come when some introspection by the Indian media is required. Many people, not only those in authority but even ordinary people, have started saying that the media have become irresponsible and wayward, and need to be reined in. A couple of days back, the Union government has issued some regulations regarding licences for news channels, to which there was a lot of reaction. Under the Constitution of India, freedom of the media is part of the freedom of speech guaranteed by Article 19 (1) (a). However, no freedom can be absolute, and reasonable restrictions can be placed on it. One of the basic tasks of the media is to provide truthful and objective information to the people that will enable them to form rational opinions, which is a sine qua non in a democracy. But are the Indian media performing this role properly?
One of the defects is that the media often twist facts. They would misinterpret words, publish news that are false and defamatory, with the obvious intention of creating a sensation. A second defect concerns the issue of paid news that has become prominent of late. In the 2009 elections, it was a scandal. How this vicious practice could be stopped needs to be discussed. A third defect is that the media often portray non-issues as real issues, while the real issues are sidelined. The real issues in India are economic, that is, the terrible economic conditions in which 80 per cent of our people are living, the poverty, unemployment, lack of housing and medical care and so on. Instead of addressing these real issues, the media often try to divert the attention of people to non-issues.
There are two ways to remove these defects in the media. One is the democratic way, that is, through discussions, consultations and persuasion. The other way is by using harsh measures against the media, for example, by imposing heavy fines on defaulters, stopping government advertisements to them, suspending their licences, and so on.
India is passing through a transitional period in its history, from a feudal agricultural society to a modern industrial society. The media must help society in going through this transitional period as quickly as possible. This they can do by attacking feudal ideas, for example, casteism and communalism, and promoting modern scientific ideas.
Q. Why does the author say that although freedom of the media is part of the freedom of speech guaranteed by the Constitution, the government can issue regulations on media?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
In a unique move, Egypt Post on Thursday released a commemorative postage stamp to celebrate 75 years of diplomatic relations between Egypt and India that were established with Egypt's recognition of the independence of India on 18 August 1947, just three days after India's independence. Over millennia, Egypt and India have long been bound together with historic ties in all fields. This was made possible thanks to the trade contacts that grew along the banks of the river Nile. The two nations got even closer in the 1950s and concluded a historic Friendship Treaty in 1955. During the last couple of years, the traditionally strong bilateral relations enjoyed by the two countries have received an impetus with regular exchange of high-level meetings and contacts between the two sides. The defence partnership is being revived as evident from measures like the visit of Indian Navy ship to Egypt, month long Air Force exercise and visit of Egypt Air Force chief to India in recent months.
Q. Name the currency of Egypt.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
In a unique move, Egypt Post on Thursday released a commemorative postage stamp to celebrate 75 years of diplomatic relations between Egypt and India that were established with Egypt's recognition of the independence of India on 18 August 1947, just three days after India's independence. Over millennia, Egypt and India have long been bound together with historic ties in all fields. This was made possible thanks to the trade contacts that grew along the banks of the river Nile. The two nations got even closer in the 1950s and concluded a historic Friendship Treaty in 1955. During the last couple of years, the traditionally strong bilateral relations enjoyed by the two countries have received an impetus with regular exchange of high-level meetings and contacts between the two sides. The defence partnership is being revived as evident from measures like the visit of Indian Navy ship to Egypt, month long Air Force exercise and visit of Egypt Air Force chief to India in recent months.
Q. As in 2022, who is the Chief of the Air Staff (CAS) in India?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
In a unique move, Egypt Post on Thursday released a commemorative postage stamp to celebrate 75 years of diplomatic relations between Egypt and India that were established with Egypt's recognition of the independence of India on 18 August 1947, just three days after India's independence. Over millennia, Egypt and India have long been bound together with historic ties in all fields. This was made possible thanks to the trade contacts that grew along the banks of the river Nile. The two nations got even closer in the 1950s and concluded a historic Friendship Treaty in 1955. During the last couple of years, the traditionally strong bilateral relations enjoyed by the two countries have received an impetus with regular exchange of high-level meetings and contacts between the two sides. The defence partnership is being revived as evident from measures like the visit of Indian Navy ship to Egypt, month long Air Force exercise and visit of Egypt Air Force chief to India in recent months.
Q. River Nile is the longest river in the world. Which among the following is the longest river in India?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
In a unique move, Egypt Post on Thursday released a commemorative postage stamp to celebrate 75 years of diplomatic relations between Egypt and India that were established with Egypt's recognition of the independence of India on 18 August 1947, just three days after India's independence. Over millennia, Egypt and India have long been bound together with historic ties in all fields. This was made possible thanks to the trade contacts that grew along the banks of the river Nile. The two nations got even closer in the 1950s and concluded a historic Friendship Treaty in 1955. During the last couple of years, the traditionally strong bilateral relations enjoyed by the two countries have received an impetus with regular exchange of high-level meetings and contacts between the two sides. The defence partnership is being revived as evident from measures like the visit of Indian Navy ship to Egypt, month long Air Force exercise and visit of Egypt Air Force chief to India in recent months.
Q. In 1955, Egypt under Gamal Abdel Nasser and India under Jawaharlal Nehru became the founders of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) that emerged during:
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
In a unique move, Egypt Post on Thursday released a commemorative postage stamp to celebrate 75 years of diplomatic relations between Egypt and India that were established with Egypt's recognition of the independence of India on 18 August 1947, just three days after India's independence. Over millennia, Egypt and India have long been bound together with historic ties in all fields. This was made possible thanks to the trade contacts that grew along the banks of the river Nile. The two nations got even closer in the 1950s and concluded a historic Friendship Treaty in 1955. During the last couple of years, the traditionally strong bilateral relations enjoyed by the two countries have received an impetus with regular exchange of high-level meetings and contacts between the two sides. The defence partnership is being revived as evident from measures like the visit of Indian Navy ship to Egypt, month long Air Force exercise and visit of Egypt Air Force chief to India in recent months.
Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.
Statement I: Egypt is a transcontinental country.
Statement II: Cairo is the capital and largest city of Egypt.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Nilambur and Thrissur have joined the UNESCO Global Network of Learning Cities (GNLC) by promoting lifelong learning among its people. The three Indian towns were among the 77 new members from 44 countries to join the GNLC this year. The UNESCO GNLC is an international network consisting of cities that successfully promote lifelong learning across their communities. It has 294 cities in 76 countries that share inspiration, know-how and best practice among each other. According to UNESCO Director General Audrey Azoulay, the newly admitted UNESCO learning cities, including Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal, have a wealth of expertise and commitment in ensuring that the right to education becomes a reality for people of all ages. 'With more than half of humanity living in urban areas, cities have the power to drive lifelong learning policies by implementing and supporting local initiatives and bring bottom-up change', Ms. Azoulay said. Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal were nominated by the National Commission for UNESCO and recommended by a jury of experts considering the city administration's commitment to lifelong learning and its track record of good practices and policy initiatives.
Q. When is the 'International Literacy Day' celebrated?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Nilambur and Thrissur have joined the UNESCO Global Network of Learning Cities (GNLC) by promoting lifelong learning among its people. The three Indian towns were among the 77 new members from 44 countries to join the GNLC this year. The UNESCO GNLC is an international network consisting of cities that successfully promote lifelong learning across their communities. It has 294 cities in 76 countries that share inspiration, know-how and best practice among each other. According to UNESCO Director General Audrey Azoulay, the newly admitted UNESCO learning cities, including Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal, have a wealth of expertise and commitment in ensuring that the right to education becomes a reality for people of all ages. 'With more than half of humanity living in urban areas, cities have the power to drive lifelong learning policies by implementing and supporting local initiatives and bring bottom-up change', Ms. Azoulay said. Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal were nominated by the National Commission for UNESCO and recommended by a jury of experts considering the city administration's commitment to lifelong learning and its track record of good practices and policy initiatives.
Q. Which of the following won the prestigious UNESCO King Sejong Literary Prize 2022, based on the recommendations of an international jury, for its literacy programme?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Nilambur and Thrissur have joined the UNESCO Global Network of Learning Cities (GNLC) by promoting lifelong learning among its people. The three Indian towns were among the 77 new members from 44 countries to join the GNLC this year. The UNESCO GNLC is an international network consisting of cities that successfully promote lifelong learning across their communities. It has 294 cities in 76 countries that share inspiration, know-how and best practice among each other. According to UNESCO Director General Audrey Azoulay, the newly admitted UNESCO learning cities, including Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal, have a wealth of expertise and commitment in ensuring that the right to education becomes a reality for people of all ages. 'With more than half of humanity living in urban areas, cities have the power to drive lifelong learning policies by implementing and supporting local initiatives and bring bottom-up change', Ms. Azoulay said. Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal were nominated by the National Commission for UNESCO and recommended by a jury of experts considering the city administration's commitment to lifelong learning and its track record of good practices and policy initiatives.
Q. UNESCO is a member of the United Nations Sustainable Development Group, a coalition of UN agencies and organisations aimed at fulfilling the 'Sustainable Development Goals' (SDGs). SDGs are a collection of how many interlinked global goals?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Nilambur and Thrissur have joined the UNESCO Global Network of Learning Cities (GNLC) by promoting lifelong learning among its people. The three Indian towns were among the 77 new members from 44 countries to join the GNLC this year. The UNESCO GNLC is an international network consisting of cities that successfully promote lifelong learning across their communities. It has 294 cities in 76 countries that share inspiration, know-how and best practice among each other. According to UNESCO Director General Audrey Azoulay, the newly admitted UNESCO learning cities, including Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal, have a wealth of expertise and commitment in ensuring that the right to education becomes a reality for people of all ages. 'With more than half of humanity living in urban areas, cities have the power to drive lifelong learning policies by implementing and supporting local initiatives and bring bottom-up change', Ms. Azoulay said. Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal were nominated by the National Commission for UNESCO and recommended by a jury of experts considering the city administration's commitment to lifelong learning and its track record of good practices and policy initiatives.
Q. Where is the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization headquartered?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Nilambur and Thrissur have joined the UNESCO Global Network of Learning Cities (GNLC) by promoting lifelong learning among its people. The three Indian towns were among the 77 new members from 44 countries to join the GNLC this year. The UNESCO GNLC is an international network consisting of cities that successfully promote lifelong learning across their communities. It has 294 cities in 76 countries that share inspiration, know-how and best practice among each other. According to UNESCO Director General Audrey Azoulay, the newly admitted UNESCO learning cities, including Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal, have a wealth of expertise and commitment in ensuring that the right to education becomes a reality for people of all ages. 'With more than half of humanity living in urban areas, cities have the power to drive lifelong learning policies by implementing and supporting local initiatives and bring bottom-up change', Ms. Azoulay said. Nilambur, Thrissur and Warangal were nominated by the National Commission for UNESCO and recommended by a jury of experts considering the city administration's commitment to lifelong learning and its track record of good practices and policy initiatives.
Q. Nilambur and Thrissur are located in the state of:
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
'Cryptojacking' attacks on computer systems have gone up by 30%, to 66.7 million in the first half of 2022, compared to the first half of the last year, according to a report by SonicWall, a US-based cyber-security firm. 'While volume increases were widespread, some business sectors were hit harder than the others, such as the finance industry, which saw a rise of 269%', the report said. Cryptojacking is a cyber attack wherein a computing device is hijacked and controlled by the attacker, and its resources are used to illicitly mine cryptocurrency. In most cases, the malicious programme is installed when the user clicks on an unsafe link, or visits an infected website - and unknowingly provides access to their internet-connected device. Terry Greer-King, vice president for EMEA (Europe, Middle East and Africa) at SonicWall, told Tech Monitor that cryptojacking is an appealing alternative for cyber-criminal gangs as it has a lower potential of being detected by the victim; unsuspecting users across the world see their devices get unaccountably slower, but it's hard to tie it to a criminal activity, much less point to the source.
Q. Name the cryptocurrency in relation to which Elon Musk faced a lawsuit.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
'Cryptojacking' attacks on computer systems have gone up by 30%, to 66.7 million in the first half of 2022, compared to the first half of the last year, according to a report by SonicWall, a US-based cyber-security firm. 'While volume increases were widespread, some business sectors were hit harder than the others, such as the finance industry, which saw a rise of 269%', the report said. Cryptojacking is a cyber attack wherein a computing device is hijacked and controlled by the attacker, and its resources are used to illicitly mine cryptocurrency. In most cases, the malicious programme is installed when the user clicks on an unsafe link, or visits an infected website - and unknowingly provides access to their internet-connected device. Terry Greer-King, vice president for EMEA (Europe, Middle East and Africa) at SonicWall, told Tech Monitor that cryptojacking is an appealing alternative for cyber-criminal gangs as it has a lower potential of being detected by the victim; unsuspecting users across the world see their devices get unaccountably slower, but it's hard to tie it to a criminal activity, much less point to the source.
Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.
Assertion (A): Bitcoin is the most popular cryptocurrency in India.
Reason (R): Bitcoin is a new entrant in the digital world.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
'Cryptojacking' attacks on computer systems have gone up by 30%, to 66.7 million in the first half of 2022, compared to the first half of the last year, according to a report by SonicWall, a US-based cyber-security firm. 'While volume increases were widespread, some business sectors were hit harder than the others, such as the finance industry, which saw a rise of 269%', the report said. Cryptojacking is a cyber attack wherein a computing device is hijacked and controlled by the attacker, and its resources are used to illicitly mine cryptocurrency. In most cases, the malicious programme is installed when the user clicks on an unsafe link, or visits an infected website - and unknowingly provides access to their internet-connected device. Terry Greer-King, vice president for EMEA (Europe, Middle East and Africa) at SonicWall, told Tech Monitor that cryptojacking is an appealing alternative for cyber-criminal gangs as it has a lower potential of being detected by the victim; unsuspecting users across the world see their devices get unaccountably slower, but it's hard to tie it to a criminal activity, much less point to the source.
Q. Which of the following are types of cyber-crime?
(a) Hacking
(b) Spoofing
(c) Phishing
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
'Cryptojacking' attacks on computer systems have gone up by 30%, to 66.7 million in the first half of 2022, compared to the first half of the last year, according to a report by SonicWall, a US-based cyber-security firm. 'While volume increases were widespread, some business sectors were hit harder than the others, such as the finance industry, which saw a rise of 269%', the report said. Cryptojacking is a cyber attack wherein a computing device is hijacked and controlled by the attacker, and its resources are used to illicitly mine cryptocurrency. In most cases, the malicious programme is installed when the user clicks on an unsafe link, or visits an infected website - and unknowingly provides access to their internet-connected device. Terry Greer-King, vice president for EMEA (Europe, Middle East and Africa) at SonicWall, told Tech Monitor that cryptojacking is an appealing alternative for cyber-criminal gangs as it has a lower potential of being detected by the victim; unsuspecting users across the world see their devices get unaccountably slower, but it's hard to tie it to a criminal activity, much less point to the source.
Q. Name the primary law that deals with cyber-crime and electronic commerce in India.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
'Cryptojacking' attacks on computer systems have gone up by 30%, to 66.7 million in the first half of 2022, compared to the first half of the last year, according to a report by SonicWall, a US-based cyber-security firm. 'While volume increases were widespread, some business sectors were hit harder than the others, such as the finance industry, which saw a rise of 269%', the report said. Cryptojacking is a cyber attack wherein a computing device is hijacked and controlled by the attacker, and its resources are used to illicitly mine cryptocurrency. In most cases, the malicious programme is installed when the user clicks on an unsafe link, or visits an infected website - and unknowingly provides access to their internet-connected device. Terry Greer-King, vice president for EMEA (Europe, Middle East and Africa) at SonicWall, told Tech Monitor that cryptojacking is an appealing alternative for cyber-criminal gangs as it has a lower potential of being detected by the victim; unsuspecting users across the world see their devices get unaccountably slower, but it's hard to tie it to a criminal activity, much less point to the source.
Q. What is the tax rate on cryptocurrency in India?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.The new British Prime Minister Liz Truss has selected a Cabinet where for the first time a white man will not hold one of the country's four most important ministerial positions. Ms. Truss appointed Kwasi
Kwarteng - whose parents came from Ghana in the 1960s - as Britain's first Black finance minister while James Cleverly is the first Black foreign minister. Cleverly, whose mother hails from Sierra Leone and whose father is white, has in the past spoken about being bullied as a mixed-race child and has said the party needs to do more to attract Black voters. Suella Braverman, whose parents came to Britain from Kenya and Mauritius six decades ago, succeeded Priti Patel as the second ethnic minority home secretary, or interior minister, where she will be responsible for police and immigration. British governments have until a few decades ago been made up of mostly white men. It took until 2002 for Britain to appoint its first ethnic minority cabinet minister when Paul Boateng was appointed chief secretary to the Treasury. Rishi Sunak, whose parents came from India, was Kwarteng's predecessor in the finance job and the runner-up to Truss in the leadership context.
Q. Which of the following was one of the scandals associated with the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.The new British Prime Minister Liz Truss has selected a Cabinet where for the first time a white man will not hold one of the country's four most important ministerial positions. Ms. Truss appointed Kwasi
Kwarteng - whose parents came from Ghana in the 1960s - as Britain's first Black finance minister while James Cleverly is the first Black foreign minister. Cleverly, whose mother hails from Sierra Leone and whose father is white, has in the past spoken about being bullied as a mixed-race child and has said the party needs to do more to attract Black voters. Suella Braverman, whose parents came to Britain from Kenya and Mauritius six decades ago, succeeded Priti Patel as the second ethnic minority home secretary, or interior minister, where she will be responsible for police and immigration. British governments have until a few decades ago been made up of mostly white men. It took until 2002 for Britain to appoint its first ethnic minority cabinet minister when Paul Boateng was appointed chief secretary to the Treasury. Rishi Sunak, whose parents came from India, was Kwarteng's predecessor in the finance job and the runner-up to Truss in the leadership context.
Q. The United Kingdom is a _________.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.The new British Prime Minister Liz Truss has selected a Cabinet where for the first time a white man will not hold one of the country's four most important ministerial positions. Ms. Truss appointed Kwasi
Kwarteng - whose parents came from Ghana in the 1960s - as Britain's first Black finance minister while James Cleverly is the first Black foreign minister. Cleverly, whose mother hails from Sierra Leone and whose father is white, has in the past spoken about being bullied as a mixed-race child and has said the party needs to do more to attract Black voters. Suella Braverman, whose parents came to Britain from Kenya and Mauritius six decades ago, succeeded Priti Patel as the second ethnic minority home secretary, or interior minister, where she will be responsible for police and immigration. British governments have until a few decades ago been made up of mostly white men. It took until 2002 for Britain to appoint its first ethnic minority cabinet minister when Paul Boateng was appointed chief secretary to the Treasury. Rishi Sunak, whose parents came from India, was Kwarteng's predecessor in the finance job and the runner-up to Truss in the leadership context.
Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.
Statement I: The United Kingdom is a sovereign country in Europe.
Statement II: It comprises England, Wales, Scotland, and Northern Ireland.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.The new British Prime Minister Liz Truss has selected a Cabinet where for the first time a white man will not hold one of the country's four most important ministerial positions. Ms. Truss appointed Kwasi
Kwarteng - whose parents came from Ghana in the 1960s - as Britain's first Black finance minister while James Cleverly is the first Black foreign minister. Cleverly, whose mother hails from Sierra Leone and whose father is white, has in the past spoken about being bullied as a mixed-race child and has said the party needs to do more to attract Black voters. Suella Braverman, whose parents came to Britain from Kenya and Mauritius six decades ago, succeeded Priti Patel as the second ethnic minority home secretary, or interior minister, where she will be responsible for police and immigration. British governments have until a few decades ago been made up of mostly white men. It took until 2002 for Britain to appoint its first ethnic minority cabinet minister when Paul Boateng was appointed chief secretary to the Treasury. Rishi Sunak, whose parents came from India, was Kwarteng's predecessor in the finance job and the runner-up to Truss in the leadership context.
Q. Who was the Prime Minister of England when India got its independence?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.The new British Prime Minister Liz Truss has selected a Cabinet where for the first time a white man will not hold one of the country's four most important ministerial positions. Ms. Truss appointed Kwasi
Kwarteng - whose parents came from Ghana in the 1960s - as Britain's first Black finance minister while James Cleverly is the first Black foreign minister. Cleverly, whose mother hails from Sierra Leone and whose father is white, has in the past spoken about being bullied as a mixed-race child and has said the party needs to do more to attract Black voters. Suella Braverman, whose parents came to Britain from Kenya and Mauritius six decades ago, succeeded Priti Patel as the second ethnic minority home secretary, or interior minister, where she will be responsible for police and immigration. British governments have until a few decades ago been made up of mostly white men. It took until 2002 for Britain to appoint its first ethnic minority cabinet minister when Paul Boateng was appointed chief secretary to the Treasury. Rishi Sunak, whose parents came from India, was Kwarteng's predecessor in the finance job and the runner-up to Truss in the leadership context.
Q. Whom did Liz Truss succeed as the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom on 6th September, 2022?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On August 30, when Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev, who is credited with ending the Cold War, passed away at 91, the dichotomous reaction told a story. Leaders of the West led by the UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres said the world had lost a towering, global leader who had changed the course of history. While Russian President Vladimir Putin sent his deepest condolences and placed red roses beside Gorbachev's coffin, he did not attend the funeral because of a full schedule. At home, Gorbachev's legacy is complicated. He came to power in 1985, and unfurled a process of reforms which were necessary, but he was unable to stop the fall of the Soviet Union. Many Russians put the blame for the turmoil that followed on Gorbachev. Tracing the finals days of the Soviet Union, which collapsed in 1991, in The Last Empire, the historian, Serhii Plokhy, writes that the man at the centre of the events was Gorbachev who had the most to gain or lose from the way things turned out.
Q. The 'Western Bloc' of the 'Cold War' is also known as the NATO bloc. In which year did NATO come into existence?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On August 30, when Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev, who is credited with ending the Cold War, passed away at 91, the dichotomous reaction told a story. Leaders of the West led by the UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres said the world had lost a towering, global leader who had changed the course of history. While Russian President Vladimir Putin sent his deepest condolences and placed red roses beside Gorbachev's coffin, he did not attend the funeral because of a full schedule. At home, Gorbachev's legacy is complicated. He came to power in 1985, and unfurled a process of reforms which were necessary, but he was unable to stop the fall of the Soviet Union. Many Russians put the blame for the turmoil that followed on Gorbachev. Tracing the finals days of the Soviet Union, which collapsed in 1991, in The Last Empire, the historian, Serhii Plokhy, writes that the man at the centre of the events was Gorbachev who had the most to gain or lose from the way things turned out.
Q. Gorbachev's actions led to the breakup of the Soviet Union. It was nominally a federal union of how many republics?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On August 30, when Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev, who is credited with ending the Cold War, passed away at 91, the dichotomous reaction told a story. Leaders of the West led by the UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres said the world had lost a towering, global leader who had changed the course of history. While Russian President Vladimir Putin sent his deepest condolences and placed red roses beside Gorbachev's coffin, he did not attend the funeral because of a full schedule. At home, Gorbachev's legacy is complicated. He came to power in 1985, and unfurled a process of reforms which were necessary, but he was unable to stop the fall of the Soviet Union. Many Russians put the blame for the turmoil that followed on Gorbachev. Tracing the finals days of the Soviet Union, which collapsed in 1991, in The Last Empire, the historian, Serhii Plokhy, writes that the man at the centre of the events was Gorbachev who had the most to gain or lose from the way things turned out.
Q. Name the territory of Ukraine that was annexed by Russia in 2014.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On August 30, when Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev, who is credited with ending the Cold War, passed away at 91, the dichotomous reaction told a story. Leaders of the West led by the UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres said the world had lost a towering, global leader who had changed the course of history. While Russian President Vladimir Putin sent his deepest condolences and placed red roses beside Gorbachev's coffin, he did not attend the funeral because of a full schedule. At home, Gorbachev's legacy is complicated. He came to power in 1985, and unfurled a process of reforms which were necessary, but he was unable to stop the fall of the Soviet Union. Many Russians put the blame for the turmoil that followed on Gorbachev. Tracing the finals days of the Soviet Union, which collapsed in 1991, in The Last Empire, the historian, Serhii Plokhy, writes that the man at the centre of the events was Gorbachev who had the most to gain or lose from the way things turned out.
Q. There are two very famous terms associated with Mikhail Gorbachev, i.e. glasnost and perestroika, meaning ________ and _________ respectively.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On August 30, when Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev, who is credited with ending the Cold War, passed away at 91, the dichotomous reaction told a story. Leaders of the West led by the UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres said the world had lost a towering, global leader who had changed the course of history. While Russian President Vladimir Putin sent his deepest condolences and placed red roses beside Gorbachev's coffin, he did not attend the funeral because of a full schedule. At home, Gorbachev's legacy is complicated. He came to power in 1985, and unfurled a process of reforms which were necessary, but he was unable to stop the fall of the Soviet Union. Many Russians put the blame for the turmoil that followed on Gorbachev. Tracing the finals days of the Soviet Union, which collapsed in 1991, in The Last Empire, the historian, Serhii Plokhy, writes that the man at the centre of the events was Gorbachev who had the most to gain or lose from the way things turned out.
Q. Which among the following statements is incorrect about the 'Cold War'?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On 19 December, 1994, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September to be the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, commemorating the date when the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was signed in 1987. The day was first celebrated on September 16, 1995. The adoption of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer 35 years ago marked a turning point in environmental history. The Protocol has become a symbol of what global cooperation can achieve if people unite and work together to protect the environment. On this thirty-fifth anniversary, we will remember how the Montreal Protocol ended one of the biggest threats ever to face humanity: the depletion of the ozone layer. When the world found out that man-made chemicals used in aerosol sprays and cooling were creating a hole in the sky, they came together. By 2008, it was the first and only UN environmental agreement to be ratified by every country in the world. With over 99 per cent of ozone-depleting substances now phased out, the ozone layer is healing.
Q. The ozone layer is one of the layers of the ________.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On 19 December, 1994, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September to be the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, commemorating the date when the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was signed in 1987. The day was first celebrated on September 16, 1995. The adoption of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer 35 years ago marked a turning point in environmental history. The Protocol has become a symbol of what global cooperation can achieve if people unite and work together to protect the environment. On this thirty-fifth anniversary, we will remember how the Montreal Protocol ended one of the biggest threats ever to face humanity: the depletion of the ozone layer. When the world found out that man-made chemicals used in aerosol sprays and cooling were creating a hole in the sky, they came together. By 2008, it was the first and only UN environmental agreement to be ratified by every country in the world. With over 99 per cent of ozone-depleting substances now phased out, the ozone layer is healing.
Q. On 16th September 2009, the Vienna Convention and the Montreal Protocol became the first treaties in the history of the United Nations to achieve universal ratification. When did Vienna Convention come into force?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On 19 December, 1994, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September to be the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, commemorating the date when the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was signed in 1987. The day was first celebrated on September 16, 1995. The adoption of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer 35 years ago marked a turning point in environmental history. The Protocol has become a symbol of what global cooperation can achieve if people unite and work together to protect the environment. On this thirty-fifth anniversary, we will remember how the Montreal Protocol ended one of the biggest threats ever to face humanity: the depletion of the ozone layer. When the world found out that man-made chemicals used in aerosol sprays and cooling were creating a hole in the sky, they came together. By 2008, it was the first and only UN environmental agreement to be ratified by every country in the world. With over 99 per cent of ozone-depleting substances now phased out, the ozone layer is healing.
Q. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) established an international environmental treaty to combat dangerous human interference with the climate system. Where was it signed?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On 19 December, 1994, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September to be the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, commemorating the date when the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was signed in 1987. The day was first celebrated on September 16, 1995. The adoption of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer 35 years ago marked a turning point in environmental history. The Protocol has become a symbol of what global cooperation can achieve if people unite and work together to protect the environment. On this thirty-fifth anniversary, we will remember how the Montreal Protocol ended one of the biggest threats ever to face humanity: the depletion of the ozone layer. When the world found out that man-made chemicals used in aerosol sprays and cooling were creating a hole in the sky, they came together. By 2008, it was the first and only UN environmental agreement to be ratified by every country in the world. With over 99 per cent of ozone-depleting substances now phased out, the ozone layer is healing.
Q. Mark the incorrect statement(s) about the Montreal Protocol.
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
On 19 December, 1994, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 16 September to be the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, commemorating the date when the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer was signed in 1987. The day was first celebrated on September 16, 1995. The adoption of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer 35 years ago marked a turning point in environmental history. The Protocol has become a symbol of what global cooperation can achieve if people unite and work together to protect the environment. On this thirty-fifth anniversary, we will remember how the Montreal Protocol ended one of the biggest threats ever to face humanity: the depletion of the ozone layer. When the world found out that man-made chemicals used in aerosol sprays and cooling were creating a hole in the sky, they came together. By 2008, it was the first and only UN environmental agreement to be ratified by every country in the world. With over 99 per cent of ozone-depleting substances now phased out, the ozone layer is healing.
Q. What was the theme of the World Ozone Day 2022?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Shri Narayan Rane, Minister, MSME in presence of Shri Manoj Kumar Chairman, KVIC inaugurated 72 Units assisted under PMEGP and Disbursement of Margin Money Subsidy to 720 PMEGP Beneficiaries on 17th September 2022 at KVIC Office, Mumbai on Prime Minister's birthday. In his inaugural speech Shri Rane said in order to build Aatmanirbhar Bharat, make in India is the motto of our Organisation. He appreciated that KVIC is dedicatedly engaged in this mission of Prime Minister to create job opportunity and increase the production. Giving thrust on good quality, he emphasized on increasing export. He also urged to follow the mantra of punctuality, sincerity and discipline for self-reliant and Aatmanirbhar Bharat. On this occasion Prime Minister had online live Conversation with the new Entrepreneurs from Sindhadurg, Maharashtra, Himachal, Jammu and Karnataka. Under this Scheme KVIC has sanctioned 25105 projects and generated employment for 200840 people and released 802.19 crore MM (margin money) upto 2022-2023 as on 15.09.2022 and expected performance of 720 projects, 5760 employment and 27.43 crore of MM. KVIC Chairman ascribed this quantum jump in employment creation to the Prime Minister's push for local manufacturing to achieve self-reliance.
Q. In which year was Khadi launched as a political weapon in the 'Swadeshi movement' of Mahatma Gandhi?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Shri Narayan Rane, Minister, MSME in presence of Shri Manoj Kumar Chairman, KVIC inaugurated 72 Units assisted under PMEGP and Disbursement of Margin Money Subsidy to 720 PMEGP Beneficiaries on 17th September 2022 at KVIC Office, Mumbai on Prime Minister's birthday. In his inaugural speech Shri Rane said in order to build Aatmanirbhar Bharat, make in India is the motto of our Organisation. He appreciated that KVIC is dedicatedly engaged in this mission of Prime Minister to create job opportunity and increase the production. Giving thrust on good quality, he emphasized on increasing export. He also urged to follow the mantra of punctuality, sincerity and discipline for self-reliant and Aatmanirbhar Bharat. On this occasion Prime Minister had online live Conversation with the new Entrepreneurs from Sindhadurg, Maharashtra, Himachal, Jammu and Karnataka. Under this Scheme KVIC has sanctioned 25105 projects and generated employment for 200840 people and released 802.19 crore MM (margin money) upto 2022-2023 as on 15.09.2022 and expected performance of 720 projects, 5760 employment and 27.43 crore of MM. KVIC Chairman ascribed this quantum jump in employment creation to the Prime Minister's push for local manufacturing to achieve self-reliance.
Q. Under which act of parliament was KVIC formed?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Shri Narayan Rane, Minister, MSME in presence of Shri Manoj Kumar Chairman, KVIC inaugurated 72 Units assisted under PMEGP and Disbursement of Margin Money Subsidy to 720 PMEGP Beneficiaries on 17th September 2022 at KVIC Office, Mumbai on Prime Minister's birthday. In his inaugural speech Shri Rane said in order to build Aatmanirbhar Bharat, make in India is the motto of our Organisation. He appreciated that KVIC is dedicatedly engaged in this mission of Prime Minister to create job opportunity and increase the production. Giving thrust on good quality, he emphasized on increasing export. He also urged to follow the mantra of punctuality, sincerity and discipline for self-reliant and Aatmanirbhar Bharat. On this occasion Prime Minister had online live Conversation with the new Entrepreneurs from Sindhadurg, Maharashtra, Himachal, Jammu and Karnataka. Under this Scheme KVIC has sanctioned 25105 projects and generated employment for 200840 people and released 802.19 crore MM (margin money) upto 2022-2023 as on 15.09.2022 and expected performance of 720 projects, 5760 employment and 27.43 crore of MM. KVIC Chairman ascribed this quantum jump in employment creation to the Prime Minister's push for local manufacturing to achieve self-reliance.
Q. What is the full form of KVIC?
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Shri Narayan Rane, Minister, MSME in presence of Shri Manoj Kumar Chairman, KVIC inaugurated 72 Units assisted under PMEGP and Disbursement of Margin Money Subsidy to 720 PMEGP Beneficiaries on 17th September 2022 at KVIC Office, Mumbai on Prime Minister's birthday. In his inaugural speech Shri Rane said in order to build Aatmanirbhar Bharat, make in India is the motto of our Organisation. He appreciated that KVIC is dedicatedly engaged in this mission of Prime Minister to create job opportunity and increase the production. Giving thrust on good quality, he emphasized on increasing export. He also urged to follow the mantra of punctuality, sincerity and discipline for self-reliant and Aatmanirbhar Bharat. On this occasion Prime Minister had online live Conversation with the new Entrepreneurs from Sindhadurg, Maharashtra, Himachal, Jammu and Karnataka. Under this Scheme KVIC has sanctioned 25105 projects and generated employment for 200840 people and released 802.19 crore MM (margin money) upto 2022-2023 as on 15.09.2022 and expected performance of 720 projects, 5760 employment and 27.43 crore of MM. KVIC Chairman ascribed this quantum jump in employment creation to the Prime Minister's push for local manufacturing to achieve self-reliance.
Q. Which of the following two schemes were merged to launch PMEGP?
(a) Prime Minister's Rojgar Yojana
(b) Rural Employment Generation Programme
(c) Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana
(d) National Career Service (NCS) Project
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the question that follows.
Shri Narayan Rane, Minister, MSME in presence of Shri Manoj Kumar Chairman, KVIC inaugurated 72 Units assisted under PMEGP and Disbursement of Margin Money Subsidy to 720 PMEGP Beneficiaries on 17th September 2022 at KVIC Office, Mumbai on Prime Minister's birthday. In his inaugural speech Shri Rane said in order to build Aatmanirbhar Bharat, make in India is the motto of our Organisation. He appreciated that KVIC is dedicatedly engaged in this mission of Prime Minister to create job opportunity and increase the production. Giving thrust on good quality, he emphasized on increasing export. He also urged to follow the mantra of punctuality, sincerity and discipline for self-reliant and Aatmanirbhar Bharat. On this occasion Prime Minister had online live Conversation with the new Entrepreneurs from Sindhadurg, Maharashtra, Himachal, Jammu and Karnataka. Under this Scheme KVIC has sanctioned 25105 projects and generated employment for 200840 people and released 802.19 crore MM (margin money) upto 2022-2023 as on 15.09.2022 and expected performance of 720 projects, 5760 employment and 27.43 crore of MM. KVIC Chairman ascribed this quantum jump in employment creation to the Prime Minister's push for local manufacturing to achieve self-reliance.
Q. When was Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) launched?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The term indemnity literally means security against loss. In a contract of indemnity, one party, i.e. the indemnifier, promise to compensate the other party, i.e. the indemnified, against the loss suffered by the other. The English law defines a contract of indemnity as a promise to save a person harmless from the consequences of an act. Thus, it includes within its ambit losses caused not merely by human agency, but also those caused by accident or fire or other natural calamities. As per Section 124 of the Contract Act, a contract of indemnity is that contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person.
The definition provided by the Indian Contract Act confines itself to the losses occasioned due to the act of the promisor or due to the act of any other person. Under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself, or as per the terms in the indemnity contract. Every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency.
Section 124 deals with one particular kind of indemnity which arises from a promise made by an indemnifier to save the indemnified from the loss caused to him by the conduct of the indemnifier himself or by the conduct of any other person, but does not deal with those classes of cases where the indemnity arises from loss caused by events or accidents which do not depend upon the conduct of indemnifier or any other person.
In a contract of indemnity, there are two parties, i.e. indemnifier and indemnified. A contract of guarantee involves three parties, i.e. creditor, principal debtor and surety. An indemnity is for reimbursement of a loss, while a guarantee is for security of the creditor. In a contract of indemnity, the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee, the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.
Q. A takes credit from B for starting a new business and on the insistence of B, A appoints C as surety. A's business venture was immensely hit by the recession in the market and he fails to pay his dues. B sues C for the money which he owes from A. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The term indemnity literally means security against loss. In a contract of indemnity, one party, i.e. the indemnifier, promise to compensate the other party, i.e. the indemnified, against the loss suffered by the other. The English law defines a contract of indemnity as a promise to save a person harmless from the consequences of an act. Thus, it includes within its ambit losses caused not merely by human agency, but also those caused by accident or fire or other natural calamities. As per Section 124 of the Contract Act, a contract of indemnity is that contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person.
The definition provided by the Indian Contract Act confines itself to the losses occasioned due to the act of the promisor or due to the act of any other person. Under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself, or as per the terms in the indemnity contract. Every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency.
Section 124 deals with one particular kind of indemnity which arises from a promise made by an indemnifier to save the indemnified from the loss caused to him by the conduct of the indemnifier himself or by the conduct of any other person, but does not deal with those classes of cases where the indemnity arises from loss caused by events or accidents which do not depend upon the conduct of indemnifier or any other person.
In a contract of indemnity, there are two parties, i.e. indemnifier and indemnified. A contract of guarantee involves three parties, i.e. creditor, principal debtor and surety. An indemnity is for reimbursement of a loss, while a guarantee is for security of the creditor. In a contract of indemnity, the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee, the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.
Q. X, a foreigner, promises to indemnify Y if his business in U.K. suffers any loss. Y's business gets destroyed due to floods in the city. Can Y claim indemnity?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The term indemnity literally means security against loss. In a contract of indemnity, one party, i.e. the indemnifier, promise to compensate the other party, i.e. the indemnified, against the loss suffered by the other. The English law defines a contract of indemnity as a promise to save a person harmless from the consequences of an act. Thus, it includes within its ambit losses caused not merely by human agency, but also those caused by accident or fire or other natural calamities. As per Section 124 of the Contract Act, a contract of indemnity is that contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person.
The definition provided by the Indian Contract Act confines itself to the losses occasioned due to the act of the promisor or due to the act of any other person. Under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself, or as per the terms in the indemnity contract. Every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency.
Section 124 deals with one particular kind of indemnity which arises from a promise made by an indemnifier to save the indemnified from the loss caused to him by the conduct of the indemnifier himself or by the conduct of any other person, but does not deal with those classes of cases where the indemnity arises from loss caused by events or accidents which do not depend upon the conduct of indemnifier or any other person.
In a contract of indemnity, there are two parties, i.e. indemnifier and indemnified. A contract of guarantee involves three parties, i.e. creditor, principal debtor and surety. An indemnity is for reimbursement of a loss, while a guarantee is for security of the creditor. In a contract of indemnity, the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee, the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.
Q. A and B enter into a contract of indemnity. A promises B to indemnify B in case of any damage to his car, while he is driving. B's servant crashes the car. Can B claim indemnity?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The term indemnity literally means security against loss. In a contract of indemnity, one party, i.e. the indemnifier, promise to compensate the other party, i.e. the indemnified, against the loss suffered by the other. The English law defines a contract of indemnity as a promise to save a person harmless from the consequences of an act. Thus, it includes within its ambit losses caused not merely by human agency, but also those caused by accident or fire or other natural calamities. As per Section 124 of the Contract Act, a contract of indemnity is that contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person.
The definition provided by the Indian Contract Act confines itself to the losses occasioned due to the act of the promisor or due to the act of any other person. Under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself, or as per the terms in the indemnity contract. Every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency.
Section 124 deals with one particular kind of indemnity which arises from a promise made by an indemnifier to save the indemnified from the loss caused to him by the conduct of the indemnifier himself or by the conduct of any other person, but does not deal with those classes of cases where the indemnity arises from loss caused by events or accidents which do not depend upon the conduct of indemnifier or any other person.
In a contract of indemnity, there are two parties, i.e. indemnifier and indemnified. A contract of guarantee involves three parties, i.e. creditor, principal debtor and surety. An indemnity is for reimbursement of a loss, while a guarantee is for security of the creditor. In a contract of indemnity, the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee, the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.
Q. Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The term indemnity literally means security against loss. In a contract of indemnity, one party, i.e. the indemnifier, promise to compensate the other party, i.e. the indemnified, against the loss suffered by the other. The English law defines a contract of indemnity as a promise to save a person harmless from the consequences of an act. Thus, it includes within its ambit losses caused not merely by human agency, but also those caused by accident or fire or other natural calamities. As per Section 124 of the Contract Act, a contract of indemnity is that contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person.
The definition provided by the Indian Contract Act confines itself to the losses occasioned due to the act of the promisor or due to the act of any other person. Under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself, or as per the terms in the indemnity contract. Every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency.
Section 124 deals with one particular kind of indemnity which arises from a promise made by an indemnifier to save the indemnified from the loss caused to him by the conduct of the indemnifier himself or by the conduct of any other person, but does not deal with those classes of cases where the indemnity arises from loss caused by events or accidents which do not depend upon the conduct of indemnifier or any other person.
In a contract of indemnity, there are two parties, i.e. indemnifier and indemnified. A contract of guarantee involves three parties, i.e. creditor, principal debtor and surety. An indemnity is for reimbursement of a loss, while a guarantee is for security of the creditor. In a contract of indemnity, the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee, the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.
Q. A promises B to indemnify him in case his house is damaged by fire. B negligently lights up a firecracker in his house and burns it down. Now B wants to claim indemnity. Can B claim the reimbursement?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The term indemnity literally means security against loss. In a contract of indemnity, one party, i.e. the indemnifier, promise to compensate the other party, i.e. the indemnified, against the loss suffered by the other. The English law defines a contract of indemnity as a promise to save a person harmless from the consequences of an act. Thus, it includes within its ambit losses caused not merely by human agency, but also those caused by accident or fire or other natural calamities. As per Section 124 of the Contract Act, a contract of indemnity is that contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person.
The definition provided by the Indian Contract Act confines itself to the losses occasioned due to the act of the promisor or due to the act of any other person. Under a contract of indemnity, liability of the promisor arises from loss caused to the promisee by the conduct of the promisor himself, or as per the terms in the indemnity contract. Every contract of insurance, other than life insurance, is a contract of indemnity. The definition is restricted to cases where loss has been caused by some human agency.
Section 124 deals with one particular kind of indemnity which arises from a promise made by an indemnifier to save the indemnified from the loss caused to him by the conduct of the indemnifier himself or by the conduct of any other person, but does not deal with those classes of cases where the indemnity arises from loss caused by events or accidents which do not depend upon the conduct of indemnifier or any other person.
In a contract of indemnity, there are two parties, i.e. indemnifier and indemnified. A contract of guarantee involves three parties, i.e. creditor, principal debtor and surety. An indemnity is for reimbursement of a loss, while a guarantee is for security of the creditor. In a contract of indemnity, the liability of the indemnifier is primary and arises when the contingent event occurs. In case of contract of guarantee, the liability of surety is secondary and arises when the principal debtor defaults. The indemnifier after performing his part of the promise has no rights against the third party and he can sue the third party only if there is an assignment in his favour. Whereas in a contract of guarantee, the surety steps into the shoes of the creditor on discharge of his liability, and may sue the principal debtor.
Q. A hires B to kill C. A and B enter into an indemnity agreement, wherein B will be reimbursed if B is hurt or injured in the process of killing C. B gets hurt when he tries to kill C. Can B claim the reimbursement?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The terms robbery, theft, and extortion are very similar and even used interchangeably at times in everyday usage. However, in the legal sense and within the ambit on the Indian Penal Code, 1860 these terms are distinct and have been very clearly defined as distinct crimes. The demarcation between these is given under section 390 of the Penal Code.
Extortion has been defined under Section 383 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. According to the code, any person who intentionally puts another in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly induces him/her to deliver any property or any valuable security or anything signed or sealed which can be converted into a valuable security is said to have committed extortion. The person committing the offense intentionally puts the victim in fear of injury. The fear of injury must be to such an extent that it is capable of unsettling the mind of the victim and making him give his property. The person committing the offense must dishonestly induce the victim so to put in fear to part with his (the victim's) property.
Robbery is defined by the Black's Law Dictionary as the felonious act of taking the personal property in the possession of another from his person or immediate presence against his will accomplished using force and fear, with an intention of permanently depriving the true owner of the thing in question.
Extortion is 'robbery' if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to that person, or to some other person, and by so putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted. When a person commits extortion by putting another in the fear of instant death, wrongful restraint or hurt, then the offender induces the person under such fear to deliver the property at that very instant; then and there. The offender is in the near presence of such a person put in fear at the time of extortion.
Robbery differs from extortion in that the property is taken against the will and without the consent of the victim, unlike extortion, where the victim consents, although unwillingly, to surrender money or property. Another distinguishing factor is that the nature of the threat for robbery is limited to immediate physical harm to the victim or his or her home. Extortion, on the other hand, encompasses a greater variety of threats.
Q. Meshu threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Sonia unless Sonia gives her money. Meshu induces Sonia and in turn, Sonia delivers her the money. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The terms robbery, theft, and extortion are very similar and even used interchangeably at times in everyday usage. However, in the legal sense and within the ambit on the Indian Penal Code, 1860 these terms are distinct and have been very clearly defined as distinct crimes. The demarcation between these is given under section 390 of the Penal Code.
Extortion has been defined under Section 383 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. According to the code, any person who intentionally puts another in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly induces him/her to deliver any property or any valuable security or anything signed or sealed which can be converted into a valuable security is said to have committed extortion. The person committing the offense intentionally puts the victim in fear of injury. The fear of injury must be to such an extent that it is capable of unsettling the mind of the victim and making him give his property. The person committing the offense must dishonestly induce the victim so to put in fear to part with his (the victim's) property.
Robbery is defined by the Black's Law Dictionary as the felonious act of taking the personal property in the possession of another from his person or immediate presence against his will accomplished using force and fear, with an intention of permanently depriving the true owner of the thing in question.
Extortion is 'robbery' if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to that person, or to some other person, and by so putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted. When a person commits extortion by putting another in the fear of instant death, wrongful restraint or hurt, then the offender induces the person under such fear to deliver the property at that very instant; then and there. The offender is in the near presence of such a person put in fear at the time of extortion.
Robbery differs from extortion in that the property is taken against the will and without the consent of the victim, unlike extortion, where the victim consents, although unwillingly, to surrender money or property. Another distinguishing factor is that the nature of the threat for robbery is limited to immediate physical harm to the victim or his or her home. Extortion, on the other hand, encompasses a greater variety of threats.
Q. Pranav received several threatening letters over a period of time from an unknown person demanding Rs. 2,00,000 and transfer of his parental property to his brother. Pranav over a period of time felt that someone is constantly following him. Pranav took the letter to the police. Pranav's brother was charged for extortion. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The terms robbery, theft, and extortion are very similar and even used interchangeably at times in everyday usage. However, in the legal sense and within the ambit on the Indian Penal Code, 1860 these terms are distinct and have been very clearly defined as distinct crimes. The demarcation between these is given under section 390 of the Penal Code.
Extortion has been defined under Section 383 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. According to the code, any person who intentionally puts another in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly induces him/her to deliver any property or any valuable security or anything signed or sealed which can be converted into a valuable security is said to have committed extortion. The person committing the offense intentionally puts the victim in fear of injury. The fear of injury must be to such an extent that it is capable of unsettling the mind of the victim and making him give his property. The person committing the offense must dishonestly induce the victim so to put in fear to part with his (the victim's) property.
Robbery is defined by the Black's Law Dictionary as the felonious act of taking the personal property in the possession of another from his person or immediate presence against his will accomplished using force and fear, with an intention of permanently depriving the true owner of the thing in question.
Extortion is 'robbery' if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to that person, or to some other person, and by so putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted. When a person commits extortion by putting another in the fear of instant death, wrongful restraint or hurt, then the offender induces the person under such fear to deliver the property at that very instant; then and there. The offender is in the near presence of such a person put in fear at the time of extortion.
Robbery differs from extortion in that the property is taken against the will and without the consent of the victim, unlike extortion, where the victim consents, although unwillingly, to surrender money or property. Another distinguishing factor is that the nature of the threat for robbery is limited to immediate physical harm to the victim or his or her home. Extortion, on the other hand, encompasses a greater variety of threats.
Q. Ajit obtains property from Rahul by saying,"Your child is in the hands of my gang, and will be put to death unless you send us ten lakh rupees". Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The terms robbery, theft, and extortion are very similar and even used interchangeably at times in everyday usage. However, in the legal sense and within the ambit on the Indian Penal Code, 1860 these terms are distinct and have been very clearly defined as distinct crimes. The demarcation between these is given under section 390 of the Penal Code.
Extortion has been defined under Section 383 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. According to the code, any person who intentionally puts another in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly induces him/her to deliver any property or any valuable security or anything signed or sealed which can be converted into a valuable security is said to have committed extortion. The person committing the offense intentionally puts the victim in fear of injury. The fear of injury must be to such an extent that it is capable of unsettling the mind of the victim and making him give his property. The person committing the offense must dishonestly induce the victim so to put in fear to part with his (the victim's) property.
Robbery is defined by the Black's Law Dictionary as the felonious act of taking the personal property in the possession of another from his person or immediate presence against his will accomplished using force and fear, with an intention of permanently depriving the true owner of the thing in question.
Extortion is 'robbery' if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to that person, or to some other person, and by so putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted. When a person commits extortion by putting another in the fear of instant death, wrongful restraint or hurt, then the offender induces the person under such fear to deliver the property at that very instant; then and there. The offender is in the near presence of such a person put in fear at the time of extortion.
Robbery differs from extortion in that the property is taken against the will and without the consent of the victim, unlike extortion, where the victim consents, although unwillingly, to surrender money or property. Another distinguishing factor is that the nature of the threat for robbery is limited to immediate physical harm to the victim or his or her home. Extortion, on the other hand, encompasses a greater variety of threats.
Q. Tanvi was travelling from Delhi to Agra. Tanvi's car broke down on the way while commuting. She thought of taking a lift on the way. She met Rajat in order to avail help from him. Instead, Rajat showed a pistol to her and demanded her purse. Tanvi in consequence, initially refused to surrender her purse, later in fear she surrendered. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The terms robbery, theft, and extortion are very similar and even used interchangeably at times in everyday usage. However, in the legal sense and within the ambit on the Indian Penal Code, 1860 these terms are distinct and have been very clearly defined as distinct crimes. The demarcation between these is given under section 390 of the Penal Code.
Extortion has been defined under Section 383 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. According to the code, any person who intentionally puts another in fear of injury and thereby dishonestly induces him/her to deliver any property or any valuable security or anything signed or sealed which can be converted into a valuable security is said to have committed extortion. The person committing the offense intentionally puts the victim in fear of injury. The fear of injury must be to such an extent that it is capable of unsettling the mind of the victim and making him give his property. The person committing the offense must dishonestly induce the victim so to put in fear to part with his (the victim's) property.
Robbery is defined by the Black's Law Dictionary as the felonious act of taking the personal property in the possession of another from his person or immediate presence against his will accomplished using force and fear, with an intention of permanently depriving the true owner of the thing in question.
Extortion is 'robbery' if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to that person, or to some other person, and by so putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted. When a person commits extortion by putting another in the fear of instant death, wrongful restraint or hurt, then the offender induces the person under such fear to deliver the property at that very instant; then and there. The offender is in the near presence of such a person put in fear at the time of extortion.
Robbery differs from extortion in that the property is taken against the will and without the consent of the victim, unlike extortion, where the victim consents, although unwillingly, to surrender money or property. Another distinguishing factor is that the nature of the threat for robbery is limited to immediate physical harm to the victim or his or her home. Extortion, on the other hand, encompasses a greater variety of threats.
Q. Madhu living in Mathura is a single mother, who lives with her 10 year old daughter. Madhu hired Raju to cook lunch for them. One afternoon, Raju with his friend threatened Madhu that they would kill her daughter if she doesn't surrender all her ornaments and cash to both of them. She refused to do the same and fought in rebellion. Raju and his friend forcefully took the ornaments and cash with them. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 10 deals with the doctrine of res sub-judice. 'Res' means 'matter or litigation' and 'sub-judice' means 'pending (under judgement)'. Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res sub-judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits.
No court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court.
'Res judicata' means a final judicial decision pronounced by a judicial tribunal having competent jurisdiction over the cause or matter in litigation and over the parties thereto. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, embodies the rule of res judicata or the rule of conclusiveness of the judgement, as to the points decided either of facts, or of law, or of facts and law, in every subsequent suit between the same parties. It enacts that once a matter is finally decided by a competent court, no party can be permitted to reopen it in a subsequent litigation. To constitute a matter as res judicata under Section 11, certain conditions need to be fulfilled. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit or issue must be the same matter which was directly and substantially in issue either actually or constructively in the former suit. The former suit must have been a suit between the same parties or between parties under whom they or any of them claim. Such parties must have been litigating under the same title in the former suit. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit must have been heard and finally decided by the court in the former suit.
Q. A sues B for the possession of property X based on a sale deed in his favour. B impugns the deed as fictitious. The plea is upheld and the suit is dismissed. A subsequent suit for property Y, on the basis of the same sale deed, is filed by A against B. Is the second suit maintainable?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 10 deals with the doctrine of res sub-judice. 'Res' means 'matter or litigation' and 'sub-judice' means 'pending (under judgement)'. Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res sub-judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits.
No court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court.
'Res judicata' means a final judicial decision pronounced by a judicial tribunal having competent jurisdiction over the cause or matter in litigation and over the parties thereto. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, embodies the rule of res judicata or the rule of conclusiveness of the judgement, as to the points decided either of facts, or of law, or of facts and law, in every subsequent suit between the same parties. It enacts that once a matter is finally decided by a competent court, no party can be permitted to reopen it in a subsequent litigation. To constitute a matter as res judicata under Section 11, certain conditions need to be fulfilled. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit or issue must be the same matter which was directly and substantially in issue either actually or constructively in the former suit. The former suit must have been a suit between the same parties or between parties under whom they or any of them claim. Such parties must have been litigating under the same title in the former suit. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit must have been heard and finally decided by the court in the former suit.
Q. Amar was an agent of Samar, who lived in Kanpur. Amar agreed to sell Samar's goods in Bhatinda. Amar filed a suit for balance of the unpaid payment in Bhatinda. Samar sues Amar for accounts and his negligence in Kanpur; while the case is pending in Bhatinda. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 10 deals with the doctrine of res sub-judice. 'Res' means 'matter or litigation' and 'sub-judice' means 'pending (under judgement)'. Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res sub-judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits.
No court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court.
'Res judicata' means a final judicial decision pronounced by a judicial tribunal having competent jurisdiction over the cause or matter in litigation and over the parties thereto. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, embodies the rule of res judicata or the rule of conclusiveness of the judgement, as to the points decided either of facts, or of law, or of facts and law, in every subsequent suit between the same parties. It enacts that once a matter is finally decided by a competent court, no party can be permitted to reopen it in a subsequent litigation. To constitute a matter as res judicata under Section 11, certain conditions need to be fulfilled. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit or issue must be the same matter which was directly and substantially in issue either actually or constructively in the former suit. The former suit must have been a suit between the same parties or between parties under whom they or any of them claim. Such parties must have been litigating under the same title in the former suit. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit must have been heard and finally decided by the court in the former suit.
Q. Aman (the tenant) files for a permanent injuction against Brij (the landlord) for not to be dispossessed except by due process of law pleading that Brij is planning to forcibly dispossess him. During the pendency of above suit, Brij attempts to forcibly dispose Aman. Aman files another suit for injuction.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 10 deals with the doctrine of res sub-judice. 'Res' means 'matter or litigation' and 'sub-judice' means 'pending (under judgement)'. Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res sub-judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits.
No court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court.
'Res judicata' means a final judicial decision pronounced by a judicial tribunal having competent jurisdiction over the cause or matter in litigation and over the parties thereto. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, embodies the rule of res judicata or the rule of conclusiveness of the judgement, as to the points decided either of facts, or of law, or of facts and law, in every subsequent suit between the same parties. It enacts that once a matter is finally decided by a competent court, no party can be permitted to reopen it in a subsequent litigation. To constitute a matter as res judicata under Section 11, certain conditions need to be fulfilled. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit or issue must be the same matter which was directly and substantially in issue either actually or constructively in the former suit. The former suit must have been a suit between the same parties or between parties under whom they or any of them claim. Such parties must have been litigating under the same title in the former suit. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit must have been heard and finally decided by the court in the former suit.
Q. Zia sues for the possession of property as an heir of Mohan. The suit is dismissed on his failure to produce the succession certificate. Zia files subsequent suit as manager of the prprepty. Is the suit barred?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Section 10 deals with the doctrine of res sub-judice. 'Res' means 'matter or litigation' and 'sub-judice' means 'pending (under judgement)'. Conjoining the two, it implies that the rule of Res sub-judice relates to a matter which is pending judicial enquiry. In other words, this rule applies where a matter is already pending before a competent court for the purpose of adjudication Section 10 of CPC deals with the stay of civil suits.
No court shall proceed with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim litigating under the same title where such suit is pending in the same or any other court in India having jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed, or in any court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government and having like jurisdiction, or before the Supreme Court.
'Res judicata' means a final judicial decision pronounced by a judicial tribunal having competent jurisdiction over the cause or matter in litigation and over the parties thereto. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, embodies the rule of res judicata or the rule of conclusiveness of the judgement, as to the points decided either of facts, or of law, or of facts and law, in every subsequent suit between the same parties. It enacts that once a matter is finally decided by a competent court, no party can be permitted to reopen it in a subsequent litigation. To constitute a matter as res judicata under Section 11, certain conditions need to be fulfilled. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit or issue must be the same matter which was directly and substantially in issue either actually or constructively in the former suit. The former suit must have been a suit between the same parties or between parties under whom they or any of them claim. Such parties must have been litigating under the same title in the former suit. The matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit must have been heard and finally decided by the court in the former suit.
Q. Ajay sues Bhavuk for rent. Bhavuk contends that Chandan is the landlord not Ajay. Ajay fails to prove his title and the suit is dismissed. Ajay then sues Bhavuk and Chandan for a declaration of his title to the property. Whether the suit is barred?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
A criminal conspiracy is an agreement to commit an unlawful act. The agreement itself is the crime, but at least one co-conspirator must take an 'overt act' in furtherance of the conspiracy. Under the federal conspiracy statute:
The agreement by two or more persons is the essence of the crime. If there is no agreement, there can be no conspiracy. The co-conspirators must agree to commit a federal crime or to defraud any federal agency in any manner and for any purpose. At least one co-conspirator must take an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy.
This overt act itself need not be performed by the active participation of all members of the conspiracy; one co-conspirator's overt act is enough.
For example, one co-conspirator's rental of a van – a perfectly legal act – to be used in a bank robbery is sufficient for his co-conspirators to be held criminally accountable for their agreement to rob the bank, even if no other steps are taken.
A co-conspirator must have knowledge of the agreement and its unlawful objectives, but it isn't necessary for a conspiracy to succeed in its unlawful objective. A defendant can be convicted of conspiracy, yet be acquitted of the substantive crime he conspired to commit.
If the facts support it, a prosecutor will almost always charge conspiracy. It is frequently included along with securities fraud, bank fraud, insurance fraud, and mail or wire fraud charges in white collar criminal cases. In one year alone, federal prosecutors charged conspiracy in nearly 1,000 cases.
A conspiracy charge provides the government with numerous advantages. For one, every member of the conspiracy is responsible for the criminal acts of others taken in furtherance of the conspiracy, so a conspiracy charge can dramatically enhance the consequences of a guilty verdict for any single defendant. For another, evidentiary rules are relaxed for the statements of co-conspirators, making it easier for prosecutors to present the jury with incriminating evidence.
To withdraw from a conspiracy, an individual must take some action to make clear his departure from the conspiracy, such as reporting the conspiracy to authorities. An individual who withdraws from a conspiracy can be held accountable for acts committed while he was a member but not those committed after he withdraws.
Q. B, C, F and G agreed to wage a war against the government of India. B procured arms in Europe, C collected money in Kolkata and F, from Delhi, transmitted the money, which C collected in Kolkata, to G in Kabul. Will this amount to criminal conspiracy?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
A criminal conspiracy is an agreement to commit an unlawful act. The agreement itself is the crime, but at least one co-conspirator must take an 'overt act' in furtherance of the conspiracy. Under the federal conspiracy statute:
The agreement by two or more persons is the essence of the crime. If there is no agreement, there can be no conspiracy. The co-conspirators must agree to commit a federal crime or to defraud any federal agency in any manner and for any purpose. At least one co-conspirator must take an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy.
This overt act itself need not be performed by the active participation of all members of the conspiracy; one co-conspirator's overt act is enough.
For example, one co-conspirator's rental of a van – a perfectly legal act – to be used in a bank robbery is sufficient for his co-conspirators to be held criminally accountable for their agreement to rob the bank, even if no other steps are taken.
A co-conspirator must have knowledge of the agreement and its unlawful objectives, but it isn't necessary for a conspiracy to succeed in its unlawful objective. A defendant can be convicted of conspiracy, yet be acquitted of the substantive crime he conspired to commit.
If the facts support it, a prosecutor will almost always charge conspiracy. It is frequently included along with securities fraud, bank fraud, insurance fraud, and mail or wire fraud charges in white collar criminal cases. In one year alone, federal prosecutors charged conspiracy in nearly 1,000 cases.
A conspiracy charge provides the government with numerous advantages. For one, every member of the conspiracy is responsible for the criminal acts of others taken in furtherance of the conspiracy, so a conspiracy charge can dramatically enhance the consequences of a guilty verdict for any single defendant. For another, evidentiary rules are relaxed for the statements of co-conspirators, making it easier for prosecutors to present the jury with incriminating evidence.
To withdraw from a conspiracy, an individual must take some action to make clear his departure from the conspiracy, such as reporting the conspiracy to authorities. An individual who withdraws from a conspiracy can be held accountable for acts committed while he was a member but not those committed after he withdraws.
Q. Jonny, living in Assam, and Jinny, from Punjab, for a very long time had been involved in the business of money laundering. They were caught by the government and had a suit filed against them. They gave a plea that they never got into a written agreement for it. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
A criminal conspiracy is an agreement to commit an unlawful act. The agreement itself is the crime, but at least one co-conspirator must take an 'overt act' in furtherance of the conspiracy. Under the federal conspiracy statute:
The agreement by two or more persons is the essence of the crime. If there is no agreement, there can be no conspiracy. The co-conspirators must agree to commit a federal crime or to defraud any federal agency in any manner and for any purpose. At least one co-conspirator must take an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy.
This overt act itself need not be performed by the active participation of all members of the conspiracy; one co-conspirator's overt act is enough.
For example, one co-conspirator's rental of a van – a perfectly legal act – to be used in a bank robbery is sufficient for his co-conspirators to be held criminally accountable for their agreement to rob the bank, even if no other steps are taken.
A co-conspirator must have knowledge of the agreement and its unlawful objectives, but it isn't necessary for a conspiracy to succeed in its unlawful objective. A defendant can be convicted of conspiracy, yet be acquitted of the substantive crime he conspired to commit.
If the facts support it, a prosecutor will almost always charge conspiracy. It is frequently included along with securities fraud, bank fraud, insurance fraud, and mail or wire fraud charges in white collar criminal cases. In one year alone, federal prosecutors charged conspiracy in nearly 1,000 cases.
A conspiracy charge provides the government with numerous advantages. For one, every member of the conspiracy is responsible for the criminal acts of others taken in furtherance of the conspiracy, so a conspiracy charge can dramatically enhance the consequences of a guilty verdict for any single defendant. For another, evidentiary rules are relaxed for the statements of co-conspirators, making it easier for prosecutors to present the jury with incriminating evidence.
To withdraw from a conspiracy, an individual must take some action to make clear his departure from the conspiracy, such as reporting the conspiracy to authorities. An individual who withdraws from a conspiracy can be held accountable for acts committed while he was a member but not those committed after he withdraws.
Q. Sachin was the Branch Manager of MNL Ltd. Bank. A fraud had been materialised with the active co-operation of Sachin as he had given approval of the documents for the same, thereby causing monetary loss to the bank. Sachin was charged with the offence of committing conspiracy with four others, who were later on acquitted. Will this be termed as criminal conspiracy?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
A criminal conspiracy is an agreement to commit an unlawful act. The agreement itself is the crime, but at least one co-conspirator must take an 'overt act' in furtherance of the conspiracy. Under the federal conspiracy statute:
The agreement by two or more persons is the essence of the crime. If there is no agreement, there can be no conspiracy. The co-conspirators must agree to commit a federal crime or to defraud any federal agency in any manner and for any purpose. At least one co-conspirator must take an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy.
This overt act itself need not be performed by the active participation of all members of the conspiracy; one co-conspirator's overt act is enough.
For example, one co-conspirator's rental of a van – a perfectly legal act – to be used in a bank robbery is sufficient for his co-conspirators to be held criminally accountable for their agreement to rob the bank, even if no other steps are taken.
A co-conspirator must have knowledge of the agreement and its unlawful objectives, but it isn't necessary for a conspiracy to succeed in its unlawful objective. A defendant can be convicted of conspiracy, yet be acquitted of the substantive crime he conspired to commit.
If the facts support it, a prosecutor will almost always charge conspiracy. It is frequently included along with securities fraud, bank fraud, insurance fraud, and mail or wire fraud charges in white collar criminal cases. In one year alone, federal prosecutors charged conspiracy in nearly 1,000 cases.
A conspiracy charge provides the government with numerous advantages. For one, every member of the conspiracy is responsible for the criminal acts of others taken in furtherance of the conspiracy, so a conspiracy charge can dramatically enhance the consequences of a guilty verdict for any single defendant. For another, evidentiary rules are relaxed for the statements of co-conspirators, making it easier for prosecutors to present the jury with incriminating evidence.
To withdraw from a conspiracy, an individual must take some action to make clear his departure from the conspiracy, such as reporting the conspiracy to authorities. An individual who withdraws from a conspiracy can be held accountable for acts committed while he was a member but not those committed after he withdraws.
Q. X, Y, Z agreed to commit R's murder. Out of these three, X without any doubt is involved in the murder. The other two might or might not be involved because the evidence against them is beyond any doubt. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
A criminal conspiracy is an agreement to commit an unlawful act. The agreement itself is the crime, but at least one co-conspirator must take an 'overt act' in furtherance of the conspiracy. Under the federal conspiracy statute:
The agreement by two or more persons is the essence of the crime. If there is no agreement, there can be no conspiracy. The co-conspirators must agree to commit a federal crime or to defraud any federal agency in any manner and for any purpose. At least one co-conspirator must take an overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy.
This overt act itself need not be performed by the active participation of all members of the conspiracy; one co-conspirator's overt act is enough.
For example, one co-conspirator's rental of a van – a perfectly legal act – to be used in a bank robbery is sufficient for his co-conspirators to be held criminally accountable for their agreement to rob the bank, even if no other steps are taken.
A co-conspirator must have knowledge of the agreement and its unlawful objectives, but it isn't necessary for a conspiracy to succeed in its unlawful objective. A defendant can be convicted of conspiracy, yet be acquitted of the substantive crime he conspired to commit.
If the facts support it, a prosecutor will almost always charge conspiracy. It is frequently included along with securities fraud, bank fraud, insurance fraud, and mail or wire fraud charges in white collar criminal cases. In one year alone, federal prosecutors charged conspiracy in nearly 1,000 cases.
A conspiracy charge provides the government with numerous advantages. For one, every member of the conspiracy is responsible for the criminal acts of others taken in furtherance of the conspiracy, so a conspiracy charge can dramatically enhance the consequences of a guilty verdict for any single defendant. For another, evidentiary rules are relaxed for the statements of co-conspirators, making it easier for prosecutors to present the jury with incriminating evidence.
To withdraw from a conspiracy, an individual must take some action to make clear his departure from the conspiracy, such as reporting the conspiracy to authorities. An individual who withdraws from a conspiracy can be held accountable for acts committed while he was a member but not those committed after he withdraws.
Q. Bhavuk, husband of Charu, had a connection with Pooja. Pooja wanted to Murder Charu in order to marry Bhavuk. Bhavuk instead of telling Pooja's intention to Charu, told Pooja that Charu would be going for a solo trip on a particular date and place. Pooja murdered Charu on the particular date and place. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Insurance is a contract between two persons, an insurer and insured; it is where one person indemnifies the other on payment of consideration which is the premium in the event of happening of uncertain events. There are many kinds of insurances and motor vehicles insurance is one of them and is governed by the Motor Vehicles Act 1939. Every vehicle plying on road has to have compulsory third party insurance so that the insurance company can indemnify the insured against the claims made by the injured person. This was done so that the injured person should not suffer in case the motorist fails to pay to the injured. Under such situations the insurer indemnifies the insured against his liability to third parties. It is known as third party insurance because the beneficiary in this insurance is someone other than the insured and insurer. The liability is fastened on the insurer, and it is unlimited liability in case death or bodily harm is suffered by the third party. Third party insurance is a compulsory insurance under a statute and no person shall use a motor vehicle, except as a passenger, in a public place unless unless there is a policy of insurance complying with the requirements of the MV Act. This has been made amply clear by section 146(1) of the motor vehicles Act, 1988. It will be applicable even when the vehicle is stationary and not moving. The use does not cease on vehicle being immobile or defective. The third party insurance should be from an authorized insurer who is carrying on motor insurance business in India. Third party insurance does not cover injuries to the insured himself but to the rest of the world who is injured by the insured. However, Gratuitous passengers too are not covered under third party insurance as that would render superfluous the intention of the legislature which has taken within its purview the owner of the goods or his authorized representative carried in the vehicle. Also, the persons traveling in a goods vehicle except owner of the goods or his authorised representative would not be covered by the compulsory third party insurance. Regarding transferability of third party insurance it was held in the year 1980 that motor vehicle insurance being a personal contract, the insured cannot transferred the benefits under the policy without the consent of the insurer, or unless there is a stipulation in the policy itself.
Q. X was going towards his office and seeking to get a cab. A cab stopped by him. To X's surprise, his friend Y was driving the cab & already had a passenger Z who had to be dropped at the building adjacent to X's office. Y told X that he will drop him as he was already paid fare by Z. X sat on front seat next to Y. On the way Y got so entangled in talks with X that he overlooked the traffic light & jumped the red light resulting in a fatal collision with a bus. X, Y & Z died on the spot. Claim was made to the insurance company. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Insurance is a contract between two persons, an insurer and insured; it is where one person indemnifies the other on payment of consideration which is the premium in the event of happening of uncertain events. There are many kinds of insurances and motor vehicles insurance is one of them and is governed by the Motor Vehicles Act 1939. Every vehicle plying on road has to have compulsory third party insurance so that the insurance company can indemnify the insured against the claims made by the injured person. This was done so that the injured person should not suffer in case the motorist fails to pay to the injured. Under such situations the insurer indemnifies the insured against his liability to third parties. It is known as third party insurance because the beneficiary in this insurance is someone other than the insured and insurer. The liability is fastened on the insurer, and it is unlimited liability in case death or bodily harm is suffered by the third party. Third party insurance is a compulsory insurance under a statute and no person shall use a motor vehicle, except as a passenger, in a public place unless unless there is a policy of insurance complying with the requirements of the MV Act. This has been made amply clear by section 146(1) of the motor vehicles Act, 1988. It will be applicable even when the vehicle is stationary and not moving. The use does not cease on vehicle being immobile or defective. The third party insurance should be from an authorized insurer who is carrying on motor insurance business in India. Third party insurance does not cover injuries to the insured himself but to the rest of the world who is injured by the insured. However, Gratuitous passengers too are not covered under third party insurance as that would render superfluous the intention of the legislature which has taken within its purview the owner of the goods or his authorized representative carried in the vehicle. Also, the persons traveling in a goods vehicle except owner of the goods or his authorised representative would not be covered by the compulsory third party insurance. Regarding transferability of third party insurance it was held in the year 1980 that motor vehicle insurance being a personal contract, the insured cannot transferred the benefits under the policy without the consent of the insurer, or unless there is a stipulation in the policy itself.
Q. Shera, by way of sale gave his Range-Rover car along with all relevant documents including the insurance papers to Salman. Salman on second day of the purchase in drunken state crushed & killed slum-dwellers sleeping on footpath. Salman was asked to compensate the family members of the deceased. However, Salman initiated a suit against the insurance company to fulfill the claim as the vehicle was insured. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Insurance is a contract between two persons, an insurer and insured; it is where one person indemnifies the other on payment of consideration which is the premium in the event of happening of uncertain events. There are many kinds of insurances and motor vehicles insurance is one of them and is governed by the Motor Vehicles Act 1939. Every vehicle plying on road has to have compulsory third party insurance so that the insurance company can indemnify the insured against the claims made by the injured person. This was done so that the injured person should not suffer in case the motorist fails to pay to the injured. Under such situations the insurer indemnifies the insured against his liability to third parties. It is known as third party insurance because the beneficiary in this insurance is someone other than the insured and insurer. The liability is fastened on the insurer, and it is unlimited liability in case death or bodily harm is suffered by the third party. Third party insurance is a compulsory insurance under a statute and no person shall use a motor vehicle, except as a passenger, in a public place unless unless there is a policy of insurance complying with the requirements of the MV Act. This has been made amply clear by section 146(1) of the motor vehicles Act, 1988. It will be applicable even when the vehicle is stationary and not moving. The use does not cease on vehicle being immobile or defective. The third party insurance should be from an authorized insurer who is carrying on motor insurance business in India. Third party insurance does not cover injuries to the insured himself but to the rest of the world who is injured by the insured. However, Gratuitous passengers too are not covered under third party insurance as that would render superfluous the intention of the legislature which has taken within its purview the owner of the goods or his authorized representative carried in the vehicle. Also, the persons traveling in a goods vehicle except owner of the goods or his authorised representative would not be covered by the compulsory third party insurance. Regarding transferability of third party insurance it was held in the year 1980 that motor vehicle insurance being a personal contract, the insured cannot transferred the benefits under the policy without the consent of the insurer, or unless there is a stipulation in the policy itself.
Q. Mundu was loading heavy iron rods on a lorry which were cylindrical in shape and were having sword like tip on both ends. Meanwhile, the lorry driver to warm up the engine turned on the ignition, however the lorry being stationed in gear got a jolt due to the same, making enough turbulance that the rods drifted out from lorry. Mundu now was standing out of truck after loading all rods & rods pierced through his body, scrambling his head and puncturing his stomach. Mundu died on the spot. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Insurance is a contract between two persons, an insurer and insured; it is where one person indemnifies the other on payment of consideration which is the premium in the event of happening of uncertain events. There are many kinds of insurances and motor vehicles insurance is one of them and is governed by the Motor Vehicles Act 1939. Every vehicle plying on road has to have compulsory third party insurance so that the insurance company can indemnify the insured against the claims made by the injured person. This was done so that the injured person should not suffer in case the motorist fails to pay to the injured. Under such situations the insurer indemnifies the insured against his liability to third parties. It is known as third party insurance because the beneficiary in this insurance is someone other than the insured and insurer. The liability is fastened on the insurer, and it is unlimited liability in case death or bodily harm is suffered by the third party. Third party insurance is a compulsory insurance under a statute and no person shall use a motor vehicle, except as a passenger, in a public place unless unless there is a policy of insurance complying with the requirements of the MV Act. This has been made amply clear by section 146(1) of the motor vehicles Act, 1988. It will be applicable even when the vehicle is stationary and not moving. The use does not cease on vehicle being immobile or defective. The third party insurance should be from an authorized insurer who is carrying on motor insurance business in India. Third party insurance does not cover injuries to the insured himself but to the rest of the world who is injured by the insured. However, Gratuitous passengers too are not covered under third party insurance as that would render superfluous the intention of the legislature which has taken within its purview the owner of the goods or his authorized representative carried in the vehicle. Also, the persons traveling in a goods vehicle except owner of the goods or his authorised representative would not be covered by the compulsory third party insurance. Regarding transferability of third party insurance it was held in the year 1980 that motor vehicle insurance being a personal contract, the insured cannot transferred the benefits under the policy without the consent of the insurer, or unless there is a stipulation in the policy itself.
Q. Singham was sitting in his car enjoying loud music, while it was parked in the parking-lot of a residential complex. A traffic-police officer was passing by & because of the loud music approached him & asked for the documents of the vehicle. Singham furnished all available documents. The officer found that the insurance of vehicle had expired a day-ago so Singham was issued a challan for the same. Singham challenged the challan in court. Will the challan be cancelled?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Insurance is a contract between two persons, an insurer and insured; it is where one person indemnifies the other on payment of consideration which is the premium in the event of happening of uncertain events. There are many kinds of insurances and motor vehicles insurance is one of them and is governed by the Motor Vehicles Act 1939. Every vehicle plying on road has to have compulsory third party insurance so that the insurance company can indemnify the insured against the claims made by the injured person. This was done so that the injured person should not suffer in case the motorist fails to pay to the injured. Under such situations the insurer indemnifies the insured against his liability to third parties. It is known as third party insurance because the beneficiary in this insurance is someone other than the insured and insurer. The liability is fastened on the insurer, and it is unlimited liability in case death or bodily harm is suffered by the third party. Third party insurance is a compulsory insurance under a statute and no person shall use a motor vehicle, except as a passenger, in a public place unless unless there is a policy of insurance complying with the requirements of the MV Act. This has been made amply clear by section 146(1) of the motor vehicles Act, 1988. It will be applicable even when the vehicle is stationary and not moving. The use does not cease on vehicle being immobile or defective. The third party insurance should be from an authorized insurer who is carrying on motor insurance business in India. Third party insurance does not cover injuries to the insured himself but to the rest of the world who is injured by the insured. However, Gratuitous passengers too are not covered under third party insurance as that would render superfluous the intention of the legislature which has taken within its purview the owner of the goods or his authorized representative carried in the vehicle. Also, the persons traveling in a goods vehicle except owner of the goods or his authorised representative would not be covered by the compulsory third party insurance. Regarding transferability of third party insurance it was held in the year 1980 that motor vehicle insurance being a personal contract, the insured cannot transferred the benefits under the policy without the consent of the insurer, or unless there is a stipulation in the policy itself.
Q. X, a native of Maharashtra, was travelling solo in Himachal Pardesh. He was hitch-hiking while moving from one district to another. On an evening, he asked a truck driver to take him along to Manali from Mandi as he overheard that his truck was going there. The truck driver was travelling along with his 2 companions, so he asked X to manage to sit on the terrace of cabin, as the lorry was fully loaded with bags of cement. X agreed to do so. While going downhill on a curve, the driver applied brakes all of a sudden resulting in X falling into the trench facing the curve. X was found hanging on a tree, dead.
Parents of X claimed compensation from the insurer of truck. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Cattle slaughter, especially cow slaughter, is a controversial topic in India because of the cattle's traditional status as an endeared and respected living being to some sects of Hindus, Jains, Zoroastrians, and Buddhists, while being considered an acceptable source of meat by Muslims. Legislation against cattle slaughter is in place throughout most states of India. On 26th October 2005, the Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgement, upheld the constitutional validity of anti-cow slaughter laws enacted by different state governments in India. 20 out of 29 states in India currently have various laws regulating act of slaughtered cow, prohibiting the slaughter or sale of cows. Kerala, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura and West Bengal are the states where there are no restrictions on cow slaughter. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955 mentions that slaughter of cow, bull, bullock, ox, heifer and cow's calf is prohibited.
The same and points hereafter mentioned are applicable in states where slaughter or sale of cows is prohibited. However, there are exceptions for slaughter in case the suffering renders the destruction desirable according to the Veterinary Officer, if it is found out by such officer that the above-mentioned cattle has contagious or infectious disease or it is necessary to terminate it otherwise. The second exception is experimentation in the interest of medical and public health research by a certified practitioner for developing medicine for animals, humans and crops. Also, the sale of beef or beef products is prohibited except for prescribed medical purposes.
Cow slaughter as well as sale of beef invites an imprisonment which may extend to 5 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 2000. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 1981 inserted S.4A which prohibits the export of cows for the purpose of slaughter except when a permit is granted by an authorised officer (in accordance with S.4B). Also, Section 9A was inserted which permits the seizure of vehicles in which the cows are found as well as the protection of persons acting in good faith, which means that no suit or other legal proceedings shall be instituted against any person for anything which is done or intended to be done in good faith under the Act or rules made under the Act.
The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 2011 prescribes penalty for non-compliance of permit requirement for the export of cows and imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 1000 (for contravention of S.4B), and there is also a penalty for slaughter, sale of beef, export of cow without permit which invites an imprisonment up to 10 years and/or a fine which may extend to Rs. 10,000. The offences are cognisable and non-bailable.
Q. Z, a resident of UP, was employed in a dairy farm. One day, he and his wife managed to get hold of a calf of one of the imported buffaloes and killed it for food as they both were fond of red meat. His owner came to know about the act and handed them to police for the slaughter of calf. The police charged them under the Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955, and both were sentenced to imprisonment of 10 years for the slaughtering by the court. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Cattle slaughter, especially cow slaughter, is a controversial topic in India because of the cattle's traditional status as an endeared and respected living being to some sects of Hindus, Jains, Zoroastrians, and Buddhists, while being considered an acceptable source of meat by Muslims. Legislation against cattle slaughter is in place throughout most states of India. On 26th October 2005, the Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgement, upheld the constitutional validity of anti-cow slaughter laws enacted by different state governments in India. 20 out of 29 states in India currently have various laws regulating act of slaughtered cow, prohibiting the slaughter or sale of cows. Kerala, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura and West Bengal are the states where there are no restrictions on cow slaughter. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955 mentions that slaughter of cow, bull, bullock, ox, heifer and cow's calf is prohibited.
The same and points hereafter mentioned are applicable in states where slaughter or sale of cows is prohibited. However, there are exceptions for slaughter in case the suffering renders the destruction desirable according to the Veterinary Officer, if it is found out by such officer that the above-mentioned cattle has contagious or infectious disease or it is necessary to terminate it otherwise. The second exception is experimentation in the interest of medical and public health research by a certified practitioner for developing medicine for animals, humans and crops. Also, the sale of beef or beef products is prohibited except for prescribed medical purposes.
Cow slaughter as well as sale of beef invites an imprisonment which may extend to 5 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 2000. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 1981 inserted S.4A which prohibits the export of cows for the purpose of slaughter except when a permit is granted by an authorised officer (in accordance with S.4B). Also, Section 9A was inserted which permits the seizure of vehicles in which the cows are found as well as the protection of persons acting in good faith, which means that no suit or other legal proceedings shall be instituted against any person for anything which is done or intended to be done in good faith under the Act or rules made under the Act.
The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 2011 prescribes penalty for non-compliance of permit requirement for the export of cows and imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 1000 (for contravention of S.4B), and there is also a penalty for slaughter, sale of beef, export of cow without permit which invites an imprisonment up to 10 years and/or a fine which may extend to Rs. 10,000. The offences are cognisable and non-bailable.
Q. X, a person suffering from a venereal disease, consulted a yogic practitioner regarding his disease. The practitioner advised him to consume beef for a month as it would alleviate X's medical condition. X, for the said medical purpose, could buy beef lasting for three weeks only; so he bought a cow and chopped its limbs as per requirement on weekly basis for the cow's meat. He was arrested for the same under the Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955, as he did so in one of the 20 states. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Cattle slaughter, especially cow slaughter, is a controversial topic in India because of the cattle's traditional status as an endeared and respected living being to some sects of Hindus, Jains, Zoroastrians, and Buddhists, while being considered an acceptable source of meat by Muslims. Legislation against cattle slaughter is in place throughout most states of India. On 26th October 2005, the Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgement, upheld the constitutional validity of anti-cow slaughter laws enacted by different state governments in India. 20 out of 29 states in India currently have various laws regulating act of slaughtered cow, prohibiting the slaughter or sale of cows. Kerala, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura and West Bengal are the states where there are no restrictions on cow slaughter. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955 mentions that slaughter of cow, bull, bullock, ox, heifer and cow's calf is prohibited.
The same and points hereafter mentioned are applicable in states where slaughter or sale of cows is prohibited. However, there are exceptions for slaughter in case the suffering renders the destruction desirable according to the Veterinary Officer, if it is found out by such officer that the above-mentioned cattle has contagious or infectious disease or it is necessary to terminate it otherwise. The second exception is experimentation in the interest of medical and public health research by a certified practitioner for developing medicine for animals, humans and crops. Also, the sale of beef or beef products is prohibited except for prescribed medical purposes.
Cow slaughter as well as sale of beef invites an imprisonment which may extend to 5 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 2000. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 1981 inserted S.4A which prohibits the export of cows for the purpose of slaughter except when a permit is granted by an authorised officer (in accordance with S.4B). Also, Section 9A was inserted which permits the seizure of vehicles in which the cows are found as well as the protection of persons acting in good faith, which means that no suit or other legal proceedings shall be instituted against any person for anything which is done or intended to be done in good faith under the Act or rules made under the Act.
The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 2011 prescribes penalty for non-compliance of permit requirement for the export of cows and imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 1000 (for contravention of S.4B), and there is also a penalty for slaughter, sale of beef, export of cow without permit which invites an imprisonment up to 10 years and/or a fine which may extend to Rs. 10,000. The offences are cognisable and non-bailable.
Q. Tyrion Lannister, a foreigner from King's Landing, during his visit to India slaughtered a cow in Mizoram and brought its meat to Punjab on demand of his friends, who were residents of Punjab. Also, Tyrion on request of his brother exported a small portion of beef to King's Landing. He was prosecuted under the Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955 for his acts. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Cattle slaughter, especially cow slaughter, is a controversial topic in India because of the cattle's traditional status as an endeared and respected living being to some sects of Hindus, Jains, Zoroastrians, and Buddhists, while being considered an acceptable source of meat by Muslims. Legislation against cattle slaughter is in place throughout most states of India. On 26th October 2005, the Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgement, upheld the constitutional validity of anti-cow slaughter laws enacted by different state governments in India. 20 out of 29 states in India currently have various laws regulating act of slaughtered cow, prohibiting the slaughter or sale of cows. Kerala, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura and West Bengal are the states where there are no restrictions on cow slaughter. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955 mentions that slaughter of cow, bull, bullock, ox, heifer and cow's calf is prohibited.
The same and points hereafter mentioned are applicable in states where slaughter or sale of cows is prohibited. However, there are exceptions for slaughter in case the suffering renders the destruction desirable according to the Veterinary Officer, if it is found out by such officer that the above-mentioned cattle has contagious or infectious disease or it is necessary to terminate it otherwise. The second exception is experimentation in the interest of medical and public health research by a certified practitioner for developing medicine for animals, humans and crops. Also, the sale of beef or beef products is prohibited except for prescribed medical purposes.
Cow slaughter as well as sale of beef invites an imprisonment which may extend to 5 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 2000. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 1981 inserted S.4A which prohibits the export of cows for the purpose of slaughter except when a permit is granted by an authorised officer (in accordance with S.4B). Also, Section 9A was inserted which permits the seizure of vehicles in which the cows are found as well as the protection of persons acting in good faith, which means that no suit or other legal proceedings shall be instituted against any person for anything which is done or intended to be done in good faith under the Act or rules made under the Act.
The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 2011 prescribes penalty for non-compliance of permit requirement for the export of cows and imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 1000 (for contravention of S.4B), and there is also a penalty for slaughter, sale of beef, export of cow without permit which invites an imprisonment up to 10 years and/or a fine which may extend to Rs. 10,000. The offences are cognisable and non-bailable.
Q. Arya Stark bought 10 kg of beef from Ajmer (a city in Rajasthan) for her own consumption. She consumed much of it during her stay there. Thereafter, she visited Kasaul (a town in Himachal Pradesh) carrying the beef along. However, the portion of beef (around 4 kg) became stale and she exchanged the same with John Snow, a resident of Kasaul who was unaware of the edibility of the beef, for freshly caught Trout fish which was available with John. A policeman saw Arya handing over the beef to John and on apprehending the meat to be beef arrested Arya under provisions of the Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Cattle slaughter, especially cow slaughter, is a controversial topic in India because of the cattle's traditional status as an endeared and respected living being to some sects of Hindus, Jains, Zoroastrians, and Buddhists, while being considered an acceptable source of meat by Muslims. Legislation against cattle slaughter is in place throughout most states of India. On 26th October 2005, the Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgement, upheld the constitutional validity of anti-cow slaughter laws enacted by different state governments in India. 20 out of 29 states in India currently have various laws regulating act of slaughtered cow, prohibiting the slaughter or sale of cows. Kerala, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura and West Bengal are the states where there are no restrictions on cow slaughter. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955 mentions that slaughter of cow, bull, bullock, ox, heifer and cow's calf is prohibited.
The same and points hereafter mentioned are applicable in states where slaughter or sale of cows is prohibited. However, there are exceptions for slaughter in case the suffering renders the destruction desirable according to the Veterinary Officer, if it is found out by such officer that the above-mentioned cattle has contagious or infectious disease or it is necessary to terminate it otherwise. The second exception is experimentation in the interest of medical and public health research by a certified practitioner for developing medicine for animals, humans and crops. Also, the sale of beef or beef products is prohibited except for prescribed medical purposes.
Cow slaughter as well as sale of beef invites an imprisonment which may extend to 5 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 2000. The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 1981 inserted S.4A which prohibits the export of cows for the purpose of slaughter except when a permit is granted by an authorised officer (in accordance with S.4B). Also, Section 9A was inserted which permits the seizure of vehicles in which the cows are found as well as the protection of persons acting in good faith, which means that no suit or other legal proceedings shall be instituted against any person for anything which is done or intended to be done in good faith under the Act or rules made under the Act.
The Prohibition of Cow Slaughter (Amendment) Act, 2011 prescribes penalty for non-compliance of permit requirement for the export of cows and imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 years or/and a fine which may extend to Rs. 1000 (for contravention of S.4B), and there is also a penalty for slaughter, sale of beef, export of cow without permit which invites an imprisonment up to 10 years and/or a fine which may extend to Rs. 10,000. The offences are cognisable and non-bailable.
Q. Faizal Khan, an ardent Muslim, a resident of Malerkotla (a town of Punjab), purchased a cow from Gorakpur (a town in Uttar Pradesh) and a year later sacrificed its new-born offspring for a religious ceremony in Malerkotla. He was arrested for contravening the provisions of the Prohibition of Cow Slaughter Act, 1955. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Under the broad framework of judicial review under the Constitution, the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to declare any law unconstitutional, either because it is ultra vires (or, contrary to any provision of the Constitution) or it violates any of the fundamental rights, invalid because it is repugnant to a central law on the same subject or has been enacted without legislative jurisdiction. However, interim orders staying or suspending laws enacted by the legislature are frowned upon by constitutional courts and legal scholars. The general argument is that unless there are compelling reasons such as flagrant lack of constitutional validity, or absence of legislative competence (that is, the legislative body concerned lacks the jurisdiction to enact the law in question), a law ought not to be stayed.
Why is it considered unusual for a court to suspend a law or its operation?
The main principle is that suspending a law made by the legislature goes against the concept of separation of powers. Courts are expected to defer to the legislature's wisdom at the threshold of a legal challenge to the validity of a law. The validity of a law ought to be considered normally only at the time of final adjudication, and not at the initial stage. The second principle is that there is a presumption that every law enacted by any legislature is constitutional and valid. The onus is on those challenging it to prove that it is not. Therefore, courts are circumspect when hearing petitions seeking suspension of a law pending a detailed adjudication.
How did the SC justify its order on farm laws?
This court cannot be said to be completely powerless to grant stay of any executive action under a statutory enactment, the Bench observed in its order. This means that it was apparently making a distinction between staying a law and staying its implementation or any action under it. Some may argue, however, that the effect remains the same, as the order operates as a stay on the government invoking its provisions.
Q. Interim orders staying or suspending laws enacted by the legislature are frowned upon by constitutional courts and legal scholars. This is because:
Explanation All of the above given statements are correct because suspension of law at first instance attacks the concept of separation of power; the validity should be ideally decided after the conclusion of arguments. Also, presumption always favours the constitutionality of the law. Therefore, 'all of the above' would be the correct answer.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Under the broad framework of judicial review under the Constitution, the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to declare any law unconstitutional, either because it is ultra vires (or, contrary to any provision of the Constitution) or it violates any of the fundamental rights, invalid because it is repugnant to a central law on the same subject or has been enacted without legislative jurisdiction. However, interim orders staying or suspending laws enacted by the legislature are frowned upon by constitutional courts and legal scholars. The general argument is that unless there are compelling reasons such as flagrant lack of constitutional validity, or absence of legislative competence (that is, the legislative body concerned lacks the jurisdiction to enact the law in question), a law ought not to be stayed.
Why is it considered unusual for a court to suspend a law or its operation?
The main principle is that suspending a law made by the legislature goes against the concept of separation of powers. Courts are expected to defer to the legislature's wisdom at the threshold of a legal challenge to the validity of a law. The validity of a law ought to be considered normally only at the time of final adjudication, and not at the initial stage. The second principle is that there is a presumption that every law enacted by any legislature is constitutional and valid. The onus is on those challenging it to prove that it is not. Therefore, courts are circumspect when hearing petitions seeking suspension of a law pending a detailed adjudication.
How did the SC justify its order on farm laws?
This court cannot be said to be completely powerless to grant stay of any executive action under a statutory enactment, the Bench observed in its order. This means that it was apparently making a distinction between staying a law and staying its implementation or any action under it. Some may argue, however, that the effect remains the same, as the order operates as a stay on the government invoking its provisions.
Q. Imagine a situation that a state made law encroaching on the subjects mentioned in the union list. Union of India approached the Supreme Court and prima facie proved that indeed the encroachment is happening on the union list. Can the law be stayed by the Supreme Court at first instance? Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Under the broad framework of judicial review under the Constitution, the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to declare any law unconstitutional, either because it is ultra vires (or, contrary to any provision of the Constitution) or it violates any of the fundamental rights, invalid because it is repugnant to a central law on the same subject or has been enacted without legislative jurisdiction. However, interim orders staying or suspending laws enacted by the legislature are frowned upon by constitutional courts and legal scholars. The general argument is that unless there are compelling reasons such as flagrant lack of constitutional validity, or absence of legislative competence (that is, the legislative body concerned lacks the jurisdiction to enact the law in question), a law ought not to be stayed.
Why is it considered unusual for a court to suspend a law or its operation?
The main principle is that suspending a law made by the legislature goes against the concept of separation of powers. Courts are expected to defer to the legislature's wisdom at the threshold of a legal challenge to the validity of a law. The validity of a law ought to be considered normally only at the time of final adjudication, and not at the initial stage. The second principle is that there is a presumption that every law enacted by any legislature is constitutional and valid. The onus is on those challenging it to prove that it is not. Therefore, courts are circumspect when hearing petitions seeking suspension of a law pending a detailed adjudication.
How did the SC justify its order on farm laws?
This court cannot be said to be completely powerless to grant stay of any executive action under a statutory enactment, the Bench observed in its order. This means that it was apparently making a distinction between staying a law and staying its implementation or any action under it. Some may argue, however, that the effect remains the same, as the order operates as a stay on the government invoking its provisions.
Q. Based on the author's argument in the last paragraph of the passage, which of the following statements is/are correct?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Under the broad framework of judicial review under the Constitution, the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to declare any law unconstitutional, either because it is ultra vires (or, contrary to any provision of the Constitution) or it violates any of the fundamental rights, invalid because it is repugnant to a central law on the same subject or has been enacted without legislative jurisdiction. However, interim orders staying or suspending laws enacted by the legislature are frowned upon by constitutional courts and legal scholars. The general argument is that unless there are compelling reasons such as flagrant lack of constitutional validity, or absence of legislative competence (that is, the legislative body concerned lacks the jurisdiction to enact the law in question), a law ought not to be stayed.
Why is it considered unusual for a court to suspend a law or its operation?
The main principle is that suspending a law made by the legislature goes against the concept of separation of powers. Courts are expected to defer to the legislature's wisdom at the threshold of a legal challenge to the validity of a law. The validity of a law ought to be considered normally only at the time of final adjudication, and not at the initial stage. The second principle is that there is a presumption that every law enacted by any legislature is constitutional and valid. The onus is on those challenging it to prove that it is not. Therefore, courts are circumspect when hearing petitions seeking suspension of a law pending a detailed adjudication.
How did the SC justify its order on farm laws?
This court cannot be said to be completely powerless to grant stay of any executive action under a statutory enactment, the Bench observed in its order. This means that it was apparently making a distinction between staying a law and staying its implementation or any action under it. Some may argue, however, that the effect remains the same, as the order operates as a stay on the government invoking its provisions.
Q. A person approached the Supreme Court contending that a law passed by the Parliament takes away his fundamental right and prayed that the Court must stay the operation of law at first instance and then he would move forward to prove that law is unconstitutional as it violates fundamental rights of the petitioner. Decide.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Under the broad framework of judicial review under the Constitution, the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to declare any law unconstitutional, either because it is ultra vires (or, contrary to any provision of the Constitution) or it violates any of the fundamental rights, invalid because it is repugnant to a central law on the same subject or has been enacted without legislative jurisdiction. However, interim orders staying or suspending laws enacted by the legislature are frowned upon by constitutional courts and legal scholars. The general argument is that unless there are compelling reasons such as flagrant lack of constitutional validity, or absence of legislative competence (that is, the legislative body concerned lacks the jurisdiction to enact the law in question), a law ought not to be stayed.
Why is it considered unusual for a court to suspend a law or its operation?
The main principle is that suspending a law made by the legislature goes against the concept of separation of powers. Courts are expected to defer to the legislature's wisdom at the threshold of a legal challenge to the validity of a law. The validity of a law ought to be considered normally only at the time of final adjudication, and not at the initial stage. The second principle is that there is a presumption that every law enacted by any legislature is constitutional and valid. The onus is on those challenging it to prove that it is not. Therefore, courts are circumspect when hearing petitions seeking suspension of a law pending a detailed adjudication.
How did the SC justify its order on farm laws?
This court cannot be said to be completely powerless to grant stay of any executive action under a statutory enactment, the Bench observed in its order. This means that it was apparently making a distinction between staying a law and staying its implementation or any action under it. Some may argue, however, that the effect remains the same, as the order operates as a stay on the government invoking its provisions.
Q. Based on the arguments advanced in the first paragraph of the passage, if any legislation is challenged before the court, what is the best course of action that courts can take?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The outbreak of COVID-19 and its development into a pandemic has led governments across the world to take extraordinary measures to protect their residents. The Central Government and various State Governments in India, along with public-health authorities, not-for-profit organizations and corporates, are collecting, tracking, and using information about individuals to slow down the spread of COVID-19; however, since a large proportion of such information could be categorized as 'personal data' or 'sensitive personal data' its use is subject to the data protection laws in India. It is, therefore, essential that a balance is struck between an individual's right to privacy and public interest at large. Separately, as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic, corporates are also required to implement aberrant measures to safeguard their employees and extended workforce. In this regard, the collection of personal data by corporates will need to be undertaken in compliance with the requirements of data protection laws in India.
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (the "IT Act") read with the Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011 (the "SPDI Rules", together with the IT Act "Data Protection Laws") contain specific provisions governing protection of personal data in India.
Pursuant to the landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India in KS Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), the court held that right to privacy is a part of the right to life and personal liberty and is a fundamental right under the Constitution of India. The Supreme Court of India also observed that the right to privacy is not absolute; however, any restriction is required to be within the framework of law
The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 (the "PDP Bill") was introduced in the Parliament in December 2019. The Government of India launched the Aarogya Setu application on April 2, 2020 which, inter alia, tracks the location of an infected individual and notifies the application users of their proximity to such individuals. The Data Protection Laws only provide a basic framework on data protection and not specifically contemplate measures to be taken by the public authorities in relation to protection of data during public health emergencies. The current situation on account of the COVID-19 pandemic is unprecedented. The health authorities, corporates and other stakeholders are taking steps to contain the spread of the virus and measures such as data tracking and mass surveillance could prove to be effective in curbing the spread of COVID-19. However, keeping in mind that such personal data will be available in the long-term, the Government of India will need to strike the right balance between protection of public interest and maintaining the fundamental right to privacy.
Q. Which Act governs the protection of personal data in India?