CLAT Practice Test- 35 - CLAT
150 Questions MCQ Test Mock Test Series for CLAT - CLAT Practice Test- 35
| 1 Crore+ students have signed up on EduRev. Have you? Download the App |
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from 'Hello, goodbye' by Yiyun Li from The New Yorker.
Twenty years had passed since that game of charades. Katie had not married Ethan, who had not reciprocated her love. Nor had she married any of the slew of men after him, all seemingly suitable yet each exhibiting flaws that were intolerable to Katie. Harmless bores, Katie called them. Nina's husband, Daniel, a pediatric dentist, fell into the same category, though Katie never pointed that out.
Raymond, the man Katie did marry, was twenty-eight years older than her, had sold three companies and had taken up a semiretired life by the time they married. Raymond was not a harmless bore. Rather, he was a bully and a bore, though Nina had voiced this thought only to herself.
One afternoon, Nina sat on her porch with Katie. Raymond was on the road again, this time in a new, extra-deluxe R.V. He dreaded flying. Nina had never asked what was behind that, but she wished he were plagued by many more fears. At the beginning of the marriage, Katie had traveled with Raymond in his R.V. In recent years, she had been joining Nina and her family on their summer holiday instead.
"The way he goes around as though COVID were fiction, I won't be surprised if he gets it," Katie said.
"But you could get it from him," Nina said. What she really wanted to say was, 'Well, he's not that young, is he?'
"I'm moving out," Katie said. "He's away for more than two weeks. Now's the perfect time."
"Oh." The resolution was not a new one, and Nina did not expect much to come of it.
"I'm serious. I hired that forensic accountant I told you about."
Until the week before, Nina had not known what a forensic accountant's job entailed, or that such an expert might be needed to dissolve a marriage. Katie had stopped working in marketing after the wedding, and had started a boutique spice shop with two other women, who, like Katie, needed something to do and a reason to get out of the house. For years Katie had been talking about divorcing Raymond. Crying wolf, but now the real wolf was about to show up, in the form of a forensic accountant.
"What do you think?" Katie asked.
"Why now? Don't you want to wait until the pandemic is over?" Nina said. It was a refrain for her at the moment. Anything that required her attention, anything that demanded a decision, she moved to an indeterminate future time when she would no longer have an irrefutable excuse.
"How long will the pandemic go on?"
"Who knows."
"Then I don't want to wait," Katie said. "Nothing happens now. I need to get something done."
Was boredom a good reason to divorce Raymond? No reason would be bad, Nina thought.
Q. What is true of Katie's character?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from 'Hello, goodbye' by Yiyun Li from The New Yorker.
Twenty years had passed since that game of charades. Katie had not married Ethan, who had not reciprocated her love. Nor had she married any of the slew of men after him, all seemingly suitable yet each exhibiting flaws that were intolerable to Katie. Harmless bores, Katie called them. Nina's husband, Daniel, a pediatric dentist, fell into the same category, though Katie never pointed that out.
Raymond, the man Katie did marry, was twenty-eight years older than her, had sold three companies and had taken up a semiretired life by the time they married. Raymond was not a harmless bore. Rather, he was a bully and a bore, though Nina had voiced this thought only to herself.
One afternoon, Nina sat on her porch with Katie. Raymond was on the road again, this time in a new, extra-deluxe R.V. He dreaded flying. Nina had never asked what was behind that, but she wished he were plagued by many more fears. At the beginning of the marriage, Katie had traveled with Raymond in his R.V. In recent years, she had been joining Nina and her family on their summer holiday instead.
"The way he goes around as though COVID were fiction, I won't be surprised if he gets it," Katie said.
"But you could get it from him," Nina said. What she really wanted to say was, 'Well, he's not that young, is he?'
"I'm moving out," Katie said. "He's away for more than two weeks. Now's the perfect time."
"Oh." The resolution was not a new one, and Nina did not expect much to come of it.
"I'm serious. I hired that forensic accountant I told you about."
Until the week before, Nina had not known what a forensic accountant's job entailed, or that such an expert might be needed to dissolve a marriage. Katie had stopped working in marketing after the wedding, and had started a boutique spice shop with two other women, who, like Katie, needed something to do and a reason to get out of the house. For years Katie had been talking about divorcing Raymond. Crying wolf, but now the real wolf was about to show up, in the form of a forensic accountant.
"What do you think?" Katie asked.
"Why now? Don't you want to wait until the pandemic is over?" Nina said. It was a refrain for her at the moment. Anything that required her attention, anything that demanded a decision, she moved to an indeterminate future time when she would no longer have an irrefutable excuse.
"How long will the pandemic go on?"
"Who knows."
"Then I don't want to wait," Katie said. "Nothing happens now. I need to get something done."
Was boredom a good reason to divorce Raymond? No reason would be bad, Nina thought.
Q. Why did Katie think that Raymond would be infected by COVID?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from 'Hello, goodbye' by Yiyun Li from The New Yorker.
Twenty years had passed since that game of charades. Katie had not married Ethan, who had not reciprocated her love. Nor had she married any of the slew of men after him, all seemingly suitable yet each exhibiting flaws that were intolerable to Katie. Harmless bores, Katie called them. Nina's husband, Daniel, a pediatric dentist, fell into the same category, though Katie never pointed that out.
Raymond, the man Katie did marry, was twenty-eight years older than her, had sold three companies and had taken up a semiretired life by the time they married. Raymond was not a harmless bore. Rather, he was a bully and a bore, though Nina had voiced this thought only to herself.
One afternoon, Nina sat on her porch with Katie. Raymond was on the road again, this time in a new, extra-deluxe R.V. He dreaded flying. Nina had never asked what was behind that, but she wished he were plagued by many more fears. At the beginning of the marriage, Katie had traveled with Raymond in his R.V. In recent years, she had been joining Nina and her family on their summer holiday instead.
"The way he goes around as though COVID were fiction, I won't be surprised if he gets it," Katie said.
"But you could get it from him," Nina said. What she really wanted to say was, 'Well, he's not that young, is he?'
"I'm moving out," Katie said. "He's away for more than two weeks. Now's the perfect time."
"Oh." The resolution was not a new one, and Nina did not expect much to come of it.
"I'm serious. I hired that forensic accountant I told you about."
Until the week before, Nina had not known what a forensic accountant's job entailed, or that such an expert might be needed to dissolve a marriage. Katie had stopped working in marketing after the wedding, and had started a boutique spice shop with two other women, who, like Katie, needed something to do and a reason to get out of the house. For years Katie had been talking about divorcing Raymond. Crying wolf, but now the real wolf was about to show up, in the form of a forensic accountant.
"What do you think?" Katie asked.
"Why now? Don't you want to wait until the pandemic is over?" Nina said. It was a refrain for her at the moment. Anything that required her attention, anything that demanded a decision, she moved to an indeterminate future time when she would no longer have an irrefutable excuse.
"How long will the pandemic go on?"
"Who knows."
"Then I don't want to wait," Katie said. "Nothing happens now. I need to get something done."
Was boredom a good reason to divorce Raymond? No reason would be bad, Nina thought.
Q. Which of the following is true about Nina's thoughts about Raymond?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from 'Hello, goodbye' by Yiyun Li from The New Yorker.
Twenty years had passed since that game of charades. Katie had not married Ethan, who had not reciprocated her love. Nor had she married any of the slew of men after him, all seemingly suitable yet each exhibiting flaws that were intolerable to Katie. Harmless bores, Katie called them. Nina's husband, Daniel, a pediatric dentist, fell into the same category, though Katie never pointed that out.
Raymond, the man Katie did marry, was twenty-eight years older than her, had sold three companies and had taken up a semiretired life by the time they married. Raymond was not a harmless bore. Rather, he was a bully and a bore, though Nina had voiced this thought only to herself.
One afternoon, Nina sat on her porch with Katie. Raymond was on the road again, this time in a new, extra-deluxe R.V. He dreaded flying. Nina had never asked what was behind that, but she wished he were plagued by many more fears. At the beginning of the marriage, Katie had traveled with Raymond in his R.V. In recent years, she had been joining Nina and her family on their summer holiday instead.
"The way he goes around as though COVID were fiction, I won't be surprised if he gets it," Katie said.
"But you could get it from him," Nina said. What she really wanted to say was, 'Well, he's not that young, is he?'
"I'm moving out," Katie said. "He's away for more than two weeks. Now's the perfect time."
"Oh." The resolution was not a new one, and Nina did not expect much to come of it.
"I'm serious. I hired that forensic accountant I told you about."
Until the week before, Nina had not known what a forensic accountant's job entailed, or that such an expert might be needed to dissolve a marriage. Katie had stopped working in marketing after the wedding, and had started a boutique spice shop with two other women, who, like Katie, needed something to do and a reason to get out of the house. For years Katie had been talking about divorcing Raymond. Crying wolf, but now the real wolf was about to show up, in the form of a forensic accountant.
"What do you think?" Katie asked.
"Why now? Don't you want to wait until the pandemic is over?" Nina said. It was a refrain for her at the moment. Anything that required her attention, anything that demanded a decision, she moved to an indeterminate future time when she would no longer have an irrefutable excuse.
"How long will the pandemic go on?"
"Who knows."
"Then I don't want to wait," Katie said. "Nothing happens now. I need to get something done."
Was boredom a good reason to divorce Raymond? No reason would be bad, Nina thought.
Q. Which of the following is synonymous with the word 'dreaded'?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
This passage is adapted from 'Hello, goodbye' by Yiyun Li from The New Yorker.
Twenty years had passed since that game of charades. Katie had not married Ethan, who had not reciprocated her love. Nor had she married any of the slew of men after him, all seemingly suitable yet each exhibiting flaws that were intolerable to Katie. Harmless bores, Katie called them. Nina's husband, Daniel, a pediatric dentist, fell into the same category, though Katie never pointed that out.
Raymond, the man Katie did marry, was twenty-eight years older than her, had sold three companies and had taken up a semiretired life by the time they married. Raymond was not a harmless bore. Rather, he was a bully and a bore, though Nina had voiced this thought only to herself.
One afternoon, Nina sat on her porch with Katie. Raymond was on the road again, this time in a new, extra-deluxe R.V. He dreaded flying. Nina had never asked what was behind that, but she wished he were plagued by many more fears. At the beginning of the marriage, Katie had traveled with Raymond in his R.V. In recent years, she had been joining Nina and her family on their summer holiday instead.
"The way he goes around as though COVID were fiction, I won't be surprised if he gets it," Katie said.
"But you could get it from him," Nina said. What she really wanted to say was, 'Well, he's not that young, is he?'
"I'm moving out," Katie said. "He's away for more than two weeks. Now's the perfect time."
"Oh." The resolution was not a new one, and Nina did not expect much to come of it.
"I'm serious. I hired that forensic accountant I told you about."
Until the week before, Nina had not known what a forensic accountant's job entailed, or that such an expert might be needed to dissolve a marriage. Katie had stopped working in marketing after the wedding, and had started a boutique spice shop with two other women, who, like Katie, needed something to do and a reason to get out of the house. For years Katie had been talking about divorcing Raymond. Crying wolf, but now the real wolf was about to show up, in the form of a forensic accountant.
"What do you think?" Katie asked.
"Why now? Don't you want to wait until the pandemic is over?" Nina said. It was a refrain for her at the moment. Anything that required her attention, anything that demanded a decision, she moved to an indeterminate future time when she would no longer have an irrefutable excuse.
"How long will the pandemic go on?"
"Who knows."
"Then I don't want to wait," Katie said. "Nothing happens now. I need to get something done."
Was boredom a good reason to divorce Raymond? No reason would be bad, Nina thought.
Q. Why did Katie start a boutique spice shop?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Here's my latest report on things grown-ups say but don't actually mean.
So, our school's Annual Day finally happened last week and I couldn't be happier. This year, I decided that I wanted to try something different, so I opted for media and editing. What's that, you ask? Who cares, I thought. As long as I didn't have to dress up as a sunflower and wave my arms about while lip-synching to the song by Post Malone, I didn't really care.
But to be honest, I thought media and editing would be cool. That I'd learn how to create special effects which I could then use on my YouTube channel. That it would launch my movie career. HA! Can you tell that that is not what happened?
A tad off?
First, the Sir who taught us editing was not some cool guy with amazing stories about how he worked on The Hobbit and Lord of the Rings. He worked in an IT company and spent most of his time 'writing code'. And not cool spy code but Python. Bleh.
Well, after he taught us a few of the basics, we were divided into groups and told to start working on backdrops for some of the scenes in the production. When we went to him with ideas and images and clips he kept waving us away and saying "No! No! Show me the final thing. And remember, it's not about being perfect! It's about learning."
DOUBLE HA!
So, after spending weeks and weeks finding stuff and putting it together, Sir finally takes a look and tells us that it's terrible! That we can't have work like this up on the stage. That we should have come to him sooner. That it was all a terrible disaster. Are you confused by his reaction? I sure was.
I don't know if you've ever tried to correct a grown up, but let me save you the trouble and tell you not to bother. They hate being reminded that they said one thing and are doing the exact opposite. When we tried to tell Sir that we had come to him with ideas and that he said perfection didn't matter — he kicked us off the team! YUP! You read that right. He said that if we'd spent more time working and less time arguing and answering back, then our work would have looked better.
So, I present to you 'Things grownups say but don't actually mean #103: The results don't matter, the learning does'. You can also apply this to chemistry lab explosions and getting your report card signed by your parents.
I had to spend the rest of Annual Day practice as an understudy. To a lamp post.
Q. Which of the following cannot be rightly inferred from the given passage?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Here's my latest report on things grown-ups say but don't actually mean.
So, our school's Annual Day finally happened last week and I couldn't be happier. This year, I decided that I wanted to try something different, so I opted for media and editing. What's that, you ask? Who cares, I thought. As long as I didn't have to dress up as a sunflower and wave my arms about while lip-synching to the song by Post Malone, I didn't really care.
But to be honest, I thought media and editing would be cool. That I'd learn how to create special effects which I could then use on my YouTube channel. That it would launch my movie career. HA! Can you tell that that is not what happened?
A tad off?
First, the Sir who taught us editing was not some cool guy with amazing stories about how he worked on The Hobbit and Lord of the Rings. He worked in an IT company and spent most of his time 'writing code'. And not cool spy code but Python. Bleh.
Well, after he taught us a few of the basics, we were divided into groups and told to start working on backdrops for some of the scenes in the production. When we went to him with ideas and images and clips he kept waving us away and saying "No! No! Show me the final thing. And remember, it's not about being perfect! It's about learning."
DOUBLE HA!
So, after spending weeks and weeks finding stuff and putting it together, Sir finally takes a look and tells us that it's terrible! That we can't have work like this up on the stage. That we should have come to him sooner. That it was all a terrible disaster. Are you confused by his reaction? I sure was.
I don't know if you've ever tried to correct a grown up, but let me save you the trouble and tell you not to bother. They hate being reminded that they said one thing and are doing the exact opposite. When we tried to tell Sir that we had come to him with ideas and that he said perfection didn't matter — he kicked us off the team! YUP! You read that right. He said that if we'd spent more time working and less time arguing and answering back, then our work would have looked better.
So, I present to you 'Things grownups say but don't actually mean #103: The results don't matter, the learning does'. You can also apply this to chemistry lab explosions and getting your report card signed by your parents.
I had to spend the rest of Annual Day practice as an understudy. To a lamp post.
Q. What does the word 'opted' as used in the passage mean?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Here's my latest report on things grown-ups say but don't actually mean.
So, our school's Annual Day finally happened last week and I couldn't be happier. This year, I decided that I wanted to try something different, so I opted for media and editing. What's that, you ask? Who cares, I thought. As long as I didn't have to dress up as a sunflower and wave my arms about while lip-synching to the song by Post Malone, I didn't really care.
But to be honest, I thought media and editing would be cool. That I'd learn how to create special effects which I could then use on my YouTube channel. That it would launch my movie career. HA! Can you tell that that is not what happened?
A tad off?
First, the Sir who taught us editing was not some cool guy with amazing stories about how he worked on The Hobbit and Lord of the Rings. He worked in an IT company and spent most of his time 'writing code'. And not cool spy code but Python. Bleh.
Well, after he taught us a few of the basics, we were divided into groups and told to start working on backdrops for some of the scenes in the production. When we went to him with ideas and images and clips he kept waving us away and saying "No! No! Show me the final thing. And remember, it's not about being perfect! It's about learning."
DOUBLE HA!
So, after spending weeks and weeks finding stuff and putting it together, Sir finally takes a look and tells us that it's terrible! That we can't have work like this up on the stage. That we should have come to him sooner. That it was all a terrible disaster. Are you confused by his reaction? I sure was.
I don't know if you've ever tried to correct a grown up, but let me save you the trouble and tell you not to bother. They hate being reminded that they said one thing and are doing the exact opposite. When we tried to tell Sir that we had come to him with ideas and that he said perfection didn't matter — he kicked us off the team! YUP! You read that right. He said that if we'd spent more time working and less time arguing and answering back, then our work would have looked better.
So, I present to you 'Things grownups say but don't actually mean #103: The results don't matter, the learning does'. You can also apply this to chemistry lab explosions and getting your report card signed by your parents.
I had to spend the rest of Annual Day practice as an understudy. To a lamp post.
Q. How did the Sir react when he was approached by the author and other students with ideas about the assignment?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Here's my latest report on things grown-ups say but don't actually mean.
So, our school's Annual Day finally happened last week and I couldn't be happier. This year, I decided that I wanted to try something different, so I opted for media and editing. What's that, you ask? Who cares, I thought. As long as I didn't have to dress up as a sunflower and wave my arms about while lip-synching to the song by Post Malone, I didn't really care.
But to be honest, I thought media and editing would be cool. That I'd learn how to create special effects which I could then use on my YouTube channel. That it would launch my movie career. HA! Can you tell that that is not what happened?
A tad off?
First, the Sir who taught us editing was not some cool guy with amazing stories about how he worked on The Hobbit and Lord of the Rings. He worked in an IT company and spent most of his time 'writing code'. And not cool spy code but Python. Bleh.
Well, after he taught us a few of the basics, we were divided into groups and told to start working on backdrops for some of the scenes in the production. When we went to him with ideas and images and clips he kept waving us away and saying "No! No! Show me the final thing. And remember, it's not about being perfect! It's about learning."
DOUBLE HA!
So, after spending weeks and weeks finding stuff and putting it together, Sir finally takes a look and tells us that it's terrible! That we can't have work like this up on the stage. That we should have come to him sooner. That it was all a terrible disaster. Are you confused by his reaction? I sure was.
I don't know if you've ever tried to correct a grown up, but let me save you the trouble and tell you not to bother. They hate being reminded that they said one thing and are doing the exact opposite. When we tried to tell Sir that we had come to him with ideas and that he said perfection didn't matter — he kicked us off the team! YUP! You read that right. He said that if we'd spent more time working and less time arguing and answering back, then our work would have looked better.
So, I present to you 'Things grownups say but don't actually mean #103: The results don't matter, the learning does'. You can also apply this to chemistry lab explosions and getting your report card signed by your parents.
I had to spend the rest of Annual Day practice as an understudy. To a lamp post.
Q. According to the passage, which of the following actions can also be an example of 'things grownups say but don't actually mean'?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Here's my latest report on things grown-ups say but don't actually mean.
So, our school's Annual Day finally happened last week and I couldn't be happier. This year, I decided that I wanted to try something different, so I opted for media and editing. What's that, you ask? Who cares, I thought. As long as I didn't have to dress up as a sunflower and wave my arms about while lip-synching to the song by Post Malone, I didn't really care.
But to be honest, I thought media and editing would be cool. That I'd learn how to create special effects which I could then use on my YouTube channel. That it would launch my movie career. HA! Can you tell that that is not what happened?
A tad off?
First, the Sir who taught us editing was not some cool guy with amazing stories about how he worked on The Hobbit and Lord of the Rings. He worked in an IT company and spent most of his time 'writing code'. And not cool spy code but Python. Bleh.
Well, after he taught us a few of the basics, we were divided into groups and told to start working on backdrops for some of the scenes in the production. When we went to him with ideas and images and clips he kept waving us away and saying "No! No! Show me the final thing. And remember, it's not about being perfect! It's about learning."
DOUBLE HA!
So, after spending weeks and weeks finding stuff and putting it together, Sir finally takes a look and tells us that it's terrible! That we can't have work like this up on the stage. That we should have come to him sooner. That it was all a terrible disaster. Are you confused by his reaction? I sure was.
I don't know if you've ever tried to correct a grown up, but let me save you the trouble and tell you not to bother. They hate being reminded that they said one thing and are doing the exact opposite. When we tried to tell Sir that we had come to him with ideas and that he said perfection didn't matter — he kicked us off the team! YUP! You read that right. He said that if we'd spent more time working and less time arguing and answering back, then our work would have looked better.
So, I present to you 'Things grownups say but don't actually mean #103: The results don't matter, the learning does'. You can also apply this to chemistry lab explosions and getting your report card signed by your parents.
I had to spend the rest of Annual Day practice as an understudy. To a lamp post.
Q. Why, according to the author, is it best not to correct a grown-up?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The last few months of the year are always filled with fun stuff at school — Dussehra break, Deepavali holidays, sports day, annual day and then the long Christmas break. There's practice, Sport's Day heats, and Project Day submissions and regular studies kind of take a back seat.
It's the best! But, like in any fairy tale, just when everything seems perfect and made of candy, a big bad wolf or an evil witch lurking in the shadows jumps out, grabs you and cooks you in an oven. Okay, I know I'm mixing fairy tales up — think of it as a remix okay?
In my fairy tale life of hardly any studies and homework, the big bad wolf-witch (hybrid villains, people) looks like the ASSET exam. ASSET stands for Assessment of Scholastic Skills through Educational Testing, and this national test is meant to see what concepts students understand and don't understand with detailed feedback on what we can improve in. WHY?
I mean, I already know that I get confused between 12:00a.m. and 12:00p.m. and never remember which is which.
And that irregular verbs are just something my brain can't process. And that I'm not sure where people dance Bhangra — is it Gujarat or Assam? Neither? SEE!
More exams!
Why do I need another exam to tell me what I suck at? School has enough of those exams already. At least school exams are a little straightforward. These ASSET tests try to confuse you and trip you up at every turn. All the questions are sneaky and all the answers sound the same. It's awful.
And then, when they give you the results, they don't stop with just a grade or score, but they write pages and pages of feedback of what you 'might' want to work on. And guess what happens when parents read that kind of feedback? They go into hyperdrive. Suddenly, everything is about how to make me improve my 'spatial awareness' and 'logical reasoning' and 'improve my structural foundation'. Structural foundation? I'm a child, not a church. Aargh.
My ASSET scores have been pretty unspectacular these last few years and you'd think I'd be worried. But no. Do you want to know why? The scores don't matter. They can't keep me back a year or kick me out of school if I don't do well in them. The scores have no bearing on my great future as a PubG superstar, a spider expert, or a writer of amazing graphic novels. I protest that I have to take them only to have them make me feel bad and not smart.
Q. Which of the following best expresses the author's main point in the passage?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The last few months of the year are always filled with fun stuff at school — Dussehra break, Deepavali holidays, sports day, annual day and then the long Christmas break. There's practice, Sport's Day heats, and Project Day submissions and regular studies kind of take a back seat.
It's the best! But, like in any fairy tale, just when everything seems perfect and made of candy, a big bad wolf or an evil witch lurking in the shadows jumps out, grabs you and cooks you in an oven. Okay, I know I'm mixing fairy tales up — think of it as a remix okay?
In my fairy tale life of hardly any studies and homework, the big bad wolf-witch (hybrid villains, people) looks like the ASSET exam. ASSET stands for Assessment of Scholastic Skills through Educational Testing, and this national test is meant to see what concepts students understand and don't understand with detailed feedback on what we can improve in. WHY?
I mean, I already know that I get confused between 12:00a.m. and 12:00p.m. and never remember which is which.
And that irregular verbs are just something my brain can't process. And that I'm not sure where people dance Bhangra — is it Gujarat or Assam? Neither? SEE!
More exams!
Why do I need another exam to tell me what I suck at? School has enough of those exams already. At least school exams are a little straightforward. These ASSET tests try to confuse you and trip you up at every turn. All the questions are sneaky and all the answers sound the same. It's awful.
And then, when they give you the results, they don't stop with just a grade or score, but they write pages and pages of feedback of what you 'might' want to work on. And guess what happens when parents read that kind of feedback? They go into hyperdrive. Suddenly, everything is about how to make me improve my 'spatial awareness' and 'logical reasoning' and 'improve my structural foundation'. Structural foundation? I'm a child, not a church. Aargh.
My ASSET scores have been pretty unspectacular these last few years and you'd think I'd be worried. But no. Do you want to know why? The scores don't matter. They can't keep me back a year or kick me out of school if I don't do well in them. The scores have no bearing on my great future as a PubG superstar, a spider expert, or a writer of amazing graphic novels. I protest that I have to take them only to have them make me feel bad and not smart.
Q. In context of the given passage, which of the following would be the most appropriate meaning of the term 'go into hyperdrive'?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The last few months of the year are always filled with fun stuff at school — Dussehra break, Deepavali holidays, sports day, annual day and then the long Christmas break. There's practice, Sport's Day heats, and Project Day submissions and regular studies kind of take a back seat.
It's the best! But, like in any fairy tale, just when everything seems perfect and made of candy, a big bad wolf or an evil witch lurking in the shadows jumps out, grabs you and cooks you in an oven. Okay, I know I'm mixing fairy tales up — think of it as a remix okay?
In my fairy tale life of hardly any studies and homework, the big bad wolf-witch (hybrid villains, people) looks like the ASSET exam. ASSET stands for Assessment of Scholastic Skills through Educational Testing, and this national test is meant to see what concepts students understand and don't understand with detailed feedback on what we can improve in. WHY?
I mean, I already know that I get confused between 12:00a.m. and 12:00p.m. and never remember which is which.
And that irregular verbs are just something my brain can't process. And that I'm not sure where people dance Bhangra — is it Gujarat or Assam? Neither? SEE!
More exams!
Why do I need another exam to tell me what I suck at? School has enough of those exams already. At least school exams are a little straightforward. These ASSET tests try to confuse you and trip you up at every turn. All the questions are sneaky and all the answers sound the same. It's awful.
And then, when they give you the results, they don't stop with just a grade or score, but they write pages and pages of feedback of what you 'might' want to work on. And guess what happens when parents read that kind of feedback? They go into hyperdrive. Suddenly, everything is about how to make me improve my 'spatial awareness' and 'logical reasoning' and 'improve my structural foundation'. Structural foundation? I'm a child, not a church. Aargh.
My ASSET scores have been pretty unspectacular these last few years and you'd think I'd be worried. But no. Do you want to know why? The scores don't matter. They can't keep me back a year or kick me out of school if I don't do well in them. The scores have no bearing on my great future as a PubG superstar, a spider expert, or a writer of amazing graphic novels. I protest that I have to take them only to have them make me feel bad and not smart.
Q. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The last few months of the year are always filled with fun stuff at school — Dussehra break, Deepavali holidays, sports day, annual day and then the long Christmas break. There's practice, Sport's Day heats, and Project Day submissions and regular studies kind of take a back seat.
It's the best! But, like in any fairy tale, just when everything seems perfect and made of candy, a big bad wolf or an evil witch lurking in the shadows jumps out, grabs you and cooks you in an oven. Okay, I know I'm mixing fairy tales up — think of it as a remix okay?
In my fairy tale life of hardly any studies and homework, the big bad wolf-witch (hybrid villains, people) looks like the ASSET exam. ASSET stands for Assessment of Scholastic Skills through Educational Testing, and this national test is meant to see what concepts students understand and don't understand with detailed feedback on what we can improve in. WHY?
I mean, I already know that I get confused between 12:00a.m. and 12:00p.m. and never remember which is which.
And that irregular verbs are just something my brain can't process. And that I'm not sure where people dance Bhangra — is it Gujarat or Assam? Neither? SEE!
More exams!
Why do I need another exam to tell me what I suck at? School has enough of those exams already. At least school exams are a little straightforward. These ASSET tests try to confuse you and trip you up at every turn. All the questions are sneaky and all the answers sound the same. It's awful.
And then, when they give you the results, they don't stop with just a grade or score, but they write pages and pages of feedback of what you 'might' want to work on. And guess what happens when parents read that kind of feedback? They go into hyperdrive. Suddenly, everything is about how to make me improve my 'spatial awareness' and 'logical reasoning' and 'improve my structural foundation'. Structural foundation? I'm a child, not a church. Aargh.
My ASSET scores have been pretty unspectacular these last few years and you'd think I'd be worried. But no. Do you want to know why? The scores don't matter. They can't keep me back a year or kick me out of school if I don't do well in them. The scores have no bearing on my great future as a PubG superstar, a spider expert, or a writer of amazing graphic novels. I protest that I have to take them only to have them make me feel bad and not smart.
Q. According to the passage, which of the following seems to be true about the author?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
The last few months of the year are always filled with fun stuff at school — Dussehra break, Deepavali holidays, sports day, annual day and then the long Christmas break. There's practice, Sport's Day heats, and Project Day submissions and regular studies kind of take a back seat.
It's the best! But, like in any fairy tale, just when everything seems perfect and made of candy, a big bad wolf or an evil witch lurking in the shadows jumps out, grabs you and cooks you in an oven. Okay, I know I'm mixing fairy tales up — think of it as a remix okay?
In my fairy tale life of hardly any studies and homework, the big bad wolf-witch (hybrid villains, people) looks like the ASSET exam. ASSET stands for Assessment of Scholastic Skills through Educational Testing, and this national test is meant to see what concepts students understand and don't understand with detailed feedback on what we can improve in. WHY?
I mean, I already know that I get confused between 12:00a.m. and 12:00p.m. and never remember which is which.
And that irregular verbs are just something my brain can't process. And that I'm not sure where people dance Bhangra — is it Gujarat or Assam? Neither? SEE!
More exams!
Why do I need another exam to tell me what I suck at? School has enough of those exams already. At least school exams are a little straightforward. These ASSET tests try to confuse you and trip you up at every turn. All the questions are sneaky and all the answers sound the same. It's awful.
And then, when they give you the results, they don't stop with just a grade or score, but they write pages and pages of feedback of what you 'might' want to work on. And guess what happens when parents read that kind of feedback? They go into hyperdrive. Suddenly, everything is about how to make me improve my 'spatial awareness' and 'logical reasoning' and 'improve my structural foundation'. Structural foundation? I'm a child, not a church. Aargh.
My ASSET scores have been pretty unspectacular these last few years and you'd think I'd be worried. But no. Do you want to know why? The scores don't matter. They can't keep me back a year or kick me out of school if I don't do well in them. The scores have no bearing on my great future as a PubG superstar, a spider expert, or a writer of amazing graphic novels. I protest that I have to take them only to have them make me feel bad and not smart.
Q. Based on information in the passage, which of the following is most accurate?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
One summer, many years ago, while I was living in the garden city of Pune, I lay in bed, unwell. Lying in bed, I watched a large neem tree teeming with activity. Birds like orioles, flycatchers, and magpie robins were frequent visitors to the tree. Another cute resident on the neem tree was the palm squirrel; common in peninsular India. As I lay in bed, I enjoyed watching these creatures go about their daily tasks. Their activities on the tree made me get well quicker!
Then one day, I saw to my dismay that the tree was being chopped down to widen the road in the neighbouring society. I had watched the squirrel build its nest all summer, and it was with sadness I watched as the tree was slowly chopped down. I wondered what happened to the squirrel nesting in the tree.
The loss of the squirrel's nest made me sad. After much thought, I decided to do something about this. The loss of the tree led me to find out that in India trees, even the ones planted by us in our homes, need permission before they are chopped.
Over the next few years, I got involved in a programme called Pune Tree Watch, where citizens engaged with the Garden Department, to reduce tree felling in the rapidly developing city of Pune. We looked to balance development with the green needs of the city. We sought solutions like tree transplantation, alternate routes for roads or different designs for buildings, sewage and pipelines to save trees. In two to three years, we were able to save many trees, and create awareness about the laws relating to tree felling among citizens.
In 2008, I shifted to Dehradun, where I continued my work to save urban biodiversity. We worked with citizens and institutions ＿ the municipal and forest departments ＿ to save green cover in Dehradun. Over the last few years, we have successfully transplanted some trees, and saved many of them from being felled, too.
My ultimate reward in this line of work came when a tree in the middle of Dehradun city was being cut down. I watched as a squirrel ran down the tree that the municipality was chopping, and run up the one we had saved. It had lost a home, but found a new one. All the work I had done in the last decade seemed worthwhile.
It took a squirrel and a tree to move me from being aware and feeling sad, to action. All of us need to act to save nature.
So, what will be your "squirrel" moment?
Q. According to the passage, which of the following made the author feel that he needed to do something about tree felling?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
One summer, many years ago, while I was living in the garden city of Pune, I lay in bed, unwell. Lying in bed, I watched a large neem tree teeming with activity. Birds like orioles, flycatchers, and magpie robins were frequent visitors to the tree. Another cute resident on the neem tree was the palm squirrel; common in peninsular India. As I lay in bed, I enjoyed watching these creatures go about their daily tasks. Their activities on the tree made me get well quicker!
Then one day, I saw to my dismay that the tree was being chopped down to widen the road in the neighbouring society. I had watched the squirrel build its nest all summer, and it was with sadness I watched as the tree was slowly chopped down. I wondered what happened to the squirrel nesting in the tree.
The loss of the squirrel's nest made me sad. After much thought, I decided to do something about this. The loss of the tree led me to find out that in India trees, even the ones planted by us in our homes, need permission before they are chopped.
Over the next few years, I got involved in a programme called Pune Tree Watch, where citizens engaged with the Garden Department, to reduce tree felling in the rapidly developing city of Pune. We looked to balance development with the green needs of the city. We sought solutions like tree transplantation, alternate routes for roads or different designs for buildings, sewage and pipelines to save trees. In two to three years, we were able to save many trees, and create awareness about the laws relating to tree felling among citizens.
In 2008, I shifted to Dehradun, where I continued my work to save urban biodiversity. We worked with citizens and institutions ＿ the municipal and forest departments ＿ to save green cover in Dehradun. Over the last few years, we have successfully transplanted some trees, and saved many of them from being felled, too.
My ultimate reward in this line of work came when a tree in the middle of Dehradun city was being cut down. I watched as a squirrel ran down the tree that the municipality was chopping, and run up the one we had saved. It had lost a home, but found a new one. All the work I had done in the last decade seemed worthwhile.
It took a squirrel and a tree to move me from being aware and feeling sad, to action. All of us need to act to save nature.
So, what will be your "squirrel" moment?
Q. What does the word 'dismay' mean as used in the passage?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
One summer, many years ago, while I was living in the garden city of Pune, I lay in bed, unwell. Lying in bed, I watched a large neem tree teeming with activity. Birds like orioles, flycatchers, and magpie robins were frequent visitors to the tree. Another cute resident on the neem tree was the palm squirrel; common in peninsular India. As I lay in bed, I enjoyed watching these creatures go about their daily tasks. Their activities on the tree made me get well quicker!
Then one day, I saw to my dismay that the tree was being chopped down to widen the road in the neighbouring society. I had watched the squirrel build its nest all summer, and it was with sadness I watched as the tree was slowly chopped down. I wondered what happened to the squirrel nesting in the tree.
The loss of the squirrel's nest made me sad. After much thought, I decided to do something about this. The loss of the tree led me to find out that in India trees, even the ones planted by us in our homes, need permission before they are chopped.
Over the next few years, I got involved in a programme called Pune Tree Watch, where citizens engaged with the Garden Department, to reduce tree felling in the rapidly developing city of Pune. We looked to balance development with the green needs of the city. We sought solutions like tree transplantation, alternate routes for roads or different designs for buildings, sewage and pipelines to save trees. In two to three years, we were able to save many trees, and create awareness about the laws relating to tree felling among citizens.
In 2008, I shifted to Dehradun, where I continued my work to save urban biodiversity. We worked with citizens and institutions ＿ the municipal and forest departments ＿ to save green cover in Dehradun. Over the last few years, we have successfully transplanted some trees, and saved many of them from being felled, too.
My ultimate reward in this line of work came when a tree in the middle of Dehradun city was being cut down. I watched as a squirrel ran down the tree that the municipality was chopping, and run up the one we had saved. It had lost a home, but found a new one. All the work I had done in the last decade seemed worthwhile.
It took a squirrel and a tree to move me from being aware and feeling sad, to action. All of us need to act to save nature.
So, what will be your "squirrel" moment?
Q. Which of the following can be considered similar to the situation when the author decided to fight for tree preservation in his region?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
One summer, many years ago, while I was living in the garden city of Pune, I lay in bed, unwell. Lying in bed, I watched a large neem tree teeming with activity. Birds like orioles, flycatchers, and magpie robins were frequent visitors to the tree. Another cute resident on the neem tree was the palm squirrel; common in peninsular India. As I lay in bed, I enjoyed watching these creatures go about their daily tasks. Their activities on the tree made me get well quicker!
Then one day, I saw to my dismay that the tree was being chopped down to widen the road in the neighbouring society. I had watched the squirrel build its nest all summer, and it was with sadness I watched as the tree was slowly chopped down. I wondered what happened to the squirrel nesting in the tree.
The loss of the squirrel's nest made me sad. After much thought, I decided to do something about this. The loss of the tree led me to find out that in India trees, even the ones planted by us in our homes, need permission before they are chopped.
Over the next few years, I got involved in a programme called Pune Tree Watch, where citizens engaged with the Garden Department, to reduce tree felling in the rapidly developing city of Pune. We looked to balance development with the green needs of the city. We sought solutions like tree transplantation, alternate routes for roads or different designs for buildings, sewage and pipelines to save trees. In two to three years, we were able to save many trees, and create awareness about the laws relating to tree felling among citizens.
In 2008, I shifted to Dehradun, where I continued my work to save urban biodiversity. We worked with citizens and institutions ＿ the municipal and forest departments ＿ to save green cover in Dehradun. Over the last few years, we have successfully transplanted some trees, and saved many of them from being felled, too.
My ultimate reward in this line of work came when a tree in the middle of Dehradun city was being cut down. I watched as a squirrel ran down the tree that the municipality was chopping, and run up the one we had saved. It had lost a home, but found a new one. All the work I had done in the last decade seemed worthwhile.
It took a squirrel and a tree to move me from being aware and feeling sad, to action. All of us need to act to save nature.
So, what will be your "squirrel" moment?
Q. Based on information from the given passage, which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
One summer, many years ago, while I was living in the garden city of Pune, I lay in bed, unwell. Lying in bed, I watched a large neem tree teeming with activity. Birds like orioles, flycatchers, and magpie robins were frequent visitors to the tree. Another cute resident on the neem tree was the palm squirrel; common in peninsular India. As I lay in bed, I enjoyed watching these creatures go about their daily tasks. Their activities on the tree made me get well quicker!
Then one day, I saw to my dismay that the tree was being chopped down to widen the road in the neighbouring society. I had watched the squirrel build its nest all summer, and it was with sadness I watched as the tree was slowly chopped down. I wondered what happened to the squirrel nesting in the tree.
The loss of the squirrel's nest made me sad. After much thought, I decided to do something about this. The loss of the tree led me to find out that in India trees, even the ones planted by us in our homes, need permission before they are chopped.
Over the next few years, I got involved in a programme called Pune Tree Watch, where citizens engaged with the Garden Department, to reduce tree felling in the rapidly developing city of Pune. We looked to balance development with the green needs of the city. We sought solutions like tree transplantation, alternate routes for roads or different designs for buildings, sewage and pipelines to save trees. In two to three years, we were able to save many trees, and create awareness about the laws relating to tree felling among citizens.
In 2008, I shifted to Dehradun, where I continued my work to save urban biodiversity. We worked with citizens and institutions ＿ the municipal and forest departments ＿ to save green cover in Dehradun. Over the last few years, we have successfully transplanted some trees, and saved many of them from being felled, too.
My ultimate reward in this line of work came when a tree in the middle of Dehradun city was being cut down. I watched as a squirrel ran down the tree that the municipality was chopping, and run up the one we had saved. It had lost a home, but found a new one. All the work I had done in the last decade seemed worthwhile.
It took a squirrel and a tree to move me from being aware and feeling sad, to action. All of us need to act to save nature.
So, what will be your "squirrel" moment?
Q. Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the passage?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
August 30 was a big day for India at the Paralympics. The country won five medals, including two gold, bettering the Rio 2016 contingent’s haul in just a day. Indians with disabilities, like all Indians, are proud of these achievements.
The Paralympics is a unique opportunity to empower the disabled. It offers everyone the chance to watch disabled bodies in action and to find commonality with them in the shared desire for national success. Sustained media attention ensures that athletes with disabilities capture the public imagination in an unprecedented way.
For India, the success in these Paralympics will be truly meaningful only if it prompts introspection and reorientation. At the systemic level, this has to cover governance reforms in the Paralympic Committee of India. The Committee is now headed by a medal-winning former Paralympian, Deepa Malik. The Union Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs brought parity to the cash rewards structure for medal-winning Paralympians placing them on equal footing with their able-bodied counterparts at the Olympics. These are steps in the right direction.
To deliver the value of sport more inclusively, satellite television providers and sports broadcasters must take steps that enable the disabled to watch and participate in sporting activities. Further, pictures of the Paralympics in electronic media and on social media must be accompanied by image descriptions for the visually challenged. At the individual level, everyone can view athletes with disabilities in a holistic sense while also acknowledging their additional challenges and striving to create more opportunities for the disabled people in our lives so they can participate in all walks of life.
It is easy to admire the courage of our para-athletes from afar. It is much harder to use these Games as an opportunity to do our bit to change things, to ensure that we are regularly surrounded by such competent and driven disabled people who are given the additional support they need to thrive. With intent, resolve and action, we can make the Paralympics count for India not just on the medal table but in the everyday.
Q. What is the theme of the passage?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
August 30 was a big day for India at the Paralympics. The country won five medals, including two gold, bettering the Rio 2016 contingent’s haul in just a day. Indians with disabilities, like all Indians, are proud of these achievements.
The Paralympics is a unique opportunity to empower the disabled. It offers everyone the chance to watch disabled bodies in action and to find commonality with them in the shared desire for national success. Sustained media attention ensures that athletes with disabilities capture the public imagination in an unprecedented way.
For India, the success in these Paralympics will be truly meaningful only if it prompts introspection and reorientation. At the systemic level, this has to cover governance reforms in the Paralympic Committee of India. The Committee is now headed by a medal-winning former Paralympian, Deepa Malik. The Union Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs brought parity to the cash rewards structure for medal-winning Paralympians placing them on equal footing with their able-bodied counterparts at the Olympics. These are steps in the right direction.
To deliver the value of sport more inclusively, satellite television providers and sports broadcasters must take steps that enable the disabled to watch and participate in sporting activities. Further, pictures of the Paralympics in electronic media and on social media must be accompanied by image descriptions for the visually challenged. At the individual level, everyone can view athletes with disabilities in a holistic sense while also acknowledging their additional challenges and striving to create more opportunities for the disabled people in our lives so they can participate in all walks of life.
It is easy to admire the courage of our para-athletes from afar. It is much harder to use these Games as an opportunity to do our bit to change things, to ensure that we are regularly surrounded by such competent and driven disabled people who are given the additional support they need to thrive. With intent, resolve and action, we can make the Paralympics count for India not just on the medal table but in the everyday.
Q. Which of the following statements is correct, according to the passage?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
August 30 was a big day for India at the Paralympics. The country won five medals, including two gold, bettering the Rio 2016 contingent’s haul in just a day. Indians with disabilities, like all Indians, are proud of these achievements.
The Paralympics is a unique opportunity to empower the disabled. It offers everyone the chance to watch disabled bodies in action and to find commonality with them in the shared desire for national success. Sustained media attention ensures that athletes with disabilities capture the public imagination in an unprecedented way.
For India, the success in these Paralympics will be truly meaningful only if it prompts introspection and reorientation. At the systemic level, this has to cover governance reforms in the Paralympic Committee of India. The Committee is now headed by a medal-winning former Paralympian, Deepa Malik. The Union Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs brought parity to the cash rewards structure for medal-winning Paralympians placing them on equal footing with their able-bodied counterparts at the Olympics. These are steps in the right direction.
To deliver the value of sport more inclusively, satellite television providers and sports broadcasters must take steps that enable the disabled to watch and participate in sporting activities. Further, pictures of the Paralympics in electronic media and on social media must be accompanied by image descriptions for the visually challenged. At the individual level, everyone can view athletes with disabilities in a holistic sense while also acknowledging their additional challenges and striving to create more opportunities for the disabled people in our lives so they can participate in all walks of life.
It is easy to admire the courage of our para-athletes from afar. It is much harder to use these Games as an opportunity to do our bit to change things, to ensure that we are regularly surrounded by such competent and driven disabled people who are given the additional support they need to thrive. With intent, resolve and action, we can make the Paralympics count for India not just on the medal table but in the everyday.
Q. How can satellite television providers and sports broadcasters deliver the value of sport more inclusively?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
August 30 was a big day for India at the Paralympics. The country won five medals, including two gold, bettering the Rio 2016 contingent’s haul in just a day. Indians with disabilities, like all Indians, are proud of these achievements.
The Paralympics is a unique opportunity to empower the disabled. It offers everyone the chance to watch disabled bodies in action and to find commonality with them in the shared desire for national success. Sustained media attention ensures that athletes with disabilities capture the public imagination in an unprecedented way.
For India, the success in these Paralympics will be truly meaningful only if it prompts introspection and reorientation. At the systemic level, this has to cover governance reforms in the Paralympic Committee of India. The Committee is now headed by a medal-winning former Paralympian, Deepa Malik. The Union Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs brought parity to the cash rewards structure for medal-winning Paralympians placing them on equal footing with their able-bodied counterparts at the Olympics. These are steps in the right direction.
To deliver the value of sport more inclusively, satellite television providers and sports broadcasters must take steps that enable the disabled to watch and participate in sporting activities. Further, pictures of the Paralympics in electronic media and on social media must be accompanied by image descriptions for the visually challenged. At the individual level, everyone can view athletes with disabilities in a holistic sense while also acknowledging their additional challenges and striving to create more opportunities for the disabled people in our lives so they can participate in all walks of life.
It is easy to admire the courage of our para-athletes from afar. It is much harder to use these Games as an opportunity to do our bit to change things, to ensure that we are regularly surrounded by such competent and driven disabled people who are given the additional support they need to thrive. With intent, resolve and action, we can make the Paralympics count for India not just on the medal table but in the everyday.
Q. What is the tone of the passage?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
August 30 was a big day for India at the Paralympics. The country won five medals, including two gold, bettering the Rio 2016 contingent’s haul in just a day. Indians with disabilities, like all Indians, are proud of these achievements.
The Paralympics is a unique opportunity to empower the disabled. It offers everyone the chance to watch disabled bodies in action and to find commonality with them in the shared desire for national success. Sustained media attention ensures that athletes with disabilities capture the public imagination in an unprecedented way.
For India, the success in these Paralympics will be truly meaningful only if it prompts introspection and reorientation. At the systemic level, this has to cover governance reforms in the Paralympic Committee of India. The Committee is now headed by a medal-winning former Paralympian, Deepa Malik. The Union Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs brought parity to the cash rewards structure for medal-winning Paralympians placing them on equal footing with their able-bodied counterparts at the Olympics. These are steps in the right direction.
To deliver the value of sport more inclusively, satellite television providers and sports broadcasters must take steps that enable the disabled to watch and participate in sporting activities. Further, pictures of the Paralympics in electronic media and on social media must be accompanied by image descriptions for the visually challenged. At the individual level, everyone can view athletes with disabilities in a holistic sense while also acknowledging their additional challenges and striving to create more opportunities for the disabled people in our lives so they can participate in all walks of life.
It is easy to admire the courage of our para-athletes from afar. It is much harder to use these Games as an opportunity to do our bit to change things, to ensure that we are regularly surrounded by such competent and driven disabled people who are given the additional support they need to thrive. With intent, resolve and action, we can make the Paralympics count for India not just on the medal table but in the everyday.
Q. Which of the following phrases is the near synonym of the word ‘prompt’?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
He was an old man who fished alone in a skiff in the Gulf Stream and he had gone eighty-four days now without taking a fish. In the first forty days a boy had been with him. But after forty days without a fish the boy's parents had told him that the old man was now definitely and finally salao, which is the worst form of unlucky, and the boy had gone at their orders in another boat which caught three good fish the first week. It made the boy sad to see the old man come in each day with his skiff empty and he always went down to help him carry either the coiled lines or the gaff and harpoon and the sail that was around the mast. The sail was patched with flour sacks and, furled, it looked like the flag of permanent defeat.
Everything about him was old except his eyes and they were the same colour as the sea and were cheerful and______________ (10).
"Santiago," the boy said to him as they climbed the bank from where the skiff was hauled up. "I could go with you again. We've made some money." The old man had taught the boy to fish and the boy loved him.
"No," the old man said. "You're with a lucky boat. Stay with them."
"It was papa made me leave. I am a boy and I must obey him."
"I know," the old man said. "It is quite normal."
"Yes," the boy said. "Can I offer you a beer on the Terrace and then we'll take the stuff home."
"Why not?" the old man said. "Between fishermen."
They sat on the Terrace and many of the fishermen made fun of the old man and he was not angry. Others, of the older fishermen, looked at him and were sad. But they did not show it and they spoke politely about the current and the depths they had drifted their lines at and the steady good weather and of what they had seen. The successful fishermen of that day were already in and had butchered their marlin out and carried them laid full length across two planks, with two men staggering at the end of each plank, to the fish house where they waited for the ice truck to carry them to the market in Havana.
Q. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
He was an old man who fished alone in a skiff in the Gulf Stream and he had gone eighty-four days now without taking a fish. In the first forty days a boy had been with him. But after forty days without a fish the boy's parents had told him that the old man was now definitely and finally salao, which is the worst form of unlucky, and the boy had gone at their orders in another boat which caught three good fish the first week. It made the boy sad to see the old man come in each day with his skiff empty and he always went down to help him carry either the coiled lines or the gaff and harpoon and the sail that was around the mast. The sail was patched with flour sacks and, furled, it looked like the flag of permanent defeat.
Everything about him was old except his eyes and they were the same colour as the sea and were cheerful and______________ (10).
"Santiago," the boy said to him as they climbed the bank from where the skiff was hauled up. "I could go with you again. We've made some money." The old man had taught the boy to fish and the boy loved him.
"No," the old man said. "You're with a lucky boat. Stay with them."
"It was papa made me leave. I am a boy and I must obey him."
"I know," the old man said. "It is quite normal."
"Yes," the boy said. "Can I offer you a beer on the Terrace and then we'll take the stuff home."
"Why not?" the old man said. "Between fishermen."
They sat on the Terrace and many of the fishermen made fun of the old man and he was not angry. Others, of the older fishermen, looked at him and were sad. But they did not show it and they spoke politely about the current and the depths they had drifted their lines at and the steady good weather and of what they had seen. The successful fishermen of that day were already in and had butchered their marlin out and carried them laid full length across two planks, with two men staggering at the end of each plank, to the fish house where they waited for the ice truck to carry them to the market in Havana.
Q. What did the successful fishermen of the day do?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
He was an old man who fished alone in a skiff in the Gulf Stream and he had gone eighty-four days now without taking a fish. In the first forty days a boy had been with him. But after forty days without a fish the boy's parents had told him that the old man was now definitely and finally salao, which is the worst form of unlucky, and the boy had gone at their orders in another boat which caught three good fish the first week. It made the boy sad to see the old man come in each day with his skiff empty and he always went down to help him carry either the coiled lines or the gaff and harpoon and the sail that was around the mast. The sail was patched with flour sacks and, furled, it looked like the flag of permanent defeat.
Everything about him was old except his eyes and they were the same colour as the sea and were cheerful and______________ (10).
"Santiago," the boy said to him as they climbed the bank from where the skiff was hauled up. "I could go with you again. We've made some money." The old man had taught the boy to fish and the boy loved him.
"No," the old man said. "You're with a lucky boat. Stay with them."
"It was papa made me leave. I am a boy and I must obey him."
"I know," the old man said. "It is quite normal."
"Yes," the boy said. "Can I offer you a beer on the Terrace and then we'll take the stuff home."
"Why not?" the old man said. "Between fishermen."
They sat on the Terrace and many of the fishermen made fun of the old man and he was not angry. Others, of the older fishermen, looked at him and were sad. But they did not show it and they spoke politely about the current and the depths they had drifted their lines at and the steady good weather and of what they had seen. The successful fishermen of that day were already in and had butchered their marlin out and carried them laid full length across two planks, with two men staggering at the end of each plank, to the fish house where they waited for the ice truck to carry them to the market in Havana.
Q. Which of the following could fill the blank (10) in the passage?
Everything about him was old except his eyes and they were the same colour as the sea and were cheerful and______________ (10).
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
He was an old man who fished alone in a skiff in the Gulf Stream and he had gone eighty-four days now without taking a fish. In the first forty days a boy had been with him. But after forty days without a fish the boy's parents had told him that the old man was now definitely and finally salao, which is the worst form of unlucky, and the boy had gone at their orders in another boat which caught three good fish the first week. It made the boy sad to see the old man come in each day with his skiff empty and he always went down to help him carry either the coiled lines or the gaff and harpoon and the sail that was around the mast. The sail was patched with flour sacks and, furled, it looked like the flag of permanent defeat.
Everything about him was old except his eyes and they were the same colour as the sea and were cheerful and______________ (10).
"Santiago," the boy said to him as they climbed the bank from where the skiff was hauled up. "I could go with you again. We've made some money." The old man had taught the boy to fish and the boy loved him.
"No," the old man said. "You're with a lucky boat. Stay with them."
"It was papa made me leave. I am a boy and I must obey him."
"I know," the old man said. "It is quite normal."
"Yes," the boy said. "Can I offer you a beer on the Terrace and then we'll take the stuff home."
"Why not?" the old man said. "Between fishermen."
They sat on the Terrace and many of the fishermen made fun of the old man and he was not angry. Others, of the older fishermen, looked at him and were sad. But they did not show it and they spoke politely about the current and the depths they had drifted their lines at and the steady good weather and of what they had seen. The successful fishermen of that day were already in and had butchered their marlin out and carried them laid full length across two planks, with two men staggering at the end of each plank, to the fish house where they waited for the ice truck to carry them to the market in Havana.
Q. What did the boy do when he saw the old man returning each day from the sea empty handed?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
He was an old man who fished alone in a skiff in the Gulf Stream and he had gone eighty-four days now without taking a fish. In the first forty days a boy had been with him. But after forty days without a fish the boy's parents had told him that the old man was now definitely and finally salao, which is the worst form of unlucky, and the boy had gone at their orders in another boat which caught three good fish the first week. It made the boy sad to see the old man come in each day with his skiff empty and he always went down to help him carry either the coiled lines or the gaff and harpoon and the sail that was around the mast. The sail was patched with flour sacks and, furled, it looked like the flag of permanent defeat.
Everything about him was old except his eyes and they were the same colour as the sea and were cheerful and______________ (10).
"Santiago," the boy said to him as they climbed the bank from where the skiff was hauled up. "I could go with you again. We've made some money." The old man had taught the boy to fish and the boy loved him.
"No," the old man said. "You're with a lucky boat. Stay with them."
"It was papa made me leave. I am a boy and I must obey him."
"I know," the old man said. "It is quite normal."
"Yes," the boy said. "Can I offer you a beer on the Terrace and then we'll take the stuff home."
"Why not?" the old man said. "Between fishermen."
They sat on the Terrace and many of the fishermen made fun of the old man and he was not angry. Others, of the older fishermen, looked at him and were sad. But they did not show it and they spoke politely about the current and the depths they had drifted their lines at and the steady good weather and of what they had seen. The successful fishermen of that day were already in and had butchered their marlin out and carried them laid full length across two planks, with two men staggering at the end of each plank, to the fish house where they waited for the ice truck to carry them to the market in Havana.
Q. Which of the following is a near synonym of the word ‘haul’?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
India faces a tough task ahead: to show its commitment to building the semiconductor industry. Industrial policies with capital may attract investments and potential bids, but favourable trade policies and a conducive business environment can ensure the completion of the projects and yield results. In the long run, this approach can attract more international semiconductor firms. India can be closer to its goals by adopting the following policy recommendations. To begin with, India must change its approach to foreign trade policy and make it more accommodating to the technology sector. The government can then focus on developing a comprehensive trade policy suited or catered to the semiconductor industry itself. Existing mercantilist and distortive trade practices that undermine the tenets of market-based competitiveness in the industry must be eliminated. India should join the World Semiconductor Council to make its voice heard among the semiconductor powerhouses. The Council is a strong proponent of free trade and is guided by the principles of fairness, respect for market principles, and consistency with WTO rules.
Q. The US Department of Commerce imposed restrictions on _____________ largest chip manufacturer, Semiconductor Manufacturing International Corporation (SMIC), leading to global chip shortage.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
India faces a tough task ahead: to show its commitment to building the semiconductor industry. Industrial policies with capital may attract investments and potential bids, but favourable trade policies and a conducive business environment can ensure the completion of the projects and yield results. In the long run, this approach can attract more international semiconductor firms. India can be closer to its goals by adopting the following policy recommendations. To begin with, India must change its approach to foreign trade policy and make it more accommodating to the technology sector. The government can then focus on developing a comprehensive trade policy suited or catered to the semiconductor industry itself. Existing mercantilist and distortive trade practices that undermine the tenets of market-based competitiveness in the industry must be eliminated. India should join the World Semiconductor Council to make its voice heard among the semiconductor powerhouses. The Council is a strong proponent of free trade and is guided by the principles of fairness, respect for market principles, and consistency with WTO rules.
Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.
Assertion (A): India stayed out of the expansion of World Trade Organization's Information Technology Agreement in 2015.
Reason (R): The government had introduced the 'Make in India' policy to improve domestic manufacturing across various sectors.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
India faces a tough task ahead: to show its commitment to building the semiconductor industry. Industrial policies with capital may attract investments and potential bids, but favourable trade policies and a conducive business environment can ensure the completion of the projects and yield results. In the long run, this approach can attract more international semiconductor firms. India can be closer to its goals by adopting the following policy recommendations. To begin with, India must change its approach to foreign trade policy and make it more accommodating to the technology sector. The government can then focus on developing a comprehensive trade policy suited or catered to the semiconductor industry itself. Existing mercantilist and distortive trade practices that undermine the tenets of market-based competitiveness in the industry must be eliminated. India should join the World Semiconductor Council to make its voice heard among the semiconductor powerhouses. The Council is a strong proponent of free trade and is guided by the principles of fairness, respect for market principles, and consistency with WTO rules.
Q. Mark the incorrect statement about WTO.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
India faces a tough task ahead: to show its commitment to building the semiconductor industry. Industrial policies with capital may attract investments and potential bids, but favourable trade policies and a conducive business environment can ensure the completion of the projects and yield results. In the long run, this approach can attract more international semiconductor firms. India can be closer to its goals by adopting the following policy recommendations. To begin with, India must change its approach to foreign trade policy and make it more accommodating to the technology sector. The government can then focus on developing a comprehensive trade policy suited or catered to the semiconductor industry itself. Existing mercantilist and distortive trade practices that undermine the tenets of market-based competitiveness in the industry must be eliminated. India should join the World Semiconductor Council to make its voice heard among the semiconductor powerhouses. The Council is a strong proponent of free trade and is guided by the principles of fairness, respect for market principles, and consistency with WTO rules.
Q. When was 'World Semiconductor Council' established?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
India faces a tough task ahead: to show its commitment to building the semiconductor industry. Industrial policies with capital may attract investments and potential bids, but favourable trade policies and a conducive business environment can ensure the completion of the projects and yield results. In the long run, this approach can attract more international semiconductor firms. India can be closer to its goals by adopting the following policy recommendations. To begin with, India must change its approach to foreign trade policy and make it more accommodating to the technology sector. The government can then focus on developing a comprehensive trade policy suited or catered to the semiconductor industry itself. Existing mercantilist and distortive trade practices that undermine the tenets of market-based competitiveness in the industry must be eliminated. India should join the World Semiconductor Council to make its voice heard among the semiconductor powerhouses. The Council is a strong proponent of free trade and is guided by the principles of fairness, respect for market principles, and consistency with WTO rules.
Q. SAGAR, Security and Growth for All in the Region, is an initiative of Government of India's foreign policy for maritime cooperation in the ________.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play a fundamental role in India's economic growth, contributing 30 per cent to its GDP and nearly 50 per cent to its exports. The sector encompasses over 63 million enterprises and provides a livelihood to over 111 million workers. With the manufacturing sector's contribution to GDP hovering around the 15 per cent mark over the past two decades, MSMEs are seen as a way of re-energising the sector that will push its contribution to 25 per cent of GDP. The potential of MSMEs is well-recognised by industry bodies, academics, and policymakers. In a recently concluded MSME conclave, BB Swain, Secretary, Ministry of MSME, highlighted MSMEs' potential in building a complete supply chain, enhancing their global competitiveness. Along similar lines, the Economic Survey also underlines the significant benefits that can be reaped by participation in GVCs (Global Value Chains) for Indian manufacturing by creating four million jobs by 2025 and contributing one-fourth in value-added terms towards the $5 trillion economy. A recent MSME digital readiness survey of 250 Indian MSMEs by PayPal highlights that 29 per cent of these firms witnessed an increase in online customers and 32 per cent experienced better payment solutions.
[Source - The Hindu, May 1, 2022]
Q. As of 2022, who is the Minister of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play a fundamental role in India's economic growth, contributing 30 per cent to its GDP and nearly 50 per cent to its exports. The sector encompasses over 63 million enterprises and provides a livelihood to over 111 million workers. With the manufacturing sector's contribution to GDP hovering around the 15 per cent mark over the past two decades, MSMEs are seen as a way of re-energising the sector that will push its contribution to 25 per cent of GDP. The potential of MSMEs is well-recognised by industry bodies, academics, and policymakers. In a recently concluded MSME conclave, BB Swain, Secretary, Ministry of MSME, highlighted MSMEs' potential in building a complete supply chain, enhancing their global competitiveness. Along similar lines, the Economic Survey also underlines the significant benefits that can be reaped by participation in GVCs (Global Value Chains) for Indian manufacturing by creating four million jobs by 2025 and contributing one-fourth in value-added terms towards the $5 trillion economy. A recent MSME digital readiness survey of 250 Indian MSMEs by PayPal highlights that 29 per cent of these firms witnessed an increase in online customers and 32 per cent experienced better payment solutions.
[Source - The Hindu, May 1, 2022]
Q. Which act classifies industries into micro, small and medium enterprises?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play a fundamental role in India's economic growth, contributing 30 per cent to its GDP and nearly 50 per cent to its exports. The sector encompasses over 63 million enterprises and provides a livelihood to over 111 million workers. With the manufacturing sector's contribution to GDP hovering around the 15 per cent mark over the past two decades, MSMEs are seen as a way of re-energising the sector that will push its contribution to 25 per cent of GDP. The potential of MSMEs is well-recognised by industry bodies, academics, and policymakers. In a recently concluded MSME conclave, BB Swain, Secretary, Ministry of MSME, highlighted MSMEs' potential in building a complete supply chain, enhancing their global competitiveness. Along similar lines, the Economic Survey also underlines the significant benefits that can be reaped by participation in GVCs (Global Value Chains) for Indian manufacturing by creating four million jobs by 2025 and contributing one-fourth in value-added terms towards the $5 trillion economy. A recent MSME digital readiness survey of 250 Indian MSMEs by PayPal highlights that 29 per cent of these firms witnessed an increase in online customers and 32 per cent experienced better payment solutions.
[Source - The Hindu, May 1, 2022]
Q. Name the apex regulatory body for the overall regulation and licensing of micro, small and medium enterprise finance companies in India.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play a fundamental role in India's economic growth, contributing 30 per cent to its GDP and nearly 50 per cent to its exports. The sector encompasses over 63 million enterprises and provides a livelihood to over 111 million workers. With the manufacturing sector's contribution to GDP hovering around the 15 per cent mark over the past two decades, MSMEs are seen as a way of re-energising the sector that will push its contribution to 25 per cent of GDP. The potential of MSMEs is well-recognised by industry bodies, academics, and policymakers. In a recently concluded MSME conclave, BB Swain, Secretary, Ministry of MSME, highlighted MSMEs' potential in building a complete supply chain, enhancing their global competitiveness. Along similar lines, the Economic Survey also underlines the significant benefits that can be reaped by participation in GVCs (Global Value Chains) for Indian manufacturing by creating four million jobs by 2025 and contributing one-fourth in value-added terms towards the $5 trillion economy. A recent MSME digital readiness survey of 250 Indian MSMEs by PayPal highlights that 29 per cent of these firms witnessed an increase in online customers and 32 per cent experienced better payment solutions.
[Source - The Hindu, May 1, 2022]
Q. Mark the incorrect pair. (Industries-Turnover)
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play a fundamental role in India's economic growth, contributing 30 per cent to its GDP and nearly 50 per cent to its exports. The sector encompasses over 63 million enterprises and provides a livelihood to over 111 million workers. With the manufacturing sector's contribution to GDP hovering around the 15 per cent mark over the past two decades, MSMEs are seen as a way of re-energising the sector that will push its contribution to 25 per cent of GDP. The potential of MSMEs is well-recognised by industry bodies, academics, and policymakers. In a recently concluded MSME conclave, BB Swain, Secretary, Ministry of MSME, highlighted MSMEs' potential in building a complete supply chain, enhancing their global competitiveness. Along similar lines, the Economic Survey also underlines the significant benefits that can be reaped by participation in GVCs (Global Value Chains) for Indian manufacturing by creating four million jobs by 2025 and contributing one-fourth in value-added terms towards the $5 trillion economy. A recent MSME digital readiness survey of 250 Indian MSMEs by PayPal highlights that 29 per cent of these firms witnessed an increase in online customers and 32 per cent experienced better payment solutions.
[Source - The Hindu, May 1, 2022]
Q. Which of the following launched a 75-day-long MSME Yatra programme, from Mumbai, to support MSMEs in scaling-up and capacity building?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL) has planned to invest Rs 35,000 crore for completion of its five major ongoing projects, including the India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFPL), in the next five years. The company is determined to execute the major ongoing initiatives, namely, Numaligarh Refinery expansion, Paradip Numaligarh crude oil pipeline and crude oil import terminal at Paradip, 2G ethanol project and IBFPL. The projects will enable long-term business growth, and completion of these initiatives without any time and cost overrun remains the core focus area of the company. The approved cost of the expansion project is Rs 18,968 crore and as on June 30, 2022, the physical progress was 14.1 per cent and the cumulative financial commitment was Rs 11,996 crore. The approved cost of the crude oil pipeline and terminal projects is Rs 9,058 crore and by the end of the first fiscal of the current fiscal, the physical progress was 27.5 per cent while the financial progress was 33.01 per cent. Regarding the IBFPL project, the CMD said it has been targetted to be commissioned by October, 2022 and the overall physical progress till June 30 this year is 92.7 per cent.
[Source - www.business-standard.com, September 20, 2022]
Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.
Statement I: The India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline Project (IBFPP) aims to connect Siliguri in West Bengal, India with Parbatipur in Bangladesh's Dinajpur district.
Statement II: The project is jointly implemented by the Numaligarh Refinery Limited of India and Meghna Petroleum Limited of Bangladesh.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL) has planned to invest Rs 35,000 crore for completion of its five major ongoing projects, including the India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFPL), in the next five years. The company is determined to execute the major ongoing initiatives, namely, Numaligarh Refinery expansion, Paradip Numaligarh crude oil pipeline and crude oil import terminal at Paradip, 2G ethanol project and IBFPL. The projects will enable long-term business growth, and completion of these initiatives without any time and cost overrun remains the core focus area of the company. The approved cost of the expansion project is Rs 18,968 crore and as on June 30, 2022, the physical progress was 14.1 per cent and the cumulative financial commitment was Rs 11,996 crore. The approved cost of the crude oil pipeline and terminal projects is Rs 9,058 crore and by the end of the first fiscal of the current fiscal, the physical progress was 27.5 per cent while the financial progress was 33.01 per cent. Regarding the IBFPL project, the CMD said it has been targeted to be commissioned by October, 2022 and the overall physical progress till June 30 this year is 92.7 per cent.
[Source - www.business-standard.com, September 20, 2022]
Q. PM Modi and Bangladesh's Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina have jointly unveiled the Maitree Super Thermal Power Project in 2022. Which of the following companies has developed this project for Bangladesh-India Friendship Power Company Private Limited?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL) has planned to invest Rs 35,000 crore for completion of its five major ongoing projects, including the India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFPL), in the next five years. The company is determined to execute the major ongoing initiatives, namely, Numaligarh Refinery expansion, Paradip Numaligarh crude oil pipeline and crude oil import terminal at Paradip, 2G ethanol project and IBFPL. The projects will enable long-term business growth, and completion of these initiatives without any time and cost overrun remains the core focus area of the company. The approved cost of the expansion project is Rs 18,968 crore and as on June 30, 2022, the physical progress was 14.1 per cent and the cumulative financial commitment was Rs 11,996 crore. The approved cost of the crude oil pipeline and terminal projects is Rs 9,058 crore and by the end of the first fiscal of the current fiscal, the physical progress was 27.5 per cent while the financial progress was 33.01 per cent. Regarding the IBFPL project, the CMD said it has been targeted to be commissioned by October, 2022 and the overall physical progress till June 30 this year is 92.7 per cent.
[Source - www.business-standard.com, September 20, 2022]
Q. How many north-eastern states are connected through the 'Siliguri Corridor'?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL) has planned to invest Rs 35,000 crore for completion of its five major ongoing projects, including the India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFPL), in the next five years. The company is determined to execute the major ongoing initiatives, namely, Numaligarh Refinery expansion, Paradip Numaligarh crude oil pipeline and crude oil import terminal at Paradip, 2G ethanol project and IBFPL. The projects will enable long-term business growth, and completion of these initiatives without any time and cost overrun remains the core focus area of the company. The approved cost of the expansion project is Rs 18,968 crore and as on June 30, 2022, the physical progress was 14.1 per cent and the cumulative financial commitment was Rs 11,996 crore. The approved cost of the crude oil pipeline and terminal projects is Rs 9,058 crore and by the end of the first fiscal of the current fiscal, the physical progress was 27.5 per cent while the financial progress was 33.01 per cent. Regarding the IBFPL project, the CMD said it has been targeted to be commissioned by October, 2022 and the overall physical progress till June 30 this year is 92.7 per cent.
[Source - www.business-standard.com, September 20, 2022]
Q. For how many years will Bangladesh import diesel under the contract of India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL) has planned to invest Rs 35,000 crore for completion of its five major ongoing projects, including the India-Bangladesh Friendship Pipeline (IBFPL), in the next five years. The company is determined to execute the major ongoing initiatives, namely, Numaligarh Refinery expansion, Paradip Numaligarh crude oil pipeline and crude oil import terminal at Paradip, 2G ethanol project and IBFPL. The projects will enable long-term business growth, and completion of these initiatives without any time and cost overrun remains the core focus area of the company. The approved cost of the expansion project is Rs 18,968 crore and as on June 30, 2022, the physical progress was 14.1 per cent and the cumulative financial commitment was Rs 11,996 crore. The approved cost of the crude oil pipeline and terminal projects is Rs 9,058 crore and by the end of the first fiscal of the current fiscal, the physical progress was 27.5 per cent while the financial progress was 33.01 per cent. Regarding the IBFPL project, the CMD said it has been targeted to be commissioned by October, 2022 and the overall physical progress till June 30 this year is 92.7 per cent.
[Source - www.business-standard.com, September 20, 2022]
Q. When did Bangladesh become a constitutionally secular state?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Foreign Ministers of QUAD nations met in New York on 23rd September 2022 and signed into operation the Guidelines for the 'Quad Partnership on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) in the Indo-Pacific'. This partnership was announced by QUAD leaders in Tokyo on 24th May 2022, as part of a shared vision for a free and open Indo-Pacific that is inclusive and resilient. The signing of these 'Guidelines' marks a significant moment in QUAD cooperation, which traces its origin from the 2004 ad hoc Tsunami Core Group which catalyzed international response efforts in the aftermath of the tsunami that devastated many countries in the region. The Partnership has been designed to respond to the vulnerabilities of the Indo-Pacific region and will serve as a dedicated framework for QUAD partners to coordinate their disaster response operations in the region. The mechanism will augment their capacity and capability, interoperability and operational synergy to undertake HADR operations. Response operations will be guided by the core principles of humanity, neutrality and impartiality as outlined in the United Nations General Assembly Resolution 46/182 on the provisions of humanitarian assistance. A request for international assistance is needed before QUAD partners may act in coordination under the Partnership.
[Source - www.mea.gov.in, September 23, 2022]
Q. Mark the incorrect statement.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Foreign Ministers of QUAD nations met in New York on 23rd September 2022 and signed into operation the Guidelines for the 'Quad Partnership on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) in the Indo-Pacific'. This partnership was announced by QUAD leaders in Tokyo on 24th May 2022, as part of a shared vision for a free and open Indo-Pacific that is inclusive and resilient. The signing of these 'Guidelines' marks a significant moment in QUAD cooperation, which traces its origin from the 2004 ad hoc Tsunami Core Group which catalyzed international response efforts in the aftermath of the tsunami that devastated many countries in the region. The Partnership has been designed to respond to the vulnerabilities of the Indo-Pacific region and will serve as a dedicated framework for QUAD partners to coordinate their disaster response operations in the region. The mechanism will augment their capacity and capability, interoperability and operational synergy to undertake HADR operations. Response operations will be guided by the core principles of humanity, neutrality and impartiality as outlined in the United Nations General Assembly Resolution 46/182 on the provisions of humanitarian assistance. A request for international assistance is needed before QUAD partners may act in coordination under the Partnership.
[Source - www.mea.gov.in, September 23, 2022]
Q. When was the United Nations General Assembly formed?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Foreign Ministers of QUAD nations met in New York on 23rd September 2022 and signed into operation the Guidelines for the 'Quad Partnership on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) in the Indo-Pacific'. This partnership was announced by QUAD leaders in Tokyo on 24th May 2022, as part of a shared vision for a free and open Indo-Pacific that is inclusive and resilient. The signing of these 'Guidelines' marks a significant moment in QUAD cooperation, which traces its origin from the 2004 ad hoc Tsunami Core Group which catalyzed international response efforts in the aftermath of the tsunami that devastated many countries in the region. The Partnership has been designed to respond to the vulnerabilities of the Indo-Pacific region and will serve as a dedicated framework for QUAD partners to coordinate their disaster response operations in the region. The mechanism will augment their capacity and capability, interoperability and operational synergy to undertake HADR operations. Response operations will be guided by the core principles of humanity, neutrality and impartiality as outlined in the United Nations General Assembly Resolution 46/182 on the provisions of humanitarian assistance. A request for international assistance is needed before QUAD partners may act in coordination under the Partnership.
[Source - www.mea.gov.in, September 23, 2022]
Q. Name the newly elected Australian PM who took part in the 2022 QUAD summit.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Foreign Ministers of QUAD nations met in New York on 23rd September 2022 and signed into operation the Guidelines for the 'Quad Partnership on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) in the Indo-Pacific'. This partnership was announced by QUAD leaders in Tokyo on 24th May 2022, as part of a shared vision for a free and open Indo-Pacific that is inclusive and resilient. The signing of these 'Guidelines' marks a significant moment in QUAD cooperation, which traces its origin from the 2004 ad hoc Tsunami Core Group which catalyzed international response efforts in the aftermath of the tsunami that devastated many countries in the region. The Partnership has been designed to respond to the vulnerabilities of the Indo-Pacific region and will serve as a dedicated framework for QUAD partners to coordinate their disaster response operations in the region. The mechanism will augment their capacity and capability, interoperability and operational synergy to undertake HADR operations. Response operations will be guided by the core principles of humanity, neutrality and impartiality as outlined in the United Nations General Assembly Resolution 46/182 on the provisions of humanitarian assistance. A request for international assistance is needed before QUAD partners may act in coordination under the Partnership.
[Source - www.mea.gov.in, September 23, 2022]
Q. Who among the following initiated the formation of QUAD?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Foreign Ministers of QUAD nations met in New York on 23rd September 2022 and signed into operation the Guidelines for the 'Quad Partnership on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) in the Indo-Pacific'. This partnership was announced by QUAD leaders in Tokyo on 24th May 2022, as part of a shared vision for a free and open Indo-Pacific that is inclusive and resilient. The signing of these 'Guidelines' marks a significant moment in QUAD cooperation, which traces its origin from the 2004 ad hoc Tsunami Core Group which catalyzed international response efforts in the aftermath of the tsunami that devastated many countries in the region. The Partnership has been designed to respond to the vulnerabilities of the Indo-Pacific region and will serve as a dedicated framework for QUAD partners to coordinate their disaster response operations in the region. The mechanism will augment their capacity and capability, interoperability and operational synergy to undertake HADR operations. Response operations will be guided by the core principles of humanity, neutrality and impartiality as outlined in the United Nations General Assembly Resolution 46/182 on the provisions of humanitarian assistance. A request for international assistance is needed before QUAD partners may act in coordination under the Partnership.
[Source - www.mea.gov.in, September 23, 2022]
Q. In which year did QUAD revive the quadrilateral alliance in order to counter China, militarily and diplomatically, in the Indo-Pacific region?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Fridays for Future is a dynamic global student movement pushing for immediate action on climate change through active campaigning and advocacy. It was chosen as Champion of the Earth for inspiration and action because of its role in highlighting the devastating effects of climate change. Fridays for Future has millions of passionate activists who insist that their voices be heard on what many see as the defining issue of their generation. Now every month, students around the world take to the streets to demand that politicians do more to acknowledge and act upon the reality and severity of climate change. These regular marches have attracted more than one million young people in more than 100 countries. The Fridays for Future movement has electrified the global conversation about climate change at a time when the window of opportunity to avoid the worst effects of rising temperatures is closing. Global emissions are reaching record levels and show no sign of peaking. Sea levels are rising, coral reefs are dying and extreme weather events are becoming more common and more destructive around the world.
[Source - www.unep.org, September 26, 2022]
Q. Consider the following statements and mark the correct option.
Statement I: The Fridays for Future movement was inspired by teenager Greta Thunberg.
Statement II: 'Fridays for Future' was the result of Thunberg's protest in front of the American parliament to draw attention to the climate emergency.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Fridays for Future is a dynamic global student movement pushing for immediate action on climate change through active campaigning and advocacy. It was chosen as Champion of the Earth for inspiration and action because of its role in highlighting the devastating effects of climate change. Fridays for Future has millions of passionate activists who insist that their voices be heard on what many see as the defining issue of their generation. Now every month, students around the world take to the streets to demand that politicians do more to acknowledge and act upon the reality and severity of climate change. These regular marches have attracted more than one million young people in more than 100 countries. The Fridays for Future movement has electrified the global conversation about climate change at a time when the window of opportunity to avoid the worst effects of rising temperatures is closing. Global emissions are reaching record levels and show no sign of peaking. Sea levels are rising, coral reefs are dying and extreme weather events are becoming more common and more destructive around the world.
[Source - www.unep.org, September 26, 2022]
Q. Which of the following nations hosted World Environment Day 2022 in partnership with the UN Environment Programme (UNEP)?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Fridays for Future is a dynamic global student movement pushing for immediate action on climate change through active campaigning and advocacy. It was chosen as Champion of the Earth for inspiration and action because of its role in highlighting the devastating effects of climate change. Fridays for Future has millions of passionate activists who insist that their voices be heard on what many see as the defining issue of their generation. Now every month, students around the world take to the streets to demand that politicians do more to acknowledge and act upon the reality and severity of climate change. These regular marches have attracted more than one million young people in more than 100 countries. The Fridays for Future movement has electrified the global conversation about climate change at a time when the window of opportunity to avoid the worst effects of rising temperatures is closing. Global emissions are reaching record levels and show no sign of peaking. Sea levels are rising, coral reefs are dying and extreme weather events are becoming more common and more destructive around the world.
[Source - www.unep.org, September 26, 2022]
Q. Who among the following was the recipient of the Champions of the Earth Award 2021 under the Lifetime Achievement category?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Fridays for Future is a dynamic global student movement pushing for immediate action on climate change through active campaigning and advocacy. It was chosen as Champion of the Earth for inspiration and action because of its role in highlighting the devastating effects of climate change. Fridays for Future has millions of passionate activists who insist that their voices be heard on what many see as the defining issue of their generation. Now every month, students around the world take to the streets to demand that politicians do more to acknowledge and act upon the reality and severity of climate change. These regular marches have attracted more than one million young people in more than 100 countries. The Fridays for Future movement has electrified the global conversation about climate change at a time when the window of opportunity to avoid the worst effects of rising temperatures is closing. Global emissions are reaching record levels and show no sign of peaking. Sea levels are rising, coral reefs are dying and extreme weather events are becoming more common and more destructive around the world.
[Source - www.unep.org, September 26, 2022]
Q. First held in 1973, World Environment Day is celebrated every year on
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
Fridays for Future is a dynamic global student movement pushing for immediate action on climate change through active campaigning and advocacy. It was chosen as Champion of the Earth for inspiration and action because of its role in highlighting the devastating effects of climate change. Fridays for Future has millions of passionate activists who insist that their voices be heard on what many see as the defining issue of their generation. Now every month, students around the world take to the streets to demand that politicians do more to acknowledge and act upon the reality and severity of climate change. These regular marches have attracted more than one million young people in more than 100 countries. The Fridays for Future movement has electrified the global conversation about climate change at a time when the window of opportunity to avoid the worst effects of rising temperatures is closing. Global emissions are reaching record levels and show no sign of peaking. Sea levels are rising, coral reefs are dying and extreme weather events are becoming more common and more destructive around the world.
[Source - www.unep.org, September 26, 2022]
Q. What was the theme of World Environment Day 2022?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Vladimir Putin declared on October 7, 2022 that some 40,000 square miles of eastern and southern Ukraine will become part of Russia - an annexation broadly denounced by the West, but a signal that the Russian leader is prepared to raise the stakes in the 7-month-old war. Putin delivered a voluminous speech, his spokesperson said. He is likely to downplay his military's struggles in Ukraine and rising domestic dissent. He probably ignored worldwide denunciations of discredited referendums held in occupied Ukraine on joining Russia, where some were made to vote at gunpoint. Russia is proposing to annex four provinces in the south and the east of Ukraine where intense fighting continues. Moscow hastily put the plan in motion after a humiliating battlefield defeat drove the Russian army out of another province, Kharkiv, in early September and the Ukrainian advance appeared to be gathering force. The Kremlin plans to declare the land where battles are raging in all four regions to be Russian territory and to assert that it is defending, not attacking, in the war in Ukraine - and so it is justified to use any military means necessary, a thinly veiled nuclear threat.
[Source - www.nytimes.com, September 29, 2022]
Q. Which of the following is not one of the four provinces Russia proposed to annex?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Vladimir Putin declared on October 7, 2022 that some 40,000 square miles of eastern and southern Ukraine will become part of Russia - an annexation broadly denounced by the West, but a signal that the Russian leader is prepared to raise the stakes in the 7-month-old war. Putin delivered a voluminous speech, his spokesperson said. He is likely to downplay his military's struggles in Ukraine and rising domestic dissent. He probably ignored worldwide denunciations of discredited referendums held in occupied Ukraine on joining Russia, where some were made to vote at gunpoint. Russia is proposing to annex four provinces in the south and the east of Ukraine where intense fighting continues. Moscow hastily put the plan in motion after a humiliating battlefield defeat drove the Russian army out of another province, Kharkiv, in early September and the Ukrainian advance appeared to be gathering force. The Kremlin plans to declare the land where battles are raging in all four regions to be Russian territory and to assert that it is defending, not attacking, in the war in Ukraine - and so it is justified to use any military means necessary, a thinly veiled nuclear threat.
[Source - www.nytimes.com, September 29, 2022]
Q. Which of the following is the capital and the most populous city of Ukraine?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Vladimir Putin declared on October 7, 2022 that some 40,000 square miles of eastern and southern Ukraine will become part of Russia - an annexation broadly denounced by the West, but a signal that the Russian leader is prepared to raise the stakes in the 7-month-old war. Putin delivered a voluminous speech, his spokesperson said. He is likely to downplay his military's struggles in Ukraine and rising domestic dissent. He probably ignored worldwide denunciations of discredited referendums held in occupied Ukraine on joining Russia, where some were made to vote at gunpoint. Russia is proposing to annex four provinces in the south and the east of Ukraine where intense fighting continues. Moscow hastily put the plan in motion after a humiliating battlefield defeat drove the Russian army out of another province, Kharkiv, in early September and the Ukrainian advance appeared to be gathering force. The Kremlin plans to declare the land where battles are raging in all four regions to be Russian territory and to assert that it is defending, not attacking, in the war in Ukraine - and so it is justified to use any military means necessary, a thinly veiled nuclear threat.
[Source - www.nytimes.com, September 29, 2022]
Q. Russian president Vladimir Putin criticised the enlargement of NATO and demanded that Ukraine be barred from ever joining the military alliance. When was NATO formed?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Vladimir Putin declared on October 7, 2022 that some 40,000 square miles of eastern and southern Ukraine will become part of Russia - an annexation broadly denounced by the West, but a signal that the Russian leader is prepared to raise the stakes in the 7-month-old war. Putin delivered a voluminous speech, his spokesperson said. He is likely to downplay his military's struggles in Ukraine and rising domestic dissent. He probably ignored worldwide denunciations of discredited referendums held in occupied Ukraine on joining Russia, where some were made to vote at gunpoint. Russia is proposing to annex four provinces in the south and the east of Ukraine where intense fighting continues. Moscow hastily put the plan in motion after a humiliating battlefield defeat drove the Russian army out of another province, Kharkiv, in early September and the Ukrainian advance appeared to be gathering force. The Kremlin plans to declare the land where battles are raging in all four regions to be Russian territory and to assert that it is defending, not attacking, in the war in Ukraine - and so it is justified to use any military means necessary, a thinly veiled nuclear threat.
[Source - www.nytimes.com, September 29, 2022]
Q. Which of the following countries does not share a border with Ukraine?
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the question.
President Vladimir Putin declared on October 7, 2022 that some 40,000 square miles of eastern and southern Ukraine will become part of Russia - an annexation broadly denounced by the West, but a signal that the Russian leader is prepared to raise the stakes in the 7-month-old war. Putin delivered a voluminous speech, his spokesperson said. He is likely to downplay his military's struggles in Ukraine and rising domestic dissent. He probably ignored worldwide denunciations of discredited referendums held in occupied Ukraine on joining Russia, where some were made to vote at gunpoint. Russia is proposing to annex four provinces in the south and the east of Ukraine where intense fighting continues. Moscow hastily put the plan in motion after a humiliating battlefield defeat drove the Russian army out of another province, Kharkiv, in early September and the Ukrainian advance appeared to be gathering force. The Kremlin plans to declare the land where battles are raging in all four regions to be Russian territory and to assert that it is defending, not attacking, in the war in Ukraine - and so it is justified to use any military means necessary, a thinly veiled nuclear threat.
[Source - www.nytimes.com, September 29, 2022]
Q. What is the name of Ukraine's official national currency?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Every year in September, World Tourism Day is celebrated to mark the anniversary of the adoption of the Statutes of the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO). Although international tourism has continued to show signs of recovery, it is unlikely to return to pre-pandemic levels anytime soon, WTO said. As per the latest World Tourism Barometer published by the Madrid-based agency on Monday, an estimated 474 million tourists traveled internationally in the first seven months of this year, equivalent to 57 percent of the number of international tourist arrivals in the same period prior to the Covid-19 pandemic. Europe and the Middle East reported the strongest recovery with arrivals at 74 percent and 76 percent of 2019 levels respectively. As countries are celebrating World Tourism Day 2022 today, it is essential to know what are the hurdles in the recovery path of international tourism. The uncertain economic environment is one of the reasons that is hindering the recovery. Due to rising inflation and spike in oil prices, transport and accommodation costs increased enormously. The purchasing power of consumers is under pressure due to these reasons.
[Source - www.siasat.com, September 27, 2022]
Q. When is the World Tourism Day celebrated every year?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Every year in September, World Tourism Day is celebrated to mark the anniversary of the adoption of the Statutes of the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO). Although international tourism has continued to show signs of recovery, it is unlikely to return to pre-pandemic levels anytime soon, WTO said. As per the latest World Tourism Barometer published by the Madrid-based agency on Monday, an estimated 474 million tourists travelled internationally in the first seven months of this year, equivalent to 57 percent of the number of international tourist arrivals in the same period prior to the Covid-19 pandemic. Europe and the Middle East reported the strongest recovery with arrivals at 74 percent and 76 percent of 2019 levels respectively. As countries are celebrating World Tourism Day 2022 today, it is essential to know what are the hurdles in the recovery path of international tourism. The uncertain economic environment is one of the reasons that is hindering the recovery. Due to rising inflation and spike in oil prices, transport and accommodation costs increased enormously. The purchasing power of consumers is under pressure due to these reasons.
[Source - www.siasat.com, September 27, 2022]
Q. Which of the following was the host country for 'World Tourism Day 2022'?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Every year in September, World Tourism Day is celebrated to mark the anniversary of the adoption of the Statutes of the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO). Although international tourism has continued to show signs of recovery, it is unlikely to return to pre-pandemic levels anytime soon, WTO said. As per the latest World Tourism Barometer published by the Madrid-based agency on Monday, an estimated 474 million tourists travelled internationally in the first seven months of this year, equivalent to 57 percent of the number of international tourist arrivals in the same period prior to the Covid-19 pandemic. Europe and the Middle East reported the strongest recovery with arrivals at 74 percent and 76 percent of 2019 levels respectively. As countries are celebrating World Tourism Day 2022 today, it is essential to know what are the hurdles in the recovery path of international tourism. The uncertain economic environment is one of the reasons that is hindering the recovery. Due to rising inflation and spike in oil prices, transport and accommodation costs increased enormously. The purchasing power of consumers is under pressure due to these reasons.
[Source - www.siasat.com, September 27, 2022]
Q. Which Indian city was selected as the first-ever 'SCO Tourism and Cultural Capital' during the period 2022-23?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Every year in September, World Tourism Day is celebrated to mark the anniversary of the adoption of the Statutes of the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO). Although international tourism has continued to show signs of recovery, it is unlikely to return to pre-pandemic levels anytime soon, WTO said. As per the latest World Tourism Barometer published by the Madrid-based agency on Monday, an estimated 474 million tourists travelled internationally in the first seven months of this year, equivalent to 57 percent of the number of international tourist arrivals in the same period prior to the Covid-19 pandemic. Europe and the Middle East reported the strongest recovery with arrivals at 74 percent and 76 percent of 2019 levels respectively. As countries are celebrating World Tourism Day 2022 today, it is essential to know what are the hurdles in the recovery path of international tourism. The uncertain economic environment is one of the reasons that is hindering the recovery. Due to rising inflation and spike in oil prices, transport and accommodation costs increased enormously. The purchasing power of consumers is under pressure due to these reasons.
[Source - www.siasat.com, September 27, 2022]
Q. What was the theme of 'World Tourism Day 2022'?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Every year in September, World Tourism Day is celebrated to mark the anniversary of the adoption of the Statutes of the United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO). Although international tourism has continued to show signs of recovery, it is unlikely to return to pre-pandemic levels anytime soon, WTO said. As per the latest World Tourism Barometer published by the Madrid-based agency on Monday, an estimated 474 million tourists travelled internationally in the first seven months of this year, equivalent to 57 percent of the number of international tourist arrivals in the same period prior to the Covid-19 pandemic. Europe and the Middle East reported the strongest recovery with arrivals at 74 percent and 76 percent of 2019 levels respectively. As countries are celebrating World Tourism Day 2022 today, it is essential to know what are the hurdles in the recovery path of international tourism. The uncertain economic environment is one of the reasons that is hindering the recovery. Due to rising inflation and spike in oil prices, transport and accommodation costs increased enormously. The purchasing power of consumers is under pressure due to these reasons.
[Source - www.siasat.com, September 27, 2022]
Q. Where is the headquarters of the United Nations World Tourism Organisation located?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Sir William Anson defines 'wager' as a promise to give money or money's worth upon the determination or ascertainment of an uncertain event. The word 'wager' means 'a bet' something stated to be lost or won on the result of an uncertain issue; hence, wagering agreements are ordinary betting agreements. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30. A wagering agreement depends upon an uncertain event. The parties to the agreement have uncertainty in the minds about the determination of the event in one way or another. A wager may be based on a future event or even relate to a past event and the parties are not aware of the outcome of its happening. In a wagering agreement, two parties must have mutual chances of gain and loss, i.e. one party will win and the other will lose depending on the outcome of the event. Each party should stand to win or lose upon the determination of the contemplated event in reference to which the chance or risk is taken. It is not a wager where one party may win but cannot lose, or it may lose but cannot win, or if it can neither win nor lose. If one of the parties has the event in his own hands, the transaction lacks an essential ingredient of a wager. Neither party should have any interest in happening or non-happening of the event other than the sum he will win or lose. If either party has some other interest other than the sum he will win or lose, it will not be a wager. The parties to the contract should not have any control over the happening of the event one way or the other. The wagering agreement must contain a promise to pay money or money's worth. Insurance contracts are contracts of indemnity. They are entered into, to safeguard the interest of one party to the contract. In this contract, the insured has insurable interest in the property or life. Hence, it is not a wager. Skill competitions are not said to be wagers since the winning of such events requires a substantial amount of skill and is not dependent on the probability of an uncertain event.
Q. An inter-college football match was to be held in Indore between St. Martin's College and St. Jones College. If St. Martin's wins the match, Jo agrees to pay Rs. 5,000, whereas if St. Jones wins, Nia will pay 5,000 to Jo. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Sir William Anson defines 'wager' as a promise to give money or money's worth upon the determination or ascertainment of an uncertain event. The word 'wager' means 'a bet' something stated to be lost or won on the result of an uncertain issue; hence, wagering agreements are ordinary betting agreements. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30. A wagering agreement depends upon an uncertain event. The parties to the agreement have uncertainty in the minds about the determination of the event in one way or another. A wager may be based on a future event or even relate to a past event and the parties are not aware of the outcome of its happening. In a wagering agreement, two parties must have mutual chances of gain and loss, i.e. one party will win and the other will lose depending on the outcome of the event. Each party should stand to win or lose upon the determination of the contemplated event in reference to which the chance or risk is taken. It is not a wager where one party may win but cannot lose, or it may lose but cannot win, or if it can neither win nor lose. If one of the parties has the event in his own hands, the transaction lacks an essential ingredient of a wager. Neither party should have any interest in happening or non-happening of the event other than the sum he will win or lose. If either party has some other interest other than the sum he will win or lose, it will not be a wager. The parties to the contract should not have any control over the happening of the event one way or the other. The wagering agreement must contain a promise to pay money or money's worth. Insurance contracts are contracts of indemnity. They are entered into, to safeguard the interest of one party to the contract. In this contract, the insured has insurable interest in the property or life. Hence, it is not a wager. Skill competitions are not said to be wagers since the winning of such events requires a substantial amount of skill and is not dependent on the probability of an uncertain event.
Q. XYZ newspaper has a daily SUDOKU section. It is stated in the newspaper that the winner will be given the first prize. The solutions are to be sent by post to the editor of the newspaper who will choose the winner among the correct entries.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Sir William Anson defines 'wager' as a promise to give money or money's worth upon the determination or ascertainment of an uncertain event. The word 'wager' means 'a bet' something stated to be lost or won on the result of an uncertain issue; hence, wagering agreements are ordinary betting agreements. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30. A wagering agreement depends upon an uncertain event. The parties to the agreement have uncertainty in the minds about the determination of the event in one way or another. A wager may be based on a future event or even relate to a past event and the parties are not aware of the outcome of its happening. In a wagering agreement, two parties must have mutual chances of gain and loss, i.e. one party will win and the other will lose depending on the outcome of the event. Each party should stand to win or lose upon the determination of the contemplated event in reference to which the chance or risk is taken. It is not a wager where one party may win but cannot lose, or it may lose but cannot win, or if it can neither win nor lose. If one of the parties has the event in his own hands, the transaction lacks an essential ingredient of a wager. Neither party should have any interest in happening or non-happening of the event other than the sum he will win or lose. If either party has some other interest other than the sum he will win or lose, it will not be a wager. The parties to the contract should not have any control over the happening of the event one way or the other. The wagering agreement must contain a promise to pay money or money's worth. Insurance contracts are contracts of indemnity. They are entered into, to safeguard the interest of one party to the contract. In this contract, the insured has insurable interest in the property or life. Hence, it is not a wager. Skill competitions are not said to be wagers since the winning of such events requires a substantial amount of skill and is not dependent on the probability of an uncertain event.
Q. X invested in a mutual fund company in Kolkata. Does a mutual fund company come under the ambit of wagering contracts?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Sir William Anson defines 'wager' as a promise to give money or money's worth upon the determination or ascertainment of an uncertain event. The word 'wager' means 'a bet' something stated to be lost or won on the result of an uncertain issue; hence, wagering agreements are ordinary betting agreements. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30. A wagering agreement depends upon an uncertain event. The parties to the agreement have uncertainty in the minds about the determination of the event in one way or another. A wager may be based on a future event or even relate to a past event and the parties are not aware of the outcome of its happening. In a wagering agreement, two parties must have mutual chances of gain and loss, i.e. one party will win and the other will lose depending on the outcome of the event. Each party should stand to win or lose upon the determination of the contemplated event in reference to which the chance or risk is taken. It is not a wager where one party may win but cannot lose, or it may lose but cannot win, or if it can neither win nor lose. If one of the parties has the event in his own hands, the transaction lacks an essential ingredient of a wager. Neither party should have any interest in happening or non-happening of the event other than the sum he will win or lose. If either party has some other interest other than the sum he will win or lose, it will not be a wager. The parties to the contract should not have any control over the happening of the event one way or the other. The wagering agreement must contain a promise to pay money or money's worth. Insurance contracts are contracts of indemnity. They are entered into, to safeguard the interest of one party to the contract. In this contract, the insured has insurable interest in the property or life. Hence, it is not a wager. Skill competitions are not said to be wagers since the winning of such events requires a substantial amount of skill and is not dependent on the probability of an uncertain event.
Q. Aman and Shiv entered into an agreement stating that if Aman resigns from his job, Shiv will pay Rs. 600 to Aman, and Aman will pay Rs. 600 if Shiv doesn't resign from his job. Decide
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Sir William Anson defines 'wager' as a promise to give money or money's worth upon the determination or ascertainment of an uncertain event. The word 'wager' means 'a bet' something stated to be lost or won on the result of an uncertain issue; hence, wagering agreements are ordinary betting agreements. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not define wager or a wagering agreement. It only states that agreements by way of the wager will be void and no action can lie to contracting parties to recover anything or claim performance of the wagering agreements. A wagering agreement has the characteristic of a contingent contract but is not enforceable by Section 30. A wagering agreement depends upon an uncertain event. The parties to the agreement have uncertainty in the minds about the determination of the event in one way or another. A wager may be based on a future event or even relate to a past event and the parties are not aware of the outcome of its happening. In a wagering agreement, two parties must have mutual chances of gain and loss, i.e. one party will win and the other will lose depending on the outcome of the event. Each party should stand to win or lose upon the determination of the contemplated event in reference to which the chance or risk is taken. It is not a wager where one party may win but cannot lose, or it may lose but cannot win, or if it can neither win nor lose. If one of the parties has the event in his own hands, the transaction lacks an essential ingredient of a wager. Neither party should have any interest in happening or non-happening of the event other than the sum he will win or lose. If either party has some other interest other than the sum he will win or lose, it will not be a wager. The parties to the contract should not have any control over the happening of the event one way or the other. The wagering agreement must contain a promise to pay money or money's worth. Insurance contracts are contracts of indemnity. They are entered into, to safeguard the interest of one party to the contract. In this contract, the insured has insurable interest in the property or life. Hence, it is not a wager. Skill competitions are not said to be wagers since the winning of such events requires a substantial amount of skill and is not dependent on the probability of an uncertain event.
Q. Abhi insures his factory against fire with XYZ insurance company. Abhi has to pay an insurance premium of Rs. 100 per month as per the terms of the contract. If the factory is destroyed by fire, XYZ will pay the actual amount of loss suffered by him. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
A breach of contract is a violation of any of the agreed-upon terms and conditions of a binding contract. The breach could be anything from a late payment to a more serious violation such as the failure to deliver a promised asset. To successfully claim a breach of contract, it is imperative to be able to prove that the breach occurred.
One may think of a contract breach as either minor or material. A "minor breach" happens when you don't receive an item or service by the due date. A "material breach" is when you receive something that is different from what was stated in the agreement. Further, a breach of contract generally falls under one of two categories: an "actual breach"—when one party refuses to fully perform the terms of the contract, or an "anticipatory breach"—when a party states in advance that it will not be delivering on the terms of the contract.
There are many types of damages for breach of contract that you may receive should a breach occur, these being meted out both to deter parties from breaking contracts and to compensate parties should a contract be broken. The main types of damages are compensatory, liquidation, punitive, nominal, and ordinary damages.
Compensatory damages are monetary damages that are awarded with the intent of compensating the non-breaching party for any losses suffered as a result of a contract breach. They are not designed to punish the breaching party, but merely make the party that was breached against "whole again", as it is commonly phrased.
In the realm of compensatory damages, there are two sub-types of damages, and they are: Expectation damages, these are meant to cover whatever the injured party expected to obtain from the contract. Calculating this is usually straightforward, as it is usually based on the terms of the contract or market values. Consequential damages, these are meant to reimburse an injured party for any indirect damages outside of what was covered in the contract; it includes the loss of business profits stemming from an undelivered or unperformed task. Liquidation damages are damages that are stated specifically in the contract. They can be put in a contract when damages are difficult to foresee, and an estimate is necessary for damages should there be a breach. Thus, such damages are agreed upon by both parties during the contract negotiation. Punitive damages are damages designed to punish a breaching party and deter parties from committing breaches. Such damages are rarely awarded for contract breaches, however, although they may be awarded in some tort or fraud cases that overlap contract case. Ordinary damages are the damages that stem from the ordinary, natural, and probable course of events in the breach of contract.
In some cases, monetary damages may be judged insufficient to compensate the aggrieved party. In this case, equitable remedies may be awarded.
Q. A contract was signed between Nitro Ltd. and Jeevan for consulting services on the production process. Jeevan agreed to pay Rs. 50,000 for the services to be provided. Jeevan grabbed a Rs. 5,00,000 project, the delivery date to be one month from the date of signing of contract. Jeevan approached Nitro Ltd. for the consultation. Nitro Ltd. delayed the consultation and Jeevan suffered loss due to the same. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
A breach of contract is a violation of any of the agreed-upon terms and conditions of a binding contract. The breach could be anything from a late payment to a more serious violation such as the failure to deliver a promised asset. To successfully claim a breach of contract, it is imperative to be able to prove that the breach occurred.
One may think of a contract breach as either minor or material. A "minor breach" happens when you don't receive an item or service by the due date. A "material breach" is when you receive something that is different from what was stated in the agreement. Further, a breach of contract generally falls under one of two categories: an "actual breach"—when one party refuses to fully perform the terms of the contract, or an "anticipatory breach"—when a party states in advance that it will not be delivering on the terms of the contract.
There are many types of damages for breach of contract that you may receive should a breach occur, these being meted out both to deter parties from breaking contracts and to compensate parties should a contract be broken. The main types of damages are compensatory, liquidation, punitive, nominal, and ordinary damages.
Compensatory damages are monetary damages that are awarded with the intent of compensating the non-breaching party for any losses suffered as a result of a contract breach. They are not designed to punish the breaching party, but merely make the party that was breached against "whole again", as it is commonly phrased.
In the realm of compensatory damages, there are two sub-types of damages, and they are: Expectation damages, these are meant to cover whatever the injured party expected to obtain from the contract. Calculating this is usually straightforward, as it is usually based on the terms of the contract or market values. Consequential damages, these are meant to reimburse an injured party for any indirect damages outside of what was covered in the contract; it includes the loss of business profits stemming from an undelivered or unperformed task. Liquidation damages are damages that are stated specifically in the contract. They can be put in a contract when damages are difficult to foresee, and an estimate is necessary for damages should there be a breach. Thus, such damages are agreed upon by both parties during the contract negotiation. Punitive damages are damages designed to punish a breaching party and deter parties from committing breaches. Such damages are rarely awarded for contract breaches, however, although they may be awarded in some tort or fraud cases that overlap contract case. Ordinary damages are the damages that stem from the ordinary, natural, and probable course of events in the breach of contract.
In some cases, monetary damages may be judged insufficient to compensate the aggrieved party. In this case, equitable remedies may be awarded.
Q. Ramu agreed to sell cotton to Ajay at Rs. 50 per bag with the payment to be made at the time of delivery, but the market price rose to Rs. 60 per bag at the time of delivery. Ramu refused to sell them not less than Rs. 55 per bag to Ajay. Decide
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
A breach of contract is a violation of any of the agreed-upon terms and conditions of a binding contract. The breach could be anything from a late payment to a more serious violation such as the failure to deliver a promised asset. To successfully claim a breach of contract, it is imperative to be able to prove that the breach occurred.
One may think of a contract breach as either minor or material. A "minor breach" happens when you don't receive an item or service by the due date. A "material breach" is when you receive something that is different from what was stated in the agreement. Further, a breach of contract generally falls under one of two categories: an "actual breach"—when one party refuses to fully perform the terms of the contract, or an "anticipatory breach"—when a party states in advance that it will not be delivering on the terms of the contract.
There are many types of damages for breach of contract that you may receive should a breach occur, these being meted out both to deter parties from breaking contracts and to compensate parties should a contract be broken. The main types of damages are compensatory, liquidation, punitive, nominal, and ordinary damages.
Compensatory damages are monetary damages that are awarded with the intent of compensating the non-breaching party for any losses suffered as a result of a contract breach. They are not designed to punish the breaching party, but merely make the party that was breached against "whole again", as it is commonly phrased.
In the realm of compensatory damages, there are two sub-types of damages, and they are: Expectation damages, these are meant to cover whatever the injured party expected to obtain from the contract. Calculating this is usually straightforward, as it is usually based on the terms of the contract or market values. Consequential damages, these are meant to reimburse an injured party for any indirect damages outside of what was covered in the contract; it includes the loss of business profits stemming from an undelivered or unperformed task. Liquidation damages are damages that are stated specifically in the contract. They can be put in a contract when damages are difficult to foresee, and an estimate is necessary for damages should there be a breach. Thus, such damages are agreed upon by both parties during the contract negotiation. Punitive damages are damages designed to punish a breaching party and deter parties from committing breaches. Such damages are rarely awarded for contract breaches, however, although they may be awarded in some tort or fraud cases that overlap contract case. Ordinary damages are the damages that stem from the ordinary, natural, and probable course of events in the breach of contract.
In some cases, monetary damages may be judged insufficient to compensate the aggrieved party. In this case, equitable remedies may be awarded.
Q. Sameer ordered a garment on time for his sister's wedding. The tailor forgets to stitch the suit and delivers the same to Sameer after his sister's wedding. Decide
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
A breach of contract is a violation of any of the agreed-upon terms and conditions of a binding contract. The breach could be anything from a late payment to a more serious violation such as the failure to deliver a promised asset. To successfully claim a breach of contract, it is imperative to be able to prove that the breach occurred.
One may think of a contract breach as either minor or material. A "minor breach" happens when you don't receive an item or service by the due date. A "material breach" is when you receive something that is different from what was stated in the agreement. Further, a breach of contract generally falls under one of two categories: an "actual breach"—when one party refuses to fully perform the terms of the contract, or an "anticipatory breach"—when a party states in advance that it will not be delivering on the terms of the contract.
There are many types of damages for breach of contract that you may receive should a breach occur, these being meted out both to deter parties from breaking contracts and to compensate parties should a contract be broken. The main types of damages are compensatory, liquidation, punitive, nominal, and ordinary damages.
Compensatory damages are monetary damages that are awarded with the intent of compensating the non-breaching party for any losses suffered as a result of a contract breach. They are not designed to punish the breaching party, but merely make the party that was breached against "whole again", as it is commonly phrased.
In the realm of compensatory damages, there are two sub-types of damages, and they are: Expectation damages, these are meant to cover whatever the injured party expected to obtain from the contract. Calculating this is usually straightforward, as it is usually based on the terms of the contract or market values. Consequential damages, these are meant to reimburse an injured party for any indirect damages outside of what was covered in the contract; it includes the loss of business profits stemming from an undelivered or unperformed task. Liquidation damages are damages that are stated specifically in the contract. They can be put in a contract when damages are difficult to foresee, and an estimate is necessary for damages should there be a breach. Thus, such damages are agreed upon by both parties during the contract negotiation. Punitive damages are damages designed to punish a breaching party and deter parties from committing breaches. Such damages are rarely awarded for contract breaches, however, although they may be awarded in some tort or fraud cases that overlap contract case. Ordinary damages are the damages that stem from the ordinary, natural, and probable course of events in the breach of contract.
In some cases, monetary damages may be judged insufficient to compensate the aggrieved party. In this case, equitable remedies may be awarded.
Q. Y Ltd. contracts with X Ltd. to build a housing complex to be ready to be used by its customers within 6 months and the delay would lead to a penalty of Rs. 2000 per week on Y Ltd. Y Ltd. delayed the construction by 4 weeks. Y Ltd. refused to pay the damages. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
A breach of contract is a violation of any of the agreed-upon terms and conditions of a binding contract. The breach could be anything from a late payment to a more serious violation such as the failure to deliver a promised asset. To successfully claim a breach of contract, it is imperative to be able to prove that the breach occurred.
One may think of a contract breach as either minor or material. A "minor breach" happens when you don't receive an item or service by the due date. A "material breach" is when you receive something that is different from what was stated in the agreement. Further, a breach of contract generally falls under one of two categories: an "actual breach"—when one party refuses to fully perform the terms of the contract, or an "anticipatory breach"—when a party states in advance that it will not be delivering on the terms of the contract.
There are many types of damages for breach of contract that you may receive should a breach occur, these being meted out both to deter parties from breaking contracts and to compensate parties should a contract be broken. The main types of damages are compensatory, liquidation, punitive, nominal, and ordinary damages.
Compensatory damages are monetary damages that are awarded with the intent of compensating the non-breaching party for any losses suffered as a result of a contract breach. They are not designed to punish the breaching party, but merely make the party that was breached against "whole again", as it is commonly phrased.
In the realm of compensatory damages, there are two sub-types of damages, and they are: Expectation damages, these are meant to cover whatever the injured party expected to obtain from the contract. Calculating this is usually straightforward, as it is usually based on the terms of the contract or market values. Consequential damages, these are meant to reimburse an injured party for any indirect damages outside of what was covered in the contract; it includes the loss of business profits stemming from an undelivered or unperformed task. Liquidation damages are damages that are stated specifically in the contract. They can be put in a contract when damages are difficult to foresee, and an estimate is necessary for damages should there be a breach. Thus, such damages are agreed upon by both parties during the contract negotiation. Punitive damages are damages designed to punish a breaching party and deter parties from committing breaches. Such damages are rarely awarded for contract breaches, however, although they may be awarded in some tort or fraud cases that overlap contract case. Ordinary damages are the damages that stem from the ordinary, natural, and probable course of events in the breach of contract.
In some cases, monetary damages may be judged insufficient to compensate the aggrieved party. In this case, equitable remedies may be awarded.
Q. AJ Ltd. contracts with Vineet to deliver 500 posters for its phone company promotions to be distributed in a conference; but when the boxes arrive at the conference site, they contain automobile posters instead. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Appearing before a Bench, at the outset Senior Advocate, Mr. Arvind Datar elucidated on the concept of Living Will. Living Will is a written document that allows a patient to give explicit instructions in advance about the medical treatment to be administered when he or she is terminally ill or no longer able to express informed consent.
Mr. Datar informed the Bench that the guidelines issued by the Court on 09.03.2021 have become unworkable. He explained the impediments in implementing the same. The Living Will has to be signed by the executor in the presence of exactly two attesting witnesses, and countersigned by jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC). He submitted that suppose subsequently after 10 years, the executor of the Will is admitted in a hospital and the team of doctors certify that there is no hope for recovery, as per the guidelines, the matter has to be, then, sent to the Collector, who would constitute another board of doctors who will give second opinion. Thereafter, the jurisdictional JMFC has to personally go to the hospital and authenticate the document. Mr. Datar argued that this cumbersome process is not workable and therefore some suggestions have been made in the present application to modify the guidelines. Justice Rastogi suggested if there can be only one committee of doctors and the first kin to the executor of the will can be included in the decision-making process.
Active euthanasia, including the administration of lethal compounds for the purpose of ending life, is still illegal in India, and in most countries. While we are talking about a person taking their own life, we should look into a person being instigated to take their own life (abetment to suicide). With regard to matters of instigation, it has been reiterated in several Supreme Court judgements that there should be a live or proximate link between the act of abetment and actual commission of suicide. In the absence of such a link, the element of intention or aiding cannot be attributed to the accused. The burden of proof, as laid down in the Supreme Court judgement of Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh, heavily lies on the prosecution. It is necessary that clear evidences including circumstantial or direct, if available, to support the prosecution story should be produced before the court.
Q. Koka signed a living will in the presence of Shobha. In that living will, he wrote that if he remains in a state of coma for more than a period of one month, he should be allowed to die with dignity. The same was countersigned by the JMFC. After 7 years, Koka met with an accident due to which he went into coma for three years. The team of doctors at the hospital gave their approval saying that there were no chances of Koka reviving from coma. The matter was referred to the collector who sent a team of doctors to the hospital who gave their approval and JMFC personally visited the hospital to verify the documents. Were all the guidelines/steps followed?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Appearing before a Bench, at the outset Senior Advocate, Mr. Arvind Datar elucidated on the concept of Living Will. Living Will is a written document that allows a patient to give explicit instructions in advance about the medical treatment to be administered when he or she is terminally ill or no longer able to express informed consent.
Mr. Datar informed the Bench that the guidelines issued by the Court on 09.03.2021 have become unworkable. He explained the impediments in implementing the same. The Living Will has to be signed by the executor in the presence of exactly two attesting witnesses, and countersigned by jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC). He submitted that suppose subsequently after 10 years, the executor of the Will is admitted in a hospital and the team of doctors certify that there is no hope for recovery, as per the guidelines, the matter has to be, then, sent to the Collector, who would constitute another board of doctors who will give second opinion. Thereafter, the jurisdictional JMFC has to personally go to the hospital and authenticate the document. Mr. Datar argued that this cumbersome process is not workable and therefore some suggestions have been made in the present application to modify the guidelines. Justice Rastogi suggested if there can be only one committee of doctors and the first kin to the executor of the will can be included in the decision-making process.
Active euthanasia, including the administration of lethal compounds for the purpose of ending life, is still illegal in India, and in most countries. While we are talking about a person taking their own life, we should look into a person being instigated to take their own life (abetment to suicide). With regard to matters of instigation, it has been reiterated in several Supreme Court judgements that there should be a live or proximate link between the act of abetment and actual commission of suicide. In the absence of such a link, the element of intention or aiding cannot be attributed to the accused. The burden of proof, as laid down in the Supreme Court judgement of Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh, heavily lies on the prosecution. It is necessary that clear evidences including circumstantial or direct, if available, to support the prosecution story should be produced before the court.
Q. X and Y were brothers of mature age. X and Y used to repeatedly get into property disputes and it happened to be so that X took over all of the ancestral family property. Following this, Y had a hard time making his ends meet and he eventually gave up on his life. A complaint against X is filed for abetting Y's suicide. Which of the following is correct in this context?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Appearing before a Bench, at the outset Senior Advocate, Mr. Arvind Datar elucidated on the concept of Living Will. Living Will is a written document that allows a patient to give explicit instructions in advance about the medical treatment to be administered when he or she is terminally ill or no longer able to express informed consent.
Mr. Datar informed the Bench that the guidelines issued by the Court on 09.03.2021 have become unworkable. He explained the impediments in implementing the same. The Living Will has to be signed by the executor in the presence of exactly two attesting witnesses, and countersigned by jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC). He submitted that suppose subsequently after 10 years, the executor of the Will is admitted in a hospital and the team of doctors certify that there is no hope for recovery, as per the guidelines, the matter has to be, then, sent to the Collector, who would constitute another board of doctors who will give second opinion. Thereafter, the jurisdictional JMFC has to personally go to the hospital and authenticate the document. Mr. Datar argued that this cumbersome process is not workable and therefore some suggestions have been made in the present application to modify the guidelines. Justice Rastogi suggested if there can be only one committee of doctors and the first kin to the executor of the will can be included in the decision-making process.
Active euthanasia, including the administration of lethal compounds for the purpose of ending life, is still illegal in India, and in most countries. While we are talking about a person taking their own life, we should look into a person being instigated to take their own life (abetment to suicide). With regard to matters of instigation, it has been reiterated in several Supreme Court judgements that there should be a live or proximate link between the act of abetment and actual commission of suicide. In the absence of such a link, the element of intention or aiding cannot be attributed to the accused. The burden of proof, as laid down in the Supreme Court judgement of Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh, heavily lies on the prosecution. It is necessary that clear evidences including circumstantial or direct, if available, to support the prosecution story should be produced before the court.
Q. Shree signed a living will in the presence of Nidhi and Mohan. In that living will, he wrote that he has lost the will to live and therefore, he should be allowed to die with dignity. The same was countersigned by the JMFC. The team of doctors at the hospital gave their approval. The matter was referred to the collector who sent a team of doctors to the hospital who gave their approval and JMFC personally visited the hospital to verify the documents. Could Shree be allowed to die with dignity?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Appearing before a Bench, at the outset Senior Advocate, Mr. Arvind Datar elucidated on the concept of Living Will. Living Will is a written document that allows a patient to give explicit instructions in advance about the medical treatment to be administered when he or she is terminally ill or no longer able to express informed consent.
Mr. Datar informed the Bench that the guidelines issued by the Court on 09.03.2021 have become unworkable. He explained the impediments in implementing the same. The Living Will has to be signed by the executor in the presence of exactly two attesting witnesses, and countersigned by jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC). He submitted that suppose subsequently after 10 years, the executor of the Will is admitted in a hospital and the team of doctors certify that there is no hope for recovery, as per the guidelines, the matter has to be, then, sent to the Collector, who would constitute another board of doctors who will give second opinion. Thereafter, the jurisdictional JMFC has to personally go to the hospital and authenticate the document. Mr. Datar argued that this cumbersome process is not workable and therefore some suggestions have been made in the present application to modify the guidelines. Justice Rastogi suggested if there can be only one committee of doctors and the first kin to the executor of the will can be included in the decision-making process.
Active euthanasia, including the administration of lethal compounds for the purpose of ending life, is still illegal in India, and in most countries. While we are talking about a person taking their own life, we should look into a person being instigated to take their own life (abetment to suicide). With regard to matters of instigation, it has been reiterated in several Supreme Court judgements that there should be a live or proximate link between the act of abetment and actual commission of suicide. In the absence of such a link, the element of intention or aiding cannot be attributed to the accused. The burden of proof, as laid down in the Supreme Court judgement of Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh, heavily lies on the prosecution. It is necessary that clear evidences including circumstantial or direct, if available, to support the prosecution story should be produced before the court.
Q. A and B were a married couple for 20 years. Both of the partners were around 40 years of age. It happened to be so that A had and extramarital affair and wanted to plainly get rid of B. Therefore, A started to mentally abuse B and as time passed, started hitting B. While inflicting wounds onto B, he used to imply in several ways that B should give up on living. Eventually, getting tired of the mental and physical abuse, B gave up on life. Would this amount to abetment to suicide?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
Appearing before a Bench, at the outset Senior Advocate, Mr. Arvind Datar elucidated on the concept of Living Will. Living Will is a written document that allows a patient to give explicit instructions in advance about the medical treatment to be administered when he or she is terminally ill or no longer able to express informed consent.
Mr. Datar informed the Bench that the guidelines issued by the Court on 09.03.2021 have become unworkable. He explained the impediments in implementing the same. The Living Will has to be signed by the executor in the presence of exactly two attesting witnesses, and countersigned by jurisdictional Judicial Magistrate of First Class (JMFC). He submitted that suppose subsequently after 10 years, the executor of the Will is admitted in a hospital and the team of doctors certify that there is no hope for recovery, as per the guidelines, the matter has to be, then, sent to the Collector, who would constitute another board of doctors who will give second opinion. Thereafter, the jurisdictional JMFC has to personally go to the hospital and authenticate the document. Mr. Datar argued that this cumbersome process is not workable and therefore some suggestions have been made in the present application to modify the guidelines. Justice Rastogi suggested if there can be only one committee of doctors and the first kin to the executor of the will can be included in the decision-making process.
Active euthanasia, including the administration of lethal compounds for the purpose of ending life, is still illegal in India, and in most countries. While we are talking about a person taking their own life, we should look into a person being instigated to take their own life (abetment to suicide). With regard to matters of instigation, it has been reiterated in several Supreme Court judgements that there should be a live or proximate link between the act of abetment and actual commission of suicide. In the absence of such a link, the element of intention or aiding cannot be attributed to the accused. The burden of proof, as laid down in the Supreme Court judgement of Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh, heavily lies on the prosecution. It is necessary that clear evidences including circumstantial or direct, if available, to support the prosecution story should be produced before the court.
Q. Let us assume that the recommendations given by Justice Rastogi are implemented, what would be necessary to allow a person to die with dignity?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
S.148 of the Contract Act states that a bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. In bailment, the person delivering the goods is called the bailor and the person to whom they are delivered is called the bailee. Bailment can be classified into gratuitous bailment and non-gratuitous bailment. A bailment with no considerations is called a gratuitous bailment. In this bailment, neither the bailor nor the bailee is entitled to any remuneration or reward. Such a bailment may be for the exclusive benefit of either party. A non-gratuitous bailment or a bailment for reward is one that involves some consideration passing between the bailor and the bailee.
Delivery of goods from one person to another person for some purpose is an essential element of bailment. S.149 says that delivery to the bailee may be made by doing anything which has the effect of putting the goods in the possession of the intended bailee or of any person authorised to hold them on his behalf.
S.150 says that the bailor is bound to disclose to the bailee faults in the goods bailed, of which the bailor is aware, and which materially interfere with the use of them or expose the bailee to extraordinary risk. Where, by the conditions of the bailment, the goods are to be kept or to be carried or to have work done upon them by the bailee for the bailor and the bailee is to receive no remuneration, the bailors shall repay to the bailee the necessary expenses incurred for the purpose of the bailment.
In bailment, the bailor has the right to claim for damages against the loss, if any, caused to the goods bailed due to the bailee's negligence or misconduct. The bailor has the right to claim compensation against unauthorised use of goods.
The bailor enjoys the exclusive right to have the goods delivered back to him in safe and sound condition after the time of bailment has expired or the purpose behind the bailment has been achieved. In the absence of any contrary term in the contract, the bailor is also entitled to any accretion to the goods bailed, if it occurred while the goods were in the study of bailee.
Q. Ramesh lends his car to Suresh. The car loses control when the speed crosses 60 km/h. Ramesh only asks Suresh to drive slowly. Suresh drives the car at 70 km/h and it loses control; as a result of which Suresh meets with an accident. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
S.148 of the Contract Act states that a bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. In bailment, the person delivering the goods is called the bailor and the person to whom they are delivered is called the bailee. Bailment can be classified into gratuitous bailment and non-gratuitous bailment. A bailment with no considerations is called a gratuitous bailment. In this bailment, neither the bailor nor the bailee is entitled to any remuneration or reward. Such a bailment may be for the exclusive benefit of either party. A non-gratuitous bailment or a bailment for reward is one that involves some consideration passing between the bailor and the bailee.
Delivery of goods from one person to another person for some purpose is an essential element of bailment. S.149 says that delivery to the bailee may be made by doing anything which has the effect of putting the goods in the possession of the intended bailee or of any person authorised to hold them on his behalf.
S.150 says that the bailor is bound to disclose to the bailee faults in the goods bailed, of which the bailor is aware, and which materially interfere with the use of them or expose the bailee to extraordinary risk. Where, by the conditions of the bailment, the goods are to be kept or to be carried or to have work done upon them by the bailee for the bailor and the bailee is to receive no remuneration, the bailors shall repay to the bailee the necessary expenses incurred for the purpose of the bailment.
In bailment, the bailor has the right to claim for damages against the loss, if any, caused to the goods bailed due to the bailee's negligence or misconduct. The bailor has the right to claim compensation against unauthorised use of goods.
The bailor enjoys the exclusive right to have the goods delivered back to him in safe and sound condition after the time of bailment has expired or the purpose behind the bailment has been achieved. In the absence of any contrary term in the contract, the bailor is also entitled to any accretion to the goods bailed, if it occurred while the goods were in the study of bailee.
Q. Archie let Bill use his mobile phone with a condition that only Bill would use his phone. Bill allowed his sister to play games on Archie's phone. Bill and his sister had a fight and in anger, she threw Archie's phone in water. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
S.148 of the Contract Act states that a bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. In bailment, the person delivering the goods is called the bailor and the person to whom they are delivered is called the bailee. Bailment can be classified into gratuitous bailment and non-gratuitous bailment. A bailment with no considerations is called a gratuitous bailment. In this bailment, neither the bailor nor the bailee is entitled to any remuneration or reward. Such a bailment may be for the exclusive benefit of either party. A non-gratuitous bailment or a bailment for reward is one that involves some consideration passing between the bailor and the bailee.
Delivery of goods from one person to another person for some purpose is an essential element of bailment. S.149 says that delivery to the bailee may be made by doing anything which has the effect of putting the goods in the possession of the intended bailee or of any person authorised to hold them on his behalf.
S.150 says that the bailor is bound to disclose to the bailee faults in the goods bailed, of which the bailor is aware, and which materially interfere with the use of them or expose the bailee to extraordinary risk. Where, by the conditions of the bailment, the goods are to be kept or to be carried or to have work done upon them by the bailee for the bailor and the bailee is to receive no remuneration, the bailors shall repay to the bailee the necessary expenses incurred for the purpose of the bailment.
In bailment, the bailor has the right to claim for damages against the loss, if any, caused to the goods bailed due to the bailee's negligence or misconduct. The bailor has the right to claim compensation against unauthorised use of goods.
The bailor enjoys the exclusive right to have the goods delivered back to him in safe and sound condition after the time of bailment has expired or the purpose behind the bailment has been achieved. In the absence of any contrary term in the contract, the bailor is also entitled to any accretion to the goods bailed, if it occurred while the goods were in the study of bailee.
Q. Jian gave his laptop for repair to the showroom as the laptop was under warranty. Jian didn't pay after he got the delivery of the laptop. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
S.148 of the Contract Act states that a bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. In bailment, the person delivering the goods is called the bailor and the person to whom they are delivered is called the bailee. Bailment can be classified into gratuitous bailment and non-gratuitous bailment. A bailment with no considerations is called a gratuitous bailment. In this bailment, neither the bailor nor the bailee is entitled to any remuneration or reward. Such a bailment may be for the exclusive benefit of either party. A non-gratuitous bailment or a bailment for reward is one that involves some consideration passing between the bailor and the bailee.
Delivery of goods from one person to another person for some purpose is an essential element of bailment. S.149 says that delivery to the bailee may be made by doing anything which has the effect of putting the goods in the possession of the intended bailee or of any person authorised to hold them on his behalf.
S.150 says that the bailor is bound to disclose to the bailee faults in the goods bailed, of which the bailor is aware, and which materially interfere with the use of them or expose the bailee to extraordinary risk. Where, by the conditions of the bailment, the goods are to be kept or to be carried or to have work done upon them by the bailee for the bailor and the bailee is to receive no remuneration, the bailors shall repay to the bailee the necessary expenses incurred for the purpose of the bailment.
In bailment, the bailor has the right to claim for damages against the loss, if any, caused to the goods bailed due to the bailee's negligence or misconduct. The bailor has the right to claim compensation against unauthorised use of goods.
The bailor enjoys the exclusive right to have the goods delivered back to him in safe and sound condition after the time of bailment has expired or the purpose behind the bailment has been achieved. In the absence of any contrary term in the contract, the bailor is also entitled to any accretion to the goods bailed, if it occurred while the goods were in the study of bailee.
Q. John lends his favorite book 'As You Like It' by William Shakespeare to his friend Jill for a week to look after the book and read it as well, as the book is not easily available in the market, while John is away for a vacation. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
S.148 of the Contract Act states that a bailment is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. In bailment, the person delivering the goods is called the bailor and the person to whom they are delivered is called the bailee. Bailment can be classified into gratuitous bailment and non-gratuitous bailment. A bailment with no considerations is called a gratuitous bailment. In this bailment, neither the bailor nor the bailee is entitled to any remuneration or reward. Such a bailment may be for the exclusive benefit of either party. A non-gratuitous bailment or a bailment for reward is one that involves some consideration passing between the bailor and the bailee.
Delivery of goods from one person to another person for some purpose is an essential element of bailment. S.149 says that delivery to the bailee may be made by doing anything which has the effect of putting the goods in the possession of the intended bailee or of any person authorised to hold them on his behalf.
S.150 says that the bailor is bound to disclose to the bailee faults in the goods bailed, of which the bailor is aware, and which materially interfere with the use of them or expose the bailee to extraordinary risk. Where, by the conditions of the bailment, the goods are to be kept or to be carried or to have work done upon them by the bailee for the bailor and the bailee is to receive no remuneration, the bailors shall repay to the bailee the necessary expenses incurred for the purpose of the bailment.
In bailment, the bailor has the right to claim for damages against the loss, if any, caused to the goods bailed due to the bailee's negligence or misconduct. The bailor has the right to claim compensation against unauthorised use of goods.
The bailor enjoys the exclusive right to have the goods delivered back to him in safe and sound condition after the time of bailment has expired or the purpose behind the bailment has been achieved. In the absence of any contrary term in the contract, the bailor is also entitled to any accretion to the goods bailed, if it occurred while the goods were in the study of bailee.
Q. Soha left her cat in custody of Preeti to be taken care of for a year. In the meantime, the cat gave birth to four kittens. Preeti gifted two kittens to her neighbour. Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed is said to wrongfully restrain that person. The section also lays down an exception, according to which if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint.
In the case of Madala Perayya v. Voruganti Chandrayya, the accused and the complainant jointly owner of a well. Both of them were entitled to use the water for agricultural purposes. The accused stopped the complainant from using the water and also stopped the bullocks of the complainant from moving. The court held that the accused had committed the offence of wrongful restraint under Section 339.
In the case of Shoba Rani v. The King, the landlord was accused of preventing his tenant from using the bathroom. It was held that by stopping the tenant from using something that he had the right to use, the landlord had committed wrongful restraint under Section 339.
Further, in the case of Souri Prasad Patniak v. State of Orissa, the accused was a veterinary surgeon who did not receive payments for several months. When his superior officer visited the office and started going back, the accused stood in front of the jeep and raised protest for non-payment of his salary. However, after his protest, he had given the way to jeep. The Orissa High Court held that the accused was not guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint.
According to Section 340 of the IPC, whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is said to have committed the offence of wrongful confinement.
In the case of State of Gujarat v. Keshav Lai, it was discussed by the court that for a charge of wrongful confinement, proof of actual physical restriction is not essential. It is sufficient if the evidence shows that such an impression was produced in the mind of the victim and a reasonable apprehension in his mind that he was not free to depart. If the impression creates that the complainant would be forthwith seized or restrained if he attempts to escape, a reasonable apprehension of the use of the force rather than its actual use is sufficient and important.
Q. A police officer prevents a criminal from getting away by locking him in a room and threatened to shoot if he tries to escape. The criminal wants to claim wrongful confinement. Will he succeed?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed is said to wrongfully restrain that person. The section also lays down an exception, according to which if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint.
In the case of Madala Perayya v. Voruganti Chandrayya, the accused and the complainant jointly owner of a well. Both of them were entitled to use the water for agricultural purposes. The accused stopped the complainant from using the water and also stopped the bullocks of the complainant from moving. The court held that the accused had committed the offence of wrongful restraint under Section 339.
In the case of Shoba Rani v. The King, the landlord was accused of preventing his tenant from using the bathroom. It was held that by stopping the tenant from using something that he had the right to use, the landlord had committed wrongful restraint under Section 339.
Further, in the case of Souri Prasad Patniak v. State of Orissa, the accused was a veterinary surgeon who did not receive payments for several months. When his superior officer visited the office and started going back, the accused stood in front of the jeep and raised protest for non-payment of his salary. However, after his protest, he had given the way to jeep. The Orissa High Court held that the accused was not guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint.
According to Section 340 of the IPC, whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is said to have committed the offence of wrongful confinement.
In the case of State of Gujarat v. Keshav Lai, it was discussed by the court that for a charge of wrongful confinement, proof of actual physical restriction is not essential. It is sufficient if the evidence shows that such an impression was produced in the mind of the victim and a reasonable apprehension in his mind that he was not free to depart. If the impression creates that the complainant would be forthwith seized or restrained if he attempts to escape, a reasonable apprehension of the use of the force rather than its actual use is sufficient and important.
Q. X and Y are very close friends and also neighbours. X used to park his car in front of Y's house and both were okay with it. One day, Y requested X not to park his car in front of his house as some guests were coming to his house, otherwise Y and his guests would be unable to go inside Y's house. Even after that, X parked in front of the gate of Y's house, thereby blocking the entrance to and exit from the house making Y stuck inside the house. As per the given passage, has X committed anything?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed is said to wrongfully restrain that person. The section also lays down an exception, according to which if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint.
In the case of Madala Perayya v. Voruganti Chandrayya, the accused and the complainant jointly owner of a well. Both of them were entitled to use the water for agricultural purposes. The accused stopped the complainant from using the water and also stopped the bullocks of the complainant from moving. The court held that the accused had committed the offence of wrongful restraint under Section 339.
In the case of Shoba Rani v. The King, the landlord was accused of preventing his tenant from using the bathroom. It was held that by stopping the tenant from using something that he had the right to use, the landlord had committed wrongful restraint under Section 339.
Further, in the case of Souri Prasad Patniak v. State of Orissa, the accused was a veterinary surgeon who did not receive payments for several months. When his superior officer visited the office and started going back, the accused stood in front of the jeep and raised protest for non-payment of his salary. However, after his protest, he had given the way to jeep. The Orissa High Court held that the accused was not guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint.
According to Section 340 of the IPC, whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is said to have committed the offence of wrongful confinement.
In the case of State of Gujarat v. Keshav Lai, it was discussed by the court that for a charge of wrongful confinement, proof of actual physical restriction is not essential. It is sufficient if the evidence shows that such an impression was produced in the mind of the victim and a reasonable apprehension in his mind that he was not free to depart. If the impression creates that the complainant would be forthwith seized or restrained if he attempts to escape, a reasonable apprehension of the use of the force rather than its actual use is sufficient and important.
Q. X, Y and Z are colleagues and also good friends. One day, X and Z bet on who will reach office faster the next day. X forces Y to restrain Z from going to the office in order to win the bet. Has Y committed any offence?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed is said to wrongfully restrain that person. The section also lays down an exception, according to which if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint.
In the case of Madala Perayya v. Voruganti Chandrayya, the accused and the complainant jointly owner of a well. Both of them were entitled to use the water for agricultural purposes. The accused stopped the complainant from using the water and also stopped the bullocks of the complainant from moving. The court held that the accused had committed the offence of wrongful restraint under Section 339.
In the case of Shoba Rani v. The King, the landlord was accused of preventing his tenant from using the bathroom. It was held that by stopping the tenant from using something that he had the right to use, the landlord had committed wrongful restraint under Section 339.
Further, in the case of Souri Prasad Patniak v. State of Orissa, the accused was a veterinary surgeon who did not receive payments for several months. When his superior officer visited the office and started going back, the accused stood in front of the jeep and raised protest for non-payment of his salary. However, after his protest, he had given the way to jeep. The Orissa High Court held that the accused was not guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint.
According to Section 340 of the IPC, whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is said to have committed the offence of wrongful confinement.
In the case of State of Gujarat v. Keshav Lai, it was discussed by the court that for a charge of wrongful confinement, proof of actual physical restriction is not essential. It is sufficient if the evidence shows that such an impression was produced in the mind of the victim and a reasonable apprehension in his mind that he was not free to depart. If the impression creates that the complainant would be forthwith seized or restrained if he attempts to escape, a reasonable apprehension of the use of the force rather than its actual use is sufficient and important.
Q. X, accidentally thinking that certain property belongs to him, does not permit Y to enter that property. Y is the lawful owner of that property. Is X liable? Decide.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code, whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed is said to wrongfully restrain that person. The section also lays down an exception, according to which if a person in good faith believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstructs a private way over land or water, then it does not amount to wrongful restraint.
In the case of Madala Perayya v. Voruganti Chandrayya, the accused and the complainant jointly owner of a well. Both of them were entitled to use the water for agricultural purposes. The accused stopped the complainant from using the water and also stopped the bullocks of the complainant from moving. The court held that the accused had committed the offence of wrongful restraint under Section 339.
In the case of Shoba Rani v. The King, the landlord was accused of preventing his tenant from using the bathroom. It was held that by stopping the tenant from using something that he had the right to use, the landlord had committed wrongful restraint under Section 339.
Further, in the case of Souri Prasad Patniak v. State of Orissa, the accused was a veterinary surgeon who did not receive payments for several months. When his superior officer visited the office and started going back, the accused stood in front of the jeep and raised protest for non-payment of his salary. However, after his protest, he had given the way to jeep. The Orissa High Court held that the accused was not guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint.
According to Section 340 of the IPC, whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is said to have committed the offence of wrongful confinement.
In the case of State of Gujarat v. Keshav Lai, it was discussed by the court that for a charge of wrongful confinement, proof of actual physical restriction is not essential. It is sufficient if the evidence shows that such an impression was produced in the mind of the victim and a reasonable apprehension in his mind that he was not free to depart. If the impression creates that the complainant would be forthwith seized or restrained if he attempts to escape, a reasonable apprehension of the use of the force rather than its actual use is sufficient and important.
Q. As per the laws, ambulances in India have the right of way. Still, one ambulance could not proceed as there was a protest. The ambulance driver wants to sue the people in the traffic for wrongful restraint. Can he sue?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 were notified on February 25, 2021. The 2021 Rules replace the Information Technology (Intermediaries Guidelines) Rules, 2011.
Due diligence by intermediaries: Intermediaries are entities that store or transmit data on behalf of other persons. Intermediaries include internet or telecom service providers, online marketplaces, and social media platforms. The due diligence to be observed by intermediaries includes: (i) informing users about rules and regulations, privacy policy, and terms and conditions for usage of its services, (ii) blocking access to unlawful information within 36 hours upon an order from the Court, or the government, and (iii) retaining information collected for the registration of a user for 180 days after cancellation or withdrawal of registration. Intermediaries are required to report cybersecurity incidents and share related information with the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team.
Significant social media intermediaries: A social media intermediary with registered users in India above a threshold (50 lakh) will be classified as 'significant social media intermediary'. Additional due diligence to be observed by these intermediaries includes: (i) appointing a chief compliance officer to ensure compliance with the IT Act and the Rules, (ii) appointing a grievance officer residing in India, and (iii) publishing a monthly compliance report.
Intermediaries which provide messaging as a primary service must enable the identification of the first originator of the information on its platform. This originator must be disclosed if required by an order from the Court or the government. Such order will be passed for specified purposes including investigation of offences related to sovereignty and security of the state, public order, or sexual violence. No such order will be passed if less intrusive means are effective in identifying the originator of the information. The intermediary will not be required to disclose the contents of any communication. If the first originator is located outside India, the first originator of that information within India will be deemed to be the first originator.
Grievance redressal: The Rules require the intermediaries and digital media publishers to provide for a grievance redressal mechanism. The intermediaries are required to designate a grievance officer to address complaints against violation of the Rules. Complaints must be acknowledged within 24 hours and disposed of within 15 days.
Blocking of content in case of emergency: In case of emergencies, the authorised officers may examine digital media content and the Secretary, MIB may pass an interim direction for blocking of such content. The final order for blocking content will be passed only after the approval by the Inter-Departmental Committee. In case of non-approval from the Committee, the content must be unblocked.
Q. Identify the intermediary based on the definition of intermediaries as provided in the passage.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 were notified on February 25, 2021. The 2021 Rules replace the Information Technology (Intermediaries Guidelines) Rules, 2011.
Due diligence by intermediaries: Intermediaries are entities that store or transmit data on behalf of other persons. Intermediaries include internet or telecom service providers, online marketplaces, and social media platforms. The due diligence to be observed by intermediaries includes: (i) informing users about rules and regulations, privacy policy, and terms and conditions for usage of its services, (ii) blocking access to unlawful information within 36 hours upon an order from the Court, or the government, and (iii) retaining information collected for the registration of a user for 180 days after cancellation or withdrawal of registration. Intermediaries are required to report cybersecurity incidents and share related information with the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team.
Significant social media intermediaries: A social media intermediary with registered users in India above a threshold (50 lakh) will be classified as 'significant social media intermediary'. Additional due diligence to be observed by these intermediaries includes: (i) appointing a chief compliance officer to ensure compliance with the IT Act and the Rules, (ii) appointing a grievance officer residing in India, and (iii) publishing a monthly compliance report.
Intermediaries which provide messaging as a primary service must enable the identification of the first originator of the information on its platform. This originator must be disclosed if required by an order from the Court or the government. Such order will be passed for specified purposes including investigation of offences related to sovereignty and security of the state, public order, or sexual violence. No such order will be passed if less intrusive means are effective in identifying the originator of the information. The intermediary will not be required to disclose the contents of any communication. If the first originator is located outside India, the first originator of that information within India will be deemed to be the first originator.
Grievance redressal: The Rules require the intermediaries and digital media publishers to provide for a grievance redressal mechanism. The intermediaries are required to designate a grievance officer to address complaints against violation of the Rules. Complaints must be acknowledged within 24 hours and disposed of within 15 days.
Blocking of content in case of emergency: In case of emergencies, the authorised officers may examine digital media content and the Secretary, MIB may pass an interim direction for blocking of such content. The final order for blocking content will be passed only after the approval by the Inter-Departmental Committee. In case of non-approval from the Committee, the content must be unblocked.
Q. A big data breach happened at the server of a major telecom player in India. They tried to stop this break. They succeeded in fending off the attack/attackers. They decided to keep this attack private and not to tell anyone. Are they correct in doing so?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 were notified on February 25, 2021. The 2021 Rules replace the Information Technology (Intermediaries Guidelines) Rules, 2011.
Due diligence by intermediaries: Intermediaries are entities that store or transmit data on behalf of other persons. Intermediaries include internet or telecom service providers, online marketplaces, and social media platforms. The due diligence to be observed by intermediaries includes: (i) informing users about rules and regulations, privacy policy, and terms and conditions for usage of its services, (ii) blocking access to unlawful information within 36 hours upon an order from the Court, or the government, and (iii) retaining information collected for the registration of a user for 180 days after cancellation or withdrawal of registration. Intermediaries are required to report cybersecurity incidents and share related information with the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team.
Significant social media intermediaries: A social media intermediary with registered users in India above a threshold (50 lakh) will be classified as 'significant social media intermediary'. Additional due diligence to be observed by these intermediaries includes: (i) appointing a chief compliance officer to ensure compliance with the IT Act and the Rules, (ii) appointing a grievance officer residing in India, and (iii) publishing a monthly compliance report.
Intermediaries which provide messaging as a primary service must enable the identification of the first originator of the information on its platform. This originator must be disclosed if required by an order from the Court or the government. Such order will be passed for specified purposes including investigation of offences related to sovereignty and security of the state, public order, or sexual violence. No such order will be passed if less intrusive means are effective in identifying the originator of the information. The intermediary will not be required to disclose the contents of any communication. If the first originator is located outside India, the first originator of that information within India will be deemed to be the first originator.
Grievance redressal: The Rules require the intermediaries and digital media publishers to provide for a grievance redressal mechanism. The intermediaries are required to designate a grievance officer to address complaints against violation of the Rules. Complaints must be acknowledged within 24 hours and disposed of within 15 days.
Blocking of content in case of emergency: In case of emergencies, the authorised officers may examine digital media content and the Secretary, MIB may pass an interim direction for blocking of such content. The final order for blocking content will be passed only after the approval by the Inter-Departmental Committee. In case of non-approval from the Committee, the content must be unblocked.
Q. A riot was happening in the city of Delhi and the Indian government asked a significant social media giant to block certain accounts as those were fuelling the fire by providing misleading information and were also involved in scaremongering. Can the government ask social media to block certain content?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 were notified on February 25, 2021. The 2021 Rules replace the Information Technology (Intermediaries Guidelines) Rules, 2011.
Due diligence by intermediaries: Intermediaries are entities that store or transmit data on behalf of other persons. Intermediaries include internet or telecom service providers, online marketplaces, and social media platforms. The due diligence to be observed by intermediaries includes: (i) informing users about rules and regulations, privacy policy, and terms and conditions for usage of its services, (ii) blocking access to unlawful information within 36 hours upon an order from the Court, or the government, and (iii) retaining information collected for the registration of a user for 180 days after cancellation or withdrawal of registration. Intermediaries are required to report cybersecurity incidents and share related information with the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team.
Significant social media intermediaries: A social media intermediary with registered users in India above a threshold (50 lakh) will be classified as 'significant social media intermediary'. Additional due diligence to be observed by these intermediaries includes: (i) appointing a chief compliance officer to ensure compliance with the IT Act and the Rules, (ii) appointing a grievance officer residing in India, and (iii) publishing a monthly compliance report.
Intermediaries which provide messaging as a primary service must enable the identification of the first originator of the information on its platform. This originator must be disclosed if required by an order from the Court or the government. Such order will be passed for specified purposes including investigation of offences related to sovereignty and security of the state, public order, or sexual violence. No such order will be passed if less intrusive means are effective in identifying the originator of the information. The intermediary will not be required to disclose the contents of any communication. If the first originator is located outside India, the first originator of that information within India will be deemed to be the first originator.
Grievance redressal: The Rules require the intermediaries and digital media publishers to provide for a grievance redressal mechanism. The intermediaries are required to designate a grievance officer to address complaints against violation of the Rules. Complaints must be acknowledged within 24 hours and disposed of within 15 days.
Blocking of content in case of emergency: In case of emergencies, the authorised officers may examine digital media content and the Secretary, MIB may pass an interim direction for blocking of such content. The final order for blocking content will be passed only after the approval by the Inter-Departmental Committee. In case of non-approval from the Committee, the content must be unblocked.
Q. A person registered on an instant messaging app and used it to issue a threat to an Indian citizen. After doing so, he deleted his account on the app. An FIR was filed within 48 hours. At the time of investigation, police demanded the user details from the app, but they said that the account had been deleted and they were unable to retrieve any information of that user. Can police seek such details?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 were notified on February 25, 2021. The 2021 Rules replace the Information Technology (Intermediaries Guidelines) Rules, 2011.
Due diligence by intermediaries: Intermediaries are entities that store or transmit data on behalf of other persons. Intermediaries include internet or telecom service providers, online marketplaces, and social media platforms. The due diligence to be observed by intermediaries includes: (i) informing users about rules and regulations, privacy policy, and terms and conditions for usage of its services, (ii) blocking access to unlawful information within 36 hours upon an order from the Court, or the government, and (iii) retaining information collected for the registration of a user for 180 days after cancellation or withdrawal of registration. Intermediaries are required to report cybersecurity incidents and share related information with the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team.
Significant social media intermediaries: A social media intermediary with registered users in India above a threshold (50 lakh) will be classified as 'significant social media intermediary'. Additional due diligence to be observed by these intermediaries includes: (i) appointing a chief compliance officer to ensure compliance with the IT Act and the Rules, (ii) appointing a grievance officer residing in India, and (iii) publishing a monthly compliance report.
Intermediaries which provide messaging as a primary service must enable the identification of the first originator of the information on its platform. This originator must be disclosed if required by an order from the Court or the government. Such order will be passed for specified purposes including investigation of offences related to sovereignty and security of the state, public order, or sexual violence. No such order will be passed if less intrusive means are effective in identifying the originator of the information. The intermediary will not be required to disclose the contents of any communication. If the first originator is located outside India, the first originator of that information within India will be deemed to be the first originator.
Grievance redressal: The Rules require the intermediaries and digital media publishers to provide for a grievance redressal mechanism. The intermediaries are required to designate a grievance officer to address complaints against violation of the Rules. Complaints must be acknowledged within 24 hours and disposed of within 15 days.
Blocking of content in case of emergency: In case of emergencies, the authorised officers may examine digital media content and the Secretary, MIB may pass an interim direction for blocking of such content. The final order for blocking content will be passed only after the approval by the Inter-Departmental Committee. In case of non-approval from the Committee, the content must be unblocked.
Q. A person residing in Canada shared some message/video clip affecting the sovereignty and security of India, and the same was also shared by an Indian citizen residing in Delhi; after him, it was shared by a US citizen residing in Mumbai and three Pakistanis residing in Karachi. Who will be considered the first originator of that message/video clip?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Winfield and Jolowicz, Negligence is the breach of a legal duty of care by the plaintiff which results in undesired damage to the plaintiff. Essentials of Negligence are : 1) Existence of legal duty to take care owed by defendant to the plaintiff; 2)Breach of that duty by failure of defendant to take such care as reasonable man would have taken; 3)As a result of that breach of duty, plaintiff has suffered damage.
In Donoghue v. Steveson the appellant drank a bottle of ginger beer bought by her friend which contained the decomposed remains of a snail. She fainted and fell ill. In an action to recover damages, it was held that the manufacturer was liable to the lady for negligence
Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin phrase that means “the thing speaks for itself.”It is considered to be a type of circumstantial evidence which permits the court to determine that the negligence of the defendant led to an unusual event that subsequently caused injury to the plaintiff. Although generally the duty to prove that the defendant acted negligently lies upon the plaintiff but through res ipsa loquitur, if the plaintiff presents certain circumstantial facts, it becomes the burden of the defendant to prove that he was not negligent.
This doctrine arose out of the case of Byrne vs Boadle(1863). The plaintiff was walking by a warehouse on the road and suffered injuries from a falling barrel of flour which rolled out of a window from the second floor. At the trial, the plaintiff’s attorney argued that the facts spoke for themselves and demonstrated the warehouse’s negligence since no other explanation could account for the cause of the plaintiff’s injuries.
Defences available in suit for negligence are – 1) Contributory negligence by the plaintiff – it is based on maxim volenti non fit injuria; 2) Act of God; 3) Inevitable Accident; 4) Statutory authority
Q. Amit was in a hurry to catch a flight and hired a taxi from XYZ taxi stand. Amit asked the driver to drive fast. The driver drove at 90km/hr instead of mentioned speed limit which was 60 km/hr. As a result, the driver lost control and hit an obstacle. Amit was badly injured. Amit filed a suit against the taxi stand.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Winfield and Jolowicz, Negligence is the breach of a legal duty of care by the plaintiff which results in undesired damage to the plaintiff. Essentials of Negligence are 1) Existence of legal duty to take care owed by defendant to the plaintiff; 2)Breach of that duty by failure of defendant to take such care as reasonable man would have taken; 3)As a result of that breach of duty, plaintiff has suffered damage.
In Donoghue v. Steveson the appellant drank a bottle of ginger beer bought by her friend which contained the decomposed remains of a snail. She fainted and fell ill. In an action to recover damages, it was held that the manufacturer was liable to the lady for negligence
Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin phrase that means “the thing speaks for itself.”It is considered to be a type of circumstantial evidence which permits the court to determine that the negligence of the defendant led to an unusual event that subsequently caused injury to the plaintiff. Although generally the duty to prove that the defendant acted negligently lies upon the plaintiff but through res ipsa loquitur, if the plaintiff presents certain circumstantial facts, it becomes the burden of the defendant to prove that he was not negligent.
This doctrine arose out of the case of Byrne vs Boadle(1863). The plaintiff was walking by a warehouse on the road and suffered injuries from a falling barrel of flour which rolled out of a window from the second floor. At the trial, the plaintiff’s attorney argued that the facts spoke for themselves and demonstrated the warehouse’s negligence since no other explanation could account for the cause of the plaintiff’s injuries.
Defences available in suit for negligence are – 1) Contributory negligence by the plaintiff – it is based on maxim volenti non fit injuria; 2) Act of God; 3) Inevitable Accident; 4) Statutory authority
Q. The maxim Res ipsa loquitor is a
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Winfield and Jolowicz, Negligence is the breach of a legal duty of care by the plaintiff which results in undesired damage to the plaintiff. Essentials of Negligence are 1) Existence of legal duty to take care owed by defendant to the plaintiff; 2)Breach of that duty by failure of defendant to take such care as reasonable man would have taken; 3)As a result of that breach of duty, plaintiff has suffered damage.
In Donoghue v. Steveson the appellant drank a bottle of ginger beer bought by her friend which contained the decomposed remains of a snail. She fainted and fell ill. In an action to recover damages, it was held that the manufacturer was liable to the lady for negligence
Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin phrase that means “the thing speaks for itself.”It is considered to be a type of circumstantial evidence which permits the court to determine that the negligence of the defendant led to an unusual event that subsequently caused injury to the plaintiff. Although generally the duty to prove that the defendant acted negligently lies upon the plaintiff but through res ipsa loquitur, if the plaintiff presents certain circumstantial facts, it becomes the burden of the defendant to prove that he was not negligent.
This doctrine arose out of the case of Byrne vs Boadle(1863). The plaintiff was walking by a warehouse on the road and suffered injuries from a falling barrel of flour which rolled out of a window from the second floor. At the trial, the plaintiff’s attorney argued that the facts spoke for themselves and demonstrated the warehouse’s negligence since no other explanation could account for the cause of the plaintiff’s injuries.
Defences available in suit for negligence are – 1) Contributory negligence by the plaintiff – it is based on maxim volenti non fit injuria; 2) Act of God; 3) Inevitable Accident; 4) Statutory authority
Q. In the fact situations of the case above, if there was no leakage in the electricity pole and when A caught hold of the pole, an electricity wire broke and fell into the pit. A was electrocuted and died on spot. In a suit for damages by B, wife of A, the Court established a commission to examine the pole and wire. It was found that the wire had outlived its life and was weak, making it easily breakable. Discuss the liability of electricity board.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Winfield and Jolowicz, Negligence is the breach of a legal duty of care by the plaintiff which results in undesired damage to the plaintiff. Essentials of Negligence are 1) Existence of legal duty to take care owed by defendant to the plaintiff; 2)Breach of that duty by failure of defendant to take such care as reasonable man would have taken; 3)As a result of that breach of duty, plaintiff has suffered damage.
In Donoghue v. Steveson the appellant drank a bottle of ginger beer bought by her friend which contained the decomposed remains of a snail. She fainted and fell ill. In an action to recover damages, it was held that the manufacturer was liable to the lady for negligence
Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin phrase that means “the thing speaks for itself.”It is considered to be a type of circumstantial evidence which permits the court to determine that the negligence of the defendant led to an unusual event that subsequently caused injury to the plaintiff. Although generally the duty to prove that the defendant acted negligently lies upon the plaintiff but through res ipsa loquitur, if the plaintiff presents certain circumstantial facts, it becomes the burden of the defendant to prove that he was not negligent.
This doctrine arose out of the case of Byrne vs Boadle(1863). The plaintiff was walking by a warehouse on the road and suffered injuries from a falling barrel of flour which rolled out of a window from the second floor. At the trial, the plaintiff’s attorney argued that the facts spoke for themselves and demonstrated the warehouse’s negligence since no other explanation could account for the cause of the plaintiff’s injuries.
Defences available in suit for negligence are – 1) Contributory negligence by the plaintiff – it is based on maxim volenti non fit injuria; 2) Act of God; 3) Inevitable Accident; 4) Statutory authority
Q. Considering the fact situations of case in Question 1, if the speed of taxi was within 60 km/hr but due to some sudden mechanical part failure of the car, the car loses balance and hits the obstacle. Amit files a suit against the taxi stand.
I. The taxi stand would be liable because the driver ought to have known about the defect in car
II. The taxi stand would not be liable because the driver took all the precautions
III. The taxi stand would not be because the accident was unavoidable.
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
According to Winfield and Jolowicz, Negligence is the breach of a legal duty of care by the plaintiff which results in undesired damage to the plaintiff. Essentials of Negligence are 1) Existence of legal duty to take care owed by defendant to the plaintiff; 2)Breach of that duty by failure of defendant to take such care as reasonable man would have taken; 3)As a result of that breach of duty, plaintiff has suffered damage.
In Donoghue v. Steveson the appellant drank a bottle of ginger beer bought by her friend which contained the decomposed remains of a snail. She fainted and fell ill. In an action to recover damages, it was held that the manufacturer was liable to the lady for negligence
Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin phrase that means “the thing speaks for itself.”It is considered to be a type of circumstantial evidence which permits the court to determine that the negligence of the defendant led to an unusual event that subsequently caused injury to the plaintiff. Although generally the duty to prove that the defendant acted negligently lies upon the plaintiff but through res ipsa loquitur, if the plaintiff presents certain circumstantial facts, it becomes the burden of the defendant to prove that he was not negligent.
This doctrine arose out of the case of Byrne vs Boadle(1863). The plaintiff was walking by a warehouse on the road and suffered injuries from a falling barrel of flour which rolled out of a window from the second floor. At the trial, the plaintiff’s attorney argued that the facts spoke for themselves and demonstrated the warehouse’s negligence since no other explanation could account for the cause of the plaintiff’s injuries.
Defences available in suit for negligence are – 1) Contributory negligence by the plaintiff – it is based on maxim volenti non fit injuria; 2) Act of God; 3) Inevitable Accident; 4) Statutory authority
Q. A was walking by the road. He slipped into a pit filled with rain water. While slipping he caught hold of a nearby electricity pole to avert the fall. Due to leakage of electricity in the pole, he was electrocuted. Can the electricity board be held liable?
Directions: Read the passage and answer the question that follows.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) enacted on May 28, 2016, against the backdrop of mounting non-performing loans, with a view to establishing a consolidated framework for insolvency resolution of corporations, partnership firms and individuals in a time-bound manner, seeks to tackle the non-performing asset (NPA) problem in two ways. Firstly, behavioural change on part of the debtors to ensure sound business decision-making and prevent business failures is encouraged. Secondly, it envisages a process through which financially ailing corporate entities are put through a rehabilitation process and brought back up on their feet. Under the IBC, the Indian insolvency regime shifted from ‘debtor-in-possession’ to ‘creditor-in-control’. The creditor-in-control model hands control of the debtor to its creditors and relies upon the managerial skills of a newly appointed management to take over an ailing company and ensure business continuance. The Apex Court in Swiss Ribbons Vs Union of India, has held that the core objective of the IBC is to ensure revival and continuation of the corporate debtor. Thus, the IBC has a larger public-welfare consideration in play.
The IBC sets out three classes of persons who can trigger the corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) – financial creditors, operational creditors and corporate debtors. For an operational debtor, the Apex Court in Mobilox Innovations Vs Kirusa Software observed that the operational debt should be free from any pre-existing dispute which cannot be dealt with summarily in insolvency proceedings. In terms of liability, in Lalit Kumar Jain Vs Union of India, the Supreme Court clarified that the liability of a guarantor was coextensive with that of the principal debtor. Accordingly, parallel proceedings could be initiated against the guarantors.
Perhaps the most important aspect under the IBC is the timeliness of insolvency resolution. The Supreme Court in Kridhan Infrastructure Vs Venketesan Sankaranarayan, observed that the insolvency resolution should not suffer from an indefinite delay in complete abeyance of the timelines fixed under the IBC.
Once an insolvency petition is admitted, a moratorium is introduced. In P Mohanraj Vs Shah Brothers Ispat, the Supreme Court held that a moratorium prohibits the institution and continuation of any proceedings against the corporate debtor during the CIRP. A moratorium is meant to prevent further depletion of the corporate debtor’s assets and hence acts as a ‘shield’, but it does not protect the key managerial personnel of the corporate debtor who was responsible for the insolvency.
Similarly, in Phoenix ARC Vs Spade Financial Services, it was observed that the IBC provides that any related party of the corporate debtor does not have the right to be part of a committee of creditors (CoC). The object of such a provision is to prevent the decisions of the CoC from being sabotaged by related parties of the corporate debtor.
Q. As per the above passage the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was establish with a view to establishing a consolidated framework for insolvency resolution of who all?