NDA General Ability Mock Test - 7 - NDA MCQ

Yet shows a contrast between being unwell and attending the meeting. The other options imply summary, examples, or results.

On the other hand contrasts disliking mornings with enjoying evening walks. The other options imply examples, reasons, or summaries.

The correct answer is Option (C) i.e. RPQS
Key Points

• The sentence begins with the subject "The Constitution," which is correctly indicated by part (R).
• Following the subject, "lays down certain directive principles of state policy" (RP) continues the logical sequence, making it clear what the Constitution lays down.
• The next part, "which though not justiciable are fundamental to the governance of the country," starts the explanation about the directive principles, indicated by (P).
• Ending with "and it is the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws" (QS) completes the sentence by stating the state's responsibility.

Therefore, the correct answer is RPQS.
Additional Information

• Option A (PQRS): This option starts with "directive principles of state policy which though not justiciable are fundamental to the governance of the country and it is the duty." This sequence is incomplete and does not make sense grammatically.
• Option B (QRPS): This option starts with "the Constitution lays down certain fundamental to the governance of the country," which makes the sentence incorrect as the explanation starts too early, missing contextual flow.
• Option D (SPRQ): This option starts with "of the state to apply these principles in making laws directive principles which," which creates a fragmented and confusing sentence structure.

The correct answer is: excess.

Key Points

• The word "plethora" means a large or excessive amount of something. (प्रचुर मात्रा)
  • Example: The library has a plethora of books on various subjects.
• "Excess" refers to an amount of something that is more than necessary, permitted, or desirable. (अधिकता)
  • Example: The excess of food at the party was wasted.
• Hence, we can infer that the word 'plethora' is nearest in meaning to 'excess'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: excess.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Lack (कमी): The state of being without or not having enough of something.
  • Example: There is a lack of resources in the rural areas.
• Shortage (अभाव): A state or situation in which something needed cannot be obtained in sufficient amounts.
  • Example: The shortage of water has affected the crops.
• Need (आवश्यकता): Require (something) because it is essential or very important.
  • Example: There is a need for more doctors in the hospital.

The correct answer is: rebellious.

Key Points

• The word "recalcitrant" means having an obstinately uncooperative attitude towards authority or discipline. (अवज्ञाकारी)
  • Example: The recalcitrant employee was often at odds with his manager.
• "Rebellious" refers to showing a desire to resist authority, control, or convention. (विद्रोही)
  • Example: The rebellious teenager often challenged the school's rules and regulations.
• Hence, we can infer that the meaning of 'recalcitrant' is closest to 'rebellious'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: rebellious.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Compliant (अनुगामी): Inclined to agree with others or obey rules, especially to an excessive degree.
  • Example: The compliant student always followed the teacher's instructions without question.
• Obedient (आज्ञाकारी): Willing to comply with an order or request; submissive to another's authority.
  • Example: The obedient dog followed every command given by its owner.
• Cooperative (सहयोगी): Involving mutual assistance in working towards a common goal.
  • Example: The cooperative team members worked together to complete the project on time.

The correct answer is: Option C i.e. affluent.
Key Points

• The word "indigent" means lacking money or resources; poor. (गरीब)
  • Example: The charity organization provides food and shelter to indigent families.
• "Affluent" refers to having a great deal of money; wealthy. (धनी)
  • Example: The affluent neighborhood is known for its luxurious houses and high standard of living.
• Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'indigent' is 'affluent'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: affluent.
Additional Information
Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

• Pretentious (दिखावटी): Attempting to impress by affecting greater importance or merit than is actually possessed.
  • Example: His pretentious attitude makes it hard for others to take him seriously.
• Impecunious (निर्धन): Having little or no money.
  • Example: The impecunious artist struggled to make ends meet.
• Ruined (विनाश): Reduced to a state of decay, collapse, or disintegration.
  • Example: The old castle was now a ruined structure, with only a few walls still standing.

Dhanpatrai was Laxmi's father.

According to the passage ,""Laxmi, Laxmi" he called out to his daughter who was sleeping. "Laxmi, I hope our money-box and jewellery are kept in the ceiling." he asked cleverly."

S introduces 'A productive officer'. P presents features of productive officer, where, 'such an officer' refers to the officer described in the previous statement 'S'. P contains a phrase 'writing on the wall', which may make us think that the officer can be intimidating because of his strong and unbending position. Hence, the following statement 'R' allays this concern that such officer is not intimidating. One may think that Q be placed after P, however, we cannot infer that 'well calculated' and timely decisions can make us infer that the boss is intimidating. Hence, the correct sequence is SPRQ.

Follow the sequence markers first, then, and next. "When we are satisfied with everything" suggests 'S' to be positioned in the end.

Correct Answer: PRSQ
Only Q has a question, the answer to which is found in S6. So, Q will come at last in the sequence. S1 starts with borrowing of dollar. P states the reason for the borrowing. So, P should come after S1. R states how the borrowing took place. It 'happened ... simply and naturally.' S elaborates on R and follows it. Thus, we have the PRSQ sequence.

The correct answer is Bolan Pass.
Key Points
Zojila Pass:

• Location: Indian Himalayan region, specifically in Jammu and Kashmir.
• Significance: Connects Srinagar and Leh.

Bolan Pass:

• Location: Bolan Pass is located in the Sulaiman Range in Pakistan.

Shipkila Pass:

• Location: Located in the Indian Himalayan region, connecting Himachal Pradesh with Tibet.
• Significance: Part of the ancient trade route and strategic for border security.

Lipulekh Pass:

• Location: Located in the Indian Himalayan region, connecting Uttarakhand with Tibet.
• Significance: Important for the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra pilgrimage and as a border pass.

Additional Information
Some major passes with their states is given below:

• Jammu and Kashmir:
  • Zoji La Pass
  • Banihal Pass
  • Khardung La Pass
  • Fotu La Pass
• Himachal Pradesh:
  • Shipki La Pass
  • Baralacha La Pass
  • Kunzum La Pass
  • Jalori Pass
  • Sach Pass
  • Rohtang Pass
• Uttarakhand:
  • Lipulekh Pass
  • Mana Pass
  • Niti Pass
  • Kuari Pass
  • Milam Pass
• Sikkim:
  • Nathu La Pass
  • Jelep La Pass
• Arunachal Pradesh
  • Bomdila Pass
  • Sela Pass
  • Bum La Pass

The Correct Answer is Streams of stars that are building blocks of the Milky Way.

In News

• Scientists uncover Milky Way’s ancient building blocks, Shakti & Shiva.

Key Points

• Shakti and Shiva are comprised of stars with similar chemical compositions.
• Each structure has a mass about 10 million times greater than our sun.
• These structures were found using observations from European Space Agency's Gaia space telescope.
• The scientists predicted that these may be the relics of two distinct galaxies that merged 12 billion years ago with the Milky Way's primordial pieces.
• The Milky Way is a large spiral-shaped galaxy populated by hundreds of billions of stars whose disk measures approximately 100,000 light years in diameter.
• A light year is the distance light travels in a year, 5.9 trillion miles (9.5 trillion km).

The correct answer is coniferous forest.

Key Points

Coniferous Forest

• Coniferous trees are found in the Taiga biome which has evergreen trees.
• The trees are straight with thick bark.
• Food is stored in the trunk.
• Some conifers have needle-like leaves.
• Leaves are waxy to lose less amount of water during the summer and spring periods.
• Structurally, these forests have 2 layers generally: an overstory and an understory.
• However, some forests may support a layer of shrubs.
• Coniferous forests (fir, pine, spruce) make up around one-third of the world's forests.
• These trees are found in northern parts of North America, Europe, and Asia.
• In these areas, temperatures tend to be lower, and winter tends to last longer like in the Himalayas.
• The soil is heavily leached and acidic in nature.
• The forest has the highest biomass but less biodiversity.
• They sequester a large amount of carbon.
• Muskrat, ermine, mink, and silver fox are the most important animals.
• The vast reserves of coniferous forests provide the basis for the lumbering industry.
• But most of the region is unexplored due to remoteness.

The correct answer is Vasugupta.

Key PointsKashmir Shaivism

• Kashmir Shaivism is a school of Shivaism that originated in Kashmir in the first half of the 1st millennium.
• It is characterized by its highly metaphysical approach and the emphasis on the recognition of the individual self as identical with the universal consciousness, Shiva.
• Vasugupta, the sage to whom the revelation of the Shiva Sutras was attributed, is considered the founder of this philosophical and religious tradition.
• The teachings of Kashmir Shaivism are deeply rooted in the concept of non-dualism, where the ultimate goal is the realization of one's self as part of the universal consciousness.
• It employs methods of spiritual practice (sadhana) that include meditation, mantra recitation, and rituals, aimed at awakening the spiritual power (kundalini) and realizing the unity of the individual soul (atman) with the supreme (Brahman).

Hence, the correct answer is Vasugupta.

Additional Information

• Abhinavagupta was another key figure in Kashmir Shaivism, known for his extensive writings that elaborated on and clarified the teachings of Vasugupta. His works are considered essential in understanding the intricacies of this tradition.
• The Shiva Sutras are a collection of seventy-seven aphorisms that serve as foundational texts for Kashmir Shaivism. They are said to have been revealed to Vasugupta in a dream or vision, etched on a rock.
• Kashmir Shaivism is known for its Trika philosophy, which refers to the triad of Shiva, Shakti, and Nara (the individual soul), emphasizing their intrinsic unity.
• This tradition also contributed significantly to the fields of poetry, dance, and aesthetics in Indian culture, offering profound insights into the nature of beauty and the arts as expressions of divine consciousness.
• The spiritual practices associated with Kashmir Shaivism are designed to transcend ordinary consciousness and experience the divine within the self, making it a highly introspective and transformative path.

The correct answer is Kyoto Protocol.

Key Points

• Clean Development Mechanism:-
  • It allows emission-reduction projects in developing countries to earn Certified Emission Reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO_2.
  • The CDM is the main source of income for the UNFCCC Adaptation Fund.
  • The Adaptation Fund is financed by a 2% levy on CERs issued by the CDM.
  • Adaptation Fund (AF) was established under the Kyoto Protocol in 2001 and has committed US$ 532 million to climate adaptation and resilience activities.
• Joint Implementation Mechanism:-
  • The mechanism allows a country with an emission reduction commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex B Party) to earn emission reduction units (ERUs) from an emission-reduction project in another Annex B Party, each equivalent to one tonne of CO₂, which can be counted towards meeting its Kyoto target.
  • The joint implementation mechanism offers Parties a flexible and cost-efficient means of fulfilling a part of their Kyoto commitments, while the host Party benefits from foreign investment and technology transfer.
• Emission Trading Mechanism:-
  • Emission Trading or Cap & Trade is one of the so-called Kyoto Mechanisms under the UNFCCC.
  • In this, the central authority sets a limit or cap on the amount of a pollutant that can be emitted. This limit is sold to the firms in the form of emission permits.
  • An emission permit represents the right to emit the specific volume of a particular pollutant.
  • The Firm would need to hold the number of permits equivalent to their emissions. The number of these permits can not exceed a cap.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.
Key Points

• The concepts considered as pillars of Human Development, as defined by the Human Development Index (HDI) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), include:
  • Equity
  • Sustainability
  • Productivity
• Equity, Productivity, empowerment, and sustainability are considered to be the four pillars of human development.
  • Human Development can be described as a process of enlarging opportunities, and improving their well-being, and livelihood.
  • The concept of Human Development was developed by Mahbub ul Haq.

Important Points
The four pillars of human development are:

• Equity: It means giving equal access to opportunities available to everybody. It must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income, and caste.
• Productivity: Productivity in terms of Human Work. Such things must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Efforts to increase their knowledge and better health facilities lead to increased efficiency.
• Empowerment: Good Governance and people-oriented policies are needed to empower people. Empowerment of economically and socially disadvantaged groups is of special importance.
• Sustainability: Everyone must get the same opportunities to have sustainable human development. Every resource must be used in a way that there is no shortage of resources for future generations.

The correct answer is 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water.

Key PointsVinegar Composition

• Vinegar is a versatile ingredient used in the culinary world, known for its acidic taste and preservative properties.
• It is primarily a 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water, which is produced through the fermentation process.
• The process involves the fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria, which converts alcohol into acetic acid, giving vinegar its characteristic sour taste and smell.
• Aside from its use in cooking, vinegar is also used for cleaning, medicinal purposes, and as a natural preservative due to its antimicrobial properties.
• The concentration of acetic acid in vinegar can vary depending on the type and purpose, but for culinary uses, it typically ranges from 5% to 8%.

Hence, the correct option is 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water.

Additional Information

• Fermentation Process: The conversion of ethanol to acetic acid is a key step in vinegar production. This biological process is facilitated by Acetobacter, a genus of acetic acid bacteria.
• Types of Vinegar: There are various types of vinegar, including but not limited to, apple cider vinegar, white vinegar, balsamic vinegar, and rice vinegar. Each type has its unique flavor profile and uses in cooking.
• Health Benefits: Vinegar, particularly apple cider vinegar, is often touted for its potential health benefits, including weight loss, improved digestion, and blood sugar regulation. However, scientific evidence supporting these claims is mixed.
• Cleaning and Disinfecting: Due to its acidic nature, vinegar is an effective natural cleaner and disinfectant. It is commonly used in eco-friendly cleaning solutions for its ability to kill bacteria and remove odors.
• Preservation: The antimicrobial properties of vinegar make it an excellent preservative for pickling vegetables, fruits, and other food items, extending their shelf life by inhibiting the growth of bacteria.

The correct answer is carbon.

Key Points

Carbon- universal building block of life:

• Carbon is called the building block of life as it forms the skeleton, figuratively and literally, for the organic macromolecules so vital to life: proteins, lipids, nucleic acids and carbohydrates.
• It is the only one capable of forming the large, complex and highly sensitive molecules that are intrinsically associated with living organisms of every size and kind.
• No other element comes even close to having the overall properties of carbon and this is why it is the only structural element found in molecules associated with life.
• Along with carbon's abundance and small size, carbon has a myriad of possible bonding arrangements and geometric configurations, far more than any other element.
• This latter attribute creates a vast array of molecular options and opportunities which life can exploit, making carbon the best building block for life.
• Carbon atoms have space in their valence shell for 4 stable connections, allowing them to form many many compounds. It is the structural compound for every simple organic compound.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

Coriolis Effect:

• The Coriolis effect describes the pattern of deflection taken by objects not firmly connected to the ground as they travel long distances around Earth.
• The Coriolis effect is responsible for many large-scale weather patterns.
• The key to the Coriolis effect lies in Earth’s rotation. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Specifically, Earth rotates faster at the Equator than it does at the poles.
• Earth is wider at the Equator, so to make a rotation in one 24-hour period, equatorial regions race nearly 1,600 kilometres (1,000 miles) per hour.
• Near the poles, Earth rotates at a sluggish 0.00008 kilometres (0.00005 miles) per hour.
• There are only two forces acting:
  • the pressure gradient force and the Coriolis force.
• The pressure gradient force acts towards low-pressure perpendicular to the lines of constant height while the Coriolis force acts to the right and perpendicular to the wind direction. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind and this force is called the Coriolis force.
• It is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It deflects the wind to the left direction in the southern hemisphere and the right direction in the northern hemisphere.

When a body is placed in water, the upthrust or buoyant force acting on it depends upon the following factors: (1) Volume of the body submerged in the liquid - (V), or volume of the liquid displaced - (V); (ft) Density of the liquid - (d); and (Hi) Acceleration due to gravity In-line.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

In News

• News: UNESCO’s State of Ocean Report highlights key knowledge gaps in research & data on spiking oceanic warming.

Key Points

UNESCO’s State of Ocean Report:

• The rate of ocean warming in the upper 2,000 meters has doubled in the past two decades, increasing to 0.66 ± 0.10 W/m². Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• About 90% of the Earth's energy imbalance (EEI) is absorbed by the oceans, not 50%. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The report identifies a continuous decline in pH levels (increase in acidic levels) in the open ocean since the late 1980s. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The cumulative increase in ocean heat content (OHC) in the upper 2,000 meters of the ocean water column is a significant concern.
• Adequate and aggregated data are necessary to understand and address the impacts of ocean warming and acidification.
• Deoxygenation, resulting from reduced mixing of ocean layers, poses long-term risks to marine ecosystems and coastal economies.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Due to a reduction in the moisture content in the winds, the rainfall decreases from the East to the West in Northern India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• There is an intensification of low-pressure situations over the northern plain, by early June.
• In the southern hemisphere, the trade winds will be attracted by this. Warm subtropical areas of the southern oceans are the place where these southeast trade winds originate.
• These winds bring rain to India.
• Moisture is brought to the subcontinent in sufficient quantities, as these winds were blowing over warm oceans.
• These trade winds enter India as Southwest monsoons, they blow with an average velocity of 30 Km/hr.
• Generally, by the first week of June, the monsoon arrives at the southern tip of the Indian peninsula.
• Later the Monsoon splits into two branches – the Bay of Bengal branch and the Arabian Sea branch.
• In Assam, the Bay of Bengal branch arrives by the first week of June.
• The Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon reaches Delhi by the end of June.
• The Arabian Sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch of the monsoon merges over the Ganga plains, in its Northwestern part.
• The inflow of the southwest monsoon into India is such that the windward side of the Western Ghats receives very heavy rainfall, more than 250 cm.
• The rain shadow region receives scanty rainfall and the moisture-laden clouds shed the maximum rainfall of this season in the northeastern part of the country.
• Thus, Mawsynram in the southern ranges of the Khasi Hills receives the highest average rainfall in the world.
• Rainfall in the Ganga valley decre ases from the east to the west.
• Hence, Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat which are on the western get scanty rainfall.
• As we move up in the Ganga plains, the Himalayan mountains come, so the monsoonal winds have to go higher up in these regions. Even from the figure of the pattern of Monsoon winds, we can see that the winds turn up towards North in Ganga plains due to impasse with the Himalayan Mountains. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is Option B.
Key Points
National Income Accounting for India

• Imports calculation being subtracted in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a standard practice in national income accounting. This is because GDP measures the total market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given period. Imports are subtracted since they represent the spending on goods and services not produced domestically. Hence, statement A is correct.
• Net factor payments earned from abroad are not included in the Gross Domestic Product. Instead, they are included in the Gross National Product (GNP). GNP adjusts GDP by adding income earned by residents from investments abroad and subtracting income earned by foreign residents from domestic investments. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
• Purchase and sale of second-hand goods are not included in GDP because these transactions do not reflect current production. GDP measures the value of current production of goods and services within the national borders. Second-hand sales do not add to the current production; hence, they are excluded. Hence, statement C is correct.
• Inventories are considered part of Gross Domestic Capital Formation. This includes the unsold goods and materials held by businesses, which represents investment in the economy. Including inventories in GDP accounts for production that has occurred but has not yet been sold. Hence, statement D is correct.

Additional Information

• Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a primary indicator used to gauge the health of a country's economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period within a nation's borders.
• Gross National Product (GNP), on the other hand, measures the total economic output of the residents of a country, including profits earned from overseas investments and excluding income earned within the domestic economy by overseas residents.
• Net factor payments from abroad include wages, rents, and profits earned by residents from overseas investments minus the same incomes earned by non-residents from within the domestic economy. This distinction highlights the difference between GDP and GNP.
• Second-hand goods are excluded from GDP calculations to ensure that the measure reflects only the production of new goods and services. This exclusion avoids double counting of goods that were produced in previous periods.
• Inventories play a critical role in understanding economic activity. Changes in inventory levels can indicate future economic activity; for instance, an increase in inventories can signal that producers anticipate higher demand.

The correct answer is ​Hanooman.

In News

• The ChatGPT-style service set to be launched by the BharatGPT group is named Hanooman.

Key Points

• It is being developed in collaboration with eight Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), Reliance Jio Infocomm, and the central government.
• Hanooman aims to offer AI-powered services in 11 local languages across various sectors including healthcare, governance, finance, and education.
• The model has been showcased during a recent technology conference in Mumbai, displaying interactions in multiple languages like Tamil and Hindi.
• It is also equipped with speech-to-text capabilities, enhancing user-friendliness.
• Hanooman represents a unique private-public partnership in India's AI development landscape, involving major players from various sectors.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.Key Points

• Pink Revolution is associated with onion, shrimp, meat and poultry products. Hence, the statement 1 is true.
• The Yellow Revolution is associated with oilseed production. Hence, the statement 2 is true.
• The Black Revolution is associated with Biodiesel production. Hence, the statement 3 is true.
• Silver Revolution is related to Egg Production. Hence, the statement 4 is false.

Additional Information

• Some Agricultural revolutions with their production is given below -
  • Protein Revolution:
    • Type: Higher Production (Technology-driven 2nd Green Revolution).
    • Commodity: General agricultural production with a focus on protein-rich sources.
    • Father: Coined by Narendra Modi and Arun Jaitley.
  • Yellow Revolution:
    • Type: Oilseed Production (Especially Mustard and Sunflower).
    • Commodity: Mustard and Sunflower, Edible Oil Production.
    • Father: Sam Pitroda.
  • Blue Revolution:
    • Type: Fish Production.
    • Commodity: Fisheries, Aquaculture.
    • Father: Dr. Arun Krishnan.
  • Brown Revolution:
    • Type: Leather, Cocoa, Non-Conventional Products.
    • Commodity: Diversification in agricultural products.
  • Golden Fiber Revolution:
    • Type: Jute Production.
    • Commodity: Jute, Fiber Industry.
  • Golden Revolution:
    • Type: Fruits, Honey Production, Horticulture Development.
    • Commodity: Fruits, Honey, Horticultural Products.
    • Leader: Nirpakh Tutej.
  • Grey Revolution:
    • Type: Fertilizers.
    • Commodity: Fertilizer Production.
  • Pink Revolution:
    • Type: Meat and Onion Production.
    • Commodity: Onions and Meat.
    • Leader: Durgesh Patel.
  • Silver Revolution:
    • Type: Egg Production, Poultry Production.
    • Commodity: Eggs, Poultry.
    • Leader: Indira Gandhi (Mother of the Revolution).
  • Silver Fiber Revolution:
    • Type: Cotton.
    • Commodity: Cotton, Textile Industry.
  • Round Revolution:
    • Type: Potato.
    • Commodity: Potatoes.
  • White Revolution:
    • Type: Milk Production.
    • Commodity: Dairy, Milk.
    • Leader: Verghese Kurien.

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

• During the initial development of railways in India by the British, several incentives were provided to private investors to encourage the growth of railway infrastructure.
• Private financial investors for railways were indeed provided land free of charge by the British Government in India. This policy was aimed at stimulating the rapid expansion of railway networks across India by reducing the capital investment required from private companies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Investors were guaranteed a return of 5 percent on their capital from the government, even if their operations ran at a loss or secured inadequate profit. This guarantee was crucial in attracting British capital to the railway sector in India, providing a safety net for investors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The railways were subject to a system of joint management with the government, which involved elements of public-private partnership. This arrangement ensured that while private companies handled the everyday operations and management, the government had significant control and oversight over strategic decisions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information

• The first train in India ran between Bombay (now Mumbai) and Thane on 16th April 1853, marking the beginning of railway transport in the country.
• The initial phases of railway development were marked by the Guarantee System, wherein the British government provided various concessions and guarantees to private investors.
• This model was later criticized for its generous terms to British investors at the expense of Indian resources and led to the eventual nationalization of the railways.
• The development of railways was instrumental in the economic colonization of India, facilitating the movement of raw materials from the interior to ports for export to Britain, and the distribution of British-manufactured goods within India.
• The Indian Railways is now one of the world's largest railway networks, highlighting the enduring legacy of this initial phase of development.

The correct answer is Hexadecane.

Key PointsCetane Number and Hexadecane

• The term cetane refers to hexadecane, a straight-chain alkane with the chemical formula C₁₆H₃₄. It is a significant component in diesel fuel, where it serves as a standard measure for the fuel's ignition quality.
• The cetane number of a diesel fuel is a measure of its ignition delay, the time period between the start of injection and the start of combustion (ignition) of the fuel. Higher cetane numbers indicate fuels that ignite more quickly.
• Hexadecane, as a pure compound, has a cetane number of 100 by definition, serving as a benchmark for comparing the ignition quality of diesel fuels.
• In diesel engines, fuels with higher cetane numbers are desirable as they lead to smoother engine operation, less engine noise, and reduced emissions of harmful substances.

Hence, the correct answer is Hexadecane.

Additional Information

• Diesel fuels are evaluated for various properties, including cetane number, viscosity, volatility, and sulfur content. These characteristics affect engine performance, efficiency, and emissions.
• The ignition quality of diesel fuel is critical for the efficient operation of an engine. Poor ignition quality can lead to incomplete combustion, higher emissions, and engine damage over time.
• Other compounds used in comparing diesel fuel qualities include heptamethylnonane (HMN), which has a cetane number lower than that of hexadecane, and is used to create a scale for measuring cetane numbers below 100.
• In addition to cetane number, the energy content and cold flow properties of diesel fuel are important for overall vehicle performance, especially in cold weather conditions.

The correct answer is Both statements are true.

Concept:

Warm air and its behavior in the atmosphere are fundamental concepts in understanding weather patterns and atmospheric dynamics.

• Warm air is lighter than cool air: Warm air is less dense than cooler air because the molecules in warm air are more spread out (have higher kinetic energy). This reduction in density makes warm air lighter compared to cooler air at the same pressure.
• Warm air tends to rise upwards: Since warm air is lighter than cooler air due to its lower density, it rises above cooler, denser air. This rising air can lead to the formation of clouds and precipitation as it cools and condenses at higher altitudes.

Explanation:

• These properties of warm air are critical for various atmospheric phenomena including the development of thunderstorms, the general circulation of the atmosphere, and even the formation of wind patterns globally.

Therefore, both statements are true, explaining why warm air rises and its implications for weather and climate.

The correct answer is Baltic sea.

In News

• rfi: Does Sweden joining make the Baltic Sea a 'NATO lake'?

Key Points

NATO lake:

• The term “NATO lake” is being used to refer to the Baltic Sea, following the recent accession of Sweden and Finland to NATO. Hence option 1 is correct.
• With these additions, nearly all of the countries surrounding the Baltic Sea, except Russia, are now part of the NATO alliance.
• This has led some observers to label the Baltic Sea a “NATO lake”, suggesting that the Western allies are well-placed to limit Russia’s room for maneuver in this crucial shipping route.
• However, analysts warn that while Sweden’s entry makes it easier for NATO to exert control and reinforce its vulnerable Baltic states, Russia can still pose a threat to the region from the heavily armed exclave Kaliningrad and threaten undersea infrastructure.
• It’s important to note that the term “NATO lake” is more of a semantic exaggeration and does not imply complete sea control.

The correct answer is ​2 only.

Key Points

• Mercury vapour lamps are bright, long-lasting light sources that are often used to light large areas such as streets, gyms, sports arenas, banks, or stores.
  • The bulbs have an inner quartz tube containing mercury vapour discharge.
  • This is enclosed by an outer glass bulb that filters out harmful short-wavelength ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
  • Mercury vapour lamps were the first high-intensity discharge lamps to be commercially available for a wide variety of lighting applications.
• An LED lamp or LED light bulb is an electric light that produces light using light-emitting diodes (LEDs).
  • LED lamps are significantly more energy-efficient than equivalent incandescent lamps and can be significantly more efficient than most fluorescent lamps.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.