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NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - NDA MCQ


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30 Questions MCQ Test NDA (National Defence Academy) Mock Test Series 2025 - NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 for NDA 2025 is part of NDA (National Defence Academy) Mock Test Series 2025 preparation. The NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 questions and answers have been prepared according to the NDA exam syllabus.The NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 MCQs are made for NDA 2025 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 below.
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NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response.

Be in the same boat

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 1

The correct answer is: Option B i.e. To be in the same unpleasant situation.
Key Points

  • The idiom "Be in the same boat" means to be in the same unpleasant situation as someone else. (एक ही स्थिति में होना)
    • Example: When the company announced layoffs, all employees realized they were in the same boat.
  • Explanation: The correct meaning of the idiom "Be in the same boat" is to be in the same unpleasant situation as someone else. (एक ही स्थिति में होना)
    • Example: We are all in the same boat, facing tough times during the pandemic.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option B i.e. To be in the same unpleasant situation.
Additional Information
Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Option A: To say two things in the same breath (एक ही बार में दो बातें कहना)
    • Example: He said he was busy and available at the same time, which is like saying two things in the same breath.
  • Option C: To do something that is dangerous (खतरनाक काम करना)
    • Example: Climbing that cliff without proper gear is to do something that is dangerous.
  • Option D: To pretend to be something that you are not (दिखावा करना)
    • Example: He pretends to be a doctor, but he is not; he is just pretending to be something that he is not.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response.

A watched pot never boils

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 2

The correct answer is: Option D.
Key Points

  • The idiom "A watched pot never boils" means that time seems to pass very slowly when one is waiting for something to happen. (बेचैन प्रतीक्षा समय को लंबा खींच देती है)
    • Example: Just relax and stop checking the clock; remember, a watched pot never boils.
  • Desperate anticipation makes time drag on refers to the feeling that time moves slower when you are eagerly waiting for something. (बेचैन प्रतीक्षा समय को लंबा खींच देती है)
    • Example: When you're waiting for an important call, it feels like desperate anticipation makes time drag on.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option D.
Additional Information
Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Surveillance destroys creativity (निगरानी रचनात्मकता को नष्ट करती है): The idea that being constantly watched can hinder creative processes.
    • Example: She felt that surveillance destroys creativity, as she couldn't freely express her ideas under constant watch.
  • To experience failure due to over eagerness (अधिक उत्सुकता के कारण विफलता का अनुभव करना): Trying too hard and ending up failing because of it.
    • Example: He experienced failure due to over eagerness when he rushed through his project without proper planning.
  • To have no chance of achieving something (कुछ हासिल करने का कोई मौका नहीं होना): Being in a situation where success is impossible.
    • Example: With no proper training, he had no chance of achieving his goal of winning the marathon.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 3

Choose the correct indirect speech for the direct sentence: "He said, 'I will be studying for my exams all night.'"

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 3
In transforming the given direct sentence into indirect speech, 'will be studying' changes to 'would be studying' when expressing continuous action in the future from the perspective of the past. Therefore, the correct indirect speech is "He said he would be studying for his exams all night."
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

Identify the correct transformation of the direct sentence: "She said, 'I had never seen such a beautiful sunset before.'" into indirect speech.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 4

In transforming the given sentence into indirect speech, 'had never seen' remains 'had never seen' to maintain the past perfect tense. Hence, the correct indirect speech is "She said that she had never seen such a beautiful sunset before.."

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

The road was blocked, ____ we took a detour.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 5

"So" indicates the result of the roadblock leading to a detour. The other options suggest example, contrast, or restatement.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

the essence of human resource development is / P remedial role in / Q balancing the socio-economic fabric of the country / R education which plays a significant and / S

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 6

The correct answer is Option (A) i.e. PSQR
Key Points

  • The sentence begins with "the essence of human resource development is," which should logically be followed by part (P).
  • Following that, "remedial role in" (P) fits appropriately to continue explaining the essence of human resource development.
  • The next part, "education which plays a significant and" (S) continues the idea by explaining the importance of education.
  • Ending with, "balancing the socio-economic fabric of the country" (QR) completes the sentence by mentioning the ultimate impact of education in human resource development.

Therefore, the correct answer is PSQR.
Additional Information

  • Option B (PQSR): This option starts with "remedial role in education," leading to confusion as it doesn't follow a complete thought directly.
  • Option C (RSQP): This option starts with "education which plays," equally making the sentence incomplete and ambiguous.
  • Option D (RQSP): This option starts with "balancing the socio-economic," which fragments the sentence and distorts its meaning.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

relating to the reduction of greenhouse gases / P and extending financial support to / Q developing countries / R India's position is reflected in decisions / S

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 7

The correct answer is Option (B) i.e. SPQR
Key Points

  • The sentence begins with "India's position is reflected in decisions," which properly introduces the subject of the sentence and is correctly indicated by part (S).
  • Following the introduction, "relating to the reduction of greenhouse gases" (P) provides context to the type of decisions being referred to.
  • The next part, "and extending financial support to" (Q) continues the idea by explaining another aspect of the decisions India's position reflects.
  • Ending with, "developing countries" (R) completes the sentence by specifying who the financial support is intended for.

Therefore, the correct answer is SPQR.
Additional Information

  • Option A (SRPQ): This option disrupts the logical flow by placing "and extending financial support to" before "relating to the reduction of greenhouse gases," making the sentence less coherent.
  • Option C (PRSQ): This option starts with "relating to the reduction of greenhouse gases," which doesn't properly introduce the main subject of the sentence.
  • Option D (RSPQ): This option begins with "developing countries," which disrupts the logical structure and clarity of the sentence.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/groups of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response.

The inexorable march of technology cannot be stopped.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 8

The correct answer is: relentless.

Key Points

  • The word "inexorable" means something that is impossible to stop or prevent; it is unyielding or relentless. (अटल)
    • Example: The inexorable rise in sea levels poses a threat to coastal communities.
  • "Relentless" refers to something that is unceasingly intense or harsh; it does not relent or give up. (निरंतर)
    • Example: The relentless pursuit of excellence is what sets great athletes apart from the rest.
  • Hence, we can infer that the word 'relentless' is nearest in meaning to 'inexorable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: relentless.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Stoppable (रोकने योग्य): Capable of being stopped or halted.
    • Example: The runaway train was finally stoppable after miles of pursuit.
  • Avoidable (टालने योग्य): Capable of being avoided or prevented.
    • Example: Many accidents are avoidable with proper safety measures.
  • Weak (कमजोर): Lacking strength or vigor.
    • Example: His arguments were weak and easily refuted.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response.

His behaviour was quite belligerent.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 9

The correct answer is: Amiable.

Key Points

  • The word "belligerent" means hostile and aggressive. (युद्धकारी, आक्रामक)
    • Example: His belligerent attitude made it difficult to resolve the conflict peacefully.
  • "Amiable" refers to having or displaying a friendly and pleasant manner. (मिलनसार)
    • Example: She is known for her amiable nature and always makes everyone feel welcome.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'belligerent' is 'amiable'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Amiable.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Bellicose (युद्धप्रिय): Demonstrating aggression and willingness to fight.
    • Example: The bellicose statements from the politicians did not help ease the tension.
  • Antagonistic (विरोधी): Showing or feeling active opposition or hostility toward someone or something.
    • Example: His antagonistic behavior towards his colleagues created a hostile work environment.
  • Combative (लड़ाकू): Ready or eager to fight or argue.
    • Example: The combative stance he took during the debate surprised everyone.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response.

The authorities interacted with a group of mutinous students.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 10

The correct answer is: Obedient.

Key Points

  • The word "mutinous" means refusing to obey the orders of a person in authority; rebellious. (विद्रोही)
    • Example: The sailors became mutinous and refused to follow the captain's orders.
  • "Obedient" refers to someone who is willing to comply with orders or requests; submissive to another's will. (आज्ञाकारी)
    • Example: The obedient dog quickly followed its owner's commands.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'mutinous' is 'obedient'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Obedient.

Additional Information

Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Unruly (अनियंत्रित): Disorderly and disruptive and not amenable to discipline or control.
    • Example: The unruly crowd was difficult for the police to manage.
  • Contumacious (ढीठ): Stubbornly or willfully disobedient to authority.
    • Example: The contumacious defendant refused to accept the court's authority.
  • Seditious (राजद्रोही): Inciting or causing people to rebel against the authority of a state or monarch.
    • Example: The leader was arrested for making seditious speeches against the government.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response.

The leader's views were equivocal on the contentious issue.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 11

The correct answer is: Option C i.e. clear.
Key Points

  • The word "equivocal" means something that is open to more than one interpretation; ambiguous or uncertain. (अस्पष्ट)
    • Example: The politician's answers remained equivocal, leaving the audience confused about his true stance.
  • "Clear" refers to something that is easy to perceive, understand, or interpret; unambiguous. (स्पष्ट)
    • Example: Her instructions were clear, so everyone knew exactly what to do.
  • Hence, we can infer that the opposite of 'equivocal' is 'clear'.

Therefore, the correct answer is: Option C i.e. clear.
Additional Information
Here are the other options explained along with their Hindi meanings and example sentences:

  • Obscure (अस्पष्ट): Not discovered or known about; uncertain.
    • Example: The details of the agreement remain obscure to the public.
  • Ambiguous (अस्पष्ट): Open to more than one interpretation; having a double meaning.
    • Example: The phrase was ambiguous and could be understood in different ways.
  • Vague (अस्पष्ट): Not clearly expressed, known, described, or decided.
    • Example: His vague answers made it difficult to understand his real intentions.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

What did the Sun send for the princess like a token of his love?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 12

According to the passage, One day the Sun decided to send her a blood-red ruby as a token of his love for her. He put the gem in a silk beg, and calling a crow that was flying past, asked the bird to deliver the gem to his beloved.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

Directions: In the following items, there are two sentences S1 and S2, based on commonly used word(s), which are underlined. Read the two sentences carefully and mark the response that denotes the correct use of these words in each of the two sentences and mark your response.

S1: The flowers smell beautifully.

S2: She performed beautifully on stage.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 13

The correct answer is Option b i.e. S1 is wrong and S2 is right.

Key Points

  • The word "beautifully" is an adverb, which means it describes how an action is performed.
  • In S1, "beautifully" is incorrectly used to describe the flowers' smell. The correct adverb should be "beautiful" to describe the smell.
  • In S2, "beautifully" is correctly used to describe how she performed on stage.

Therefore, the correct answer is: S1 is wrong and S2 is right.

Additional Information

  • Option 1: S1 is right and S2 is wrong - Incorrect. S1 incorrectly uses "beautifully" to describe a smell.
  • Option 3: Both S1 and S2 are wrong - Incorrect. S2 correctly uses "beautifully" to describe the performance.
  • Option 4: Both S1 and S2 are right - Incorrect. "Beautifully" in S1 is grammatically incorrect for describing a smell.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Who discovered the atom bomb?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 14

Otto Hahn, (8 March, 1879 - 28 July, 1968) was a German chemist and Nobel laureate, a pioneer in the fields of radioactivity and radiochemistry. He is regarded as "the father of nuclear chemistry". On 15 November 1945 the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences announced that Hahn had been awarded the 1944 Nobel Prize in Chemistry "for his discovery of the fission of heavy atomic nuclei." Otto Hahn received many governmental honours and academic awards from all over the world for his scientific work.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

The refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. The refractive index of water with respect to glass is

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 15

Refractive index of water, nw =  4/3
Refractive index  of  glass, ng =  3/2 
Refractive index of water w. r. t glass
 ngw = 4/3 / 3/2   =>  8/9

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

The National Green Tribunal has the power to hear questions that are linked to which among the following Acts of the Parliament?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 16

The correct answer is ​The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

Key Points

  • The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body that was established in 2010 by the National Green Tribunal Act.
  • It was set up for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
  • It also looks into enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues.
  • The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
  • The Tribunal has the mandate to dispose of applications and petitions within a period of six months.
  • India is the third country in the world – after Australia and New Zealand – to set up such a body to deal with environmental cases.
  • The principal bench of the NGT is located in Delhi, with other benches sitting in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai.
  • The NGT has the power to hear all civil cases relating to environmental issues and questions that are linked to the implementation of laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act.
    • These include the following:
      • The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
      • The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
      • The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
      • The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
      • The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
      • The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
      • The Biological Diversity Act, 2002
    • This means that any violations pertaining only to these laws, or any order/decision taken by the Government under these laws can be challenged before the NGT.
    • Importantly, the NGT has not been vested with powers to hear any matter relating to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to forests, tree preservation etc.
      • Therefore, specific and substantial issues related to these laws cannot be raised before the NGT.
      • One has to approach the State High Court or the Supreme Court through a Writ Petition (PIL) or file an Original Suit before an appropriate Civil Judge of the taluk where the project that you intend to challenge is located.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

Which ministry launched the myCGHS iOS app?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 17

The correct answer is Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

In News

  • The myCGHS iOS app was launched by Shri Apurva Chandra, Secretary, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Key Points

  • The app aims to enhance access to Electronic Health Records, information, and resources for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries.
  • Developed by the technical teams of the National Informatics Centre (NIC), the app offers various features for CGHS beneficiaries, including booking appointments, accessing lab reports, and checking reimbursement claim status.
  • The launch signifies a significant milestone in digital healthcare services within the Department of CGHS.
  • The myCGHS app is now available for download on both iOS and Android platforms, free of charge, providing beneficiaries with a seamless healthcare experience.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 18

Consider the creation of the following relief features :

1. Himalayas

2. Eastern Ghats

3. Western Ghats

4. Aravalli range

The correct chronological order of creation of these features is :

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 18
  • The Aravali range is the oldest mountain range in India. The Aravalli range is the eroded stub of a range of ancient folded mountains. Aravalli Range is one of India's most popular mountain ranges, also known as Mewat hills.
  • The Western Ghats are also known as Purva Ghat, Kizahakku Thodarchi Malai in the south. They are way older than the Eastern Ghats. The Western Ghats were the first to evolve, and the Eastern Ghats the last. This fact makes the Western Ghats much older than its eastern counterpart and perhaps the oldest in the land, except for the Aravallis, amongst the oldest on Earth.
  • The Himalayas are the youngest fold mountain range in the entire world. The Himalayas and the Northern Plains are the most recent landforms. The Himalayas' whole mountain system represents a youthful topography with high peaks, deep valleys and fast-flowing rivers. So, Option (c) is correct.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 19
Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 19

The correct answer is Al2O3.

Key PointsAmphoteric Oxides

  • Amphoteric oxides are oxides that can act as both acids and bases. They can react with both acids and bases to produce salts and water.
  • Aluminum oxide (Al2O3) is a classic example of an amphoteric oxide. It reacts with acids to form aluminum salts and water and with bases to form salts and water as well.
  • For example, when Al2O3 reacts with hydrochloric acid (HCl), it forms aluminum chloride (AlCl3) and water. When it reacts with sodium hydroxide (NaOH), it can form sodium aluminate (NaAlO2) and water.
  • This dual behavior is due to the electronic structure of the aluminum ion, which allows it to form covalent bonds with oxygen in acidic and basic environments.
  • Magnesium oxide (MgO) and sodium oxide (Na2O) are primarily basic oxides, while P4O10 is an acidic oxide, not demonstrate amphoteric properties.

Hence, the correct option is Al2O3.

Additional Information

  • Basic oxides: These are oxides that react with acids to form salt and water. Examples include CaO (calcium oxide), which reacts with HCl to form calcium chloride and water.
  • Acidic oxides: Oxides that react with bases to form salts and water. An example is SO3 (sulfur trioxide), which reacts with NaOH to form sodium sulfate and water.
  • Applications of Al2O3: Aluminum oxide has wide applications due to its physical and chemical properties. It is used as an abrasive in sandpapers, as a refractory material due to its high melting point, and in the production of aluminum metal.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

Consider the following pairs:

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 20

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • Indian Association was founded in 1876 in Calcutta by S.N. Banerjee in Ilbert Hall. Hence pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
    • It was the first political association that demanded the Indianization of Indian Civil Services
    • It wanted to eradicate communal and radical strains from India and to educate Indian public opinion of politics.
  • Keshab Chandra Sen was a social reformer from Bengal.
    • In 1856 he became a member of the Brahmo Samaj.
    • On 24th January 1868 Keshab Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation.
    • Keshab and his followers marched to the proposed spot early in the morning performing sankirtan and this was the first Brahmo street procession and it was the first of its kind in Calcutta. Adi Samaj condemned it as a degradation of Brahmoism.
    • The Indian Reform Association was formed on 29 October 1870 with Keshab Chandra Sen as president. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
      • Its objective also included to create public opinion against child marriage, get Brahmo form of marriage legalized, promote the status of women.
      • The Indian reform association strived to legalize Brahmo marriage and to fix the minimum age of marriage.
  • Raja Rammohan Roy (1772-1833), often called the father of Indian Renaissance and the maker of Modern India was a man of versatile genius who believed in the modern scientific approach and principles of human dignity and social equality and put his faith in monotheism.
    • In 1814, he set up the Atmiya Sabha (or Society of Friends) in Calcutta to propagate the monotheistic ideals of the Vedanta and to campaign against idolatry, caste rigidities, meaningless rituals and other social ills.
    • The Calcutta Unitarian Committee was established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1821. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
    • He stood for a creative and intellectual process of selecting the best from different cultures, over which, again, he faced orthodox reaction.
    • Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Sabha in August 1828, later renamed as Brahmo Samaj through which he wanted to institutionalise his ideas and mission.

Additional Information

The British Indian Association:

  • It was established on 31 October 1851.
  • The first committee of the association was composed of :
  • Raja Radhakanta Deb - President.
  • Raja kalikrishna Deb - Vice-President
  • Debendranath Tagore - secretary
  • Digambar Mitra - Asst Secretary
  • Members - Raja Staya Saran Ghosal, HarakuMar Tagore, Prasanna Coomar Tagor Ramnath Tagore, Jay Krishna Mukherjee, Asutosh Deb, Harimohan Sen, Ramgopal Ghosh, Umesh Chandra Dutta (Rambagan), Krishna Kishore Ghosh, Jagadananda Mukhopadhyay, Peary Chand Mitra, and Sambhunath Pandit.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 21
An antibacterial enzyme present in saliva and tears is called
Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 21

The correct answer is lysozyme.

Key PointsAntibacterial Enzyme in Saliva and Tears

  • Lysozyme is a naturally occurring enzyme found in bodily secretions such as saliva, tears, and milk.
  • It plays a crucial role in the body's immune system by protecting against bacterial infection.
  • Lysozyme functions by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria, specifically targeting the peptidoglycan layer, leading to the lysis or dissolving of the bacterial cell.
  • This enzyme is significant in both innate and adaptive immunity as it is one of the first lines of defense against microbial invasion.
  • Its presence in tears and saliva is particularly important for protecting the eyes and oral cavity from bacterial infections.
  • Lysozyme's antibacterial properties have been utilized in food preservation, medicine, and veterinary science to combat bacterial infections and preserve the shelf life of perishable goods.

Hence, the correct option is lysozyme.

Additional Information

  • Ribozyme is a type of RNA that can catalyze chemical reactions, often involved in the synthesis and modification of RNA itself within the cell.
  • Lipase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fats into glycerol and free fatty acids, playing a critical role in digestion and lipid metabolism.
  • Isomerase is an enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of a molecule from one isomer to another, including structural rearrangements within a molecule.
  • The study of enzymes like lysozyme contributes significantly to our understanding of immune system functioning and provides insights into developing new therapeutic approaches for bacterial infections.
  • Lysozyme's ability to lyse bacteria without harming human cells makes it an attractive component in creating antibacterial treatments that are less likely to contribute to antibiotic resistance, a growing concern in the medical community.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

With reference to animal and plant biodiversity on earth, consider the following statements:

1. Animals constitute more than two-thirds of the total species on earth.

2. There are more types of fish than types of insects.

3. India is one of the megadiverse countries in the world with 20 per cent of the total global species diversity.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 22

The correct answer is Only one.

Key Points

Animal and Plant biodiversity:

  • According to IUCN (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is slightly more than 1.5 million. Estimates vary widely and many of them are only educated guesses.
  • More than 70 per cent of all the species recorded are animals, while plants (including algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms, and angiosperms) comprise no more than 22 per cent of the total.
  • Among animals, insects are the most species-rich taxonomic group, making up more than 70 per cent of the total. That means, out of every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are insects. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The number of fungi species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • Although India has only 2.4 per cent of the world‘s land area, its share of the global species diversity is an impressive 8.1 per cent. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
  • That is what makes our country one of the 12 mega diversity countries of the world.
  • Nearly 45,000 species of plants and twice as many animals have been recorded from India.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced current changes once in each :

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 23

Among given options half revolution is the right answer.

The current induced by the magnetic field in the rectangular coil made up of copper wire is being turned in order to rotate in the magnetic field, at every turn, the direction of induced current changes and being a vector quantity, induced current changes every half revolution.
 

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

What would be the impact on the economy if people start holding more currency in hand and less in deposits?

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 24

The correct answer is Money multiplier will decrease.
Key Points
Money multiplier will reduce:

  • The money multiplier effect depends on the fractional reserve banking system, where banks lend out a portion of the deposits they hold.
  • If people start holding more currency in hand instead of in deposits, banks will have less money to lend, reducing the money multiplier effect.

Additional Information

  • In monetary economics, the demand for money is the desired holding of financial assets in the form of money: that is, cash or bank deposits rather than investments. This may refer to money demand defined as M1 (directly spendable holdings) or money in the broader sense of M2 or M3.
  • The nominal demand for money increases with the level of nominal output (price level times real output) and decreases with the nominal interest rate.
  • The real demand for money is defined as the nominal amount of money divided by the price level.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A price index captures the change in the average price of a constant basket of commodities.

2. If the price index takes values 100, 110 and 121 in three consecutive years respectively, then the inflation rates in the 2nd and 3rd years are 10% and 21% respectively.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 25

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key PointsUnderstanding Price Index and Inflation Rate Calculation

  • A price index is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services, such as transportation, food, and medical care. It is calculated by taking price changes for each item in the predetermined basket of goods and averaging them.
    • Changes in the price index over time reflect the economy's inflation rate.
  • The statement that a price index captures the change in the average price of a constant basket of commodities is accurate. It's a fundamental tool in the economics field to measure the cost of living and inflation.
    • Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Regarding the inflation rate calculation, it is derived from the price index by calculating the percentage change in the index over consecutive periods. If the price index moves from 100 to 110, the inflation rate for that period is calculated as [(110-100)/100] * 100 = 10%.
    • Similarly, if it then increases to 121, the inflation rate for the next period is [(121-110)/110] * 100 = 10%, not 21% as mentioned.
  • The error in the second statement arises from a misunderstanding of how to calculate percentage changes correctly. The inflation rate is based on the relative change from one period to the next, not the absolute change from the base period.
    • Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Inflation is a measure of the rate at which the overall level of prices for goods and services is rising, and, subsequently, purchasing power is falling. Central banks attempt to limit inflation, and avoid deflation, in order to keep the economy running smoothly.
  • Understanding the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (WPI) are crucial for analyzing inflation. These indices provide insights into price changes from the perspective of consumers and wholesalers, respectively.
    • The CPI measures the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services.
    • WPI measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
  • Monetary policy tools such as interest rates are often adjusted based on inflation trends to ensure economic stability.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

How many of the following statements about Bhakti poet Namdev is/are correct?

1. He seems to have played a part in transmitting the southern Bhakti to northern India.

2. He was a rigorous monotheist and opposed caste distinctions.

3. He was a devout follower of Kabir.

Select the correct answer.

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 26

The correct answer is 2.

Key PointsNamdev and His Contributions

  • Namdev, a prominent Bhakti saint, played a significant role in shaping the Bhakti movement in India.
  • He is known for his efforts in transmitting the Bhakti tradition from the southern part of India to the north, thereby creating a bridge between the two regions' spiritual cultures. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • As a proponent of Bhakti, Namdev emphasized the importance of a personal and direct relationship with God, bypassing the need for rituals and caste distinctions.
  • His teachings and poetry often spoke against caste discrimination, advocating for egalitarianism and universal brotherhood. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Contrary to the claim in the question, Namdev was not a follower of Kabir. In fact, it is believed that Kabir, who lived in the 15th century, was influenced by Namdev's work. Namdev preceded Kabir, making it historically inaccurate to label him as a follower of Kabir. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Hence, two statements are correct.

Additional Information

  • Namdev's poetry and devotional songs, known as Abhangas, are a significant part of Marathi and Sikh sacred literature.
    • His works are included in the Guru Granth Sahib, the holy scripture of Sikhism.
  • The Bhakti movement, to which Namdev contributed significantly, was a devotional trend that emphasized love and devotion to God as the path to salvation.
    • This movement challenged the traditional caste system and rituals, promoting a more personal and direct approach to spirituality.
  • Namdev's legacy is not just limited to his poetry but also extends to his impact on the cultural and religious life of India, promoting values of devotion, equality, and love beyond societal barriers.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

Consider the following as objectives of the New Science and Technology Policy, and state which is/are correctly stated, with the help of codes given below:
1. Optimal utilisation of existing physical and knowledge resources.
2. Development of innovative technologies.
3. Development of systems and technologies for mitigation and management of natural hazards.
4. Management of intellectual property

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 27

The main objectives of the New Science and Technology Policy are optimal utilisation of existing physical and knowledge resources, development of innovative technologies and management of intellectual property.

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 28
Which one of the following is an indigenous assault rifle developed by DRDO?
Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 28

The correct answer is Ugram.

Key PointsIndigenous Assault Rifle Development

  • The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is India's premier agency for the development of defense technology and systems, including small arms.
  • Ugram is an assault rifle developed indigenously by the DRDO, highlighting India's growing self-reliance in defense manufacturing.
  • Assault rifles like Ugram are designed for versatility, combining the accuracy and firepower necessary for modern infantry engagements.
  • The development of indigenous weapons systems, such as Ugram, is a strategic move towards reducing dependence on foreign arms and enhancing national security.
  • Indigenous development also supports the government's "Make in India" initiative, aimed at boosting domestic manufacturing and technological capabilities.

Hence, the statement that Ugram is an indigenous assault rifle developed by DRDO is correct.

Additional Information

  • The DRDO plays a crucial role in empowering India with cutting-edge defense technologies and has been instrumental in numerous indigenous development projects across various defense domains.
  • Assault rifles like Ugram are central to infantry combat, providing soldiers with the capability to engage effectively in close to medium-range combat scenarios.
  • Indigenous weapon systems development not only enhances national security but also contributes to economic growth through the creation of jobs and fostering of technological expertise within the country.
  • The success of weapons like Ugram underscores the importance of self-reliance in defense technology and the potential benefits of investing in indigenous research and development efforts.
  • Through initiatives like "Make in India," the government aims to transform the country into a global manufacturing hub, with defense manufacturing being a key sector of focus.
NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 29

A string of length L is stretched by L/20 and speed of transverse wave along it is v. The speed of wave when it is stretched by L/10 will be : (assume the Hooke’s law is applicable)

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 29


The correct answer is: √2v

NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

Vitamin K deficiency in our body leads to:

Detailed Solution for NDA General Ability Mock Test - 3 - Question 30

The correct answer is delayed clotting of blood.

Key Points

  • Vitamin K deficiency in our body leads to delayed clotting of blood.
  • It plays a key role in helping the blood clot and preventing excessive bleeding.
  • Unlike many other vitamins, vitamin K is not typically used as a dietary supplement.
  • Vitamin K is actually a group of compounds.
  • The most important of these compounds appears to be vitamin K1 and vitamin K2. Vitamin K1 is obtained from leafy greens and some other vegetables.
  • Vitamin K2 is a group of compounds largely obtained from meats, cheeses, and eggs, and synthesized by bacteria.
  • Low levels of vitamin K can raise the risk of uncontrolled bleeding.

Additional Information



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