Test: Class 11 Polity NCERT Based-1 - UPSC MCQ

The main purpose of creating a constitution, as emphasized in the text, is to establish a set of fundamental rules that govern the relationship between citizens and the government. This includes specifying how the government is structured, who holds decision-making power, and ensuring that the rights of citizens are protected. By providing a framework for governance, a constitution helps maintain order, ensure accountability, and safeguard the rights and freedoms of individuals within a society.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution of India was indeed adopted on November 26, 1949, and came into force on January 26, 1950. This is a well-documented historical fact and marks the transition of India into a republic.

2. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Indian Constitution is known for being both flexible and rigid. While it establishes a framework that is rigid to safeguard the fundamental rights and structure of governance, it also allows flexibility through the amendment process, enabling adaptability to changing needs and circumstances.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed various features from other countries’ constitutions, such as the parliamentary system from Britain, the federal structure from Canada, and the Bill of Rights from the USA, among others. This borrowing was done to suit the unique requirements of India.

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making Option C: 1 and 3 Only the correct answer.

1. Promulgation : Announcement at the start of a law
- Correctly matched. Promulgation is indeed the public announcement of a law.

2. Deliberation : Equality in war
- Incorrectly matched. Deliberation refers to careful consideration or discussion, especially in the context of the framing of a constitution, rather than equality in war.

3. Disparity : Lack of equality
- Correctly matched. Disparity means a lack of equality or similarity.

4. Objective Resolution : Resolution to define aims of Assembly
- Correctly matched. The Objective Resolution was indeed a resolution that defined the aims and objectives of the Constituent Assembly.

Pairs 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, meaning only two pairs (1 and 3) out of the provided options are correctly defined according to the context of the Constitution of India.

Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are specifically protected to ensure that they are not violated, even by the government. These rights are safeguarded by the constitution to protect citizens' liberties and ensure that their rights are not infringed upon unjustly. It is crucial for upholding the principles of equality, liberty, and social justice within society.

- Statement 1 is correct. During a national emergency under Article 352, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 can be suspended, and other Fundamental Rights, except Articles 20 and 21 (which pertain to the Right to Life and Personal Liberty), can also be affected. Therefore, the statement correctly identifies that the Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended even during an emergency.

- Statement 2 is incorrect. The Directive Principles of State Policy, as enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are not enforceable by any court. They are guidelines for the creation of a social order characterized by social, economic, and political justice.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution did introduce Fundamental Duties, but these duties are not enforceable by law. They serve as moral obligations for citizens to promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.

1. Right to Equality - Correctly matched. The Right to Equality includes various provisions such as the abolition of titles and untouchability as per Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution.

2. Right to Freedom - Incorrectly matched. The Right to Freedom, covered under Articles 19 to 22, does not include the protection of language and culture of minorities. This protection is a part of the Cultural and Educational Rights.

3. Right against Exploitation - Correctly matched. This right, under Articles 23 and 24, prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labor (begar).

4. Right to Constitutional Remedies - Incorrectly matched. This right allows citizens to move the courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, not Fundamental Duties. It is enshrined under Article 32 and is often referred to as the "heart and soul" of the Constitution.

Only the first and third pairs are correctly matched.

Statement-I is correct because Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are indeed specially protected to ensure they are not violated even by the government. However, Statement-II is incorrect as Fundamental Rights, except for the Right to Life and personal liberty, can be suspended not just during emergencies like foreign attacks or internal disturbances but also during a state of emergency declared under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution.

The primary distinction between direct democracy and indirect democracy lies in how decisions are made. In direct democracy, individuals participate directly in the decision-making process, often through voting on laws and policies. On the other hand, in an indirect democracy, the people elect representatives who then make decisions on their behalf. This system allows for a more efficient governance structure in larger populations where direct participation by every citizen may not be feasible.

1. Direct Democracy - People participate directly in decision making.
Correct. In a direct democracy, citizens have a direct role in the decision-making process, such as voting on laws or policies themselves rather than through representatives.

2. Indirect Democracy - People elect representatives to make decisions.
Correct. In an indirect democracy, citizens elect representatives who then make decisions on their behalf. This is the system used in most large democratic nations due to practicality.

3. Universal Adult Franchise - Voting rights restricted to a select group based on property ownership.
Incorrect. Universal Adult Franchise means that every adult citizen has the right to vote irrespective of caste, creed, color, race, language, religion, or property ownership. The statement describing restriction based on property ownership is incorrect.

4. First Past the Post System (FPTP) - The candidate with the majority of votes wins.
Incorrect. Under the First Past the Post system, the candidate who receives more votes than any other candidate is elected, not necessarily a majority of votes. Often, this means winning by a plurality, not a majority.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly identifies the classification of democracy into Direct Democracy and Indirect Democracy. Direct Democracy involves direct participation of the people in decision-making, while Indirect Democracy functions through elected representatives acting on behalf of the people. Statement-II further elaborates on how in an indirect democracy, individuals participate indirectly through their elected representatives who carry out the will of the people. Therefore, both statements are accurate, with Statement-II providing a clear explanation of the dynamics of an indirect democracy as mentioned in Statement-I.

In a parliamentary system, the real head of the executive is the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister holds the chief executive authority and is responsible for running the government and making important decisions. This role contrasts with the President, who serves as the nominal head of the executive and typically performs ceremonial duties. The Prime Minister is assisted by the Council of Ministers and plays a crucial role in advising the President on various matters.

- Statement 1 is correct. In the Indian parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is indeed the real head of the executive, while the President serves as the nominal head. This structure is a defining feature of parliamentary systems where the executive authority is vested in the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, with the President acting on their advice.

- Statement 2 is correct. The Vice President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Additionally, the Vice President steps in to perform the duties of the President when the office of the President is vacant, such as in the case of the President's death, resignation, or impeachment, until a new President is elected.

- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, but the statement incorrectly limits its size to 10% of the total number of Lok Sabha members. According to the Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2003, the size of the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. Prime Minister: Nominal head of the executive

- Incorrect. In the parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is the real head of the executive, while the President is the nominal head. The Prime Minister leads the Council of Ministers and is the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.

2. Vice President: Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

- Correct. The Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of Parliament.

3. President: Real head of the Council of Ministers

- Incorrect. The President is the nominal head of the executive and performs ceremonial duties. The real head of the Council of Ministers is the Prime Minister.

4. Council of Ministers: Collectively responsible to the House of the People

- Correct. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People). This means that if the Lok Sabha expresses no confidence in the council, all ministers must resign.

Thus, pairs 2 and 4 are correctly matched.

In a parliamentary system, the Prime Minister is indeed the real head of the executive, while the President holds a more ceremonial or nominal position. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President but is typically the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha. Both statements are correct in their own context, but Statement II does not directly explain Statement I. The appointment process of the Prime Minister by the President and the Prime Minister's role as the head of the executive are separate facets of the parliamentary system.

As per the details given, the Lok Sabha consists of a total of 545 members. This house of Parliament is also known as the Lower House and plays a crucial role in the Indian parliamentary system by representing the people through elected Members of Parliament (MPs). The number 545 includes members elected on the basis of universal adult franchise and the provision for two nominated Anglo-Indian members by the President when necessary to ensure representation.

- Statement 1: This statement is correct. The Lok Sabha is indeed the Lower House of the Indian Parliament, and its members, known as Members of Parliament (MPs), are elected based on universal adult franchise. This means that all Indian citizens aged 18 and above have the right to vote in Lok Sabha elections, provided they meet the eligibility criteria as laid down by the law.

- Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The Vice President of India is not the Chairperson of the Lok Sabha. Instead, the Vice President is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, which is the Upper House of the Indian Parliament. The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha.

- Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend Money Bills. According to the Indian Constitution, Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha may only make recommendations on such bills, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha cannot amend Money Bills.

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.

1. Lok Sabha: Presided over by the Vice President of India - Incorrect. The Lok Sabha is presided over by the Speaker, not the Vice President. The Vice President is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

2. Rajya Sabha: Nominated members by the President - Correct. The Rajya Sabha has 12 members who are nominated by the President of India for their expertise in various fields like literature, science, art, and social service.

3. Money Bill: Can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha - Correct. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, as per Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. It deals primarily with taxation, borrowing of money by the government, expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, etc.

4. Ordinance: Issued by the Prime Minister - Incorrect. An ordinance is issued by the President of India, not the Prime Minister. It is a temporary law that can be enacted when Parliament is not in session, as provided under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution.

Thus, only pairs 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly describes the composition of the Lok Sabha with 545 members, which includes two Anglo-Indians who may be nominated by the President. Statement-II accurately presents the composition of the Rajya Sabha with 250 members, where 238 are elected by State Legislative Assemblies, and 12 members are nominated by the President. Both statements provide accurate information about the membership structure of the two houses of the Indian Parliament. However, Statement-II does not explain Statement-I; they are independent statements providing distinct information about the composition of the two houses. Thus, Option B is the correct answer.

All three statements accurately describe the provisions and powers related to the judiciary as per the Indian Constitution.

1. Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution of India establishes a single integrated judicial system, with the Supreme Court at the top, followed by High Courts at the state level and subordinate courts at the district and lower levels. This integrated system ensures uniformity in the interpretation and application of laws across the country.

2. Statement 2 is correct. The removal of Supreme Court judges is governed by Article 124(4) of the Constitution, which specifies that judges can be removed only on the grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity. This process requires a special majority in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, ensuring judicial independence by making removal difficult and rare.

3. Statement 3 is correct. The Supreme Court of India has multiple jurisdictions:

• Original Jurisdiction: It can settle disputes between the Union and states or between states.
• Writ Jurisdiction: It can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Appellate Jurisdiction: It hears appeals against judgments of lower courts.
• Advisory Jurisdiction: It provides advice to the President of India on legal matters.
• Special Powers: It can grant special leave to appeal from any judgment or order passed by any court in India.

Since all statements are correct, the answer is Option D.

1. Original Jurisdiction - Power to hear cases first-hand: This is correctly matched. Original jurisdiction refers to the authority of a court to hear a case for the first time, as opposed to appellate jurisdiction. In the context of the Supreme Court of India, it includes cases involving disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between two or more states.

2. Advisory Jurisdiction - Power to review and advise on lower court decisions: This is incorrectly matched. Advisory jurisdiction actually refers to the power of the Supreme Court to give advice to the President of India on matters of public importance or on questions of law. It does not involve reviewing lower court decisions, which is part of appellate or judicial review functions.

3. Appellate Jurisdiction - Power to hear appeals from lower courts: This is correctly matched. Appellate jurisdiction is the power of a higher court to review and potentially overturn the decisions of lower courts. This jurisdiction allows the Supreme Court and High Courts in India to hear appeals against the judgments of subordinate courts.

4. Public Interest Litigation - Cases filed only by directly aggrieved individuals: This is incorrectly matched. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) allows individuals or groups to file cases in the interest of the public, even if they are not directly aggrieved by the issue. It is a means to ensure justice in matters of public interest and can be initiated by anyone concerned about the welfare of the public.

Thus, pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched, while pairs 2 and 4 are incorrectly matched.