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TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
AIIMS Paper1 
 
 
 
 
Q1)Most common genital leison in HIV patient is? 
a)Chlymadie 
b)Herpes 
c)syphilis 
d)Candida 
Ans:b( Herpes) 
 
Herpes virus is the most common opportunistic infection causing genital lesion in HIV 
patients. 
 
 
 
Q2)Which of following drug is used for narcoanalysis? 
a)Atropine 
b)Phenobarbitone 
c)Scopolamine 
d)Pethidine 
 
Ans:C ( SCOPOLAMINE) 
 
Drug used for narcoanalysis(TRUTH SERUM DRUGS) 
? SCOPOLAMINE 
? SODIUM PENTATHAL 
? SODIUM SCEONAL 
 
Q3)Which of following is a marker for langerhans cell histocytosis? 
a)CD1a 
b)CD10 
c)CD30 
d)CD56 
Ans:a (Cd1a) 
Tumour cells in langerhans cell histocytosis expresses HLADR,S100 and cd1a. 
Q4)AFP is raised in? 
a)teratoma 
b)yolk sac tumour 
c)Choriocarcinoma 
d)Dysgerminoma 
Ans:a ( Yolk sac tumour) 
 
Alpha foeto protein level are elevated in non seminomas germ tumours including 
embroysal carcinoma, yolk sac tumour and mixed germ cell tumour” 
Page 2


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
AIIMS Paper1 
 
 
 
 
Q1)Most common genital leison in HIV patient is? 
a)Chlymadie 
b)Herpes 
c)syphilis 
d)Candida 
Ans:b( Herpes) 
 
Herpes virus is the most common opportunistic infection causing genital lesion in HIV 
patients. 
 
 
 
Q2)Which of following drug is used for narcoanalysis? 
a)Atropine 
b)Phenobarbitone 
c)Scopolamine 
d)Pethidine 
 
Ans:C ( SCOPOLAMINE) 
 
Drug used for narcoanalysis(TRUTH SERUM DRUGS) 
? SCOPOLAMINE 
? SODIUM PENTATHAL 
? SODIUM SCEONAL 
 
Q3)Which of following is a marker for langerhans cell histocytosis? 
a)CD1a 
b)CD10 
c)CD30 
d)CD56 
Ans:a (Cd1a) 
Tumour cells in langerhans cell histocytosis expresses HLADR,S100 and cd1a. 
Q4)AFP is raised in? 
a)teratoma 
b)yolk sac tumour 
c)Choriocarcinoma 
d)Dysgerminoma 
Ans:a ( Yolk sac tumour) 
 
Alpha foeto protein level are elevated in non seminomas germ tumours including 
embroysal carcinoma, yolk sac tumour and mixed germ cell tumour” 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
 
Q5)In patient with head injury damage in the brain aggrevates by? 
a)Hyperglycemia 
b)Hypocalcemia 
c)hypocapnia 
d)Serum osmarility 
Ans:a ( HYPERGLYCEMIA) 
 
Q6)Which of following represent site of lesion in motor neuron disease? 
a)anterior horn cells 
b)Peripheral horn cells 
c)spinothalmic tract 
d)spinocerebellar tract 
Ans: a ( anterior horn cells) 
 
Q7)maxiumum water resorption in gastrointestinal tract is seen in? 
a)Stomach 
b)Jejunum 
c)Illeum 
d)colon 
Ans:b ( Jejunum) 
AIPGMEE Q 18,2010 
 
Q8)Sphinglomyelins dificienecy is seen in? 
a)Niemaan pick disease 
b)farber disease 
c)tay sacch disease 
d)krabbe disease 
Ans:a ( niemaann pick disease) 
AIPGMEE Question 2010-Q29 
 
Q9)Basal metabolic rate depends most closely on? 
a)lean body mass 
b)body mass index 
c)obesity 
d)Body surface area 
Ans:A ( LEAN BODY MASS) 
 
Q10)Low csf protein may be seen in all of following condition except? 
a)recurrent lumbar puncture 
b)hypothyroidism 
c)pseudotumor cerebri 
d)hYPERTHYROIDISM 
Ans:B ( Hypothyroidism) 
AIPGMEE Q24 2010 
Page 3


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
AIIMS Paper1 
 
 
 
 
Q1)Most common genital leison in HIV patient is? 
a)Chlymadie 
b)Herpes 
c)syphilis 
d)Candida 
Ans:b( Herpes) 
 
Herpes virus is the most common opportunistic infection causing genital lesion in HIV 
patients. 
 
 
 
Q2)Which of following drug is used for narcoanalysis? 
a)Atropine 
b)Phenobarbitone 
c)Scopolamine 
d)Pethidine 
 
Ans:C ( SCOPOLAMINE) 
 
Drug used for narcoanalysis(TRUTH SERUM DRUGS) 
? SCOPOLAMINE 
? SODIUM PENTATHAL 
? SODIUM SCEONAL 
 
Q3)Which of following is a marker for langerhans cell histocytosis? 
a)CD1a 
b)CD10 
c)CD30 
d)CD56 
Ans:a (Cd1a) 
Tumour cells in langerhans cell histocytosis expresses HLADR,S100 and cd1a. 
Q4)AFP is raised in? 
a)teratoma 
b)yolk sac tumour 
c)Choriocarcinoma 
d)Dysgerminoma 
Ans:a ( Yolk sac tumour) 
 
Alpha foeto protein level are elevated in non seminomas germ tumours including 
embroysal carcinoma, yolk sac tumour and mixed germ cell tumour” 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
 
Q5)In patient with head injury damage in the brain aggrevates by? 
a)Hyperglycemia 
b)Hypocalcemia 
c)hypocapnia 
d)Serum osmarility 
Ans:a ( HYPERGLYCEMIA) 
 
Q6)Which of following represent site of lesion in motor neuron disease? 
a)anterior horn cells 
b)Peripheral horn cells 
c)spinothalmic tract 
d)spinocerebellar tract 
Ans: a ( anterior horn cells) 
 
Q7)maxiumum water resorption in gastrointestinal tract is seen in? 
a)Stomach 
b)Jejunum 
c)Illeum 
d)colon 
Ans:b ( Jejunum) 
AIPGMEE Q 18,2010 
 
Q8)Sphinglomyelins dificienecy is seen in? 
a)Niemaan pick disease 
b)farber disease 
c)tay sacch disease 
d)krabbe disease 
Ans:a ( niemaann pick disease) 
AIPGMEE Question 2010-Q29 
 
Q9)Basal metabolic rate depends most closely on? 
a)lean body mass 
b)body mass index 
c)obesity 
d)Body surface area 
Ans:A ( LEAN BODY MASS) 
 
Q10)Low csf protein may be seen in all of following condition except? 
a)recurrent lumbar puncture 
b)hypothyroidism 
c)pseudotumor cerebri 
d)hYPERTHYROIDISM 
Ans:B ( Hypothyroidism) 
AIPGMEE Q24 2010 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
Q11)Leison of lateral cerebellum causes all of following except? 
a)Incordination 
b)intentional tremor 
c)resting tremor 
d)ataxia 
Ans:C ( Resting tremor) 
 
Q12)Ethosuxamide is drug of choice of? 
a)SSRI 
b)Tricyclic antidepressant 
c)RIMA 
d)Atypical antidepressant 
Ans:b ( tricyclic antidepressant) 
 
Q13)Narrow theurapeutic index is seen with? 
a)despirramine 
b)lithium 
c)pencillin 
d)Diazepam 
ANS:B ( Lithium) 
Q14)Provision of primary health care was done by? 
a)Alma ata decrelation 
b)shrinavsatava committee 
c)National heath policy 
d)Bhore community 
Ans:b ( Alma ata decleration) 
 
Q15)Asha is posted at? 
a)village level 
b)primary health centre 
c)community health centre 
d)Subcentre 
Ans:A ( Village level) 
 
Q16)Mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all of following 
except? 
a)Yaws 
b)Leprosy 
c)Trachoma 
d)Filiria 
Ans:b ( Leprosy) 
 
Q17)A STANDARD Z SCORE IS RELATED TO? 
A) binomial distribution 
b)normal distribution 
c)chi square test 
Page 4


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
AIIMS Paper1 
 
 
 
 
Q1)Most common genital leison in HIV patient is? 
a)Chlymadie 
b)Herpes 
c)syphilis 
d)Candida 
Ans:b( Herpes) 
 
Herpes virus is the most common opportunistic infection causing genital lesion in HIV 
patients. 
 
 
 
Q2)Which of following drug is used for narcoanalysis? 
a)Atropine 
b)Phenobarbitone 
c)Scopolamine 
d)Pethidine 
 
Ans:C ( SCOPOLAMINE) 
 
Drug used for narcoanalysis(TRUTH SERUM DRUGS) 
? SCOPOLAMINE 
? SODIUM PENTATHAL 
? SODIUM SCEONAL 
 
Q3)Which of following is a marker for langerhans cell histocytosis? 
a)CD1a 
b)CD10 
c)CD30 
d)CD56 
Ans:a (Cd1a) 
Tumour cells in langerhans cell histocytosis expresses HLADR,S100 and cd1a. 
Q4)AFP is raised in? 
a)teratoma 
b)yolk sac tumour 
c)Choriocarcinoma 
d)Dysgerminoma 
Ans:a ( Yolk sac tumour) 
 
Alpha foeto protein level are elevated in non seminomas germ tumours including 
embroysal carcinoma, yolk sac tumour and mixed germ cell tumour” 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
 
Q5)In patient with head injury damage in the brain aggrevates by? 
a)Hyperglycemia 
b)Hypocalcemia 
c)hypocapnia 
d)Serum osmarility 
Ans:a ( HYPERGLYCEMIA) 
 
Q6)Which of following represent site of lesion in motor neuron disease? 
a)anterior horn cells 
b)Peripheral horn cells 
c)spinothalmic tract 
d)spinocerebellar tract 
Ans: a ( anterior horn cells) 
 
Q7)maxiumum water resorption in gastrointestinal tract is seen in? 
a)Stomach 
b)Jejunum 
c)Illeum 
d)colon 
Ans:b ( Jejunum) 
AIPGMEE Q 18,2010 
 
Q8)Sphinglomyelins dificienecy is seen in? 
a)Niemaan pick disease 
b)farber disease 
c)tay sacch disease 
d)krabbe disease 
Ans:a ( niemaann pick disease) 
AIPGMEE Question 2010-Q29 
 
Q9)Basal metabolic rate depends most closely on? 
a)lean body mass 
b)body mass index 
c)obesity 
d)Body surface area 
Ans:A ( LEAN BODY MASS) 
 
Q10)Low csf protein may be seen in all of following condition except? 
a)recurrent lumbar puncture 
b)hypothyroidism 
c)pseudotumor cerebri 
d)hYPERTHYROIDISM 
Ans:B ( Hypothyroidism) 
AIPGMEE Q24 2010 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
Q11)Leison of lateral cerebellum causes all of following except? 
a)Incordination 
b)intentional tremor 
c)resting tremor 
d)ataxia 
Ans:C ( Resting tremor) 
 
Q12)Ethosuxamide is drug of choice of? 
a)SSRI 
b)Tricyclic antidepressant 
c)RIMA 
d)Atypical antidepressant 
Ans:b ( tricyclic antidepressant) 
 
Q13)Narrow theurapeutic index is seen with? 
a)despirramine 
b)lithium 
c)pencillin 
d)Diazepam 
ANS:B ( Lithium) 
Q14)Provision of primary health care was done by? 
a)Alma ata decrelation 
b)shrinavsatava committee 
c)National heath policy 
d)Bhore community 
Ans:b ( Alma ata decleration) 
 
Q15)Asha is posted at? 
a)village level 
b)primary health centre 
c)community health centre 
d)Subcentre 
Ans:A ( Village level) 
 
Q16)Mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all of following 
except? 
a)Yaws 
b)Leprosy 
c)Trachoma 
d)Filiria 
Ans:b ( Leprosy) 
 
Q17)A STANDARD Z SCORE IS RELATED TO? 
A) binomial distribution 
b)normal distribution 
c)chi square test 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
d)t test 
Ans:b ( Normal distribution) 
 
Q18)Bences jones protein are derived from? 
a)alpha heavy chain disease 
b)gamma heavy chain disease 
c)mu heavy chain disease 
d)epsilon heavy chain disease 
Ans:c ( Mu chain heavy disease 
 
Q19)which of following laser is most commonly used in laryngeal surgery? 
a)co2 laser 
b)nd yag laser 
c)argon laser 
d)ktp laser 
Ans: a (co2 laser) 
 
Q20)which is the most ionizing radiation? 
a)alpha 
b)beta 
c)x rays 
d)gamma 
Ans:a ( alpha) 
 
Q21)which of following best estimates the amount of radiation delivered to an organ 
in raditation filed? 
a)absorbed dose 
b)equivalent dose 
c)effective dose 
d)exposure dose 
Ans: A ( ABSORBED DOSE) 
 
Q22)Autism disorder is characterstic by all of following except? 
a) sual disturbance 
b)lack of social interaction 
c)delayed development of speech 
d)sterogenic movements 
Ans:a ( visual disturbances) 
 
Q23)Incidence rate can be calculated by? 
a)case control study 
b)cohort study 
c)cross sectional study 
d)cross over study 
Ans:b ( Cohort study) 
Page 5


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
AIIMS Paper1 
 
 
 
 
Q1)Most common genital leison in HIV patient is? 
a)Chlymadie 
b)Herpes 
c)syphilis 
d)Candida 
Ans:b( Herpes) 
 
Herpes virus is the most common opportunistic infection causing genital lesion in HIV 
patients. 
 
 
 
Q2)Which of following drug is used for narcoanalysis? 
a)Atropine 
b)Phenobarbitone 
c)Scopolamine 
d)Pethidine 
 
Ans:C ( SCOPOLAMINE) 
 
Drug used for narcoanalysis(TRUTH SERUM DRUGS) 
? SCOPOLAMINE 
? SODIUM PENTATHAL 
? SODIUM SCEONAL 
 
Q3)Which of following is a marker for langerhans cell histocytosis? 
a)CD1a 
b)CD10 
c)CD30 
d)CD56 
Ans:a (Cd1a) 
Tumour cells in langerhans cell histocytosis expresses HLADR,S100 and cd1a. 
Q4)AFP is raised in? 
a)teratoma 
b)yolk sac tumour 
c)Choriocarcinoma 
d)Dysgerminoma 
Ans:a ( Yolk sac tumour) 
 
Alpha foeto protein level are elevated in non seminomas germ tumours including 
embroysal carcinoma, yolk sac tumour and mixed germ cell tumour” 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
 
Q5)In patient with head injury damage in the brain aggrevates by? 
a)Hyperglycemia 
b)Hypocalcemia 
c)hypocapnia 
d)Serum osmarility 
Ans:a ( HYPERGLYCEMIA) 
 
Q6)Which of following represent site of lesion in motor neuron disease? 
a)anterior horn cells 
b)Peripheral horn cells 
c)spinothalmic tract 
d)spinocerebellar tract 
Ans: a ( anterior horn cells) 
 
Q7)maxiumum water resorption in gastrointestinal tract is seen in? 
a)Stomach 
b)Jejunum 
c)Illeum 
d)colon 
Ans:b ( Jejunum) 
AIPGMEE Q 18,2010 
 
Q8)Sphinglomyelins dificienecy is seen in? 
a)Niemaan pick disease 
b)farber disease 
c)tay sacch disease 
d)krabbe disease 
Ans:a ( niemaann pick disease) 
AIPGMEE Question 2010-Q29 
 
Q9)Basal metabolic rate depends most closely on? 
a)lean body mass 
b)body mass index 
c)obesity 
d)Body surface area 
Ans:A ( LEAN BODY MASS) 
 
Q10)Low csf protein may be seen in all of following condition except? 
a)recurrent lumbar puncture 
b)hypothyroidism 
c)pseudotumor cerebri 
d)hYPERTHYROIDISM 
Ans:B ( Hypothyroidism) 
AIPGMEE Q24 2010 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
Q11)Leison of lateral cerebellum causes all of following except? 
a)Incordination 
b)intentional tremor 
c)resting tremor 
d)ataxia 
Ans:C ( Resting tremor) 
 
Q12)Ethosuxamide is drug of choice of? 
a)SSRI 
b)Tricyclic antidepressant 
c)RIMA 
d)Atypical antidepressant 
Ans:b ( tricyclic antidepressant) 
 
Q13)Narrow theurapeutic index is seen with? 
a)despirramine 
b)lithium 
c)pencillin 
d)Diazepam 
ANS:B ( Lithium) 
Q14)Provision of primary health care was done by? 
a)Alma ata decrelation 
b)shrinavsatava committee 
c)National heath policy 
d)Bhore community 
Ans:b ( Alma ata decleration) 
 
Q15)Asha is posted at? 
a)village level 
b)primary health centre 
c)community health centre 
d)Subcentre 
Ans:A ( Village level) 
 
Q16)Mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area recommended for all of following 
except? 
a)Yaws 
b)Leprosy 
c)Trachoma 
d)Filiria 
Ans:b ( Leprosy) 
 
Q17)A STANDARD Z SCORE IS RELATED TO? 
A) binomial distribution 
b)normal distribution 
c)chi square test 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
d)t test 
Ans:b ( Normal distribution) 
 
Q18)Bences jones protein are derived from? 
a)alpha heavy chain disease 
b)gamma heavy chain disease 
c)mu heavy chain disease 
d)epsilon heavy chain disease 
Ans:c ( Mu chain heavy disease 
 
Q19)which of following laser is most commonly used in laryngeal surgery? 
a)co2 laser 
b)nd yag laser 
c)argon laser 
d)ktp laser 
Ans: a (co2 laser) 
 
Q20)which is the most ionizing radiation? 
a)alpha 
b)beta 
c)x rays 
d)gamma 
Ans:a ( alpha) 
 
Q21)which of following best estimates the amount of radiation delivered to an organ 
in raditation filed? 
a)absorbed dose 
b)equivalent dose 
c)effective dose 
d)exposure dose 
Ans: A ( ABSORBED DOSE) 
 
Q22)Autism disorder is characterstic by all of following except? 
a) sual disturbance 
b)lack of social interaction 
c)delayed development of speech 
d)sterogenic movements 
Ans:a ( visual disturbances) 
 
Q23)Incidence rate can be calculated by? 
a)case control study 
b)cohort study 
c)cross sectional study 
d)cross over study 
Ans:b ( Cohort study) 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES 
 
 
 
 
Q24)Gut associated lymphoid tissue is associated with ? 
a) Lamina propria 
b)submucosa 
c)muscularis 
d)serosa 
Ansa:Lamina propria 
 
Q25)When a person changes position from standing to lying position following 
changes are seen? 
a)heart rate increases 
b) venous return to heart increases immediately 
c)cerebral blood flow increases 
d)blood flow at apices of the lung decreases 
ANS:b(venous return to heart increases immediately) 
 
Q26)Key regulator of sleep are located in? 
a)Hypothalamus 
b)Thalamus 
c)putamen 
d)Limbic cortex 
ANS:a ( Hypothalamus) 
 
Q27)Which is not a sign of successful stellate ganglion block? 
a)Nasal stiffness 
b)guttman sign 
c)hornor syndrome 
d)Bradycardia 
Ans:d ( Bradycardia) 
 
Q28)The anesthetic agent injected for paravertebral block is least likely to fiffuse 
to? 
a)epidural space 
b)subarachnoid space 
c)intercostal space 
d)superior and inferior paravertebral space 
Ans:b ( Subarachnoid space) 
 
Q29)Sodium bicarbonate when given with local anesthesia has following effects? 
a)increases speed and quality of anesthesia 
b)decreases diffusion rate of anesthesia 
c)cause rapid elimination of anesthesia 
d)decrease speed and quality of anesthesia 
Ans:a (increases speed and quality of anesthesia) 
 
Q30)T-10 protocol for treatment of osteosarcoma includes all of following except? 
a)High dose methotreaxte 
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FAQs on Question with Answer - MDS Test Series- AIIMS Paper 1, Medical Entrance Exam - NEET

1. What is the MDS Test Series?
Ans. The MDS Test Series is a set of practice tests designed for students preparing for the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) Paper 1 and the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) for admission to medical colleges in India. It helps students assess their knowledge and skills, identify their strengths and weaknesses, and improve their score in the exam.
2. What is the importance of AIIMS Paper 1 and NEET in medical admissions?
Ans. AIIMS Paper 1 and NEET are two of the most important exams for medical admissions in India. They are conducted at the national level and determine the eligibility of students for admission to undergraduate and postgraduate programs in medical colleges across the country. These exams evaluate students' knowledge, reasoning, and analytical skills in biology, physics, chemistry, and general knowledge.
3. How can the MDS Test Series help students in their preparation for AIIMS Paper 1 and NEET?
Ans. The MDS Test Series can help students in their preparation for AIIMS Paper 1 and NEET by providing them with a simulated exam environment, similar to the actual exam. It helps them identify their strengths and weaknesses, assess their progress, and improve their time-management skills. The test series includes a variety of types of questions, such as multiple-choice questions, fill-in-the-blanks, and match-the-following, which are similar to those in the actual exam.
4. How can students enroll in the MDS Test Series for AIIMS Paper 1 and NEET preparation?
Ans. Students can enroll in the MDS Test Series for AIIMS Paper 1 and NEET preparation by visiting the official website of the test series provider. They can register by providing their personal and academic details and making the payment online. Once registered, they can access the test series from their dashboard and take the tests at their convenience.
5. What are the benefits of taking the MDS Test Series for AIIMS Paper 1 and NEET preparation?
Ans. The benefits of taking the MDS Test Series for AIIMS Paper 1 and NEET preparation include the following: 1. Helps students identify their strengths and weaknesses 2. Provides a simulated exam environment similar to the actual exam 3. Helps students assess their progress and improve their time-management skills 4. Includes a variety of types of questions similar to those in the actual exam 5. Boosts confidence and reduces exam anxiety.
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