Question with Answer-MDS Test Series AIPG Paper 1, MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAM - NEET PDF Download

 Page 1


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
AIPG PAPER 1 
 
1. Which of the following are useful diagnostic aids that can be used to determine if a 
tooth has a vertical crown-root fracture? 
A.Fiberoptic light for transillumination 
B.Wedging the tooth in question and then taking an x-ray 
C.Persistent periodontal defects in an otherwise healthy tooth 
D. All of the above 
 
Ans D. All of the above 
 
2. An electric pulp tester (EPT or Vitalometer) usually elicits a response at a higher 
current than normal if a tooth, being tested has: 
A. Acute pulpitis B. Chronic pulpitis 
C. Hyperemia D. Open apex 
 
Ans B. Chronic pulpitis 
 
3. Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to: 
A. Destructive potential of streptococcus Mutans. 
B. Destructive potential of Lactobacillus Acidophilus. 
C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying enamel. 
D. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process. 
 
Ans C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying 
enamel. 
 
The caries forms a small area of penetration in the enamel at the bottom of a pit or fissure 
and does not spread laterally to a great extent until the DEJ is reached. Force of 
mastication fracture the increasing amount of unsupported enamel as the caries progress 
so choice (4) is wrong. Destructive potential is due to acid formed by bacteria by 
degradation of carbohydrates 
so choice (1 & 2) also wrong. 
 
 
 
4. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement? 
A. Should have water-miscible vehicle. 
B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
C. Should be easy to remove 
D. Should not interfere with bonding procedures. 
 
Ans B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
 
A water-soluble lubricant applied in the area of punched holes facilitates the proximal 
contacts. Rubber dam lubricant is commercially available but other lubricants, even as 
Page 2


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
AIPG PAPER 1 
 
1. Which of the following are useful diagnostic aids that can be used to determine if a 
tooth has a vertical crown-root fracture? 
A.Fiberoptic light for transillumination 
B.Wedging the tooth in question and then taking an x-ray 
C.Persistent periodontal defects in an otherwise healthy tooth 
D. All of the above 
 
Ans D. All of the above 
 
2. An electric pulp tester (EPT or Vitalometer) usually elicits a response at a higher 
current than normal if a tooth, being tested has: 
A. Acute pulpitis B. Chronic pulpitis 
C. Hyperemia D. Open apex 
 
Ans B. Chronic pulpitis 
 
3. Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to: 
A. Destructive potential of streptococcus Mutans. 
B. Destructive potential of Lactobacillus Acidophilus. 
C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying enamel. 
D. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process. 
 
Ans C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying 
enamel. 
 
The caries forms a small area of penetration in the enamel at the bottom of a pit or fissure 
and does not spread laterally to a great extent until the DEJ is reached. Force of 
mastication fracture the increasing amount of unsupported enamel as the caries progress 
so choice (4) is wrong. Destructive potential is due to acid formed by bacteria by 
degradation of carbohydrates 
so choice (1 & 2) also wrong. 
 
 
 
4. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement? 
A. Should have water-miscible vehicle. 
B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
C. Should be easy to remove 
D. Should not interfere with bonding procedures. 
 
Ans B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
 
A water-soluble lubricant applied in the area of punched holes facilitates the proximal 
contacts. Rubber dam lubricant is commercially available but other lubricants, even as 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Having cream or soap slurry also satisfactory. Cocoa butter and petroleum jelly, these 
two are not satisfactory rubber dam lubricants because both are Oil based and not easily 
rinsed from dam once the dam is placed. 
 
5. Caries detection dye can stain the following, except: 
A. Granular narcotic tissue 
B. Dry, leathery dentin. 
C. Reversibly denatured collagen. 
D. Irreversibly denatured collagen. 
 
Ans  C. Reversibly denatured collagen. 
Affected dentin is softened, demineralized dentin that is not yet invaded by Bacterua 
(Zone 2 & 3) Infected dentin (Zone 4 & 5) is both softened contaminated with bacteria. 
It includes the superficial, granular necrotic tissue and softened, dry, lathery dentin. The 
outer layer (infected dentin) can be selectively stained by caries detection solutions such 
as 1% acid red 52 (acid rhodamine B or food red 106) in propylene glycol. This solution 
stains the irreversibly denatured collagen in the outer carious layer but not the reversibly 
denatured collagen in the inner carious layer. 
 
6)The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except: 
1)Femoral vein 
2)Inguinal ligament 
3)Femoral artery 
4)Lacunar ligament 
 
Ans 3)Femoral artery 
 
The femoral ring refers to the upper opening of the most medial compartment of the 
femoral sheath (femoral canal). The femoral artery occupies the lateral compartment and 
is separated from the femoral ring by an intermediate compartment, occupied by the 
femoral vein Boundaries of femoral ring: • Anteriorly by inguinal ligament • 
Medially by lacunar ligament (concave margin) • Posteriorly by pectinius and covering 
fascia • Laterally by septum separating it from femoral vein 
 
7)CSF pressure is mainly regulated by: 
1)Rate of CSF formation 
2)Rate of CSF absorption 
3)Cerebral blood flow 
4)Venous pressure 
 
Ans 2)Rate of CSF absorption 
Lumber CSF pressure is normally 70-180 mm CSF. Upto pressures well above this range, 
the rate of CSF formation is independent of intraventricular pressure. However, 
absorption, which takes place largely by bulk flow, is proportionate to the pressure. At a 
pressure of 112 mm CSF, which is the average normal CSF pressure, filtration and 
absorption are equal. 
Page 3


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
AIPG PAPER 1 
 
1. Which of the following are useful diagnostic aids that can be used to determine if a 
tooth has a vertical crown-root fracture? 
A.Fiberoptic light for transillumination 
B.Wedging the tooth in question and then taking an x-ray 
C.Persistent periodontal defects in an otherwise healthy tooth 
D. All of the above 
 
Ans D. All of the above 
 
2. An electric pulp tester (EPT or Vitalometer) usually elicits a response at a higher 
current than normal if a tooth, being tested has: 
A. Acute pulpitis B. Chronic pulpitis 
C. Hyperemia D. Open apex 
 
Ans B. Chronic pulpitis 
 
3. Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to: 
A. Destructive potential of streptococcus Mutans. 
B. Destructive potential of Lactobacillus Acidophilus. 
C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying enamel. 
D. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process. 
 
Ans C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying 
enamel. 
 
The caries forms a small area of penetration in the enamel at the bottom of a pit or fissure 
and does not spread laterally to a great extent until the DEJ is reached. Force of 
mastication fracture the increasing amount of unsupported enamel as the caries progress 
so choice (4) is wrong. Destructive potential is due to acid formed by bacteria by 
degradation of carbohydrates 
so choice (1 & 2) also wrong. 
 
 
 
4. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement? 
A. Should have water-miscible vehicle. 
B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
C. Should be easy to remove 
D. Should not interfere with bonding procedures. 
 
Ans B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
 
A water-soluble lubricant applied in the area of punched holes facilitates the proximal 
contacts. Rubber dam lubricant is commercially available but other lubricants, even as 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Having cream or soap slurry also satisfactory. Cocoa butter and petroleum jelly, these 
two are not satisfactory rubber dam lubricants because both are Oil based and not easily 
rinsed from dam once the dam is placed. 
 
5. Caries detection dye can stain the following, except: 
A. Granular narcotic tissue 
B. Dry, leathery dentin. 
C. Reversibly denatured collagen. 
D. Irreversibly denatured collagen. 
 
Ans  C. Reversibly denatured collagen. 
Affected dentin is softened, demineralized dentin that is not yet invaded by Bacterua 
(Zone 2 & 3) Infected dentin (Zone 4 & 5) is both softened contaminated with bacteria. 
It includes the superficial, granular necrotic tissue and softened, dry, lathery dentin. The 
outer layer (infected dentin) can be selectively stained by caries detection solutions such 
as 1% acid red 52 (acid rhodamine B or food red 106) in propylene glycol. This solution 
stains the irreversibly denatured collagen in the outer carious layer but not the reversibly 
denatured collagen in the inner carious layer. 
 
6)The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except: 
1)Femoral vein 
2)Inguinal ligament 
3)Femoral artery 
4)Lacunar ligament 
 
Ans 3)Femoral artery 
 
The femoral ring refers to the upper opening of the most medial compartment of the 
femoral sheath (femoral canal). The femoral artery occupies the lateral compartment and 
is separated from the femoral ring by an intermediate compartment, occupied by the 
femoral vein Boundaries of femoral ring: • Anteriorly by inguinal ligament • 
Medially by lacunar ligament (concave margin) • Posteriorly by pectinius and covering 
fascia • Laterally by septum separating it from femoral vein 
 
7)CSF pressure is mainly regulated by: 
1)Rate of CSF formation 
2)Rate of CSF absorption 
3)Cerebral blood flow 
4)Venous pressure 
 
Ans 2)Rate of CSF absorption 
Lumber CSF pressure is normally 70-180 mm CSF. Upto pressures well above this range, 
the rate of CSF formation is independent of intraventricular pressure. However, 
absorption, which takes place largely by bulk flow, is proportionate to the pressure. At a 
pressure of 112 mm CSF, which is the average normal CSF pressure, filtration and 
absorption are equal. 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
8) The secretions of which of the following hormones does not increase at 
night? 1)GH 
2)ACTH 
3)Melatonin 
4)Insulin 
 
Ans 4)Insulin 
 
In humans and all other species to date melatonin synthesis and secretion are increased 
during the dark period of the day and maintained at a low level during the daylight hours. 
ACTH is secreted in irregular bursts throughout the day, and plasma cortisol tends to rise 
and fall in response to these bursts. In humans, the burst are most frequent in the early 
morning. About 75% of the daily production of cortisol occurs between 4 a.m. and 10 
a.m. The bursts are least frequent in the evening. A spike in growth hormone secretion 
occurs with considerable regularity upon going to sleep, but the significance of the 
association between growth hormone and sleep is an enigma. Cleary option i.e. Insulin is 
the answer of exclusion. 
 
9) Which ion is most important for neurotransmitter 
release? 1)Sodium 
2)Chloride 
3)Calcium 
4)Potassium 
 
Ans 3)Calcium 
 
Ca2+ is the key to synaptic vesicle fusion and discharge. An action potential reaching the 
presynaptic terminal opens voltage gated Ca2+ channels, and the resulting Ca2+ influx 
triggers release. Na+ & K+ are involved in nerve conduction while Cl- is involved in 
inhibitory post synaptic potentials (IPSPs) 
 
10)The acrosome reaction occurs when the sperm: 
1)Enters the uterine cavity 
2)Comes in contact with zona pellucida 
3)Penetrates corona radiate 
4)Penetrates cell membrane of oocyte 
 
Ans 2)Comes in contact with zona pellucida 
 
Sperms bind to a sperm receptor in the zona, and this is followed by the acrosomal 
reaction, that is, the breakdown of the acrosome, the lyosome-like organelle on the head 
of the sperm 
 
11)Ubiquitin is involved in: 
Page 4


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
AIPG PAPER 1 
 
1. Which of the following are useful diagnostic aids that can be used to determine if a 
tooth has a vertical crown-root fracture? 
A.Fiberoptic light for transillumination 
B.Wedging the tooth in question and then taking an x-ray 
C.Persistent periodontal defects in an otherwise healthy tooth 
D. All of the above 
 
Ans D. All of the above 
 
2. An electric pulp tester (EPT or Vitalometer) usually elicits a response at a higher 
current than normal if a tooth, being tested has: 
A. Acute pulpitis B. Chronic pulpitis 
C. Hyperemia D. Open apex 
 
Ans B. Chronic pulpitis 
 
3. Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to: 
A. Destructive potential of streptococcus Mutans. 
B. Destructive potential of Lactobacillus Acidophilus. 
C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying enamel. 
D. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process. 
 
Ans C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying 
enamel. 
 
The caries forms a small area of penetration in the enamel at the bottom of a pit or fissure 
and does not spread laterally to a great extent until the DEJ is reached. Force of 
mastication fracture the increasing amount of unsupported enamel as the caries progress 
so choice (4) is wrong. Destructive potential is due to acid formed by bacteria by 
degradation of carbohydrates 
so choice (1 & 2) also wrong. 
 
 
 
4. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement? 
A. Should have water-miscible vehicle. 
B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
C. Should be easy to remove 
D. Should not interfere with bonding procedures. 
 
Ans B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
 
A water-soluble lubricant applied in the area of punched holes facilitates the proximal 
contacts. Rubber dam lubricant is commercially available but other lubricants, even as 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Having cream or soap slurry also satisfactory. Cocoa butter and petroleum jelly, these 
two are not satisfactory rubber dam lubricants because both are Oil based and not easily 
rinsed from dam once the dam is placed. 
 
5. Caries detection dye can stain the following, except: 
A. Granular narcotic tissue 
B. Dry, leathery dentin. 
C. Reversibly denatured collagen. 
D. Irreversibly denatured collagen. 
 
Ans  C. Reversibly denatured collagen. 
Affected dentin is softened, demineralized dentin that is not yet invaded by Bacterua 
(Zone 2 & 3) Infected dentin (Zone 4 & 5) is both softened contaminated with bacteria. 
It includes the superficial, granular necrotic tissue and softened, dry, lathery dentin. The 
outer layer (infected dentin) can be selectively stained by caries detection solutions such 
as 1% acid red 52 (acid rhodamine B or food red 106) in propylene glycol. This solution 
stains the irreversibly denatured collagen in the outer carious layer but not the reversibly 
denatured collagen in the inner carious layer. 
 
6)The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except: 
1)Femoral vein 
2)Inguinal ligament 
3)Femoral artery 
4)Lacunar ligament 
 
Ans 3)Femoral artery 
 
The femoral ring refers to the upper opening of the most medial compartment of the 
femoral sheath (femoral canal). The femoral artery occupies the lateral compartment and 
is separated from the femoral ring by an intermediate compartment, occupied by the 
femoral vein Boundaries of femoral ring: • Anteriorly by inguinal ligament • 
Medially by lacunar ligament (concave margin) • Posteriorly by pectinius and covering 
fascia • Laterally by septum separating it from femoral vein 
 
7)CSF pressure is mainly regulated by: 
1)Rate of CSF formation 
2)Rate of CSF absorption 
3)Cerebral blood flow 
4)Venous pressure 
 
Ans 2)Rate of CSF absorption 
Lumber CSF pressure is normally 70-180 mm CSF. Upto pressures well above this range, 
the rate of CSF formation is independent of intraventricular pressure. However, 
absorption, which takes place largely by bulk flow, is proportionate to the pressure. At a 
pressure of 112 mm CSF, which is the average normal CSF pressure, filtration and 
absorption are equal. 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
8) The secretions of which of the following hormones does not increase at 
night? 1)GH 
2)ACTH 
3)Melatonin 
4)Insulin 
 
Ans 4)Insulin 
 
In humans and all other species to date melatonin synthesis and secretion are increased 
during the dark period of the day and maintained at a low level during the daylight hours. 
ACTH is secreted in irregular bursts throughout the day, and plasma cortisol tends to rise 
and fall in response to these bursts. In humans, the burst are most frequent in the early 
morning. About 75% of the daily production of cortisol occurs between 4 a.m. and 10 
a.m. The bursts are least frequent in the evening. A spike in growth hormone secretion 
occurs with considerable regularity upon going to sleep, but the significance of the 
association between growth hormone and sleep is an enigma. Cleary option i.e. Insulin is 
the answer of exclusion. 
 
9) Which ion is most important for neurotransmitter 
release? 1)Sodium 
2)Chloride 
3)Calcium 
4)Potassium 
 
Ans 3)Calcium 
 
Ca2+ is the key to synaptic vesicle fusion and discharge. An action potential reaching the 
presynaptic terminal opens voltage gated Ca2+ channels, and the resulting Ca2+ influx 
triggers release. Na+ & K+ are involved in nerve conduction while Cl- is involved in 
inhibitory post synaptic potentials (IPSPs) 
 
10)The acrosome reaction occurs when the sperm: 
1)Enters the uterine cavity 
2)Comes in contact with zona pellucida 
3)Penetrates corona radiate 
4)Penetrates cell membrane of oocyte 
 
Ans 2)Comes in contact with zona pellucida 
 
Sperms bind to a sperm receptor in the zona, and this is followed by the acrosomal 
reaction, that is, the breakdown of the acrosome, the lyosome-like organelle on the head 
of the sperm 
 
11)Ubiquitin is involved in: 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
1)Intracellular proteolysis 
2)Electron transport chain 
3)Transport of ATP 
4)Protein folding 
 
Ans 1)Intracellular proteolysis 
 
In human body around 30% percent of protein is formed due to improperly folded protein 
or aged protein. Ubiquitin helps the conjugation these proteins to the 74-amino-acid 
polypeptide and starts the protein degradation and the process is named as ubiquitination 
or polyubiquitination. The process involves association of cellular protein, reticulum, 
proteasomes. 
 
12)Osteoclasts are inhibited by: 
1)Parathyroid hormone 
2)Calcitionin 
3)1.25 dihydroxycholecalciferol 
4)Tumor necrosis factor 
 
Ans 2)Calcitionin 
 
Calcitonin inhibits bone resorption by direct action on osteoclasts˜Calcitonin exerts its 
calcium lowering effect by inhibiting bone resorption. This action is direct, and calcitonin 
inhibits the activity of osteoclasts in vitro Hormones involved in calcium metabolism. 
 
13)True about G-protein coupled receptors is: 
1)G-proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface 
2)All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma bind each for y-protein to act. 
3)G-protein act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit 
4)G-protein is bound to GTP in resting state 
Ans 3)G-protein act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit G-
Protein coupled receptors (GPCR) are the largest super family of surface receptors. 
These receptors are integral membrane proteins characterized by an extra cellular ligand 
binding region, seven transmembrane helices, and an intracellular domain that interacts 
with G-proteins. The ligand binds to a site on the extra cellular portion of the receptors. 
Binding of the ligand to the receptors activates a G-protein associated with the 
cytoplasmic C-terminal. G-Proteins: G proteins are so-called because they bind the 
guanine nucleotides, GDP and GTP. They are heterotrimers (i.e. made of three different 
subunits). The three subunits are : o G? which carries the binding site for the nucleotide: 
at least 21 different kinds of ? molecules are found in mammalian cells. o G? o G? How 
they workIn the inactive state, G Protein has GDP bound to its G? subunit. When a 
hormone or other ligand binds to the associated GPCR, the GDP is exchange for GTP 
GTP activates G ? causing it to dissociate from G? G? (which remain linked to a dimer) 
which, in turn, activates adenylyl cyclase, an enzyme in the inner face of the plasma 
Page 5


TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
AIPG PAPER 1 
 
1. Which of the following are useful diagnostic aids that can be used to determine if a 
tooth has a vertical crown-root fracture? 
A.Fiberoptic light for transillumination 
B.Wedging the tooth in question and then taking an x-ray 
C.Persistent periodontal defects in an otherwise healthy tooth 
D. All of the above 
 
Ans D. All of the above 
 
2. An electric pulp tester (EPT or Vitalometer) usually elicits a response at a higher 
current than normal if a tooth, being tested has: 
A. Acute pulpitis B. Chronic pulpitis 
C. Hyperemia D. Open apex 
 
Ans B. Chronic pulpitis 
 
3. Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to: 
A. Destructive potential of streptococcus Mutans. 
B. Destructive potential of Lactobacillus Acidophilus. 
C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying enamel. 
D. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process. 
 
Ans C. Lateral spread of caries along DE junction and weakening of the overlying 
enamel. 
 
The caries forms a small area of penetration in the enamel at the bottom of a pit or fissure 
and does not spread laterally to a great extent until the DEJ is reached. Force of 
mastication fracture the increasing amount of unsupported enamel as the caries progress 
so choice (4) is wrong. Destructive potential is due to acid formed by bacteria by 
degradation of carbohydrates 
so choice (1 & 2) also wrong. 
 
 
 
4. Which of the following is not true about lubricant for rubber dam placement? 
A. Should have water-miscible vehicle. 
B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
C. Should be easy to remove 
D. Should not interfere with bonding procedures. 
 
Ans B. Vaseline is an ideal choice. 
 
A water-soluble lubricant applied in the area of punched holes facilitates the proximal 
contacts. Rubber dam lubricant is commercially available but other lubricants, even as 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Having cream or soap slurry also satisfactory. Cocoa butter and petroleum jelly, these 
two are not satisfactory rubber dam lubricants because both are Oil based and not easily 
rinsed from dam once the dam is placed. 
 
5. Caries detection dye can stain the following, except: 
A. Granular narcotic tissue 
B. Dry, leathery dentin. 
C. Reversibly denatured collagen. 
D. Irreversibly denatured collagen. 
 
Ans  C. Reversibly denatured collagen. 
Affected dentin is softened, demineralized dentin that is not yet invaded by Bacterua 
(Zone 2 & 3) Infected dentin (Zone 4 & 5) is both softened contaminated with bacteria. 
It includes the superficial, granular necrotic tissue and softened, dry, lathery dentin. The 
outer layer (infected dentin) can be selectively stained by caries detection solutions such 
as 1% acid red 52 (acid rhodamine B or food red 106) in propylene glycol. This solution 
stains the irreversibly denatured collagen in the outer carious layer but not the reversibly 
denatured collagen in the inner carious layer. 
 
6)The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except: 
1)Femoral vein 
2)Inguinal ligament 
3)Femoral artery 
4)Lacunar ligament 
 
Ans 3)Femoral artery 
 
The femoral ring refers to the upper opening of the most medial compartment of the 
femoral sheath (femoral canal). The femoral artery occupies the lateral compartment and 
is separated from the femoral ring by an intermediate compartment, occupied by the 
femoral vein Boundaries of femoral ring: • Anteriorly by inguinal ligament • 
Medially by lacunar ligament (concave margin) • Posteriorly by pectinius and covering 
fascia • Laterally by septum separating it from femoral vein 
 
7)CSF pressure is mainly regulated by: 
1)Rate of CSF formation 
2)Rate of CSF absorption 
3)Cerebral blood flow 
4)Venous pressure 
 
Ans 2)Rate of CSF absorption 
Lumber CSF pressure is normally 70-180 mm CSF. Upto pressures well above this range, 
the rate of CSF formation is independent of intraventricular pressure. However, 
absorption, which takes place largely by bulk flow, is proportionate to the pressure. At a 
pressure of 112 mm CSF, which is the average normal CSF pressure, filtration and 
absorption are equal. 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
8) The secretions of which of the following hormones does not increase at 
night? 1)GH 
2)ACTH 
3)Melatonin 
4)Insulin 
 
Ans 4)Insulin 
 
In humans and all other species to date melatonin synthesis and secretion are increased 
during the dark period of the day and maintained at a low level during the daylight hours. 
ACTH is secreted in irregular bursts throughout the day, and plasma cortisol tends to rise 
and fall in response to these bursts. In humans, the burst are most frequent in the early 
morning. About 75% of the daily production of cortisol occurs between 4 a.m. and 10 
a.m. The bursts are least frequent in the evening. A spike in growth hormone secretion 
occurs with considerable regularity upon going to sleep, but the significance of the 
association between growth hormone and sleep is an enigma. Cleary option i.e. Insulin is 
the answer of exclusion. 
 
9) Which ion is most important for neurotransmitter 
release? 1)Sodium 
2)Chloride 
3)Calcium 
4)Potassium 
 
Ans 3)Calcium 
 
Ca2+ is the key to synaptic vesicle fusion and discharge. An action potential reaching the 
presynaptic terminal opens voltage gated Ca2+ channels, and the resulting Ca2+ influx 
triggers release. Na+ & K+ are involved in nerve conduction while Cl- is involved in 
inhibitory post synaptic potentials (IPSPs) 
 
10)The acrosome reaction occurs when the sperm: 
1)Enters the uterine cavity 
2)Comes in contact with zona pellucida 
3)Penetrates corona radiate 
4)Penetrates cell membrane of oocyte 
 
Ans 2)Comes in contact with zona pellucida 
 
Sperms bind to a sperm receptor in the zona, and this is followed by the acrosomal 
reaction, that is, the breakdown of the acrosome, the lyosome-like organelle on the head 
of the sperm 
 
11)Ubiquitin is involved in: 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
1)Intracellular proteolysis 
2)Electron transport chain 
3)Transport of ATP 
4)Protein folding 
 
Ans 1)Intracellular proteolysis 
 
In human body around 30% percent of protein is formed due to improperly folded protein 
or aged protein. Ubiquitin helps the conjugation these proteins to the 74-amino-acid 
polypeptide and starts the protein degradation and the process is named as ubiquitination 
or polyubiquitination. The process involves association of cellular protein, reticulum, 
proteasomes. 
 
12)Osteoclasts are inhibited by: 
1)Parathyroid hormone 
2)Calcitionin 
3)1.25 dihydroxycholecalciferol 
4)Tumor necrosis factor 
 
Ans 2)Calcitionin 
 
Calcitonin inhibits bone resorption by direct action on osteoclasts˜Calcitonin exerts its 
calcium lowering effect by inhibiting bone resorption. This action is direct, and calcitonin 
inhibits the activity of osteoclasts in vitro Hormones involved in calcium metabolism. 
 
13)True about G-protein coupled receptors is: 
1)G-proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface 
2)All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma bind each for y-protein to act. 
3)G-protein act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit 
4)G-protein is bound to GTP in resting state 
Ans 3)G-protein act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit G-
Protein coupled receptors (GPCR) are the largest super family of surface receptors. 
These receptors are integral membrane proteins characterized by an extra cellular ligand 
binding region, seven transmembrane helices, and an intracellular domain that interacts 
with G-proteins. The ligand binds to a site on the extra cellular portion of the receptors. 
Binding of the ligand to the receptors activates a G-protein associated with the 
cytoplasmic C-terminal. G-Proteins: G proteins are so-called because they bind the 
guanine nucleotides, GDP and GTP. They are heterotrimers (i.e. made of three different 
subunits). The three subunits are : o G? which carries the binding site for the nucleotide: 
at least 21 different kinds of ? molecules are found in mammalian cells. o G? o G? How 
they workIn the inactive state, G Protein has GDP bound to its G? subunit. When a 
hormone or other ligand binds to the associated GPCR, the GDP is exchange for GTP 
GTP activates G ? causing it to dissociate from G? G? (which remain linked to a dimer) 
which, in turn, activates adenylyl cyclase, an enzyme in the inner face of the plasma 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
TARGET MDS TEST SERIES waytotargetmds.com 
 
 
 
 
 
 
membrane, which catalyses the conversion of ATP into the œsecond messengercyclic 
AMP The beta and gamma subunit do not separate from each other, and G? G? dimer 
also activates a variety of effectors. The ability of a ligand to stimulate or inhibit the 
second messenger depends on the type of G-protein that is linked to the receptors. One 
face of G-proteins, designated Gs, is specific for stimulation of adenylyl cyclase; another 
family, designated Gi causes inhibition of the enzyme. These different actions of g- 
protiens are attributed to differential subunits: Gs contain ?s and Gi contains ?i. 
 
14)All are true about glutathione except: 
1)It is a tripeptide 
2)It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin 
3)It conjugates xenobiotics 
4)It scavenges free radicals and superoxide ions 
Ans 2)It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin 
Glutathione is involved in protection of cells and RBCs against oxidative stress. 
Glutathione (GSH) is a tri-peptide consisting of glutamic acid, cystiene and glycine. 
Functions : o Involved in conjugation with xenobiotics: makes them less oxidizing. o 
Participates in decomposition of H2O 2 catalyzed by glutathione peroxidase. o Is an 
important intracellular redundant helping to maintain essential SH groups of enzymes in 
their reduced state (e.g. In RBC & WBC). o Involved in transport of certain amino acids 
catalyzed by gamma glutamyl transferase. Helps cells counteract oxidative stress by 
counteracting oxidizing free radicals & H2O 2 ions. 
 
15)True about denaturation of proteins is all except: 
1)Unfolding occurs 
2)Disruption of secondary structure occurs 
3)Sequence of amino acids remains the same 
4)Biological activity is retained 
 
Ans 4)Biological activity is retained 
 
Denturation of proteins involves unfolding and disorganizations of the protein secondary 
and tertiary structure. Since denaturation reactions are not strong enough to break the 
peptide bonds, the primary structure (sequence of the amino acid) remains the same after 
a denaturation process. Denaturation disrupts the normal alpha helix and beta sheets in 
proteins and uncoils them into a random shape. Most biological proteins lose their 
biological function when denaturated. For example enzymes. Denaturation may, under 
ideal conditions, be reversible in which case the protein refolds into its original native 
structure when the denaturation agent is removed. However, most proteins, once 
denatured remain permanently disordered. 
 
16)Ketones cannot be utilized by: 
1)Brain 
2)Heart