West Bengal: State Level Question Paper (SAT) - 2017-18 | NTSE for Class 10 PDF Download

 Page 1


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2017-18 
(STATE LEVEL-STAGE1) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
Enrollment No. :  Batch : 
 
Name :  
 
 
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:   
Page 2


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2017-18 
(STATE LEVEL-STAGE1) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
Enrollment No. :  Batch : 
 
Name :  
 
 
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:   
        
     
       
 
MATHEMATICS 
1. If ax
2
 + bx + c = a (x – p)
2
, the relation among a, b and c is  
(a) abc = 1  (b) 2b = a + c  (c) b
2
 = ac  (d) b
2
 = 4ac 
2. 
The identity ? ?
2
x 4 x 4 ? ? ? is possible, when 
(a) x4 ??  (b) x4 ??  (c) x 16 ??  (d) Not possible 
3. The number of real roots of the quadratic equation 3x
2
 + 4 = 0 
(a) 0   (b) 2   (c) 1   (d) 4 
4. The solution of the equation 9
x
 + 6
x
 = 2.4
x
 is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) ? 2   (d) – 1 
5. If f(x) = 2x
2
 – 3x + 4, the value of f(x) + f(-x) is  
(a) 4   (b) 6   (c) 0   (d) 8 
6. 
If 
2 2 2
x y z
2,
by cz cz ax ax by
? ? ?
? ? ?
 the value of 
c b a
2c z 2b y 2a x
??
? ? ?
is  
(a) 2   (b) 
1
2
   (c) 4   (d) 
1
4
 
7. If log 4[log 4 {log 4 (log 4 x)}] = 0, ‘x’ is equal to  
(a) 256   (b) 4
16  
 (c) 2
512 
  (d) 256
4
 
8. 
If x
2
 + y
2
 = z
2
, the value of 
z y z y
11
log x log
??
? is  
(a) x   (b) y   (c) x + y   (d) 2 
9. If (x + 2) and (2x – 1)k are factors of (2x
3
 + ax
2
 + bx + 10), the value of (a
2
 + b
2
 is  
(a) 338   (b) 218   (c) 74   (d) 198 
10. 
If a + b = 2c, the value of 
ab
a c b c
?
??
is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) 2   (d) – 1 
11. The compound interest for two years of the amount Rs. 7,500 at the rate of 8% per annum would be  
(a) Rs. 1,248  (b) Rs.1,260  (c) Rs. 1,300  (d) Rs. 1,352 
12. A businessman fixed the selling price of an article after increasing the cost price by 40%. The he 
allowed his customer a discount of 20% and gained Rs. 48. The cost price of the article is  
(a) Rs. 200  (b) Rs. 248  (c) Rs. 400  (d) Rs. 448 
13. The curved surface area of a riaght cicular cylinder and that of a sphere are equal. If their radii are 
equal, the ratio of their volume is  
(a) 3 : 2   (b) 2 : 3   (c) 3 : 4   (d) 4 : 3 
14. The sum of the length, breadth and height of a rectangular parallelopiped is 25 cm and its whole surface: area 
is 264 sq. cm. The area of the square whose sides are equal to the length of the diagonal of that parallelopiped 
is 
(a) 256 sq. cm.  (b) 361 sq. cm  (c) 225 sq. cm  (d) 324 sq. cm 
15. The radii of two circles with centre at A and B are 11 cm and 6 cm respectively. If PQ is the 
common tangent of the circles and AB = 13 cm, length of PQ is  
(a) 13 cm  (b) 12 cm  (c) 17 cm  (d) 8.5 cm 
16. The chords PQ and RS of a circle are extended to meet at the point O. If PQ = 6 cm, OQ = 8 cm, OS 
= 7 cm, then RS = 
(a) 12 cm  (b) 9 cm  (c) 10 cm  (d) 16 cm 
17. ABC is a right angled triangle and AD is perpendicular to the hypotenuse BC. If AC = 2AB, then BC 
= 
(a) 2BD   (b) BD   (c) 5 BD  (d) 4 BD 
18. (x + 2), x and (x – 1) are the frequencies of the numbers 12, 15 and 20 respectively. If the mean of 
the distribution is 14.5, the value of x is 
(a) 2   (b) 3   (c) 4   (d) 5 
19. 
If two angle of a triangle are 87
o
 24 ? 54?? and 
o
32 31 6 , ? ? ? the third angle is  
(a) 
6
?
   (b) 
2
?
   (c) 
3
?
   (d) 
4
?
 
Page 3


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2017-18 
(STATE LEVEL-STAGE1) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
Enrollment No. :  Batch : 
 
Name :  
 
 
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:   
        
     
       
 
MATHEMATICS 
1. If ax
2
 + bx + c = a (x – p)
2
, the relation among a, b and c is  
(a) abc = 1  (b) 2b = a + c  (c) b
2
 = ac  (d) b
2
 = 4ac 
2. 
The identity ? ?
2
x 4 x 4 ? ? ? is possible, when 
(a) x4 ??  (b) x4 ??  (c) x 16 ??  (d) Not possible 
3. The number of real roots of the quadratic equation 3x
2
 + 4 = 0 
(a) 0   (b) 2   (c) 1   (d) 4 
4. The solution of the equation 9
x
 + 6
x
 = 2.4
x
 is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) ? 2   (d) – 1 
5. If f(x) = 2x
2
 – 3x + 4, the value of f(x) + f(-x) is  
(a) 4   (b) 6   (c) 0   (d) 8 
6. 
If 
2 2 2
x y z
2,
by cz cz ax ax by
? ? ?
? ? ?
 the value of 
c b a
2c z 2b y 2a x
??
? ? ?
is  
(a) 2   (b) 
1
2
   (c) 4   (d) 
1
4
 
7. If log 4[log 4 {log 4 (log 4 x)}] = 0, ‘x’ is equal to  
(a) 256   (b) 4
16  
 (c) 2
512 
  (d) 256
4
 
8. 
If x
2
 + y
2
 = z
2
, the value of 
z y z y
11
log x log
??
? is  
(a) x   (b) y   (c) x + y   (d) 2 
9. If (x + 2) and (2x – 1)k are factors of (2x
3
 + ax
2
 + bx + 10), the value of (a
2
 + b
2
 is  
(a) 338   (b) 218   (c) 74   (d) 198 
10. 
If a + b = 2c, the value of 
ab
a c b c
?
??
is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) 2   (d) – 1 
11. The compound interest for two years of the amount Rs. 7,500 at the rate of 8% per annum would be  
(a) Rs. 1,248  (b) Rs.1,260  (c) Rs. 1,300  (d) Rs. 1,352 
12. A businessman fixed the selling price of an article after increasing the cost price by 40%. The he 
allowed his customer a discount of 20% and gained Rs. 48. The cost price of the article is  
(a) Rs. 200  (b) Rs. 248  (c) Rs. 400  (d) Rs. 448 
13. The curved surface area of a riaght cicular cylinder and that of a sphere are equal. If their radii are 
equal, the ratio of their volume is  
(a) 3 : 2   (b) 2 : 3   (c) 3 : 4   (d) 4 : 3 
14. The sum of the length, breadth and height of a rectangular parallelopiped is 25 cm and its whole surface: area 
is 264 sq. cm. The area of the square whose sides are equal to the length of the diagonal of that parallelopiped 
is 
(a) 256 sq. cm.  (b) 361 sq. cm  (c) 225 sq. cm  (d) 324 sq. cm 
15. The radii of two circles with centre at A and B are 11 cm and 6 cm respectively. If PQ is the 
common tangent of the circles and AB = 13 cm, length of PQ is  
(a) 13 cm  (b) 12 cm  (c) 17 cm  (d) 8.5 cm 
16. The chords PQ and RS of a circle are extended to meet at the point O. If PQ = 6 cm, OQ = 8 cm, OS 
= 7 cm, then RS = 
(a) 12 cm  (b) 9 cm  (c) 10 cm  (d) 16 cm 
17. ABC is a right angled triangle and AD is perpendicular to the hypotenuse BC. If AC = 2AB, then BC 
= 
(a) 2BD   (b) BD   (c) 5 BD  (d) 4 BD 
18. (x + 2), x and (x – 1) are the frequencies of the numbers 12, 15 and 20 respectively. If the mean of 
the distribution is 14.5, the value of x is 
(a) 2   (b) 3   (c) 4   (d) 5 
19. 
If two angle of a triangle are 87
o
 24 ? 54?? and 
o
32 31 6 , ? ? ? the third angle is  
(a) 
6
?
   (b) 
2
?
   (c) 
3
?
   (d) 
4
?
 
        
     
       
 
20. 
If 
33
xsin ycos sin cos ? ? ? ? ? ? and xsin ycos 0, ? ? ? ? the value of x
2
 + y
2
 is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) 
1
2
   (d) 
1
3
 
 
PHYSICS 
 
21. Two particles of masses m 1 and m 2 are allowed to fall freely from height h 1 and h 2. They reach the 
ground at time t 1 and t 2 respectively. Then, 
(a) 
11
22
th
th
?  (b) 
12
21
th
th
?  (c) 
22
11
th
th
?  (d) 
21
12
th
th
? 
22. Position of a particle moving along x – axis is given by x = 3t – 4t
2
 + t
3
, where x is in metre 
and t is in second. Find the average velocity of the particle in the time interval from t = 2 
second to t = 4 second 
(a) 7 m/s  (b) 1 m/s  (c) 13 m/s  (d) 5 m/s  
23. A lightwave of certain frequency moves from air to glass, then its 
(a) Wavelength does not change   
(b) Frequency does not change but wavelength changes 
(c) Frequency changes 
(d) Frequency and wavelength both change 
24. In an atomic reactor, which of the following is used as fuel? 
(a) H
1
   (b) H
2
   (c) D2O  (d) U
235
 
25. The linear momentum p of a body having mass m is given by 
(a) 2me  (b) 
2
E
p
m
?
?
  
(c) 
2
?
m
p
E
  (d) 
2
2
?
E
p
m
 
 
 
26. What is the equivalent resistance between any two opposite comer points of a quadrilateral, if the 
sides of the quadrilateral are of equal resistance R? 
(a) 3 R  (b) 2 R 
(c) R (d) 
2
3
R
 
27. Two electrodes are maintained at a potential difference of 50V. An electron moving from cathode 
to anode gains kinetic energy equal to 
(a) 50 x 10
-19
 erg  (b) 50 Joule 
(c) 80 x 10
-19
 Joule (d) 80 erg 
28. What will be the power consumed by a 50 ? wire if it is kept across a potential difference of 200 
V? 
(a) 0.8 KW  (b) 80 KW 
(c) 400 W (d) 0.4 KW 
 
 
29. The 
232
90
Th atom undergoes successive  ? and ? decays to the end product  
208
82
Pb .The 
number of ? and ?  particles emitted in the process respectively are 
(a) 4,6  (b) 4,4 
(c) 6,6 (d) 6,4 
 
30. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. If its amplitude of vibration increases by 20%, what 
will be the increase of its total mechanical energy? 
(a) 44%  (b) 21% 
(c) 20% (d) 10% 
 
 
Page 4


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2017-18 
(STATE LEVEL-STAGE1) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
Enrollment No. :  Batch : 
 
Name :  
 
 
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:   
        
     
       
 
MATHEMATICS 
1. If ax
2
 + bx + c = a (x – p)
2
, the relation among a, b and c is  
(a) abc = 1  (b) 2b = a + c  (c) b
2
 = ac  (d) b
2
 = 4ac 
2. 
The identity ? ?
2
x 4 x 4 ? ? ? is possible, when 
(a) x4 ??  (b) x4 ??  (c) x 16 ??  (d) Not possible 
3. The number of real roots of the quadratic equation 3x
2
 + 4 = 0 
(a) 0   (b) 2   (c) 1   (d) 4 
4. The solution of the equation 9
x
 + 6
x
 = 2.4
x
 is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) ? 2   (d) – 1 
5. If f(x) = 2x
2
 – 3x + 4, the value of f(x) + f(-x) is  
(a) 4   (b) 6   (c) 0   (d) 8 
6. 
If 
2 2 2
x y z
2,
by cz cz ax ax by
? ? ?
? ? ?
 the value of 
c b a
2c z 2b y 2a x
??
? ? ?
is  
(a) 2   (b) 
1
2
   (c) 4   (d) 
1
4
 
7. If log 4[log 4 {log 4 (log 4 x)}] = 0, ‘x’ is equal to  
(a) 256   (b) 4
16  
 (c) 2
512 
  (d) 256
4
 
8. 
If x
2
 + y
2
 = z
2
, the value of 
z y z y
11
log x log
??
? is  
(a) x   (b) y   (c) x + y   (d) 2 
9. If (x + 2) and (2x – 1)k are factors of (2x
3
 + ax
2
 + bx + 10), the value of (a
2
 + b
2
 is  
(a) 338   (b) 218   (c) 74   (d) 198 
10. 
If a + b = 2c, the value of 
ab
a c b c
?
??
is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) 2   (d) – 1 
11. The compound interest for two years of the amount Rs. 7,500 at the rate of 8% per annum would be  
(a) Rs. 1,248  (b) Rs.1,260  (c) Rs. 1,300  (d) Rs. 1,352 
12. A businessman fixed the selling price of an article after increasing the cost price by 40%. The he 
allowed his customer a discount of 20% and gained Rs. 48. The cost price of the article is  
(a) Rs. 200  (b) Rs. 248  (c) Rs. 400  (d) Rs. 448 
13. The curved surface area of a riaght cicular cylinder and that of a sphere are equal. If their radii are 
equal, the ratio of their volume is  
(a) 3 : 2   (b) 2 : 3   (c) 3 : 4   (d) 4 : 3 
14. The sum of the length, breadth and height of a rectangular parallelopiped is 25 cm and its whole surface: area 
is 264 sq. cm. The area of the square whose sides are equal to the length of the diagonal of that parallelopiped 
is 
(a) 256 sq. cm.  (b) 361 sq. cm  (c) 225 sq. cm  (d) 324 sq. cm 
15. The radii of two circles with centre at A and B are 11 cm and 6 cm respectively. If PQ is the 
common tangent of the circles and AB = 13 cm, length of PQ is  
(a) 13 cm  (b) 12 cm  (c) 17 cm  (d) 8.5 cm 
16. The chords PQ and RS of a circle are extended to meet at the point O. If PQ = 6 cm, OQ = 8 cm, OS 
= 7 cm, then RS = 
(a) 12 cm  (b) 9 cm  (c) 10 cm  (d) 16 cm 
17. ABC is a right angled triangle and AD is perpendicular to the hypotenuse BC. If AC = 2AB, then BC 
= 
(a) 2BD   (b) BD   (c) 5 BD  (d) 4 BD 
18. (x + 2), x and (x – 1) are the frequencies of the numbers 12, 15 and 20 respectively. If the mean of 
the distribution is 14.5, the value of x is 
(a) 2   (b) 3   (c) 4   (d) 5 
19. 
If two angle of a triangle are 87
o
 24 ? 54?? and 
o
32 31 6 , ? ? ? the third angle is  
(a) 
6
?
   (b) 
2
?
   (c) 
3
?
   (d) 
4
?
 
        
     
       
 
20. 
If 
33
xsin ycos sin cos ? ? ? ? ? ? and xsin ycos 0, ? ? ? ? the value of x
2
 + y
2
 is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) 
1
2
   (d) 
1
3
 
 
PHYSICS 
 
21. Two particles of masses m 1 and m 2 are allowed to fall freely from height h 1 and h 2. They reach the 
ground at time t 1 and t 2 respectively. Then, 
(a) 
11
22
th
th
?  (b) 
12
21
th
th
?  (c) 
22
11
th
th
?  (d) 
21
12
th
th
? 
22. Position of a particle moving along x – axis is given by x = 3t – 4t
2
 + t
3
, where x is in metre 
and t is in second. Find the average velocity of the particle in the time interval from t = 2 
second to t = 4 second 
(a) 7 m/s  (b) 1 m/s  (c) 13 m/s  (d) 5 m/s  
23. A lightwave of certain frequency moves from air to glass, then its 
(a) Wavelength does not change   
(b) Frequency does not change but wavelength changes 
(c) Frequency changes 
(d) Frequency and wavelength both change 
24. In an atomic reactor, which of the following is used as fuel? 
(a) H
1
   (b) H
2
   (c) D2O  (d) U
235
 
25. The linear momentum p of a body having mass m is given by 
(a) 2me  (b) 
2
E
p
m
?
?
  
(c) 
2
?
m
p
E
  (d) 
2
2
?
E
p
m
 
 
 
26. What is the equivalent resistance between any two opposite comer points of a quadrilateral, if the 
sides of the quadrilateral are of equal resistance R? 
(a) 3 R  (b) 2 R 
(c) R (d) 
2
3
R
 
27. Two electrodes are maintained at a potential difference of 50V. An electron moving from cathode 
to anode gains kinetic energy equal to 
(a) 50 x 10
-19
 erg  (b) 50 Joule 
(c) 80 x 10
-19
 Joule (d) 80 erg 
28. What will be the power consumed by a 50 ? wire if it is kept across a potential difference of 200 
V? 
(a) 0.8 KW  (b) 80 KW 
(c) 400 W (d) 0.4 KW 
 
 
29. The 
232
90
Th atom undergoes successive  ? and ? decays to the end product  
208
82
Pb .The 
number of ? and ?  particles emitted in the process respectively are 
(a) 4,6  (b) 4,4 
(c) 6,6 (d) 6,4 
 
30. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. If its amplitude of vibration increases by 20%, what 
will be the increase of its total mechanical energy? 
(a) 44%  (b) 21% 
(c) 20% (d) 10% 
 
 
        
     
       
 
31. When a body is orbiting near the surface of the earth, what will be the ratio of its orbital velocity to 
the escape velocity from earth? 
(a) 
1: 2  
(b) 
2 :1 
(c) 
2 :1 
(d) 
1:2 
 
32. How many times is the root mean square velocity of hydrogen gas molecules compared to the root 
mean square velocity of oxygen molecules? [Conditions remaining same] 
(a) 16  (b) 8 
(c) 4 (d) 2 
 
33. For a definite colour of light, absolute refractive index of water is 4/3 and absolute refractive index 
of glass is 3/2, then what will be the refractive index of glass with respect to water ? 
(a) 1.125  (b) 1.33 
(c) 1.56 (d) 2 
 
CHEMISTRY 
 
34. Chlorine atom does not differ from the Chloride ion in which of the following context? 
(a) Electron  (b) Volume  (c) Proton  (d) Chemical reactivity 
35. Which one of the following statements is applicable regarding the number of bonds and the nature of  
bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC 2 compound? 
(a) One Sigma (s) bond and one Pi (p) bond. 
(b) One Sigma (s) bond and two Pi (p) bonds. 
(c) One Sigma (s) bond and one and half Pi (p) bonds.  
(d) One Sigma bond. 
 
36. 10
-3
 mole of KOH is added to 10 litres of pure water at 25°C. The pH will change by (assume no 
change in volume occurs) 
(a) 3   (b) 4   (c) 7   (d) 11 
 
37. Formula of a metallic oxide is M 2O 3. Upon reduction with hydrogen the metallic oxide gives pure 
metal and water. 0.112 gm metal is produced by 6 mg of hydrogen after complete reduction. Atomic  
mass of the metal is 
(a) 28   (b) 160   (c) 56   (d) 8 
 
38. Which of the following group below represents a set of isoeletronic species 
(a) N
3-
, F
-
,Na
+  
(b)  Na
+
, Ca
2+, 
Mg
2+ 
(c) Be, AI
3+
, Cl
-  
(d) K
+
 , Na
+ 
, Al
 
 
39. Concentrated aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is used for separation of pairs of radicals  
(a) Al
3+
 and Sn
2+
  (b) Al
3+
 and Fe
3+
 (c) Al
3+
 and Zn
2+
 (d) Mg
2+
 and Pb
2+ 
 
40. 10 ml of an aqueous solution contains 222 mg dissolved CaCl 2 (molecular weight = 111). What will 
be the concentration of  chloride ion in the resulting solution when it is diluted to 100 ml? 
(a) 0.02 Mole/Lit (b) 0.01 Mole/Lit (c) 0.04 Mole/Lit (d) 2.0 Mole/Lit  
 
41. Among Ethanol, Dimethyl ether, Methanol and Propanal the isomers are  
(a) Ethanol, Dimethyl ether, Methanol and Propanal  
(b) Ethanol and Methanol 
(c) Ethanol and Dimethyl ether 
(d) Ethanol and Propanal 
 
42. Which molecule of the following compounds  contain formyl radical? 
(a) Acetone   (b) Acetaldehyde (c) Acetic Acid (d) Acetic anhydribe 
 
 
 
Page 5


     
        
 
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION, 2017-18 
(STATE LEVEL-STAGE1) 
(FOR STUDENTS STUDYING IN CLASS X) 
SAT QUESTION 
 
Time: 1 Hrs.     Full Marks: 100 
 
 
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 
  
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 Read the instructions carefully before you start answering the questions. Answers are to be given on a OMR Answer-
Sheet provided. 
 
1. In this Paper you are to answer 100 questions. Each questions carries 1 (one) mark. You are to answer all the 
questions. 
 
2. Before you proceed to mark in the OMR answer-Sheet, find out the correct answer from the four alternatives (a), (b), (c) 
and (d) against each question in the Question Booklet. Darken the circle with a Black Ball Point Pen, to the 
corresponding correct answer for the item in the OMR Answer-Sheet. (Here ‘b’ is the correct answer.) 
 
3. If more than one circle is encoded or darken against a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer. 
 
4. There will be no penalty marks or negative marking for a wrong answer. 
 
5. You are to start recording answers with the ‘start’ instruction from the Officer-in-Charge of your room/hall. 
 
6. You are to write your Name and Roll No. in the space provided with for this purpose on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You 
must encode your Roll No. in OMR Answer Sheet. 
 
7. The OMR Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall. You may take 
away the used Question Booklet after completion of the examination. 
 
 
 
Enrollment No. :  Batch : 
 
Name :  
 
 
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:   
        
     
       
 
MATHEMATICS 
1. If ax
2
 + bx + c = a (x – p)
2
, the relation among a, b and c is  
(a) abc = 1  (b) 2b = a + c  (c) b
2
 = ac  (d) b
2
 = 4ac 
2. 
The identity ? ?
2
x 4 x 4 ? ? ? is possible, when 
(a) x4 ??  (b) x4 ??  (c) x 16 ??  (d) Not possible 
3. The number of real roots of the quadratic equation 3x
2
 + 4 = 0 
(a) 0   (b) 2   (c) 1   (d) 4 
4. The solution of the equation 9
x
 + 6
x
 = 2.4
x
 is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) ? 2   (d) – 1 
5. If f(x) = 2x
2
 – 3x + 4, the value of f(x) + f(-x) is  
(a) 4   (b) 6   (c) 0   (d) 8 
6. 
If 
2 2 2
x y z
2,
by cz cz ax ax by
? ? ?
? ? ?
 the value of 
c b a
2c z 2b y 2a x
??
? ? ?
is  
(a) 2   (b) 
1
2
   (c) 4   (d) 
1
4
 
7. If log 4[log 4 {log 4 (log 4 x)}] = 0, ‘x’ is equal to  
(a) 256   (b) 4
16  
 (c) 2
512 
  (d) 256
4
 
8. 
If x
2
 + y
2
 = z
2
, the value of 
z y z y
11
log x log
??
? is  
(a) x   (b) y   (c) x + y   (d) 2 
9. If (x + 2) and (2x – 1)k are factors of (2x
3
 + ax
2
 + bx + 10), the value of (a
2
 + b
2
 is  
(a) 338   (b) 218   (c) 74   (d) 198 
10. 
If a + b = 2c, the value of 
ab
a c b c
?
??
is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) 2   (d) – 1 
11. The compound interest for two years of the amount Rs. 7,500 at the rate of 8% per annum would be  
(a) Rs. 1,248  (b) Rs.1,260  (c) Rs. 1,300  (d) Rs. 1,352 
12. A businessman fixed the selling price of an article after increasing the cost price by 40%. The he 
allowed his customer a discount of 20% and gained Rs. 48. The cost price of the article is  
(a) Rs. 200  (b) Rs. 248  (c) Rs. 400  (d) Rs. 448 
13. The curved surface area of a riaght cicular cylinder and that of a sphere are equal. If their radii are 
equal, the ratio of their volume is  
(a) 3 : 2   (b) 2 : 3   (c) 3 : 4   (d) 4 : 3 
14. The sum of the length, breadth and height of a rectangular parallelopiped is 25 cm and its whole surface: area 
is 264 sq. cm. The area of the square whose sides are equal to the length of the diagonal of that parallelopiped 
is 
(a) 256 sq. cm.  (b) 361 sq. cm  (c) 225 sq. cm  (d) 324 sq. cm 
15. The radii of two circles with centre at A and B are 11 cm and 6 cm respectively. If PQ is the 
common tangent of the circles and AB = 13 cm, length of PQ is  
(a) 13 cm  (b) 12 cm  (c) 17 cm  (d) 8.5 cm 
16. The chords PQ and RS of a circle are extended to meet at the point O. If PQ = 6 cm, OQ = 8 cm, OS 
= 7 cm, then RS = 
(a) 12 cm  (b) 9 cm  (c) 10 cm  (d) 16 cm 
17. ABC is a right angled triangle and AD is perpendicular to the hypotenuse BC. If AC = 2AB, then BC 
= 
(a) 2BD   (b) BD   (c) 5 BD  (d) 4 BD 
18. (x + 2), x and (x – 1) are the frequencies of the numbers 12, 15 and 20 respectively. If the mean of 
the distribution is 14.5, the value of x is 
(a) 2   (b) 3   (c) 4   (d) 5 
19. 
If two angle of a triangle are 87
o
 24 ? 54?? and 
o
32 31 6 , ? ? ? the third angle is  
(a) 
6
?
   (b) 
2
?
   (c) 
3
?
   (d) 
4
?
 
        
     
       
 
20. 
If 
33
xsin ycos sin cos ? ? ? ? ? ? and xsin ycos 0, ? ? ? ? the value of x
2
 + y
2
 is  
(a) 0   (b) 1   (c) 
1
2
   (d) 
1
3
 
 
PHYSICS 
 
21. Two particles of masses m 1 and m 2 are allowed to fall freely from height h 1 and h 2. They reach the 
ground at time t 1 and t 2 respectively. Then, 
(a) 
11
22
th
th
?  (b) 
12
21
th
th
?  (c) 
22
11
th
th
?  (d) 
21
12
th
th
? 
22. Position of a particle moving along x – axis is given by x = 3t – 4t
2
 + t
3
, where x is in metre 
and t is in second. Find the average velocity of the particle in the time interval from t = 2 
second to t = 4 second 
(a) 7 m/s  (b) 1 m/s  (c) 13 m/s  (d) 5 m/s  
23. A lightwave of certain frequency moves from air to glass, then its 
(a) Wavelength does not change   
(b) Frequency does not change but wavelength changes 
(c) Frequency changes 
(d) Frequency and wavelength both change 
24. In an atomic reactor, which of the following is used as fuel? 
(a) H
1
   (b) H
2
   (c) D2O  (d) U
235
 
25. The linear momentum p of a body having mass m is given by 
(a) 2me  (b) 
2
E
p
m
?
?
  
(c) 
2
?
m
p
E
  (d) 
2
2
?
E
p
m
 
 
 
26. What is the equivalent resistance between any two opposite comer points of a quadrilateral, if the 
sides of the quadrilateral are of equal resistance R? 
(a) 3 R  (b) 2 R 
(c) R (d) 
2
3
R
 
27. Two electrodes are maintained at a potential difference of 50V. An electron moving from cathode 
to anode gains kinetic energy equal to 
(a) 50 x 10
-19
 erg  (b) 50 Joule 
(c) 80 x 10
-19
 Joule (d) 80 erg 
28. What will be the power consumed by a 50 ? wire if it is kept across a potential difference of 200 
V? 
(a) 0.8 KW  (b) 80 KW 
(c) 400 W (d) 0.4 KW 
 
 
29. The 
232
90
Th atom undergoes successive  ? and ? decays to the end product  
208
82
Pb .The 
number of ? and ?  particles emitted in the process respectively are 
(a) 4,6  (b) 4,4 
(c) 6,6 (d) 6,4 
 
30. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. If its amplitude of vibration increases by 20%, what 
will be the increase of its total mechanical energy? 
(a) 44%  (b) 21% 
(c) 20% (d) 10% 
 
 
        
     
       
 
31. When a body is orbiting near the surface of the earth, what will be the ratio of its orbital velocity to 
the escape velocity from earth? 
(a) 
1: 2  
(b) 
2 :1 
(c) 
2 :1 
(d) 
1:2 
 
32. How many times is the root mean square velocity of hydrogen gas molecules compared to the root 
mean square velocity of oxygen molecules? [Conditions remaining same] 
(a) 16  (b) 8 
(c) 4 (d) 2 
 
33. For a definite colour of light, absolute refractive index of water is 4/3 and absolute refractive index 
of glass is 3/2, then what will be the refractive index of glass with respect to water ? 
(a) 1.125  (b) 1.33 
(c) 1.56 (d) 2 
 
CHEMISTRY 
 
34. Chlorine atom does not differ from the Chloride ion in which of the following context? 
(a) Electron  (b) Volume  (c) Proton  (d) Chemical reactivity 
35. Which one of the following statements is applicable regarding the number of bonds and the nature of  
bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC 2 compound? 
(a) One Sigma (s) bond and one Pi (p) bond. 
(b) One Sigma (s) bond and two Pi (p) bonds. 
(c) One Sigma (s) bond and one and half Pi (p) bonds.  
(d) One Sigma bond. 
 
36. 10
-3
 mole of KOH is added to 10 litres of pure water at 25°C. The pH will change by (assume no 
change in volume occurs) 
(a) 3   (b) 4   (c) 7   (d) 11 
 
37. Formula of a metallic oxide is M 2O 3. Upon reduction with hydrogen the metallic oxide gives pure 
metal and water. 0.112 gm metal is produced by 6 mg of hydrogen after complete reduction. Atomic  
mass of the metal is 
(a) 28   (b) 160   (c) 56   (d) 8 
 
38. Which of the following group below represents a set of isoeletronic species 
(a) N
3-
, F
-
,Na
+  
(b)  Na
+
, Ca
2+, 
Mg
2+ 
(c) Be, AI
3+
, Cl
-  
(d) K
+
 , Na
+ 
, Al
 
 
39. Concentrated aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is used for separation of pairs of radicals  
(a) Al
3+
 and Sn
2+
  (b) Al
3+
 and Fe
3+
 (c) Al
3+
 and Zn
2+
 (d) Mg
2+
 and Pb
2+ 
 
40. 10 ml of an aqueous solution contains 222 mg dissolved CaCl 2 (molecular weight = 111). What will 
be the concentration of  chloride ion in the resulting solution when it is diluted to 100 ml? 
(a) 0.02 Mole/Lit (b) 0.01 Mole/Lit (c) 0.04 Mole/Lit (d) 2.0 Mole/Lit  
 
41. Among Ethanol, Dimethyl ether, Methanol and Propanal the isomers are  
(a) Ethanol, Dimethyl ether, Methanol and Propanal  
(b) Ethanol and Methanol 
(c) Ethanol and Dimethyl ether 
(d) Ethanol and Propanal 
 
42. Which molecule of the following compounds  contain formyl radical? 
(a) Acetone   (b) Acetaldehyde (c) Acetic Acid (d) Acetic anhydribe 
 
 
 
        
     
       
 
 
43. The quantity of oxygen required for complete combustion of 1 mole of an organic compound 
C XH YO Z is  
(a) 
Y
X
2
??
?
??
??
moles    (b) 
Y
X
4
??
?
??
??
 moles  
(c) 
YZ
X
42
??
??
??
??
moles   (d) (X + Y + Z) moles 
 
44. Which of the following pairs have identical values of e/m ? 
(a) A proton and a neutron    (b) A deuterium and an ? particle  
(c) An electron and ? rays   (d) A proton and a deuterium   
 
45. 
A
2 2 2
CH CH H CH CH ? ? ? ? ? ? ‘A’ in this reaction  
(a) Ni/250
o
C     (b) Raney Ni/Normal temperature  
(c) Pd/BaSO 4 Quinoline   (d) Pd/Normal temperature    
 
46. Container made of Copper metal on exposure to air longtime turns green. The green layer is due to 
(a) CuO     (b) CuCO 3, Cu(OH) 2  
(c) CuSO 4, 3Cu(OH) 2    (d) All of the above  
 
BIOLOGY 
47. During ventricular systole  
(a) Atrial systole occur    
(b) The atrio-ventricular valves are closed  
(c) The pressure inside the ventricles is less then atria  
(d) The mitral valve is closed  
 
48 Match the words in column I with those which are most appropriate in column II. 
  Column – I   Column – II 
(a) Karyokinesis  1. Meiocytes  
(b) Cytokinesis  2. Plant cell 
(c) Meiosis 3. Nuclear division 
(d) Cell plate 4. Cytoplasmic division 
 (a) a = 1, b = 2, c = 3, d = 4   (b) a = 2, b = 1 , c = 4 , d = 3 
(c) a = 3, b = 4, c = 1, d = 2   (d) a = 4, b = 3 , c = 2 , d = 1  
 
49. Exine and intine are the parts of 
(a) Stigma  (b) Seed  (c) Embryo sac  (d) Pollen grain 
 
50. Transpiration will be fastest when the day is 
(a) cool, windy and humid   (b) hot, humid and windy 
(c) hot, dry and windy    (d) hot, humid and still wind 
 
51. A basket of vegetables contains carrot, potato, tomato and radish. Which of them represent the 
correct homologous structures? 
(a) carrot and radish     (b) carrot and tomato     
(c) tomato and radish      (d) potato and tomato  
 
52. What type of teeth are: absent in case of baby? 
(a) Incisor   (b) Canine  (c) Pre-molar  (d) Molar 
 
53. Then ATP is converted into ADP, it releases  
(a) Hormone   (b) Secretion   (c) Enzyme   (d) Energy