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 Page 1


 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
QUESTION 
Section A: Q.1 – Q.10 Carry ONE mark each. 
 
1. Which of the following is involved in innate 
immune response in higher mammals? 
(A) T cell antigen receptor 
(B) B cell antigen receptor 
(C) Toll-like receptor 
(D) Major histocompatibility complex-II molecule 
 
2.  Which among the following belongs to the family 
“Retroviridae”? 
(A) Human Immunodeficiency virus 
(B) Ebola virus 
(C) Dengue virus 
(D) Influenza virus 
 
3.  Which of the following is a glycolipid? 
(A) Cerebroside 
(B) Phosphatidylcholine 
(C) Phosphatidylserine 
(D) Cardiolipin 
 
4.  Which of the following bacterial component 
contains “dipicolinic acid”? 
(A) Endospore 
(B) Capsule 
(C) Flagella 
(D) Pili 
 
5.  The fossilization process in which mineral rich 
water penetrates through the pores of 
decomposed organic matter is known as _____. 
(A) Carbonization 
(B) Chemical fossilization 
(C) Petrifaction 
(D) Microfossilization 
 
6.  A random fluctuation in gene frequency is called 
(A) Genetic drift 
(B) Genetic load 
(C) Panmixis 
(D) Genetic shift 
 
7.  The number of “Barr Bodies” present in a somatic 
cell of a woman suffering from Turner syndrome 
is ____. 
(A) 0 
(B) 1 
(C) 2 
(D) 3 
8.  Which of the following are produced by Mangrove 
trees to survive in the waterlogged swampy 
forests? 
(A) Trichomes 
(B) Pneumatophores 
(C) Spermatophores 
(D) Cambia 
 
9.  Indeterminate growth in plants is due to the 
presence of perpetually undifferentiated tissues, 
called as ______. 
(A) Tracheids 
(B) Meristems 
(C) Parenchyma 
(D) Sclerenchyma 
 
10. The osmotic potential (?) of pure water is _____ 
MPa. 
(A) -1 
(B) 0 
(C) 0.1 
(D) 10 
 
Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each. 
 
11.  Bacteria containing a tuft of flagella that comes 
out from one pole is called ___. 
(A) Lophotrichous 
(B) Peritrichous 
(C) Monotrichous 
(D) Amphitrichous 
 
12. Which of the following activity is associated with 
Klenow fragment? 
(A) 5'-3' exonuclease activity 
(B) 5'-3' endonuclease activity 
(C) Polymerase activity 
(D) 3'-5' endonuclease activity 
 
13. A frameshift mutation is caused by ____. 
(A) 5-Bromouracil 
(B) Acridine 
(C) Glutathione 
(D) Hypoxanthine 
 
14. The zone of a pond system where respiration is 
more than production is called as _____. 
(A) Limnetic zone  (B) Littoral zone 
(C) Epilimnion zone  (D) Benthic zone 
 
Page 2


 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
QUESTION 
Section A: Q.1 – Q.10 Carry ONE mark each. 
 
1. Which of the following is involved in innate 
immune response in higher mammals? 
(A) T cell antigen receptor 
(B) B cell antigen receptor 
(C) Toll-like receptor 
(D) Major histocompatibility complex-II molecule 
 
2.  Which among the following belongs to the family 
“Retroviridae”? 
(A) Human Immunodeficiency virus 
(B) Ebola virus 
(C) Dengue virus 
(D) Influenza virus 
 
3.  Which of the following is a glycolipid? 
(A) Cerebroside 
(B) Phosphatidylcholine 
(C) Phosphatidylserine 
(D) Cardiolipin 
 
4.  Which of the following bacterial component 
contains “dipicolinic acid”? 
(A) Endospore 
(B) Capsule 
(C) Flagella 
(D) Pili 
 
5.  The fossilization process in which mineral rich 
water penetrates through the pores of 
decomposed organic matter is known as _____. 
(A) Carbonization 
(B) Chemical fossilization 
(C) Petrifaction 
(D) Microfossilization 
 
6.  A random fluctuation in gene frequency is called 
(A) Genetic drift 
(B) Genetic load 
(C) Panmixis 
(D) Genetic shift 
 
7.  The number of “Barr Bodies” present in a somatic 
cell of a woman suffering from Turner syndrome 
is ____. 
(A) 0 
(B) 1 
(C) 2 
(D) 3 
8.  Which of the following are produced by Mangrove 
trees to survive in the waterlogged swampy 
forests? 
(A) Trichomes 
(B) Pneumatophores 
(C) Spermatophores 
(D) Cambia 
 
9.  Indeterminate growth in plants is due to the 
presence of perpetually undifferentiated tissues, 
called as ______. 
(A) Tracheids 
(B) Meristems 
(C) Parenchyma 
(D) Sclerenchyma 
 
10. The osmotic potential (?) of pure water is _____ 
MPa. 
(A) -1 
(B) 0 
(C) 0.1 
(D) 10 
 
Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each. 
 
11.  Bacteria containing a tuft of flagella that comes 
out from one pole is called ___. 
(A) Lophotrichous 
(B) Peritrichous 
(C) Monotrichous 
(D) Amphitrichous 
 
12. Which of the following activity is associated with 
Klenow fragment? 
(A) 5'-3' exonuclease activity 
(B) 5'-3' endonuclease activity 
(C) Polymerase activity 
(D) 3'-5' endonuclease activity 
 
13. A frameshift mutation is caused by ____. 
(A) 5-Bromouracil 
(B) Acridine 
(C) Glutathione 
(D) Hypoxanthine 
 
14. The zone of a pond system where respiration is 
more than production is called as _____. 
(A) Limnetic zone  (B) Littoral zone 
(C) Epilimnion zone  (D) Benthic zone 
 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
15. An organism that causes obstruction of lymphatic 
system in humans is ____. 
(A) Borrelia burgdorferi 
(B) Brucella abortus 
(C) Yersinia pestis 
(D) Wuchereria bancrofti 
 
16. A man having a dominant genetic trait (TT 
genotype) can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC), 
marries a woman who cannot taste PTC. The PTC 
tasting ability of their biological son and daughter 
is 
(A) Son taster; Daughter non-taster 
(B) Daughter taster; Son non-taster 
(C) Both are non-tasters 
(D) Both are tasters 
 
17. Which of the following enzymes is absent in a 
person suffering from Alkaptonuria? 
(A) Tyrosinase 
(B) Homogentisic acid oxidase 
(C) Catechol dioxygenase 
(D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 
 
18. The bacterium that can tolerate high 
concentrations of salt and also ferment mannitol 
is 
(A) Staphylococcus aureus 
(B) Staphylococcus epidermis 
(C) Streptococcus pyogenes 
(D) Serratia marcescens 
 
19. Match the following 
 Group I Group II 
P) Streptomycin 1) Inhibits beta-subunit of 
RNA polymerase 
Q) Cycloheximide 2) Inhibits peptidyl 
transferase activity of 
50S subunit 
R) Rifamycin 3) Inhibits peptidyl 
transferase activity of 
60S subunit 
S) Chloramphenicol 4) Inhibits binding of formyl 
methionine tRNA to 
ribosome 
 
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 
 
 
20. The major product formed in the given reaction  
ANS. B 
 
 
21. DNA gyrase can 
(A) cut single-stranded DNA 
(B) relax supercoiled DNA 
(C) introduce negative supercoiling in DNA 
(D) not utilize ATP 
 
22. The stationary phase of cation-exchange 
chromatography can be 
(A) DEAE-cellulose 
(B) CM-cellulose 
(C) Sephadex G-50 
(D) Heparin-Sepharose 
 
23. Components of a Transmission Electron 
Microscope are 
(A) Electron gun, objective lens, positron beam, 
projector lens 
(B) Neutron beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
evacuated tube 
(C) Electron beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
condenser lens 
(D) X-ray beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
condenser lens 
Page 3


 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
QUESTION 
Section A: Q.1 – Q.10 Carry ONE mark each. 
 
1. Which of the following is involved in innate 
immune response in higher mammals? 
(A) T cell antigen receptor 
(B) B cell antigen receptor 
(C) Toll-like receptor 
(D) Major histocompatibility complex-II molecule 
 
2.  Which among the following belongs to the family 
“Retroviridae”? 
(A) Human Immunodeficiency virus 
(B) Ebola virus 
(C) Dengue virus 
(D) Influenza virus 
 
3.  Which of the following is a glycolipid? 
(A) Cerebroside 
(B) Phosphatidylcholine 
(C) Phosphatidylserine 
(D) Cardiolipin 
 
4.  Which of the following bacterial component 
contains “dipicolinic acid”? 
(A) Endospore 
(B) Capsule 
(C) Flagella 
(D) Pili 
 
5.  The fossilization process in which mineral rich 
water penetrates through the pores of 
decomposed organic matter is known as _____. 
(A) Carbonization 
(B) Chemical fossilization 
(C) Petrifaction 
(D) Microfossilization 
 
6.  A random fluctuation in gene frequency is called 
(A) Genetic drift 
(B) Genetic load 
(C) Panmixis 
(D) Genetic shift 
 
7.  The number of “Barr Bodies” present in a somatic 
cell of a woman suffering from Turner syndrome 
is ____. 
(A) 0 
(B) 1 
(C) 2 
(D) 3 
8.  Which of the following are produced by Mangrove 
trees to survive in the waterlogged swampy 
forests? 
(A) Trichomes 
(B) Pneumatophores 
(C) Spermatophores 
(D) Cambia 
 
9.  Indeterminate growth in plants is due to the 
presence of perpetually undifferentiated tissues, 
called as ______. 
(A) Tracheids 
(B) Meristems 
(C) Parenchyma 
(D) Sclerenchyma 
 
10. The osmotic potential (?) of pure water is _____ 
MPa. 
(A) -1 
(B) 0 
(C) 0.1 
(D) 10 
 
Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each. 
 
11.  Bacteria containing a tuft of flagella that comes 
out from one pole is called ___. 
(A) Lophotrichous 
(B) Peritrichous 
(C) Monotrichous 
(D) Amphitrichous 
 
12. Which of the following activity is associated with 
Klenow fragment? 
(A) 5'-3' exonuclease activity 
(B) 5'-3' endonuclease activity 
(C) Polymerase activity 
(D) 3'-5' endonuclease activity 
 
13. A frameshift mutation is caused by ____. 
(A) 5-Bromouracil 
(B) Acridine 
(C) Glutathione 
(D) Hypoxanthine 
 
14. The zone of a pond system where respiration is 
more than production is called as _____. 
(A) Limnetic zone  (B) Littoral zone 
(C) Epilimnion zone  (D) Benthic zone 
 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
15. An organism that causes obstruction of lymphatic 
system in humans is ____. 
(A) Borrelia burgdorferi 
(B) Brucella abortus 
(C) Yersinia pestis 
(D) Wuchereria bancrofti 
 
16. A man having a dominant genetic trait (TT 
genotype) can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC), 
marries a woman who cannot taste PTC. The PTC 
tasting ability of their biological son and daughter 
is 
(A) Son taster; Daughter non-taster 
(B) Daughter taster; Son non-taster 
(C) Both are non-tasters 
(D) Both are tasters 
 
17. Which of the following enzymes is absent in a 
person suffering from Alkaptonuria? 
(A) Tyrosinase 
(B) Homogentisic acid oxidase 
(C) Catechol dioxygenase 
(D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 
 
18. The bacterium that can tolerate high 
concentrations of salt and also ferment mannitol 
is 
(A) Staphylococcus aureus 
(B) Staphylococcus epidermis 
(C) Streptococcus pyogenes 
(D) Serratia marcescens 
 
19. Match the following 
 Group I Group II 
P) Streptomycin 1) Inhibits beta-subunit of 
RNA polymerase 
Q) Cycloheximide 2) Inhibits peptidyl 
transferase activity of 
50S subunit 
R) Rifamycin 3) Inhibits peptidyl 
transferase activity of 
60S subunit 
S) Chloramphenicol 4) Inhibits binding of formyl 
methionine tRNA to 
ribosome 
 
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 
 
 
20. The major product formed in the given reaction  
ANS. B 
 
 
21. DNA gyrase can 
(A) cut single-stranded DNA 
(B) relax supercoiled DNA 
(C) introduce negative supercoiling in DNA 
(D) not utilize ATP 
 
22. The stationary phase of cation-exchange 
chromatography can be 
(A) DEAE-cellulose 
(B) CM-cellulose 
(C) Sephadex G-50 
(D) Heparin-Sepharose 
 
23. Components of a Transmission Electron 
Microscope are 
(A) Electron gun, objective lens, positron beam, 
projector lens 
(B) Neutron beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
evacuated tube 
(C) Electron beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
condenser lens 
(D) X-ray beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
condenser lens 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
 
24. In a honey bee population, the workers are 
infertile but protect the queen from intruders and 
help in reproduction. This is an example of 
(A) K selection 
(B) Sexual selection 
(C) Kin selection 
(D) Disruptive selection 
 
25. For an enzyme following Michaelis-Menten 
kinetics, when [S]=KM then, the velocity v is 
([S] is substrate concentration, K M is Michaelis 
constant, V max is maximal velocity) 
(A) [S] × V max 
(B) 0.75 × V max 
(C) 0.5 × V
max
 
(D) K M × V max 
 
26. The net equation for aerobic glycolysis is 
(A) Glucose+2ATP? 2 lactate+2ADP+2Pi 
(B) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi+2NAD
+
 ? 2 
pyruvate+2ATP+2NADH+2H2O+4H
+
 
(C) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi ?2 pyruvate+2ATP+2H 2O 
(D) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi+2NAD
+
 ? 2 
lactate+2ATP+2NADH+2H 2O+4H
+
 
 
27. In the electron transport chain, flavin 
mononucleotide (FMN) can adopt ______ as the 
highest oxidation state and is capable of accepting 
or donating _____ electrons, respectively. 
(A) 2; 2 or 3 
(B) 2; 1 or 2 
(C) 3; 2 or 3 
(D) 3; 1 or 2 
 
28. In bacteria, the s factor that plays a major role in 
transcription during the stationary phase is 
(A) s
70
   (B) s
54
 
(C) s
28
   (D) s
3
 
 
29.  A rise in cytosolic calcium ion concentration just 
after fertilization in a sea urchin egg leads to 
(A) Formation of fertilization envelope 
(B) Acrosomal reaction 
(C) Formation of vegetal pole 
(D) Formation of animal pole 
 
30. In a nephron, _____ follows the ascending limb of 
the “loop of Henle”. 
(A) Descending limb  (B) Distal tubule 
(C) Collecting tubule (D) Proximal tubule 
 
Section B: Q.31 – Q.40 Carry TWO marks each. 
 
31. Transpirational pull that extends down to the 
roots in plants can be interrupted by 
(A) Process of cavitation 
(B) Process of gravitation 
(C) Formation of water vapor pockets 
(D) Positive pressure in xylem sap 
 
32. Transfer of plasmids into animal cells can be 
achieved by 
(A) Electroporation 
(B) Liposome-mediated process 
(C) Calcium chloride treatment 
(D) Sucrose treatment 
 
33. Archaeal cell membranes contain lipids that are 
(A) Ether linked 
(B) Ester linked 
(C) Branched alkyl chain 
(D) Linear alkyl chain 
 
34. Which of the following are producers in an 
ecological system? 
(A) Macrophytes 
(B) Phytoplanktons 
(C) Zooplanktons 
(D) Cyanobacteria 
 
35. Which of the following acts as wound hormones 
in plants? 
(A) Ethylene 
(B) Cytokinins 
(C) Abscisic acid 
(D) Dextrin 
 
36. The enriched media used to facilitate the growth 
of fastidious microorganisms are 
(A) Selenite F broth 
(B) Blood agar 
(C) Chocolate agar 
(D) Loeffler’s serum 
 
37. Match the bacterial structure to function 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Page 4


 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
QUESTION 
Section A: Q.1 – Q.10 Carry ONE mark each. 
 
1. Which of the following is involved in innate 
immune response in higher mammals? 
(A) T cell antigen receptor 
(B) B cell antigen receptor 
(C) Toll-like receptor 
(D) Major histocompatibility complex-II molecule 
 
2.  Which among the following belongs to the family 
“Retroviridae”? 
(A) Human Immunodeficiency virus 
(B) Ebola virus 
(C) Dengue virus 
(D) Influenza virus 
 
3.  Which of the following is a glycolipid? 
(A) Cerebroside 
(B) Phosphatidylcholine 
(C) Phosphatidylserine 
(D) Cardiolipin 
 
4.  Which of the following bacterial component 
contains “dipicolinic acid”? 
(A) Endospore 
(B) Capsule 
(C) Flagella 
(D) Pili 
 
5.  The fossilization process in which mineral rich 
water penetrates through the pores of 
decomposed organic matter is known as _____. 
(A) Carbonization 
(B) Chemical fossilization 
(C) Petrifaction 
(D) Microfossilization 
 
6.  A random fluctuation in gene frequency is called 
(A) Genetic drift 
(B) Genetic load 
(C) Panmixis 
(D) Genetic shift 
 
7.  The number of “Barr Bodies” present in a somatic 
cell of a woman suffering from Turner syndrome 
is ____. 
(A) 0 
(B) 1 
(C) 2 
(D) 3 
8.  Which of the following are produced by Mangrove 
trees to survive in the waterlogged swampy 
forests? 
(A) Trichomes 
(B) Pneumatophores 
(C) Spermatophores 
(D) Cambia 
 
9.  Indeterminate growth in plants is due to the 
presence of perpetually undifferentiated tissues, 
called as ______. 
(A) Tracheids 
(B) Meristems 
(C) Parenchyma 
(D) Sclerenchyma 
 
10. The osmotic potential (?) of pure water is _____ 
MPa. 
(A) -1 
(B) 0 
(C) 0.1 
(D) 10 
 
Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each. 
 
11.  Bacteria containing a tuft of flagella that comes 
out from one pole is called ___. 
(A) Lophotrichous 
(B) Peritrichous 
(C) Monotrichous 
(D) Amphitrichous 
 
12. Which of the following activity is associated with 
Klenow fragment? 
(A) 5'-3' exonuclease activity 
(B) 5'-3' endonuclease activity 
(C) Polymerase activity 
(D) 3'-5' endonuclease activity 
 
13. A frameshift mutation is caused by ____. 
(A) 5-Bromouracil 
(B) Acridine 
(C) Glutathione 
(D) Hypoxanthine 
 
14. The zone of a pond system where respiration is 
more than production is called as _____. 
(A) Limnetic zone  (B) Littoral zone 
(C) Epilimnion zone  (D) Benthic zone 
 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
15. An organism that causes obstruction of lymphatic 
system in humans is ____. 
(A) Borrelia burgdorferi 
(B) Brucella abortus 
(C) Yersinia pestis 
(D) Wuchereria bancrofti 
 
16. A man having a dominant genetic trait (TT 
genotype) can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC), 
marries a woman who cannot taste PTC. The PTC 
tasting ability of their biological son and daughter 
is 
(A) Son taster; Daughter non-taster 
(B) Daughter taster; Son non-taster 
(C) Both are non-tasters 
(D) Both are tasters 
 
17. Which of the following enzymes is absent in a 
person suffering from Alkaptonuria? 
(A) Tyrosinase 
(B) Homogentisic acid oxidase 
(C) Catechol dioxygenase 
(D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 
 
18. The bacterium that can tolerate high 
concentrations of salt and also ferment mannitol 
is 
(A) Staphylococcus aureus 
(B) Staphylococcus epidermis 
(C) Streptococcus pyogenes 
(D) Serratia marcescens 
 
19. Match the following 
 Group I Group II 
P) Streptomycin 1) Inhibits beta-subunit of 
RNA polymerase 
Q) Cycloheximide 2) Inhibits peptidyl 
transferase activity of 
50S subunit 
R) Rifamycin 3) Inhibits peptidyl 
transferase activity of 
60S subunit 
S) Chloramphenicol 4) Inhibits binding of formyl 
methionine tRNA to 
ribosome 
 
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 
 
 
20. The major product formed in the given reaction  
ANS. B 
 
 
21. DNA gyrase can 
(A) cut single-stranded DNA 
(B) relax supercoiled DNA 
(C) introduce negative supercoiling in DNA 
(D) not utilize ATP 
 
22. The stationary phase of cation-exchange 
chromatography can be 
(A) DEAE-cellulose 
(B) CM-cellulose 
(C) Sephadex G-50 
(D) Heparin-Sepharose 
 
23. Components of a Transmission Electron 
Microscope are 
(A) Electron gun, objective lens, positron beam, 
projector lens 
(B) Neutron beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
evacuated tube 
(C) Electron beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
condenser lens 
(D) X-ray beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
condenser lens 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
 
24. In a honey bee population, the workers are 
infertile but protect the queen from intruders and 
help in reproduction. This is an example of 
(A) K selection 
(B) Sexual selection 
(C) Kin selection 
(D) Disruptive selection 
 
25. For an enzyme following Michaelis-Menten 
kinetics, when [S]=KM then, the velocity v is 
([S] is substrate concentration, K M is Michaelis 
constant, V max is maximal velocity) 
(A) [S] × V max 
(B) 0.75 × V max 
(C) 0.5 × V
max
 
(D) K M × V max 
 
26. The net equation for aerobic glycolysis is 
(A) Glucose+2ATP? 2 lactate+2ADP+2Pi 
(B) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi+2NAD
+
 ? 2 
pyruvate+2ATP+2NADH+2H2O+4H
+
 
(C) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi ?2 pyruvate+2ATP+2H 2O 
(D) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi+2NAD
+
 ? 2 
lactate+2ATP+2NADH+2H 2O+4H
+
 
 
27. In the electron transport chain, flavin 
mononucleotide (FMN) can adopt ______ as the 
highest oxidation state and is capable of accepting 
or donating _____ electrons, respectively. 
(A) 2; 2 or 3 
(B) 2; 1 or 2 
(C) 3; 2 or 3 
(D) 3; 1 or 2 
 
28. In bacteria, the s factor that plays a major role in 
transcription during the stationary phase is 
(A) s
70
   (B) s
54
 
(C) s
28
   (D) s
3
 
 
29.  A rise in cytosolic calcium ion concentration just 
after fertilization in a sea urchin egg leads to 
(A) Formation of fertilization envelope 
(B) Acrosomal reaction 
(C) Formation of vegetal pole 
(D) Formation of animal pole 
 
30. In a nephron, _____ follows the ascending limb of 
the “loop of Henle”. 
(A) Descending limb  (B) Distal tubule 
(C) Collecting tubule (D) Proximal tubule 
 
Section B: Q.31 – Q.40 Carry TWO marks each. 
 
31. Transpirational pull that extends down to the 
roots in plants can be interrupted by 
(A) Process of cavitation 
(B) Process of gravitation 
(C) Formation of water vapor pockets 
(D) Positive pressure in xylem sap 
 
32. Transfer of plasmids into animal cells can be 
achieved by 
(A) Electroporation 
(B) Liposome-mediated process 
(C) Calcium chloride treatment 
(D) Sucrose treatment 
 
33. Archaeal cell membranes contain lipids that are 
(A) Ether linked 
(B) Ester linked 
(C) Branched alkyl chain 
(D) Linear alkyl chain 
 
34. Which of the following are producers in an 
ecological system? 
(A) Macrophytes 
(B) Phytoplanktons 
(C) Zooplanktons 
(D) Cyanobacteria 
 
35. Which of the following acts as wound hormones 
in plants? 
(A) Ethylene 
(B) Cytokinins 
(C) Abscisic acid 
(D) Dextrin 
 
36. The enriched media used to facilitate the growth 
of fastidious microorganisms are 
(A) Selenite F broth 
(B) Blood agar 
(C) Chocolate agar 
(D) Loeffler’s serum 
 
37. Match the bacterial structure to function 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
 
(i) Cell wall  
 
(a) Virulence factor 
(ii) Glycocalyx  
 
(b) Selective permeability 
 
 (c) Attachment to surfaces 
 
 
 (d) Protection from osmotic 
lysis 
 
 (A) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d)  (B) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a) 
(C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b)  (D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c) 
 
38. Identify the correct pairs: 
(i) Thermophile (a) grows optimal at 37 °C 
(ii) Mesophile (b) grows optimal at low 
temperature 
(iii) Psychrophile (c) grows optimal at high 
saline conditions 
(iv) Halophile (d) grows optimal at 67 °C 
 
(A) (i)-(d) 
(B) (ii)-(b) 
(C) (iii)-(a) 
(D) (iv)-(c) 
 
39. A single copy of an allele in sickle-cell 
heterozygous individuals reduces the frequency 
and severity of malaria. The reason for this is 
(A) Low oxygen binding capacity of hemoglobin 
(B) Single amino acid substitution in hemoglobin 
deforms the red blood cells 
(C) Abnormal hemoglobin is toxic for malaria 
parasite 
(D) Malaria parasite escapes the deformed red 
blood cells 
 
40. The correct statement/s for bimolecular 
nucleophilic substitution reactions is/are 
(A) It goes through a carbocation formation 
(B) There is an inversion of configuration if the 
reacting center is chiral 
(C) Reaction is enhanced when carried out in polar 
solvents 
(D) The reaction intermediate is trigonal 
bipyramidal 
 
Section C: Q.41 – Q.50 Carry ONE mark each. 
 
41. A deck of ten cards is given to you as shown below 
in the figure. One card is drawn at random from 
this deck. The probability of selecting a number 
less than 9 is ____. (to one decimal place) 
  
ANS. 0.8 
 
42. The average of all positive even integers less than 
or equal to 40 is ___. 
ANS. 21 
 
43. The smallest positive (non-zero) integer “n” for 
which the expression (
1+?? 1-?? )
?? = 1 holds true, is 
__________. 
ANS. 4 
 
44. Given that 
?? = (??????? ??????? ??????? + ??????? ??????? ???????) , the 
value of A is 
ANS. 1 
 
45. An object is placed at the principal focus of a 
concave lens of focal length 10 cm. The image will 
be formed at _____cm, between the optical 
center and the focus of the lens on the same side 
of the object. 
ANS. 5  
 
46. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds 
that a water molecule can make in the liquid 
state? 
ANS. 4 
 
47. How many pairs of autosomal chromosomes are 
there in normal humans? 
ANS. 22 
 
48. Calculate the temperature (in K) at which the 
resistance of a metal becomes 20% more than its 
resistance at 300 K. The value of the temperature 
coefficient of resistance for this metal is 2.0 × 10
-
4
/K. 
ANS. 1300 
Page 5


 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
QUESTION 
Section A: Q.1 – Q.10 Carry ONE mark each. 
 
1. Which of the following is involved in innate 
immune response in higher mammals? 
(A) T cell antigen receptor 
(B) B cell antigen receptor 
(C) Toll-like receptor 
(D) Major histocompatibility complex-II molecule 
 
2.  Which among the following belongs to the family 
“Retroviridae”? 
(A) Human Immunodeficiency virus 
(B) Ebola virus 
(C) Dengue virus 
(D) Influenza virus 
 
3.  Which of the following is a glycolipid? 
(A) Cerebroside 
(B) Phosphatidylcholine 
(C) Phosphatidylserine 
(D) Cardiolipin 
 
4.  Which of the following bacterial component 
contains “dipicolinic acid”? 
(A) Endospore 
(B) Capsule 
(C) Flagella 
(D) Pili 
 
5.  The fossilization process in which mineral rich 
water penetrates through the pores of 
decomposed organic matter is known as _____. 
(A) Carbonization 
(B) Chemical fossilization 
(C) Petrifaction 
(D) Microfossilization 
 
6.  A random fluctuation in gene frequency is called 
(A) Genetic drift 
(B) Genetic load 
(C) Panmixis 
(D) Genetic shift 
 
7.  The number of “Barr Bodies” present in a somatic 
cell of a woman suffering from Turner syndrome 
is ____. 
(A) 0 
(B) 1 
(C) 2 
(D) 3 
8.  Which of the following are produced by Mangrove 
trees to survive in the waterlogged swampy 
forests? 
(A) Trichomes 
(B) Pneumatophores 
(C) Spermatophores 
(D) Cambia 
 
9.  Indeterminate growth in plants is due to the 
presence of perpetually undifferentiated tissues, 
called as ______. 
(A) Tracheids 
(B) Meristems 
(C) Parenchyma 
(D) Sclerenchyma 
 
10. The osmotic potential (?) of pure water is _____ 
MPa. 
(A) -1 
(B) 0 
(C) 0.1 
(D) 10 
 
Section A: Q.11 – Q.30 Carry TWO marks each. 
 
11.  Bacteria containing a tuft of flagella that comes 
out from one pole is called ___. 
(A) Lophotrichous 
(B) Peritrichous 
(C) Monotrichous 
(D) Amphitrichous 
 
12. Which of the following activity is associated with 
Klenow fragment? 
(A) 5'-3' exonuclease activity 
(B) 5'-3' endonuclease activity 
(C) Polymerase activity 
(D) 3'-5' endonuclease activity 
 
13. A frameshift mutation is caused by ____. 
(A) 5-Bromouracil 
(B) Acridine 
(C) Glutathione 
(D) Hypoxanthine 
 
14. The zone of a pond system where respiration is 
more than production is called as _____. 
(A) Limnetic zone  (B) Littoral zone 
(C) Epilimnion zone  (D) Benthic zone 
 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
15. An organism that causes obstruction of lymphatic 
system in humans is ____. 
(A) Borrelia burgdorferi 
(B) Brucella abortus 
(C) Yersinia pestis 
(D) Wuchereria bancrofti 
 
16. A man having a dominant genetic trait (TT 
genotype) can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC), 
marries a woman who cannot taste PTC. The PTC 
tasting ability of their biological son and daughter 
is 
(A) Son taster; Daughter non-taster 
(B) Daughter taster; Son non-taster 
(C) Both are non-tasters 
(D) Both are tasters 
 
17. Which of the following enzymes is absent in a 
person suffering from Alkaptonuria? 
(A) Tyrosinase 
(B) Homogentisic acid oxidase 
(C) Catechol dioxygenase 
(D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase 
 
18. The bacterium that can tolerate high 
concentrations of salt and also ferment mannitol 
is 
(A) Staphylococcus aureus 
(B) Staphylococcus epidermis 
(C) Streptococcus pyogenes 
(D) Serratia marcescens 
 
19. Match the following 
 Group I Group II 
P) Streptomycin 1) Inhibits beta-subunit of 
RNA polymerase 
Q) Cycloheximide 2) Inhibits peptidyl 
transferase activity of 
50S subunit 
R) Rifamycin 3) Inhibits peptidyl 
transferase activity of 
60S subunit 
S) Chloramphenicol 4) Inhibits binding of formyl 
methionine tRNA to 
ribosome 
 
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 
 
 
20. The major product formed in the given reaction  
ANS. B 
 
 
21. DNA gyrase can 
(A) cut single-stranded DNA 
(B) relax supercoiled DNA 
(C) introduce negative supercoiling in DNA 
(D) not utilize ATP 
 
22. The stationary phase of cation-exchange 
chromatography can be 
(A) DEAE-cellulose 
(B) CM-cellulose 
(C) Sephadex G-50 
(D) Heparin-Sepharose 
 
23. Components of a Transmission Electron 
Microscope are 
(A) Electron gun, objective lens, positron beam, 
projector lens 
(B) Neutron beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
evacuated tube 
(C) Electron beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
condenser lens 
(D) X-ray beam, projector lens, objective lens, 
condenser lens 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
 
24. In a honey bee population, the workers are 
infertile but protect the queen from intruders and 
help in reproduction. This is an example of 
(A) K selection 
(B) Sexual selection 
(C) Kin selection 
(D) Disruptive selection 
 
25. For an enzyme following Michaelis-Menten 
kinetics, when [S]=KM then, the velocity v is 
([S] is substrate concentration, K M is Michaelis 
constant, V max is maximal velocity) 
(A) [S] × V max 
(B) 0.75 × V max 
(C) 0.5 × V
max
 
(D) K M × V max 
 
26. The net equation for aerobic glycolysis is 
(A) Glucose+2ATP? 2 lactate+2ADP+2Pi 
(B) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi+2NAD
+
 ? 2 
pyruvate+2ATP+2NADH+2H2O+4H
+
 
(C) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi ?2 pyruvate+2ATP+2H 2O 
(D) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi+2NAD
+
 ? 2 
lactate+2ATP+2NADH+2H 2O+4H
+
 
 
27. In the electron transport chain, flavin 
mononucleotide (FMN) can adopt ______ as the 
highest oxidation state and is capable of accepting 
or donating _____ electrons, respectively. 
(A) 2; 2 or 3 
(B) 2; 1 or 2 
(C) 3; 2 or 3 
(D) 3; 1 or 2 
 
28. In bacteria, the s factor that plays a major role in 
transcription during the stationary phase is 
(A) s
70
   (B) s
54
 
(C) s
28
   (D) s
3
 
 
29.  A rise in cytosolic calcium ion concentration just 
after fertilization in a sea urchin egg leads to 
(A) Formation of fertilization envelope 
(B) Acrosomal reaction 
(C) Formation of vegetal pole 
(D) Formation of animal pole 
 
30. In a nephron, _____ follows the ascending limb of 
the “loop of Henle”. 
(A) Descending limb  (B) Distal tubule 
(C) Collecting tubule (D) Proximal tubule 
 
Section B: Q.31 – Q.40 Carry TWO marks each. 
 
31. Transpirational pull that extends down to the 
roots in plants can be interrupted by 
(A) Process of cavitation 
(B) Process of gravitation 
(C) Formation of water vapor pockets 
(D) Positive pressure in xylem sap 
 
32. Transfer of plasmids into animal cells can be 
achieved by 
(A) Electroporation 
(B) Liposome-mediated process 
(C) Calcium chloride treatment 
(D) Sucrose treatment 
 
33. Archaeal cell membranes contain lipids that are 
(A) Ether linked 
(B) Ester linked 
(C) Branched alkyl chain 
(D) Linear alkyl chain 
 
34. Which of the following are producers in an 
ecological system? 
(A) Macrophytes 
(B) Phytoplanktons 
(C) Zooplanktons 
(D) Cyanobacteria 
 
35. Which of the following acts as wound hormones 
in plants? 
(A) Ethylene 
(B) Cytokinins 
(C) Abscisic acid 
(D) Dextrin 
 
36. The enriched media used to facilitate the growth 
of fastidious microorganisms are 
(A) Selenite F broth 
(B) Blood agar 
(C) Chocolate agar 
(D) Loeffler’s serum 
 
37. Match the bacterial structure to function 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
 
(i) Cell wall  
 
(a) Virulence factor 
(ii) Glycocalyx  
 
(b) Selective permeability 
 
 (c) Attachment to surfaces 
 
 
 (d) Protection from osmotic 
lysis 
 
 (A) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d)  (B) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a) 
(C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b)  (D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c) 
 
38. Identify the correct pairs: 
(i) Thermophile (a) grows optimal at 37 °C 
(ii) Mesophile (b) grows optimal at low 
temperature 
(iii) Psychrophile (c) grows optimal at high 
saline conditions 
(iv) Halophile (d) grows optimal at 67 °C 
 
(A) (i)-(d) 
(B) (ii)-(b) 
(C) (iii)-(a) 
(D) (iv)-(c) 
 
39. A single copy of an allele in sickle-cell 
heterozygous individuals reduces the frequency 
and severity of malaria. The reason for this is 
(A) Low oxygen binding capacity of hemoglobin 
(B) Single amino acid substitution in hemoglobin 
deforms the red blood cells 
(C) Abnormal hemoglobin is toxic for malaria 
parasite 
(D) Malaria parasite escapes the deformed red 
blood cells 
 
40. The correct statement/s for bimolecular 
nucleophilic substitution reactions is/are 
(A) It goes through a carbocation formation 
(B) There is an inversion of configuration if the 
reacting center is chiral 
(C) Reaction is enhanced when carried out in polar 
solvents 
(D) The reaction intermediate is trigonal 
bipyramidal 
 
Section C: Q.41 – Q.50 Carry ONE mark each. 
 
41. A deck of ten cards is given to you as shown below 
in the figure. One card is drawn at random from 
this deck. The probability of selecting a number 
less than 9 is ____. (to one decimal place) 
  
ANS. 0.8 
 
42. The average of all positive even integers less than 
or equal to 40 is ___. 
ANS. 21 
 
43. The smallest positive (non-zero) integer “n” for 
which the expression (
1+?? 1-?? )
?? = 1 holds true, is 
__________. 
ANS. 4 
 
44. Given that 
?? = (??????? ??????? ??????? + ??????? ??????? ???????) , the 
value of A is 
ANS. 1 
 
45. An object is placed at the principal focus of a 
concave lens of focal length 10 cm. The image will 
be formed at _____cm, between the optical 
center and the focus of the lens on the same side 
of the object. 
ANS. 5  
 
46. What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds 
that a water molecule can make in the liquid 
state? 
ANS. 4 
 
47. How many pairs of autosomal chromosomes are 
there in normal humans? 
ANS. 22 
 
48. Calculate the temperature (in K) at which the 
resistance of a metal becomes 20% more than its 
resistance at 300 K. The value of the temperature 
coefficient of resistance for this metal is 2.0 × 10
-
4
/K. 
ANS. 1300 
 IIT JAM BIOTECHNOLOGY 2022 
    
 
 
49. In the 
1
H NMR spectrum of ethanol at 400 MHz, 
the methyl group splits into ___ number of peaks. 
ANS.3 
 
50. In a denaturing polyacrylamide gel 
electrophoresis experiment, pure intact adult 
human hemoglobin will yield ________. (number) 
bands. 
ANS. 2 
 
Section C: Q.51 – Q.60 Carry TWO marks each. 
51.  A man throws a ball vertically up in the air with an 
initial velocity v 1 such that it reaches a height of 
12 m with a speed of 12 m/s. If he throws the 
same ball vertically up with an initial velocity v
2
 
such that it reaches a maximum height of 12 m. 
Calculate v 1/v 2. (up to 2 decimal places) 
ANS. 1.26 
 
52. What is the acceleration due to gravity (m/s
2
) on 
the surface of a planet if its radius is 1/4
th
 that of 
earth and its mass is 1/80
th
 that of earth? Assume 
that the gravity on the surface of the earth is 10 
m/s
2
. 
ANS. 2 
 
53. In a randomly mating population, the frequency 
of ‘A’ allele is 0.7. What is the frequency of ‘Aa’ 
genotype in the next generation according to 
Hardy-Weinberg’s law? (up to two decimal 
places) 
ANS. 0.42 
 
54. The potential difference to accelerate an electron 
was quadrupled. By what factor does the De 
Broglie wavelength of the electron beam change? 
ANS. 0.5 
 
55. A 500 nm light is used for imaging in a confocal 
microscope. What will be the best resolution (in 
nm) of this microscope? 
ANS. 203.33 
 
 
 
 
 
 
56. Assuming the molecule shown below is aromatic, 
the value of “n” according to “Hückel’s rule” is 
 
ANS. 3 
 
57. In an actively growing population from a single 
bacterium, 1,048,576 cells are present after 20
th
 
generation. How many cells were there in 5
th
 
generation? 
ANS. 32  
 
58. A double stranded DNA molecule of total 5000 
base pairs long, has a melting temperature of 85 
°C. What will be the % AT base pairs in this 
sample? (up to one decimal place). 
ANS. 50.74 
 
59. How many GTP molecules are required for the 
translocation of t-RNA from P site to E site during 
translation elongation process in bacteria? 
ANS. 1 
 
60. Amongst the molecules given below, the total 
number of molecules that have at least one sp
2
 
hybridized atom is __________. 
C 6H 6, NO 2, BF 3, H 2O 2, SO 2, C 2H 2, L-Tryptophan 
ANS. 5 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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FAQs on IIT JAM Biotechnology Past Year Papers - 2022 - IIT JAM Past Year Papers and Model Test Paper (All Branches)

1. What is the exam pattern for IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022?
Ans. The IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 exam pattern consists of a single paper with a total of 60 multiple-choice questions. The questions are divided into three sections - Section A, Section B, and Section C. Section A contains 30 multiple-choice questions, while Section B and C have 10 multiple-choice questions each. The total duration of the exam is 3 hours, and there is negative marking for incorrect answers.
2. How can I prepare for IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022?
Ans. To prepare for IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022, it is recommended to thoroughly study the syllabus and understand the concepts. Creating a study schedule and dedicating a specific time for each topic can help in effective preparation. Solving previous year question papers and mock tests can also enhance your understanding of the exam pattern and improve time management skills. Additionally, referring to standard textbooks and joining coaching classes or online courses can provide comprehensive guidance.
3. What are the important topics to focus on for IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022?
Ans. Some important topics to focus on for IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 include Cell Biology, Genetics, Molecular Biology, Recombinant DNA Technology, Immunology, Biochemistry, Biophysics, Microbiology, and Bioinformatics. These topics cover the fundamental concepts and principles in the field of biotechnology and are crucial for scoring well in the exam.
4. Are calculators allowed in the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 exam?
Ans. No, calculators or any other electronic devices are not allowed in the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 exam. Candidates are expected to perform all calculations manually. However, rough work and calculations can be done in the blank space provided in the question paper.
5. What is the eligibility criteria for appearing in the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 exam?
Ans. The eligibility criteria for appearing in the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 exam are as follows: - The candidate should have a Bachelor's degree with at least 55% aggregate marks or a CGPA of 5.5 out of 10 for General/OBC-NCL category. - For SC/ST and PwD category candidates, the minimum aggregate marks required are 50% or a CGPA of 5.0 out of 10. - The candidate should have passed the qualifying degree by the last date of submission of the application form.
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