Page 1
Time Allowed : 40 Hours M. M. : 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
National Defence Academy /
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
ENGLISH
Antonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
sentence with an underlined word followed by
four words or groups of words. Select the option
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
and mark your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
1. Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.
(a) reprehensible (b) opprobrious
(c) despicable (d) commendable
2. These exercises will counteract the effects of
stress and tension.
(a) exacerbate (b) foil
(c) thwart (d) contravene
3. Y ou have to persevere with difficult students.
(a) give up (b) persist
(c) carry on (d) stand firm
4. Their new colour scheme is hideous.
(a) appalling (b) beautiful
(c) grotesque (d) macabre
5. Everywhere they go, they squander their
earnings.
(a) fritter away (b) splurge
(c) squabble (d) manage
Cloze Comprehension
Directions : In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four
individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for
filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.
The Earth’s climate is 6. (a) passionately changing and evolving. Some of
(b) continually
(c) deadly
(d) thoughtfully
7. (a) these changes have been due to natural causes but others can be
(b) those
(c) this
(d) that
attributed to 8. (a) practical activities such as deforestation,
(b) geological
(c) human
(d) animal
Page 2
Time Allowed : 40 Hours M. M. : 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
National Defence Academy /
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
ENGLISH
Antonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
sentence with an underlined word followed by
four words or groups of words. Select the option
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
and mark your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
1. Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.
(a) reprehensible (b) opprobrious
(c) despicable (d) commendable
2. These exercises will counteract the effects of
stress and tension.
(a) exacerbate (b) foil
(c) thwart (d) contravene
3. Y ou have to persevere with difficult students.
(a) give up (b) persist
(c) carry on (d) stand firm
4. Their new colour scheme is hideous.
(a) appalling (b) beautiful
(c) grotesque (d) macabre
5. Everywhere they go, they squander their
earnings.
(a) fritter away (b) splurge
(c) squabble (d) manage
Cloze Comprehension
Directions : In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four
individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for
filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.
The Earth’s climate is 6. (a) passionately changing and evolving. Some of
(b) continually
(c) deadly
(d) thoughtfully
7. (a) these changes have been due to natural causes but others can be
(b) those
(c) this
(d) that
attributed to 8. (a) practical activities such as deforestation,
(b) geological
(c) human
(d) animal
emissions from industry, transport, etc., which have led to the 9. (a) assimilation
(b) absolution
(c) collection
(d) accumulation
of gases and aerosols in 10. (a) an atmosphere. These gases are known
(b) a
(c) the
(d) no article
as greenhouse gases because they trap heat and 11. (a) raise air temperatures
(b) hike
(c) rise
(d) balance
near the ground, acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the 12. (a) crust. In order
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) planet
to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity 13. (a) for assessment
(b) or
(c) in
(d) to
of climate change in the country, different studies under Climate Change Action Programme
14. (a) are developed. Many important bilateral and multilateral
(b) are initiated
(c) have developed
(d) have initiated
meetings and negotiations are held 15. (a) with regular intervals
(b) at
(c) in
(d) on
Sentence Completion
Directions: Each of the following items features one
part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives.
Complete the sentence by choosing the correct
alternative and mark your response on the Answer
Sheet accordingly.
16. He paused
(a) with a few moments.
(b) for a few moments.
(c) by a few moments.
(d) into a few moments.
17. Late at night, our car
(a) broke down on the highway.
(b) broke up on the highway.
(c) broke into the highway.
(d) broke out on the highway.
18. All the countries signed the treaty
(a) beneath Germany and France.
(b) except Germany and France.
(c) among Germany and France.
(d) during Germany and France.
19. I reminded her
(a) to turn off the lights at night.
(b) to call off the lights at night.
(c) to drop off the lights at night.
(d) to break off the lights at night.
20. They told us about the woman
(a) whom lived next door.
(b) which lived next door.
(c) who lived next door.
(d) whose lived next door.
21. I’ll see you
(a) at the end of February.
(b) on the end of February.
(c) along the end of February.
(d) for the end of February.
22. I dislike films
(a) who have sad endings.
(b) that have sad endings.
(c) whose have sad endings.
(d) whom have sad endings.
23. The thieves denied
(a) having stealing the money.
(b) stealing the money.
(c) had stolen the money.
(d) having to steal the money.
Page 3
Time Allowed : 40 Hours M. M. : 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
National Defence Academy /
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
ENGLISH
Antonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
sentence with an underlined word followed by
four words or groups of words. Select the option
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
and mark your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
1. Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.
(a) reprehensible (b) opprobrious
(c) despicable (d) commendable
2. These exercises will counteract the effects of
stress and tension.
(a) exacerbate (b) foil
(c) thwart (d) contravene
3. Y ou have to persevere with difficult students.
(a) give up (b) persist
(c) carry on (d) stand firm
4. Their new colour scheme is hideous.
(a) appalling (b) beautiful
(c) grotesque (d) macabre
5. Everywhere they go, they squander their
earnings.
(a) fritter away (b) splurge
(c) squabble (d) manage
Cloze Comprehension
Directions : In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four
individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for
filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.
The Earth’s climate is 6. (a) passionately changing and evolving. Some of
(b) continually
(c) deadly
(d) thoughtfully
7. (a) these changes have been due to natural causes but others can be
(b) those
(c) this
(d) that
attributed to 8. (a) practical activities such as deforestation,
(b) geological
(c) human
(d) animal
emissions from industry, transport, etc., which have led to the 9. (a) assimilation
(b) absolution
(c) collection
(d) accumulation
of gases and aerosols in 10. (a) an atmosphere. These gases are known
(b) a
(c) the
(d) no article
as greenhouse gases because they trap heat and 11. (a) raise air temperatures
(b) hike
(c) rise
(d) balance
near the ground, acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the 12. (a) crust. In order
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) planet
to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity 13. (a) for assessment
(b) or
(c) in
(d) to
of climate change in the country, different studies under Climate Change Action Programme
14. (a) are developed. Many important bilateral and multilateral
(b) are initiated
(c) have developed
(d) have initiated
meetings and negotiations are held 15. (a) with regular intervals
(b) at
(c) in
(d) on
Sentence Completion
Directions: Each of the following items features one
part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives.
Complete the sentence by choosing the correct
alternative and mark your response on the Answer
Sheet accordingly.
16. He paused
(a) with a few moments.
(b) for a few moments.
(c) by a few moments.
(d) into a few moments.
17. Late at night, our car
(a) broke down on the highway.
(b) broke up on the highway.
(c) broke into the highway.
(d) broke out on the highway.
18. All the countries signed the treaty
(a) beneath Germany and France.
(b) except Germany and France.
(c) among Germany and France.
(d) during Germany and France.
19. I reminded her
(a) to turn off the lights at night.
(b) to call off the lights at night.
(c) to drop off the lights at night.
(d) to break off the lights at night.
20. They told us about the woman
(a) whom lived next door.
(b) which lived next door.
(c) who lived next door.
(d) whose lived next door.
21. I’ll see you
(a) at the end of February.
(b) on the end of February.
(c) along the end of February.
(d) for the end of February.
22. I dislike films
(a) who have sad endings.
(b) that have sad endings.
(c) whose have sad endings.
(d) whom have sad endings.
23. The thieves denied
(a) having stealing the money.
(b) stealing the money.
(c) had stolen the money.
(d) having to steal the money.
Solved Paper - 2024 (I) 9
24. Did you
(a) drop out to see Sunita on your way home?
(b) drop in to see Sunita on your way home?
(c) drop behind to see Sunita on your way
home?
(d) drop away to see Sunita on your way home?
25. Would you like to
(a) meeting her? (b) meet her?
(c) met her? (d) meet with her?
Idioms and Phrases
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases
followed by four alternative meanings to each.
Select the most appropriate response from the
options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response
on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
26. Be bad news
(a) feelings of hate
(b) someone who behaves in a dishonest way
(c) someone who is considered undesirable
(d) to be ill
27. Back to the drawing board
(a) to draw comparisons
(b) to be a member of planning group
(c) to start planning again because the previous
plan has failed
(d) to be fast at understanding a situation
28. Be in the eye of the storm
(a) to look at something quickly
(b) to fail miserably at a sport
(c) to see something that you do not want to
see
(d) to be in the midst of a controversy
29. Life in the fast lane
(a) to lead a selfless life
(b) to have a happy life without complaints
(c) life without money or comforts
(d) an exciting and eventful lifestyle
30. T o pass the buck
(a) to collect money from a group of people
(b) to shift the responsibility of something to
someone
(c) to have a short conversation with someone
(d) to have the credentials for a particular job
Ordering of Words in a Sentence
Directions: Each of the following items in this
section consists of a sentence, the parts of which
have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange
the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence
and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c) and
(d) given below and mark your response on the
Answer Sheet accordingly.
31. include basic freedoms
P
the fundamental rights are
Q
guaranteed to the individual
R
basic rights and
S
(a) QSPR (b) QRSP
(c) SQRP (d) RQSP
32. for many millennia
P
been in the making
Q
of a historical process that has
R
the Indian nation is the product
S
(a) SRQP (b) SQPR
(c) PRSQ (d) RSQP
33. an epoch that was imbued
P
for its people the start of
Q
with a new vision
R
India’s Independence represented
S
(a) SQPR (b) QRPS
(c) SPQR (d) RQSP
34. science and mathematics exhibition
P
for a discussion on the forthcoming
Q
to be present before the Principal
R
all students have been instructed
S
(a) SQPR (b) RPQS
(c) SRQP (d) QPRS
35. two bowlers and two batsmen respectively
P
to the new team
Q
with the selection of another player
R
the team now has
S
(a) QPRS (b) SQRP
(c) RQSP (d) RPSQ
Word classes
Directions: Each of the following sentences has an
underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and
find which word class the underlined word belongs
to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
36. You are most welcome to visit my humble
abode.
(a) Noun (b) Adjective
(c) Adverb (d) Participle
Page 4
Time Allowed : 40 Hours M. M. : 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
National Defence Academy /
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
ENGLISH
Antonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
sentence with an underlined word followed by
four words or groups of words. Select the option
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
and mark your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
1. Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.
(a) reprehensible (b) opprobrious
(c) despicable (d) commendable
2. These exercises will counteract the effects of
stress and tension.
(a) exacerbate (b) foil
(c) thwart (d) contravene
3. Y ou have to persevere with difficult students.
(a) give up (b) persist
(c) carry on (d) stand firm
4. Their new colour scheme is hideous.
(a) appalling (b) beautiful
(c) grotesque (d) macabre
5. Everywhere they go, they squander their
earnings.
(a) fritter away (b) splurge
(c) squabble (d) manage
Cloze Comprehension
Directions : In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four
individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for
filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.
The Earth’s climate is 6. (a) passionately changing and evolving. Some of
(b) continually
(c) deadly
(d) thoughtfully
7. (a) these changes have been due to natural causes but others can be
(b) those
(c) this
(d) that
attributed to 8. (a) practical activities such as deforestation,
(b) geological
(c) human
(d) animal
emissions from industry, transport, etc., which have led to the 9. (a) assimilation
(b) absolution
(c) collection
(d) accumulation
of gases and aerosols in 10. (a) an atmosphere. These gases are known
(b) a
(c) the
(d) no article
as greenhouse gases because they trap heat and 11. (a) raise air temperatures
(b) hike
(c) rise
(d) balance
near the ground, acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the 12. (a) crust. In order
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) planet
to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity 13. (a) for assessment
(b) or
(c) in
(d) to
of climate change in the country, different studies under Climate Change Action Programme
14. (a) are developed. Many important bilateral and multilateral
(b) are initiated
(c) have developed
(d) have initiated
meetings and negotiations are held 15. (a) with regular intervals
(b) at
(c) in
(d) on
Sentence Completion
Directions: Each of the following items features one
part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives.
Complete the sentence by choosing the correct
alternative and mark your response on the Answer
Sheet accordingly.
16. He paused
(a) with a few moments.
(b) for a few moments.
(c) by a few moments.
(d) into a few moments.
17. Late at night, our car
(a) broke down on the highway.
(b) broke up on the highway.
(c) broke into the highway.
(d) broke out on the highway.
18. All the countries signed the treaty
(a) beneath Germany and France.
(b) except Germany and France.
(c) among Germany and France.
(d) during Germany and France.
19. I reminded her
(a) to turn off the lights at night.
(b) to call off the lights at night.
(c) to drop off the lights at night.
(d) to break off the lights at night.
20. They told us about the woman
(a) whom lived next door.
(b) which lived next door.
(c) who lived next door.
(d) whose lived next door.
21. I’ll see you
(a) at the end of February.
(b) on the end of February.
(c) along the end of February.
(d) for the end of February.
22. I dislike films
(a) who have sad endings.
(b) that have sad endings.
(c) whose have sad endings.
(d) whom have sad endings.
23. The thieves denied
(a) having stealing the money.
(b) stealing the money.
(c) had stolen the money.
(d) having to steal the money.
Solved Paper - 2024 (I) 9
24. Did you
(a) drop out to see Sunita on your way home?
(b) drop in to see Sunita on your way home?
(c) drop behind to see Sunita on your way
home?
(d) drop away to see Sunita on your way home?
25. Would you like to
(a) meeting her? (b) meet her?
(c) met her? (d) meet with her?
Idioms and Phrases
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases
followed by four alternative meanings to each.
Select the most appropriate response from the
options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response
on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
26. Be bad news
(a) feelings of hate
(b) someone who behaves in a dishonest way
(c) someone who is considered undesirable
(d) to be ill
27. Back to the drawing board
(a) to draw comparisons
(b) to be a member of planning group
(c) to start planning again because the previous
plan has failed
(d) to be fast at understanding a situation
28. Be in the eye of the storm
(a) to look at something quickly
(b) to fail miserably at a sport
(c) to see something that you do not want to
see
(d) to be in the midst of a controversy
29. Life in the fast lane
(a) to lead a selfless life
(b) to have a happy life without complaints
(c) life without money or comforts
(d) an exciting and eventful lifestyle
30. T o pass the buck
(a) to collect money from a group of people
(b) to shift the responsibility of something to
someone
(c) to have a short conversation with someone
(d) to have the credentials for a particular job
Ordering of Words in a Sentence
Directions: Each of the following items in this
section consists of a sentence, the parts of which
have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange
the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence
and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c) and
(d) given below and mark your response on the
Answer Sheet accordingly.
31. include basic freedoms
P
the fundamental rights are
Q
guaranteed to the individual
R
basic rights and
S
(a) QSPR (b) QRSP
(c) SQRP (d) RQSP
32. for many millennia
P
been in the making
Q
of a historical process that has
R
the Indian nation is the product
S
(a) SRQP (b) SQPR
(c) PRSQ (d) RSQP
33. an epoch that was imbued
P
for its people the start of
Q
with a new vision
R
India’s Independence represented
S
(a) SQPR (b) QRPS
(c) SPQR (d) RQSP
34. science and mathematics exhibition
P
for a discussion on the forthcoming
Q
to be present before the Principal
R
all students have been instructed
S
(a) SQPR (b) RPQS
(c) SRQP (d) QPRS
35. two bowlers and two batsmen respectively
P
to the new team
Q
with the selection of another player
R
the team now has
S
(a) QPRS (b) SQRP
(c) RQSP (d) RPSQ
Word classes
Directions: Each of the following sentences has an
underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and
find which word class the underlined word belongs
to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
36. You are most welcome to visit my humble
abode.
(a) Noun (b) Adjective
(c) Adverb (d) Participle
37. The situation is beyond our control.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb
(c) Conjunction (d) Preposition
38. I didn’t tell him anything except that I needed
the money.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb
(c) Preposition (d) Conjunction
39. He dry-cleaned my coat nicely.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb
(c) Relative pronoun (d) Conjunction
40. Would you like to buy this new item?
(a) Determiner (b) Conjunction
(c) Interjection (d) Adjective
Passage
Directions: Read the following passage carefully
and answer the items based on it. You are required
to select your answers based solely on the contents
of the passage and the opinion of the author.
The grouping or assemblage of plants, animals
and microbes we observe when we study a natural
forest, a grassland, a pond, a coral reef or some
other undisturbed area, is referred to as the area’s
biota or biotic community. The plant portion of the
biotic community includes all vegetation, from large
trees down through to microscopic algae. Likewise,
the animal portion includes everything from large
mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibians through
to earthworms, tiny insects and mites. Microbes
encompass a large array of microscopic bacteria,
fungi and protozoans. Thus, the biotic community
comprises a plant community , an animal community
and a microbial community.
The particular kind of biotic community found in
a given area is, in large part, determined by abiotic
factors such as the amount of water or moisture
present, the temperature, the salinity, or the type of
soil in the area. These abiotic factors both support
and limit the particular community. For example,
a relative lack of available moisture prevents the
growth of most species of plants, but supports
certain species, such as cacti; these kinds of areas
and a suitable temperature support forests. The
presence of water is the major factor that sustains
aquatic communities.
The first step in investigating a biotic community
may be simply to catalogue all the species present.
Species are the different kinds of plants, animals
and microbes in the community. A given species
includes all those individuals which have a strong
similarity in appearance to one another and which
are distinct in appearance from other such groups.
Each species in a biotic community is represented
by a certain population – that is, by a certain number
of individuals that make up the interbreeding,
reproducing group.
41. Which one of the following does not belong to
the biotic community?
(a) Water (b) Human
(c) Protozoa (d) Bush
42. The nature of the biotic community largely
depends on:
1. Biotic components
2. Abiotic components
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?
(a) T emperature (b) Humidity
(c) Algae (d) Moisture
44. In the passage, the word ‘aquatic community’
refers to:
(a) Biotic community inhabiting the land
(b) Biotic community found in water
(c) Biotic community found in the air
(d) Assemblage of rain and moisture
45. Species are defined on the basis of:
(a) Similarities only
(b) Differences only
(c) Both similarities and differences
(d) None of the above
Synonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
sentence with an underlined word followed by
four words/group of words. Select the option that
is nearest in meaning to the underlined word
and mark your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
46. The king’s son was banished due to the political
rivalry.
(a) deported (b) called back
(c) accepted (d) notified
47. He gave a dazzling performance at the opera.
(a) brilliant (b) dismal
(c) pathetic (d) puerile
48. She rebuffed all suggestions from her friends.
(a) took (b) rejected
(c) criticised (d) granted
49. He disowned his royal legacy and became a
commoner.
(a) accepted (b) abandoned
(c) allowed (d) questioned
50. The public was sceptical about the new
government policy.
(a) hopeful (b) anxious
(c) doubtful (d) expectant
Page 5
Time Allowed : 40 Hours M. M. : 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
National Defence Academy /
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
ENGLISH
Antonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
sentence with an underlined word followed by
four words or groups of words. Select the option
that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
and mark your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
1. Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.
(a) reprehensible (b) opprobrious
(c) despicable (d) commendable
2. These exercises will counteract the effects of
stress and tension.
(a) exacerbate (b) foil
(c) thwart (d) contravene
3. Y ou have to persevere with difficult students.
(a) give up (b) persist
(c) carry on (d) stand firm
4. Their new colour scheme is hideous.
(a) appalling (b) beautiful
(c) grotesque (d) macabre
5. Everywhere they go, they squander their
earnings.
(a) fritter away (b) splurge
(c) squabble (d) manage
Cloze Comprehension
Directions : In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four
individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for
filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.
The Earth’s climate is 6. (a) passionately changing and evolving. Some of
(b) continually
(c) deadly
(d) thoughtfully
7. (a) these changes have been due to natural causes but others can be
(b) those
(c) this
(d) that
attributed to 8. (a) practical activities such as deforestation,
(b) geological
(c) human
(d) animal
emissions from industry, transport, etc., which have led to the 9. (a) assimilation
(b) absolution
(c) collection
(d) accumulation
of gases and aerosols in 10. (a) an atmosphere. These gases are known
(b) a
(c) the
(d) no article
as greenhouse gases because they trap heat and 11. (a) raise air temperatures
(b) hike
(c) rise
(d) balance
near the ground, acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the 12. (a) crust. In order
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) planet
to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity 13. (a) for assessment
(b) or
(c) in
(d) to
of climate change in the country, different studies under Climate Change Action Programme
14. (a) are developed. Many important bilateral and multilateral
(b) are initiated
(c) have developed
(d) have initiated
meetings and negotiations are held 15. (a) with regular intervals
(b) at
(c) in
(d) on
Sentence Completion
Directions: Each of the following items features one
part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives.
Complete the sentence by choosing the correct
alternative and mark your response on the Answer
Sheet accordingly.
16. He paused
(a) with a few moments.
(b) for a few moments.
(c) by a few moments.
(d) into a few moments.
17. Late at night, our car
(a) broke down on the highway.
(b) broke up on the highway.
(c) broke into the highway.
(d) broke out on the highway.
18. All the countries signed the treaty
(a) beneath Germany and France.
(b) except Germany and France.
(c) among Germany and France.
(d) during Germany and France.
19. I reminded her
(a) to turn off the lights at night.
(b) to call off the lights at night.
(c) to drop off the lights at night.
(d) to break off the lights at night.
20. They told us about the woman
(a) whom lived next door.
(b) which lived next door.
(c) who lived next door.
(d) whose lived next door.
21. I’ll see you
(a) at the end of February.
(b) on the end of February.
(c) along the end of February.
(d) for the end of February.
22. I dislike films
(a) who have sad endings.
(b) that have sad endings.
(c) whose have sad endings.
(d) whom have sad endings.
23. The thieves denied
(a) having stealing the money.
(b) stealing the money.
(c) had stolen the money.
(d) having to steal the money.
Solved Paper - 2024 (I) 9
24. Did you
(a) drop out to see Sunita on your way home?
(b) drop in to see Sunita on your way home?
(c) drop behind to see Sunita on your way
home?
(d) drop away to see Sunita on your way home?
25. Would you like to
(a) meeting her? (b) meet her?
(c) met her? (d) meet with her?
Idioms and Phrases
Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases
followed by four alternative meanings to each.
Select the most appropriate response from the
options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response
on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
26. Be bad news
(a) feelings of hate
(b) someone who behaves in a dishonest way
(c) someone who is considered undesirable
(d) to be ill
27. Back to the drawing board
(a) to draw comparisons
(b) to be a member of planning group
(c) to start planning again because the previous
plan has failed
(d) to be fast at understanding a situation
28. Be in the eye of the storm
(a) to look at something quickly
(b) to fail miserably at a sport
(c) to see something that you do not want to
see
(d) to be in the midst of a controversy
29. Life in the fast lane
(a) to lead a selfless life
(b) to have a happy life without complaints
(c) life without money or comforts
(d) an exciting and eventful lifestyle
30. T o pass the buck
(a) to collect money from a group of people
(b) to shift the responsibility of something to
someone
(c) to have a short conversation with someone
(d) to have the credentials for a particular job
Ordering of Words in a Sentence
Directions: Each of the following items in this
section consists of a sentence, the parts of which
have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange
the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence
and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c) and
(d) given below and mark your response on the
Answer Sheet accordingly.
31. include basic freedoms
P
the fundamental rights are
Q
guaranteed to the individual
R
basic rights and
S
(a) QSPR (b) QRSP
(c) SQRP (d) RQSP
32. for many millennia
P
been in the making
Q
of a historical process that has
R
the Indian nation is the product
S
(a) SRQP (b) SQPR
(c) PRSQ (d) RSQP
33. an epoch that was imbued
P
for its people the start of
Q
with a new vision
R
India’s Independence represented
S
(a) SQPR (b) QRPS
(c) SPQR (d) RQSP
34. science and mathematics exhibition
P
for a discussion on the forthcoming
Q
to be present before the Principal
R
all students have been instructed
S
(a) SQPR (b) RPQS
(c) SRQP (d) QPRS
35. two bowlers and two batsmen respectively
P
to the new team
Q
with the selection of another player
R
the team now has
S
(a) QPRS (b) SQRP
(c) RQSP (d) RPSQ
Word classes
Directions: Each of the following sentences has an
underlined word. Read the sentence carefully and
find which word class the underlined word belongs
to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
36. You are most welcome to visit my humble
abode.
(a) Noun (b) Adjective
(c) Adverb (d) Participle
37. The situation is beyond our control.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb
(c) Conjunction (d) Preposition
38. I didn’t tell him anything except that I needed
the money.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb
(c) Preposition (d) Conjunction
39. He dry-cleaned my coat nicely.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb
(c) Relative pronoun (d) Conjunction
40. Would you like to buy this new item?
(a) Determiner (b) Conjunction
(c) Interjection (d) Adjective
Passage
Directions: Read the following passage carefully
and answer the items based on it. You are required
to select your answers based solely on the contents
of the passage and the opinion of the author.
The grouping or assemblage of plants, animals
and microbes we observe when we study a natural
forest, a grassland, a pond, a coral reef or some
other undisturbed area, is referred to as the area’s
biota or biotic community. The plant portion of the
biotic community includes all vegetation, from large
trees down through to microscopic algae. Likewise,
the animal portion includes everything from large
mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibians through
to earthworms, tiny insects and mites. Microbes
encompass a large array of microscopic bacteria,
fungi and protozoans. Thus, the biotic community
comprises a plant community , an animal community
and a microbial community.
The particular kind of biotic community found in
a given area is, in large part, determined by abiotic
factors such as the amount of water or moisture
present, the temperature, the salinity, or the type of
soil in the area. These abiotic factors both support
and limit the particular community. For example,
a relative lack of available moisture prevents the
growth of most species of plants, but supports
certain species, such as cacti; these kinds of areas
and a suitable temperature support forests. The
presence of water is the major factor that sustains
aquatic communities.
The first step in investigating a biotic community
may be simply to catalogue all the species present.
Species are the different kinds of plants, animals
and microbes in the community. A given species
includes all those individuals which have a strong
similarity in appearance to one another and which
are distinct in appearance from other such groups.
Each species in a biotic community is represented
by a certain population – that is, by a certain number
of individuals that make up the interbreeding,
reproducing group.
41. Which one of the following does not belong to
the biotic community?
(a) Water (b) Human
(c) Protozoa (d) Bush
42. The nature of the biotic community largely
depends on:
1. Biotic components
2. Abiotic components
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?
(a) T emperature (b) Humidity
(c) Algae (d) Moisture
44. In the passage, the word ‘aquatic community’
refers to:
(a) Biotic community inhabiting the land
(b) Biotic community found in water
(c) Biotic community found in the air
(d) Assemblage of rain and moisture
45. Species are defined on the basis of:
(a) Similarities only
(b) Differences only
(c) Both similarities and differences
(d) None of the above
Synonyms
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a
sentence with an underlined word followed by
four words/group of words. Select the option that
is nearest in meaning to the underlined word
and mark your response on the Answer Sheet
accordingly.
46. The king’s son was banished due to the political
rivalry.
(a) deported (b) called back
(c) accepted (d) notified
47. He gave a dazzling performance at the opera.
(a) brilliant (b) dismal
(c) pathetic (d) puerile
48. She rebuffed all suggestions from her friends.
(a) took (b) rejected
(c) criticised (d) granted
49. He disowned his royal legacy and became a
commoner.
(a) accepted (b) abandoned
(c) allowed (d) questioned
50. The public was sceptical about the new
government policy.
(a) hopeful (b) anxious
(c) doubtful (d) expectant
Solved Paper - 2024 (I)
Q. No Answer Key T opic’s Name Chapter’s Name
1 d Antonyms V ocabulary
2 a Antonyms V ocabulary
3 a Antonyms V ocabulary
4 b Antonyms V ocabulary
5 d Antonyms V ocabulary
6 b Cloze Comprehension Grammar
7 a Cloze Comprehension Grammar
8 c Cloze Comprehension Grammar
9 d Cloze Comprehension Grammar
10 c Cloze Comprehension Grammar
11 a Cloze Comprehension Grammar
12 d Cloze Comprehension Grammar
13 a Cloze Comprehension Grammar
14 b Cloze Comprehension Grammar
15 b Cloze Comprehension Grammar
16 b Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
17 a Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
18 b Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
19 a Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
20 c Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
21 a Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
22 b Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
23 b Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
24 b Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
25 b Sentence Completion Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
26 c Idioms and Phrases V ocabulary
27 c Idioms and Phrases V ocabulary
28 d Idioms and Phrases V ocabulary
29 d Idioms and Phrases V ocabulary
30 b Idioms and Phrases V ocabulary
31 a Order of Words in a Sentence Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
32 a Order of Words in a Sentence Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
33 a Order of Words in a Sentence Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
34 c Order of Words in a Sentence Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
35 c Order of Words in a Sentence Sentence Structure & V erbal Ability
36 a Word Class Grammar
37 d Word Class Grammar
38 d Word Class Grammar
39 b Word Class Grammar
40 a Word Class Grammar
41 a Passage Reading Comprehension
42 c Passage Reading Comprehension
43 c Passage Reading Comprehension
44 b Passage Reading Comprehension
45 c Passage Reading Comprehension
46 a Synonyms V ocabulary
47 a Synonyms V ocabulary
48 b Synonyms V ocabulary
49 b Synonyms V ocabulary
50 c Synonyms V ocabulary
Answer Key
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