NDA General Ability Solved Paper 2024 | NDA (National Defence Academy) Past Year Papers PDF Download

 Page 1


Time: 1 hr 40 min T otal Marks: 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response 
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response 
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to the various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some 
particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions.
5. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE 
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given 
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens 
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
 National Defence Academy / 
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
GENERAL ABILITY TEST 
1. An infinite combination of resistors, each 
having resistance R = 4 W, is given below. 
What is the net resistance between the points A 
and B? (Each resistance is of equal value, R = 4)
A
B
RR
R
R
RR R
R
¥
(a) 0 W (b) 22 5 + O
(c) 25 + O (d) 8 W
2. An electric circuit is given below. V
1
 = 1 V and 
Resistance R = 1000 W.
 
A
B
R
V
1
 The current through the resistance R is very 
close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A 
and B, V
AB
 = 1 V . Now the circuit is changed 
to:
 
A
B
R
V
1
V
2
 where value of V
2
 = 5V . The internal resistances 
of both the batteries are 0.1 W. The current 
through the resistance R is about:
(a) 1.0 mA (b) 1.2 mA
(c) 3.0 mA (d) 5.0 mA
3. If the current through an electrical machine 
running on direct current is 15 A and the 
machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that 
passes through the machine during this time 
is:
(a) 1.50 C (b) 150 C
(c) 900 C (d) 9000 C
4. Which one of the following  is the best shape 
of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a 
lightning conductor?
(a) 
 
(b) 
(c)  (d) 
5. Which of the following forces is/are 
fundamental in nature?
1. Gravitational force
2. Electromagnetic forces
3. Strong and weak nuclear forces
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Page 2


Time: 1 hr 40 min T otal Marks: 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response 
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response 
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to the various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some 
particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions.
5. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE 
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given 
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens 
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
 National Defence Academy / 
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
GENERAL ABILITY TEST 
1. An infinite combination of resistors, each 
having resistance R = 4 W, is given below. 
What is the net resistance between the points A 
and B? (Each resistance is of equal value, R = 4)
A
B
RR
R
R
RR R
R
¥
(a) 0 W (b) 22 5 + O
(c) 25 + O (d) 8 W
2. An electric circuit is given below. V
1
 = 1 V and 
Resistance R = 1000 W.
 
A
B
R
V
1
 The current through the resistance R is very 
close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A 
and B, V
AB
 = 1 V . Now the circuit is changed 
to:
 
A
B
R
V
1
V
2
 where value of V
2
 = 5V . The internal resistances 
of both the batteries are 0.1 W. The current 
through the resistance R is about:
(a) 1.0 mA (b) 1.2 mA
(c) 3.0 mA (d) 5.0 mA
3. If the current through an electrical machine 
running on direct current is 15 A and the 
machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that 
passes through the machine during this time 
is:
(a) 1.50 C (b) 150 C
(c) 900 C (d) 9000 C
4. Which one of the following  is the best shape 
of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a 
lightning conductor?
(a) 
 
(b) 
(c)  (d) 
5. Which of the following forces is/are 
fundamental in nature?
1. Gravitational force
2. Electromagnetic forces
3. Strong and weak nuclear forces
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. A spherical shell of outer radius R and inner 
radius 
R
2
 contains a solid sphere of radius 
R
2
(see figure). The density of the material of 
the solid sphere is ? and that of the shell is 
?
2
.
What is the average mass density of the larger 
sphere thus formed?
(a) 
3
4
?
(b)
9
16
?
(c) 
7
8
?
(d)
5
8
?
7. The human eye is like a camera that has a lens 
with:
(a) fixed focal length and fixed aperture size.
(b)  variable focal length and fixed aperture 
size.
(c)  fixed focal length and variable aperture 
size.
(d)  variable focal length and variable aperture 
size.
8. Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, 
to which of the following items do the Acts of 
the Parliament of India not apply to the State of 
Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of 
the state of Nagaland decides by a resolution?
1. Religious or social practices of Nagas.
2. Naga Customary law and procedure.
3. Ownership and transfer of land and its 
resources.
4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, 
a person shall be disqualified for being chosen 
as, and for being, a member of the Legislative 
Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the 
person holds any office of profit under:
1. the Government of India.
2. any State Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following UN Declarations/
Covenants:
1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
2.  Convention on the Elimination of All forms 
of Discrimination Against Women
3.  International Covenant of Economic, Social 
and Cultural Rights
4. Convention on Refugees
Which one of the following is the correct 
chronological order (starting with the earliest) 
of the above?
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
11. Which one of the following statements 
regarding the objectives of the 2
nd
 Five-Year 
plan is not correct?
(a)  Development of the basic and heavy 
industry sector.
(b)  Increase in national income to raise living 
standards.
(c) Expansion of the consumer goods sector.
(d) Expansion of employment opportunities.
12. Consider the following statements about the 
emergence of urban centres in India from circa 
6
th
 Century BCE:
1.  All of them developed away from the 
capitals of Mahajanpadas.
2.  Major towns were located along routes of 
communication. 
3.  Many were bustling centres of commercial, 
cultural and political activity.
How many of the above statements is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
13. Consider the following statements about 
ancient Indian inscriptions:
1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.
2.  Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the 
north-west, was deciphered with the help 
of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled 
over the area.
3.  Most of the inscriptions mention grand, 
unique events and routine agricultural 
practices do not find mention.
How many of the above statements is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
14. The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists 
in two isotopic forms 
10
B and 
11
B) is 10.81. 
What will be the abundance of 
10
B and 
11
B, 
respectively (consider a sample of 100 atoms)?
(a) 19% and 81% (b) 81% and 19%
(c) 38% and 62% (d)  62% and 38%
15. Which among the following are essential 
constituents of Portland cement?
(a) Sand, lime, clay
(b) Silica, alumina, lime
Page 3


Time: 1 hr 40 min T otal Marks: 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response 
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response 
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to the various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some 
particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions.
5. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE 
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given 
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens 
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
 National Defence Academy / 
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
GENERAL ABILITY TEST 
1. An infinite combination of resistors, each 
having resistance R = 4 W, is given below. 
What is the net resistance between the points A 
and B? (Each resistance is of equal value, R = 4)
A
B
RR
R
R
RR R
R
¥
(a) 0 W (b) 22 5 + O
(c) 25 + O (d) 8 W
2. An electric circuit is given below. V
1
 = 1 V and 
Resistance R = 1000 W.
 
A
B
R
V
1
 The current through the resistance R is very 
close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A 
and B, V
AB
 = 1 V . Now the circuit is changed 
to:
 
A
B
R
V
1
V
2
 where value of V
2
 = 5V . The internal resistances 
of both the batteries are 0.1 W. The current 
through the resistance R is about:
(a) 1.0 mA (b) 1.2 mA
(c) 3.0 mA (d) 5.0 mA
3. If the current through an electrical machine 
running on direct current is 15 A and the 
machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that 
passes through the machine during this time 
is:
(a) 1.50 C (b) 150 C
(c) 900 C (d) 9000 C
4. Which one of the following  is the best shape 
of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a 
lightning conductor?
(a) 
 
(b) 
(c)  (d) 
5. Which of the following forces is/are 
fundamental in nature?
1. Gravitational force
2. Electromagnetic forces
3. Strong and weak nuclear forces
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. A spherical shell of outer radius R and inner 
radius 
R
2
 contains a solid sphere of radius 
R
2
(see figure). The density of the material of 
the solid sphere is ? and that of the shell is 
?
2
.
What is the average mass density of the larger 
sphere thus formed?
(a) 
3
4
?
(b)
9
16
?
(c) 
7
8
?
(d)
5
8
?
7. The human eye is like a camera that has a lens 
with:
(a) fixed focal length and fixed aperture size.
(b)  variable focal length and fixed aperture 
size.
(c)  fixed focal length and variable aperture 
size.
(d)  variable focal length and variable aperture 
size.
8. Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, 
to which of the following items do the Acts of 
the Parliament of India not apply to the State of 
Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of 
the state of Nagaland decides by a resolution?
1. Religious or social practices of Nagas.
2. Naga Customary law and procedure.
3. Ownership and transfer of land and its 
resources.
4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, 
a person shall be disqualified for being chosen 
as, and for being, a member of the Legislative 
Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the 
person holds any office of profit under:
1. the Government of India.
2. any State Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following UN Declarations/
Covenants:
1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
2.  Convention on the Elimination of All forms 
of Discrimination Against Women
3.  International Covenant of Economic, Social 
and Cultural Rights
4. Convention on Refugees
Which one of the following is the correct 
chronological order (starting with the earliest) 
of the above?
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
11. Which one of the following statements 
regarding the objectives of the 2
nd
 Five-Year 
plan is not correct?
(a)  Development of the basic and heavy 
industry sector.
(b)  Increase in national income to raise living 
standards.
(c) Expansion of the consumer goods sector.
(d) Expansion of employment opportunities.
12. Consider the following statements about the 
emergence of urban centres in India from circa 
6
th
 Century BCE:
1.  All of them developed away from the 
capitals of Mahajanpadas.
2.  Major towns were located along routes of 
communication. 
3.  Many were bustling centres of commercial, 
cultural and political activity.
How many of the above statements is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
13. Consider the following statements about 
ancient Indian inscriptions:
1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.
2.  Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the 
north-west, was deciphered with the help 
of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled 
over the area.
3.  Most of the inscriptions mention grand, 
unique events and routine agricultural 
practices do not find mention.
How many of the above statements is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
14. The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists 
in two isotopic forms 
10
B and 
11
B) is 10.81. 
What will be the abundance of 
10
B and 
11
B, 
respectively (consider a sample of 100 atoms)?
(a) 19% and 81% (b) 81% and 19%
(c) 38% and 62% (d)  62% and 38%
15. Which among the following are essential 
constituents of Portland cement?
(a) Sand, lime, clay
(b) Silica, alumina, lime
SOLVED PAPER – 2024 (I)
(c) Silica, lime, graphite powder
(d) Sand, graphene, clay
16. Litmus, a well-known acid-base indicator, is 
derived from:
(a) fungi (b) Lichens
(c) Bacteria (d) Termite
17. What is the oxidation state of Vanadium in 
V
2
O
5
?
(a) + 2 (b) + 4
(c)  + 3 (d) + 5
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer  using the code given below the Lists:
List-I      List-II
 (Allotrope of   (Property)
 Corbon)
A. Graphite 1. Thinnest and 
   strongest material
B. Diamond 2. Hardest natural 
   substance
C. Fullerene 3. Very light and 
   strong material
D. Graphene 4. Soft and slippery 
   material
Code:
 A     B     C     D
(a) 4      2      3      1
(b) 4      3      2      1
(c)  1      3      2      4
(d) 1      2      3      4
19. Consider the following statements regarding 
the International Date Line:
1.  It is roughly 180° meridian, which deviates 
slightly East and West to avoid land areas 
surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean.
2.  The date to the East of this line is (24 hours) 
earlier than to the West.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2 (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
20. Which of the following statements regarding 
‘aurora’ is/are correct?
1. The solar wind upon reaching the Earth’s 
atmosphere is directed towards two 
magnetic poles and a colourful display of 
lights is seen in the night sky.
2.  The particles interact with the different 
gases of the atmosphere and each gas glows 
with a particular colour.
3.  In April 2023, aurora was captured in the 
night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical 
Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b)  2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Which of the following statements regarding 
Barchan is/are correct?
1.  It is a crescent-shaped mound of sand, 
which is deposited by the wind blowing 
constantly from one direction in a desert.
2.  The windward side has a convex steep 
slope with maximum height at the centre.
3.  Two ends of Barchan are called horns and 
point opposite to the direction the wind 
blows.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Which of the following statements regarding 
Regur soil is/are correct?
1. It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil.
2.  It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava 
under hot and humid conditions.
3. Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
23. Which of the following statements regarding 
clouds is/are correct?
1.  Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude 
and their form.
2.  According to altitude they are classified as 
High, Middle and Low clouds.
3.  Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus 
are high clouds.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Consider the following statements regarding 
‘fronts’:
1.  The movement of a front causes a slow 
change in weather in the area over which it 
moves.
2.  Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms.
3.  Warm front is the boundary between an 
advancing mass of warm air where it is 
overriding and rising above a mass of 
colder air.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Consider the following statements regarding 
soils:
1.  Soils having a very high content of sodium 
and calcium and pH of more than 7.0 are 
alkaline soils.
2.  Black cotton soil had developed on the 
Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid 
conditions.
Page 4


Time: 1 hr 40 min T otal Marks: 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response 
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response 
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to the various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some 
particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions.
5. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE 
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given 
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens 
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
 National Defence Academy / 
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
GENERAL ABILITY TEST 
1. An infinite combination of resistors, each 
having resistance R = 4 W, is given below. 
What is the net resistance between the points A 
and B? (Each resistance is of equal value, R = 4)
A
B
RR
R
R
RR R
R
¥
(a) 0 W (b) 22 5 + O
(c) 25 + O (d) 8 W
2. An electric circuit is given below. V
1
 = 1 V and 
Resistance R = 1000 W.
 
A
B
R
V
1
 The current through the resistance R is very 
close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A 
and B, V
AB
 = 1 V . Now the circuit is changed 
to:
 
A
B
R
V
1
V
2
 where value of V
2
 = 5V . The internal resistances 
of both the batteries are 0.1 W. The current 
through the resistance R is about:
(a) 1.0 mA (b) 1.2 mA
(c) 3.0 mA (d) 5.0 mA
3. If the current through an electrical machine 
running on direct current is 15 A and the 
machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that 
passes through the machine during this time 
is:
(a) 1.50 C (b) 150 C
(c) 900 C (d) 9000 C
4. Which one of the following  is the best shape 
of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a 
lightning conductor?
(a) 
 
(b) 
(c)  (d) 
5. Which of the following forces is/are 
fundamental in nature?
1. Gravitational force
2. Electromagnetic forces
3. Strong and weak nuclear forces
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. A spherical shell of outer radius R and inner 
radius 
R
2
 contains a solid sphere of radius 
R
2
(see figure). The density of the material of 
the solid sphere is ? and that of the shell is 
?
2
.
What is the average mass density of the larger 
sphere thus formed?
(a) 
3
4
?
(b)
9
16
?
(c) 
7
8
?
(d)
5
8
?
7. The human eye is like a camera that has a lens 
with:
(a) fixed focal length and fixed aperture size.
(b)  variable focal length and fixed aperture 
size.
(c)  fixed focal length and variable aperture 
size.
(d)  variable focal length and variable aperture 
size.
8. Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, 
to which of the following items do the Acts of 
the Parliament of India not apply to the State of 
Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of 
the state of Nagaland decides by a resolution?
1. Religious or social practices of Nagas.
2. Naga Customary law and procedure.
3. Ownership and transfer of land and its 
resources.
4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, 
a person shall be disqualified for being chosen 
as, and for being, a member of the Legislative 
Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the 
person holds any office of profit under:
1. the Government of India.
2. any State Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following UN Declarations/
Covenants:
1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
2.  Convention on the Elimination of All forms 
of Discrimination Against Women
3.  International Covenant of Economic, Social 
and Cultural Rights
4. Convention on Refugees
Which one of the following is the correct 
chronological order (starting with the earliest) 
of the above?
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
11. Which one of the following statements 
regarding the objectives of the 2
nd
 Five-Year 
plan is not correct?
(a)  Development of the basic and heavy 
industry sector.
(b)  Increase in national income to raise living 
standards.
(c) Expansion of the consumer goods sector.
(d) Expansion of employment opportunities.
12. Consider the following statements about the 
emergence of urban centres in India from circa 
6
th
 Century BCE:
1.  All of them developed away from the 
capitals of Mahajanpadas.
2.  Major towns were located along routes of 
communication. 
3.  Many were bustling centres of commercial, 
cultural and political activity.
How many of the above statements is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
13. Consider the following statements about 
ancient Indian inscriptions:
1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.
2.  Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the 
north-west, was deciphered with the help 
of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled 
over the area.
3.  Most of the inscriptions mention grand, 
unique events and routine agricultural 
practices do not find mention.
How many of the above statements is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
14. The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists 
in two isotopic forms 
10
B and 
11
B) is 10.81. 
What will be the abundance of 
10
B and 
11
B, 
respectively (consider a sample of 100 atoms)?
(a) 19% and 81% (b) 81% and 19%
(c) 38% and 62% (d)  62% and 38%
15. Which among the following are essential 
constituents of Portland cement?
(a) Sand, lime, clay
(b) Silica, alumina, lime
SOLVED PAPER – 2024 (I)
(c) Silica, lime, graphite powder
(d) Sand, graphene, clay
16. Litmus, a well-known acid-base indicator, is 
derived from:
(a) fungi (b) Lichens
(c) Bacteria (d) Termite
17. What is the oxidation state of Vanadium in 
V
2
O
5
?
(a) + 2 (b) + 4
(c)  + 3 (d) + 5
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer  using the code given below the Lists:
List-I      List-II
 (Allotrope of   (Property)
 Corbon)
A. Graphite 1. Thinnest and 
   strongest material
B. Diamond 2. Hardest natural 
   substance
C. Fullerene 3. Very light and 
   strong material
D. Graphene 4. Soft and slippery 
   material
Code:
 A     B     C     D
(a) 4      2      3      1
(b) 4      3      2      1
(c)  1      3      2      4
(d) 1      2      3      4
19. Consider the following statements regarding 
the International Date Line:
1.  It is roughly 180° meridian, which deviates 
slightly East and West to avoid land areas 
surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean.
2.  The date to the East of this line is (24 hours) 
earlier than to the West.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2 (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
20. Which of the following statements regarding 
‘aurora’ is/are correct?
1. The solar wind upon reaching the Earth’s 
atmosphere is directed towards two 
magnetic poles and a colourful display of 
lights is seen in the night sky.
2.  The particles interact with the different 
gases of the atmosphere and each gas glows 
with a particular colour.
3.  In April 2023, aurora was captured in the 
night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical 
Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b)  2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Which of the following statements regarding 
Barchan is/are correct?
1.  It is a crescent-shaped mound of sand, 
which is deposited by the wind blowing 
constantly from one direction in a desert.
2.  The windward side has a convex steep 
slope with maximum height at the centre.
3.  Two ends of Barchan are called horns and 
point opposite to the direction the wind 
blows.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Which of the following statements regarding 
Regur soil is/are correct?
1. It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil.
2.  It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava 
under hot and humid conditions.
3. Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
23. Which of the following statements regarding 
clouds is/are correct?
1.  Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude 
and their form.
2.  According to altitude they are classified as 
High, Middle and Low clouds.
3.  Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus 
are high clouds.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Consider the following statements regarding 
‘fronts’:
1.  The movement of a front causes a slow 
change in weather in the area over which it 
moves.
2.  Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms.
3.  Warm front is the boundary between an 
advancing mass of warm air where it is 
overriding and rising above a mass of 
colder air.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Consider the following statements regarding 
soils:
1.  Soils having a very high content of sodium 
and calcium and pH of more than 7.0 are 
alkaline soils.
2.  Black cotton soil had developed on the 
Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid 
conditions.
3.  Laterite soils are characterised by a deep 
weathered layer from which silica has been 
leached.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Consider the following characteristics of a 
grassland:
1.  An extensive area of mid-latitude grasslands 
are devoid of trees and shrubs.
2.  The climate is characterised by hot summers, 
cold winters and relatively low rainfall 
occurring mainly in spring and summer.
3.  In humid parts, grasses grow to a metre or 
more in height.
On the basis of the above characteristics, select 
the correct grassland from the options given 
below:
(a) Steppes (b) Prairies
(c) Savanna (d) Pampas
27. Which of the following statements regarding 
animal cell membrane is correct?
(a) They are composed of phospholipids only
(b) They are composed of proteins only.
(c)  They are composed of phospholipids and 
proteins only.
(d)  They are composed phospholipids, proteins 
and cholesterol (lipid).
28. Which of the following is not a part of 
compound microscope?
(a) Mirror (b) Stage
(c) Clip (d) Retina
29. Which one of the following is the correct 
sequence in increasing complexity?
(a) Protein–Organism–Tissue–Organ 
(b) Protein–Organ–Tissue–Organism
(c) Protein–Organism–Organ–Tissue
(d) Protein–Tissue–Organ–Organism
30. Consider the following cell types:
1. Monocyte
2. Chondrocyte
3. Basophil
4. Lymphocyte
How many of the above belong to animal cell 
types?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
31. In the human digestive system, which one 
among the following is the role of the pancreas?
(a)  Secretion of surfactants to break up lipid 
droplets
(b) Storage and regulated release of bile
(c) Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease 
(d) Neutralising stomach acids
32. Consider the following statements:
1.  DNA replication takes place when 
chromatin is opened up.
2.  Chromatin organises itself into rod-shaped 
chromosomes before cell division.
3.  Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have the 
same process for cell division.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
33. A uniform meter scale of mass 0.24 kg is made 
of steel. It is kept on two wedges, W
1
 and W
2
, in 
a horizontal position. W
1
 is at a distance of 0.2 
m from one of its ends, while W
2
 is at distance 
of 0.4 m from the other end. It the force on the 
scale is N
1
 due to W
1
 and N
2
 due to W
2
, then : 
(take g = 10.0 m s
–2
)
(a) N
1
 = 1.6 N and N
2
 = 0.8 N
(b) N
1
 = 0.8 N and N
2
 = 1.6 N
(c) N
1
 = 0.6 N and N
2
 = 1.8 N
(d) N
1
 = 1.8 N and N
2
 = 0.6 N
34. Escape speed from the Earth is close to 11.2 km 
s
–1
. On another planet whose radius is half of 
the Earth’s radius and whose mass density is 
four times that of the Earth, the escape speed 
in km s
–1
 will be close to:
(a) 11.2 (b) 15.8
(c) 5.6 (d) 7.9
35. Which one of the following does not apply to 
sound waves in fluids?
(a) They transport energy.
(b) They need a medium to travel.
(c) They are transverse.
(d) They travel faster in liquids than in gases.
36. A ball of 0.1 kg mass is dropped on a hard floor 
from a height of 0.45 m and rises to a height 
of 0.20 m. If it was in touch with the floor for 
0.1 s, the net force it applied on the floor while 
bouncing is : (take the gravitational acceleration 
g = 10 m s
–2
)
(a) 1.0 N (b) 6.0 N
(c) 3.0 N (d) 5.0 N
37. Which one of the following statements 
regarding simple pendulum is correct?
 Simple pendulum has a time period 
independent of amplitude :
(a)  only for small amplitudes because then the 
net force on its bob is independent of its 
displacement.
(b)  for any amplitude because the net force 
on the bob is always proportional to its 
displacement.
(c)  for any amplitude because the net force on 
the bob is independent of its displacement.
Page 5


Time: 1 hr 40 min T otal Marks: 400
Instructions
1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response 
which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response 
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to the various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some 
particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions.
5. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE 
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given 
by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens 
to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
NDA / NA
 National Defence Academy / 
Naval Academy I
QUESTION PAPER
2024
GENERAL ABILITY TEST 
1. An infinite combination of resistors, each 
having resistance R = 4 W, is given below. 
What is the net resistance between the points A 
and B? (Each resistance is of equal value, R = 4)
A
B
RR
R
R
RR R
R
¥
(a) 0 W (b) 22 5 + O
(c) 25 + O (d) 8 W
2. An electric circuit is given below. V
1
 = 1 V and 
Resistance R = 1000 W.
 
A
B
R
V
1
 The current through the resistance R is very 
close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A 
and B, V
AB
 = 1 V . Now the circuit is changed 
to:
 
A
B
R
V
1
V
2
 where value of V
2
 = 5V . The internal resistances 
of both the batteries are 0.1 W. The current 
through the resistance R is about:
(a) 1.0 mA (b) 1.2 mA
(c) 3.0 mA (d) 5.0 mA
3. If the current through an electrical machine 
running on direct current is 15 A and the 
machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that 
passes through the machine during this time 
is:
(a) 1.50 C (b) 150 C
(c) 900 C (d) 9000 C
4. Which one of the following  is the best shape 
of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a 
lightning conductor?
(a) 
 
(b) 
(c)  (d) 
5. Which of the following forces is/are 
fundamental in nature?
1. Gravitational force
2. Electromagnetic forces
3. Strong and weak nuclear forces
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below: 
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
6. A spherical shell of outer radius R and inner 
radius 
R
2
 contains a solid sphere of radius 
R
2
(see figure). The density of the material of 
the solid sphere is ? and that of the shell is 
?
2
.
What is the average mass density of the larger 
sphere thus formed?
(a) 
3
4
?
(b)
9
16
?
(c) 
7
8
?
(d)
5
8
?
7. The human eye is like a camera that has a lens 
with:
(a) fixed focal length and fixed aperture size.
(b)  variable focal length and fixed aperture 
size.
(c)  fixed focal length and variable aperture 
size.
(d)  variable focal length and variable aperture 
size.
8. Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, 
to which of the following items do the Acts of 
the Parliament of India not apply to the State of 
Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of 
the state of Nagaland decides by a resolution?
1. Religious or social practices of Nagas.
2. Naga Customary law and procedure.
3. Ownership and transfer of land and its 
resources.
4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, 
a person shall be disqualified for being chosen 
as, and for being, a member of the Legislative 
Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the 
person holds any office of profit under:
1. the Government of India.
2. any State Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given 
below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following UN Declarations/
Covenants:
1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
2.  Convention on the Elimination of All forms 
of Discrimination Against Women
3.  International Covenant of Economic, Social 
and Cultural Rights
4. Convention on Refugees
Which one of the following is the correct 
chronological order (starting with the earliest) 
of the above?
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
11. Which one of the following statements 
regarding the objectives of the 2
nd
 Five-Year 
plan is not correct?
(a)  Development of the basic and heavy 
industry sector.
(b)  Increase in national income to raise living 
standards.
(c) Expansion of the consumer goods sector.
(d) Expansion of employment opportunities.
12. Consider the following statements about the 
emergence of urban centres in India from circa 
6
th
 Century BCE:
1.  All of them developed away from the 
capitals of Mahajanpadas.
2.  Major towns were located along routes of 
communication. 
3.  Many were bustling centres of commercial, 
cultural and political activity.
How many of the above statements is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
13. Consider the following statements about 
ancient Indian inscriptions:
1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.
2.  Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the 
north-west, was deciphered with the help 
of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled 
over the area.
3.  Most of the inscriptions mention grand, 
unique events and routine agricultural 
practices do not find mention.
How many of the above statements is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
14. The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists 
in two isotopic forms 
10
B and 
11
B) is 10.81. 
What will be the abundance of 
10
B and 
11
B, 
respectively (consider a sample of 100 atoms)?
(a) 19% and 81% (b) 81% and 19%
(c) 38% and 62% (d)  62% and 38%
15. Which among the following are essential 
constituents of Portland cement?
(a) Sand, lime, clay
(b) Silica, alumina, lime
SOLVED PAPER – 2024 (I)
(c) Silica, lime, graphite powder
(d) Sand, graphene, clay
16. Litmus, a well-known acid-base indicator, is 
derived from:
(a) fungi (b) Lichens
(c) Bacteria (d) Termite
17. What is the oxidation state of Vanadium in 
V
2
O
5
?
(a) + 2 (b) + 4
(c)  + 3 (d) + 5
18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer  using the code given below the Lists:
List-I      List-II
 (Allotrope of   (Property)
 Corbon)
A. Graphite 1. Thinnest and 
   strongest material
B. Diamond 2. Hardest natural 
   substance
C. Fullerene 3. Very light and 
   strong material
D. Graphene 4. Soft and slippery 
   material
Code:
 A     B     C     D
(a) 4      2      3      1
(b) 4      3      2      1
(c)  1      3      2      4
(d) 1      2      3      4
19. Consider the following statements regarding 
the International Date Line:
1.  It is roughly 180° meridian, which deviates 
slightly East and West to avoid land areas 
surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean.
2.  The date to the East of this line is (24 hours) 
earlier than to the West.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c)  Both 1 and 2 (d)  Neither 1 nor 2
20. Which of the following statements regarding 
‘aurora’ is/are correct?
1. The solar wind upon reaching the Earth’s 
atmosphere is directed towards two 
magnetic poles and a colourful display of 
lights is seen in the night sky.
2.  The particles interact with the different 
gases of the atmosphere and each gas glows 
with a particular colour.
3.  In April 2023, aurora was captured in the 
night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical 
Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b)  2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
21. Which of the following statements regarding 
Barchan is/are correct?
1.  It is a crescent-shaped mound of sand, 
which is deposited by the wind blowing 
constantly from one direction in a desert.
2.  The windward side has a convex steep 
slope with maximum height at the centre.
3.  Two ends of Barchan are called horns and 
point opposite to the direction the wind 
blows.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Which of the following statements regarding 
Regur soil is/are correct?
1. It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil.
2.  It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava 
under hot and humid conditions.
3. Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
23. Which of the following statements regarding 
clouds is/are correct?
1.  Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude 
and their form.
2.  According to altitude they are classified as 
High, Middle and Low clouds.
3.  Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus 
are high clouds.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Consider the following statements regarding 
‘fronts’:
1.  The movement of a front causes a slow 
change in weather in the area over which it 
moves.
2.  Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms.
3.  Warm front is the boundary between an 
advancing mass of warm air where it is 
overriding and rising above a mass of 
colder air.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Consider the following statements regarding 
soils:
1.  Soils having a very high content of sodium 
and calcium and pH of more than 7.0 are 
alkaline soils.
2.  Black cotton soil had developed on the 
Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid 
conditions.
3.  Laterite soils are characterised by a deep 
weathered layer from which silica has been 
leached.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Consider the following characteristics of a 
grassland:
1.  An extensive area of mid-latitude grasslands 
are devoid of trees and shrubs.
2.  The climate is characterised by hot summers, 
cold winters and relatively low rainfall 
occurring mainly in spring and summer.
3.  In humid parts, grasses grow to a metre or 
more in height.
On the basis of the above characteristics, select 
the correct grassland from the options given 
below:
(a) Steppes (b) Prairies
(c) Savanna (d) Pampas
27. Which of the following statements regarding 
animal cell membrane is correct?
(a) They are composed of phospholipids only
(b) They are composed of proteins only.
(c)  They are composed of phospholipids and 
proteins only.
(d)  They are composed phospholipids, proteins 
and cholesterol (lipid).
28. Which of the following is not a part of 
compound microscope?
(a) Mirror (b) Stage
(c) Clip (d) Retina
29. Which one of the following is the correct 
sequence in increasing complexity?
(a) Protein–Organism–Tissue–Organ 
(b) Protein–Organ–Tissue–Organism
(c) Protein–Organism–Organ–Tissue
(d) Protein–Tissue–Organ–Organism
30. Consider the following cell types:
1. Monocyte
2. Chondrocyte
3. Basophil
4. Lymphocyte
How many of the above belong to animal cell 
types?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
31. In the human digestive system, which one 
among the following is the role of the pancreas?
(a)  Secretion of surfactants to break up lipid 
droplets
(b) Storage and regulated release of bile
(c) Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease 
(d) Neutralising stomach acids
32. Consider the following statements:
1.  DNA replication takes place when 
chromatin is opened up.
2.  Chromatin organises itself into rod-shaped 
chromosomes before cell division.
3.  Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have the 
same process for cell division.
Which of the statements given above is/are 
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
33. A uniform meter scale of mass 0.24 kg is made 
of steel. It is kept on two wedges, W
1
 and W
2
, in 
a horizontal position. W
1
 is at a distance of 0.2 
m from one of its ends, while W
2
 is at distance 
of 0.4 m from the other end. It the force on the 
scale is N
1
 due to W
1
 and N
2
 due to W
2
, then : 
(take g = 10.0 m s
–2
)
(a) N
1
 = 1.6 N and N
2
 = 0.8 N
(b) N
1
 = 0.8 N and N
2
 = 1.6 N
(c) N
1
 = 0.6 N and N
2
 = 1.8 N
(d) N
1
 = 1.8 N and N
2
 = 0.6 N
34. Escape speed from the Earth is close to 11.2 km 
s
–1
. On another planet whose radius is half of 
the Earth’s radius and whose mass density is 
four times that of the Earth, the escape speed 
in km s
–1
 will be close to:
(a) 11.2 (b) 15.8
(c) 5.6 (d) 7.9
35. Which one of the following does not apply to 
sound waves in fluids?
(a) They transport energy.
(b) They need a medium to travel.
(c) They are transverse.
(d) They travel faster in liquids than in gases.
36. A ball of 0.1 kg mass is dropped on a hard floor 
from a height of 0.45 m and rises to a height 
of 0.20 m. If it was in touch with the floor for 
0.1 s, the net force it applied on the floor while 
bouncing is : (take the gravitational acceleration 
g = 10 m s
–2
)
(a) 1.0 N (b) 6.0 N
(c) 3.0 N (d) 5.0 N
37. Which one of the following statements 
regarding simple pendulum is correct?
 Simple pendulum has a time period 
independent of amplitude :
(a)  only for small amplitudes because then the 
net force on its bob is independent of its 
displacement.
(b)  for any amplitude because the net force 
on the bob is always proportional to its 
displacement.
(c)  for any amplitude because the net force on 
the bob is independent of its displacement.
SOLVED PAPER – 2024 (I)
(d)  only for small amplitudes because then the 
net force on its bob is proportional to its 
displacement.
38. Which one of the following about different 
frictional forces is correct?
(a)  Kinetic friction > Static friction > Rolling 
friction
(b)  Static friction > Rolling friction > Kinetic 
friction
(c)  Static friction > Kinetic friction > Rolling 
friction
(d)  Static friction > Kinetic friction = Rolling 
friction
39. A metallic bob X of mass m is released from 
position A. It collides elastically with another 
identical bob Y placed at rest at position B on 
a horizontal frictionless table. The angle AOB 
is 30°.
O
A
X
Y
B
 How high does the bob x rise immediately after 
the collision?
(a)  T o the same height as that of position A on 
the other side in the same trajectory.
(b)  To half the height as that of position A on 
the other side along the same trajectory.
(c) The same height at position A.
(d) It stops at position B.
40. Consider the two statements given below:
Statement 1:  Infrared waves are also called 
heat waves.
Statement 2:  Water molecules readily absorb 
infrared waves.
 Select the correct answer using the code given 
below:
(a)  Both the statements are individually true 
and Statement 2 is the correct explanation 
of Statement 1.
(b)  Both the statements are individually 
true, but Statement 2 is not the correct 
explanation of Statement 1.
(c)  Statements 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false.
(d)  Statements 2 is true, but Statement 1 is false.
41. Which of the following statements are correct?
1.  British ‘trade surplus’ with India in the 
nineteenth century meant that the value 
of British exports to India was much higher 
than the value of British imports from India.
2.  India played a crucial role in the late-
nineteenth-century world economy by 
helping Britain balance its deficits.
3.  Britain grew opium in India and exported 
it to China and, therefore, for a while after 
the 1820s, opium became India’s single 
largest export.
4.  The nineteenth century saw export of 
Indian raw materials decline and that of 
manufactured goods increase.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 
answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I     List-II
 (Unit in use in  (Content)
 early India)
A. Muhurta 1. Measure of weight
B. Raktika 2. Measure of time
C.  Angula 3. Metre of poetry
D. Pada 4. Measure of length
Code:
 A     B     C     D
(a) 2      1      4      3
(b) 2      4      1      3
(c) 3      4      1      2
(d) 3      1      4      2
43. First coins in Indian history bearing the names 
and images of rulers were issued by the:
(a) Mauryas (b) Pushyabhutis
(c) Guptas (d) Indo-Greeks
44. Social theorists in the nineteenth and twentieth 
centuries emphasised the emergence of 
industrialisation, urbanisation, secularisation 
and bureaucratisation as hallmarks of:
(a) Modernity (b) Feudalism
(c) Kingship (d) Medievalism
45. Consider the following events:
1. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement
2. All-India Khilafat Conference in delhi
3. Passing of the Rowlatt Act
4. Jallianwala Bagh incident
Which one of the following is the correct 
chronological order of the given events 
(earliesst to latest)?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 2, 3, 4, 1