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UGC NET Code 17 Management 30
th
 Nov 2021 
1.) Which one of the following information types is NOT included in a skill inventory? 
(A) Employee's personal data 
(B) Organization's training schedule 
(C) Employee's potential 
(D) Salary and Job history 
 
2.) Which one of the following approaches stresses that there are no universal rules for managers to 
follow in order to perform the job? 
(A) Contingency 
(B) System 
(C) Mathematical 
(D) Empirical 
 
3.) The best level of output for a perfectly competitive firm in short run is a point where P = MR = 
MC, provided that 
(A) P < AVC 
(B) P > AVC 
(C) P = AVC 
(D) P = AVC 
 
4.) What is the role of advertisements and selling costs in perfectly competitive markets? 
(A) Informative to intimate product/service availability 
(B) Enlarging the market size 
(C) Very essential for the survival of the firm 
(D) Influencing buyer behavior 
 
5.) It is believed that employees’ attitude influences their perception of work, but the employees' 
experience at work may also modify or shape their attitudes. This is an example of: 
(A) Contingency Approach 
(B) Democratic Approach  
(C) Interactional Approach 
(D) Socio-technical system Approach 
 
6.) Which one of the following employee behaviours is NOT true in case of high-stress level? 
(A) Anxiety 
(B) Careless mistakes 
(C) Nervousness 
(D) Low and bad judgmental ability 
 
7.) Information regarding 'personal job demands (human expenditure involved in work, such as energy 
expenditure)' collected in job analysis falls in which one of the following? 
(A) Work Activities 
(B) Worker-Oriented Activities 
Page 2


UGC NET Code 17 Management 30
th
 Nov 2021 
1.) Which one of the following information types is NOT included in a skill inventory? 
(A) Employee's personal data 
(B) Organization's training schedule 
(C) Employee's potential 
(D) Salary and Job history 
 
2.) Which one of the following approaches stresses that there are no universal rules for managers to 
follow in order to perform the job? 
(A) Contingency 
(B) System 
(C) Mathematical 
(D) Empirical 
 
3.) The best level of output for a perfectly competitive firm in short run is a point where P = MR = 
MC, provided that 
(A) P < AVC 
(B) P > AVC 
(C) P = AVC 
(D) P = AVC 
 
4.) What is the role of advertisements and selling costs in perfectly competitive markets? 
(A) Informative to intimate product/service availability 
(B) Enlarging the market size 
(C) Very essential for the survival of the firm 
(D) Influencing buyer behavior 
 
5.) It is believed that employees’ attitude influences their perception of work, but the employees' 
experience at work may also modify or shape their attitudes. This is an example of: 
(A) Contingency Approach 
(B) Democratic Approach  
(C) Interactional Approach 
(D) Socio-technical system Approach 
 
6.) Which one of the following employee behaviours is NOT true in case of high-stress level? 
(A) Anxiety 
(B) Careless mistakes 
(C) Nervousness 
(D) Low and bad judgmental ability 
 
7.) Information regarding 'personal job demands (human expenditure involved in work, such as energy 
expenditure)' collected in job analysis falls in which one of the following? 
(A) Work Activities 
(B) Worker-Oriented Activities 
(C) Personal Requirements 
(D) Job Context 
 
8.) Which one of the following orientation programs seek to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics 
that the person brings to the new job? 
(A) Serial Orientation 
(B) Disjunctive Orientation 
(C) Investiture Orientation 
(D) Divestiture Orientation 
 
9.) In which one of the following motives, relevant for organizational climate, there is an urge to be 
relevant and useful to large groups including society as a whole? 
(A) Affiliation 
(B) Influence 
(C) Extension 
(D) Achievement 
 
10.) If the market price of PQR Ltd. is 44, EPS is 3.75 and the retention ratio is 60%, then the multiplier 
according to Graham and Dodd Model of Dividend policy is 
(A) 15 
(B) 19.5 
(C) 16 
(D) 18.7 
 
11.) The holistic, integrated and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting, selecting, developing, 
managing, and compensating employees is known as 
(A) Human Resource Management 
(B) Strategic Human Resource Management 
(C) Talent Management 
(D) Human Resource Planning 
 
12.) Which one of the following performance appraisal methods prevents supervisors from rating all 
or most employees "satisfactory" or "high"? 
(A) Critical Incident Method 
(B) Forced Distribution Method 
(C) Paired Comparison Method 
(D) Alternation Ranking Method 
 
13.) In case of agency problem, the actions of managers are very likely to be directed towards the goal 
of 
(A) Profit maximization 
(B) Wealth maximization 
(C) Survival and self-sufficiency 
(D) Self-sufficiency 
Page 3


UGC NET Code 17 Management 30
th
 Nov 2021 
1.) Which one of the following information types is NOT included in a skill inventory? 
(A) Employee's personal data 
(B) Organization's training schedule 
(C) Employee's potential 
(D) Salary and Job history 
 
2.) Which one of the following approaches stresses that there are no universal rules for managers to 
follow in order to perform the job? 
(A) Contingency 
(B) System 
(C) Mathematical 
(D) Empirical 
 
3.) The best level of output for a perfectly competitive firm in short run is a point where P = MR = 
MC, provided that 
(A) P < AVC 
(B) P > AVC 
(C) P = AVC 
(D) P = AVC 
 
4.) What is the role of advertisements and selling costs in perfectly competitive markets? 
(A) Informative to intimate product/service availability 
(B) Enlarging the market size 
(C) Very essential for the survival of the firm 
(D) Influencing buyer behavior 
 
5.) It is believed that employees’ attitude influences their perception of work, but the employees' 
experience at work may also modify or shape their attitudes. This is an example of: 
(A) Contingency Approach 
(B) Democratic Approach  
(C) Interactional Approach 
(D) Socio-technical system Approach 
 
6.) Which one of the following employee behaviours is NOT true in case of high-stress level? 
(A) Anxiety 
(B) Careless mistakes 
(C) Nervousness 
(D) Low and bad judgmental ability 
 
7.) Information regarding 'personal job demands (human expenditure involved in work, such as energy 
expenditure)' collected in job analysis falls in which one of the following? 
(A) Work Activities 
(B) Worker-Oriented Activities 
(C) Personal Requirements 
(D) Job Context 
 
8.) Which one of the following orientation programs seek to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics 
that the person brings to the new job? 
(A) Serial Orientation 
(B) Disjunctive Orientation 
(C) Investiture Orientation 
(D) Divestiture Orientation 
 
9.) In which one of the following motives, relevant for organizational climate, there is an urge to be 
relevant and useful to large groups including society as a whole? 
(A) Affiliation 
(B) Influence 
(C) Extension 
(D) Achievement 
 
10.) If the market price of PQR Ltd. is 44, EPS is 3.75 and the retention ratio is 60%, then the multiplier 
according to Graham and Dodd Model of Dividend policy is 
(A) 15 
(B) 19.5 
(C) 16 
(D) 18.7 
 
11.) The holistic, integrated and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting, selecting, developing, 
managing, and compensating employees is known as 
(A) Human Resource Management 
(B) Strategic Human Resource Management 
(C) Talent Management 
(D) Human Resource Planning 
 
12.) Which one of the following performance appraisal methods prevents supervisors from rating all 
or most employees "satisfactory" or "high"? 
(A) Critical Incident Method 
(B) Forced Distribution Method 
(C) Paired Comparison Method 
(D) Alternation Ranking Method 
 
13.) In case of agency problem, the actions of managers are very likely to be directed towards the goal 
of 
(A) Profit maximization 
(B) Wealth maximization 
(C) Survival and self-sufficiency 
(D) Self-sufficiency 
14.) Which one of the following measures better explains inflation in an economic ecosystem? 
(A) GNP deflator 
(B) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) 
(C) Consumer Price Index (CPI) 
(D) Rate of change in GNP deflator 
 
15.) Du Pont analysis formula involves which financial elements for computation of earning power? 
(A) Net profit margin, Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier 
(B) Total assets turnover and sales turnover profitability 
(C) Profit margin, Sales turnover and Asset-use efficiency 
(D) Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier 
 
16.) Following information is available for the year 2018 and 2019 of ABC Ltd: 
Year 2018 2019 
Sales Rs. 32,00,000 Rs 57,00,000 
Profit/(Loss) (Rs 3,00,000) Rs 7,00,000 
Calculate P/V ratio 
(A) 40% 
(B) 16% 
(C) 28% 
(D) 12% 
 
17.) Which methods of risk analysis better serve lender's perspective in the capital budgeting decisions? 
(A) Risk Adjusted Discount Rate 
(B) Certainty Equivalent approach 
(C) Simulation and Sensitivity analyses 
(D) Decision Analysis 
 
18.) As per Walter's model, the market value of a growing firm will increase if the dividend payout 
ratio is 
(A) Increased 
(B) Decreased 
(C) Constant 
(D) 100% 
 
19.) In the absence of covariance among securities in the portfolio, if each security has an average 
standard deviation of 20%, the portfolio of 100 securities would have a standard deviation of 
(A) 2% 
(B) Zero 
(C) 20% 
(D) 5% 
 
20.) The relationship between an investor's expectation of return on bonds with respect to the 
investment horizon is called 
(A) Bond yield 
Page 4


UGC NET Code 17 Management 30
th
 Nov 2021 
1.) Which one of the following information types is NOT included in a skill inventory? 
(A) Employee's personal data 
(B) Organization's training schedule 
(C) Employee's potential 
(D) Salary and Job history 
 
2.) Which one of the following approaches stresses that there are no universal rules for managers to 
follow in order to perform the job? 
(A) Contingency 
(B) System 
(C) Mathematical 
(D) Empirical 
 
3.) The best level of output for a perfectly competitive firm in short run is a point where P = MR = 
MC, provided that 
(A) P < AVC 
(B) P > AVC 
(C) P = AVC 
(D) P = AVC 
 
4.) What is the role of advertisements and selling costs in perfectly competitive markets? 
(A) Informative to intimate product/service availability 
(B) Enlarging the market size 
(C) Very essential for the survival of the firm 
(D) Influencing buyer behavior 
 
5.) It is believed that employees’ attitude influences their perception of work, but the employees' 
experience at work may also modify or shape their attitudes. This is an example of: 
(A) Contingency Approach 
(B) Democratic Approach  
(C) Interactional Approach 
(D) Socio-technical system Approach 
 
6.) Which one of the following employee behaviours is NOT true in case of high-stress level? 
(A) Anxiety 
(B) Careless mistakes 
(C) Nervousness 
(D) Low and bad judgmental ability 
 
7.) Information regarding 'personal job demands (human expenditure involved in work, such as energy 
expenditure)' collected in job analysis falls in which one of the following? 
(A) Work Activities 
(B) Worker-Oriented Activities 
(C) Personal Requirements 
(D) Job Context 
 
8.) Which one of the following orientation programs seek to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics 
that the person brings to the new job? 
(A) Serial Orientation 
(B) Disjunctive Orientation 
(C) Investiture Orientation 
(D) Divestiture Orientation 
 
9.) In which one of the following motives, relevant for organizational climate, there is an urge to be 
relevant and useful to large groups including society as a whole? 
(A) Affiliation 
(B) Influence 
(C) Extension 
(D) Achievement 
 
10.) If the market price of PQR Ltd. is 44, EPS is 3.75 and the retention ratio is 60%, then the multiplier 
according to Graham and Dodd Model of Dividend policy is 
(A) 15 
(B) 19.5 
(C) 16 
(D) 18.7 
 
11.) The holistic, integrated and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting, selecting, developing, 
managing, and compensating employees is known as 
(A) Human Resource Management 
(B) Strategic Human Resource Management 
(C) Talent Management 
(D) Human Resource Planning 
 
12.) Which one of the following performance appraisal methods prevents supervisors from rating all 
or most employees "satisfactory" or "high"? 
(A) Critical Incident Method 
(B) Forced Distribution Method 
(C) Paired Comparison Method 
(D) Alternation Ranking Method 
 
13.) In case of agency problem, the actions of managers are very likely to be directed towards the goal 
of 
(A) Profit maximization 
(B) Wealth maximization 
(C) Survival and self-sufficiency 
(D) Self-sufficiency 
14.) Which one of the following measures better explains inflation in an economic ecosystem? 
(A) GNP deflator 
(B) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) 
(C) Consumer Price Index (CPI) 
(D) Rate of change in GNP deflator 
 
15.) Du Pont analysis formula involves which financial elements for computation of earning power? 
(A) Net profit margin, Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier 
(B) Total assets turnover and sales turnover profitability 
(C) Profit margin, Sales turnover and Asset-use efficiency 
(D) Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier 
 
16.) Following information is available for the year 2018 and 2019 of ABC Ltd: 
Year 2018 2019 
Sales Rs. 32,00,000 Rs 57,00,000 
Profit/(Loss) (Rs 3,00,000) Rs 7,00,000 
Calculate P/V ratio 
(A) 40% 
(B) 16% 
(C) 28% 
(D) 12% 
 
17.) Which methods of risk analysis better serve lender's perspective in the capital budgeting decisions? 
(A) Risk Adjusted Discount Rate 
(B) Certainty Equivalent approach 
(C) Simulation and Sensitivity analyses 
(D) Decision Analysis 
 
18.) As per Walter's model, the market value of a growing firm will increase if the dividend payout 
ratio is 
(A) Increased 
(B) Decreased 
(C) Constant 
(D) 100% 
 
19.) In the absence of covariance among securities in the portfolio, if each security has an average 
standard deviation of 20%, the portfolio of 100 securities would have a standard deviation of 
(A) 2% 
(B) Zero 
(C) 20% 
(D) 5% 
 
20.) The relationship between an investor's expectation of return on bonds with respect to the 
investment horizon is called 
(A) Bond yield 
(B) Yield to maturity 
(C) Risk immunization 
(D) Term structure of interest rates 
 
21.) ___________ usually have intensive distribution because sales of these products tend to have a 
direct relationship to their availability 
(A) Convenience Goods 
(B) Speciality Goods 
(C) Shopping Goods 
(D) Unsought Goods 
 
22.) Which phrase best completes the statement below?  
One of the key tasks of a marketer is to ____________ and to create a perception among consumers 
that the product is worth purchasing. 
(A) make products easily visible and available  
(B) promote sales of products  
(C) differentiate their products from those of competitors  
(D) do market surveys  
 
23.) When companies offer products in small packages or charge on a pay-per-use basis, then such 
strategies are part of: 
(A) Regionalization strategies 
(B) Strategies for the Bottom-of-the Pyramid 
(C) Strategies for competing with global companies 
(D) Strategies for internationalization 
 
24.) At the business level, organisations need to position their business as being Low-cost leaders or 
Differentiated. The position when cost leadership is high in terms of lower prices/lower costs and 
differentiation is low, is called: 
(A) Focused Cost Leaders 
(B) Cost Leaders 
(C) Differentiators 
(D) Focused differentiators 
 
25.) The process of converting a non-productive, inactive asset into a productive asset by selling 
receivables to a company that specializes in their collection and administration, is described as 
(A) Credit administration 
(B) Factoring 
(C) Receivables management 
(D) Credit rating 
 
26.) “Moments of Truth” in services marketing was given by: 
(A) Jan Carlzon  
(B) Rosser Reeves  
(C) Parasuraman and Zeithamal  
Page 5


UGC NET Code 17 Management 30
th
 Nov 2021 
1.) Which one of the following information types is NOT included in a skill inventory? 
(A) Employee's personal data 
(B) Organization's training schedule 
(C) Employee's potential 
(D) Salary and Job history 
 
2.) Which one of the following approaches stresses that there are no universal rules for managers to 
follow in order to perform the job? 
(A) Contingency 
(B) System 
(C) Mathematical 
(D) Empirical 
 
3.) The best level of output for a perfectly competitive firm in short run is a point where P = MR = 
MC, provided that 
(A) P < AVC 
(B) P > AVC 
(C) P = AVC 
(D) P = AVC 
 
4.) What is the role of advertisements and selling costs in perfectly competitive markets? 
(A) Informative to intimate product/service availability 
(B) Enlarging the market size 
(C) Very essential for the survival of the firm 
(D) Influencing buyer behavior 
 
5.) It is believed that employees’ attitude influences their perception of work, but the employees' 
experience at work may also modify or shape their attitudes. This is an example of: 
(A) Contingency Approach 
(B) Democratic Approach  
(C) Interactional Approach 
(D) Socio-technical system Approach 
 
6.) Which one of the following employee behaviours is NOT true in case of high-stress level? 
(A) Anxiety 
(B) Careless mistakes 
(C) Nervousness 
(D) Low and bad judgmental ability 
 
7.) Information regarding 'personal job demands (human expenditure involved in work, such as energy 
expenditure)' collected in job analysis falls in which one of the following? 
(A) Work Activities 
(B) Worker-Oriented Activities 
(C) Personal Requirements 
(D) Job Context 
 
8.) Which one of the following orientation programs seek to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics 
that the person brings to the new job? 
(A) Serial Orientation 
(B) Disjunctive Orientation 
(C) Investiture Orientation 
(D) Divestiture Orientation 
 
9.) In which one of the following motives, relevant for organizational climate, there is an urge to be 
relevant and useful to large groups including society as a whole? 
(A) Affiliation 
(B) Influence 
(C) Extension 
(D) Achievement 
 
10.) If the market price of PQR Ltd. is 44, EPS is 3.75 and the retention ratio is 60%, then the multiplier 
according to Graham and Dodd Model of Dividend policy is 
(A) 15 
(B) 19.5 
(C) 16 
(D) 18.7 
 
11.) The holistic, integrated and goal-oriented process of planning, recruiting, selecting, developing, 
managing, and compensating employees is known as 
(A) Human Resource Management 
(B) Strategic Human Resource Management 
(C) Talent Management 
(D) Human Resource Planning 
 
12.) Which one of the following performance appraisal methods prevents supervisors from rating all 
or most employees "satisfactory" or "high"? 
(A) Critical Incident Method 
(B) Forced Distribution Method 
(C) Paired Comparison Method 
(D) Alternation Ranking Method 
 
13.) In case of agency problem, the actions of managers are very likely to be directed towards the goal 
of 
(A) Profit maximization 
(B) Wealth maximization 
(C) Survival and self-sufficiency 
(D) Self-sufficiency 
14.) Which one of the following measures better explains inflation in an economic ecosystem? 
(A) GNP deflator 
(B) Wholesale Price Index (WPI) 
(C) Consumer Price Index (CPI) 
(D) Rate of change in GNP deflator 
 
15.) Du Pont analysis formula involves which financial elements for computation of earning power? 
(A) Net profit margin, Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier 
(B) Total assets turnover and sales turnover profitability 
(C) Profit margin, Sales turnover and Asset-use efficiency 
(D) Total assets turnover and Equity multiplier 
 
16.) Following information is available for the year 2018 and 2019 of ABC Ltd: 
Year 2018 2019 
Sales Rs. 32,00,000 Rs 57,00,000 
Profit/(Loss) (Rs 3,00,000) Rs 7,00,000 
Calculate P/V ratio 
(A) 40% 
(B) 16% 
(C) 28% 
(D) 12% 
 
17.) Which methods of risk analysis better serve lender's perspective in the capital budgeting decisions? 
(A) Risk Adjusted Discount Rate 
(B) Certainty Equivalent approach 
(C) Simulation and Sensitivity analyses 
(D) Decision Analysis 
 
18.) As per Walter's model, the market value of a growing firm will increase if the dividend payout 
ratio is 
(A) Increased 
(B) Decreased 
(C) Constant 
(D) 100% 
 
19.) In the absence of covariance among securities in the portfolio, if each security has an average 
standard deviation of 20%, the portfolio of 100 securities would have a standard deviation of 
(A) 2% 
(B) Zero 
(C) 20% 
(D) 5% 
 
20.) The relationship between an investor's expectation of return on bonds with respect to the 
investment horizon is called 
(A) Bond yield 
(B) Yield to maturity 
(C) Risk immunization 
(D) Term structure of interest rates 
 
21.) ___________ usually have intensive distribution because sales of these products tend to have a 
direct relationship to their availability 
(A) Convenience Goods 
(B) Speciality Goods 
(C) Shopping Goods 
(D) Unsought Goods 
 
22.) Which phrase best completes the statement below?  
One of the key tasks of a marketer is to ____________ and to create a perception among consumers 
that the product is worth purchasing. 
(A) make products easily visible and available  
(B) promote sales of products  
(C) differentiate their products from those of competitors  
(D) do market surveys  
 
23.) When companies offer products in small packages or charge on a pay-per-use basis, then such 
strategies are part of: 
(A) Regionalization strategies 
(B) Strategies for the Bottom-of-the Pyramid 
(C) Strategies for competing with global companies 
(D) Strategies for internationalization 
 
24.) At the business level, organisations need to position their business as being Low-cost leaders or 
Differentiated. The position when cost leadership is high in terms of lower prices/lower costs and 
differentiation is low, is called: 
(A) Focused Cost Leaders 
(B) Cost Leaders 
(C) Differentiators 
(D) Focused differentiators 
 
25.) The process of converting a non-productive, inactive asset into a productive asset by selling 
receivables to a company that specializes in their collection and administration, is described as 
(A) Credit administration 
(B) Factoring 
(C) Receivables management 
(D) Credit rating 
 
26.) “Moments of Truth” in services marketing was given by: 
(A) Jan Carlzon  
(B) Rosser Reeves  
(C) Parasuraman and Zeithamal  
(D) Gary Armstrong  
 
27.) Which one of the following tasks is NOT expected to be performed in Sales Management? 
(A) Formulating sales policies  
(B) Designing sales territories  
(C) Selecting and recruitment of salesforce 
(D) Determining the selling price of the firm's products 
 
28.) In the retail industry, a 'Category Killer' is referred to as: 
(A) a multi-category large discount store that is famous for its wide selection of products 
(B) a specialty store wedded to discounting and domination of a product category 
(C) a store in a residential area and offers all household goods and fresh groceries 
(D) a unique 24/7 store located on major highways and also located in fuel stations 
 
29.) When is the finite population multiplier expected to be approximately equal to one? 
(A) N = 20 n 
(B) N = 30 n 
(C) N = 10 n 
(D) N = 40 n 
 
30.) Which of the following is true with regard to method of least squares used in simple regression 
analysis? 
(A) It minimises the sum of the squared values of the independent variable 
(B) It minimises the sum of squared differences between the values of independent variable and their 
mean 
(C) It minimises the sum of the squared differences between the actual values of dependent variable 
and the estimated values of the dependent variable as per regression equation 
(D) It minimises the sum of squared values of the dependent variable 
 
31.) In statistical quality control, the expected process variation (natural tolerance) is commonly taken 
to be  
(A) µ ± 1s 
(B) µ ± 2s 
(C) µ ± 3s 
(D) µ ± 
?? v?? 
 
32.) Who is widely credited for placing Japan as a world leader in the quality of its manufactured 
products? 
(A) Schonberger R. J. 
(B) Deming W.E. 
(C) Juran J.M 
(D) Goddard. W 
 
33.) A transportation problem with m origins and n destinations becomes a trans-shipment problem 
with 
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FAQs on UGC NET Past Year Question Paper II: Management with Answer Key (June 2021) held on 30 Nov. 2021 - UGC NET Past Year Papers

1. What is UGC NET and why is it important for management aspirants?
Ans. UGC NET (University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test) is an examination conducted to determine the eligibility of candidates for the role of Assistant Professor and for Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) in Indian universities and colleges. For management aspirants, qualifying UGC NET can enhance career opportunities in academia and research, making it a crucial step for those looking to pursue a career in higher education in management.
2. What topics are covered in the UGC NET Management paper?
Ans. The UGC NET Management paper covers various topics including business environment, management principles, organizational behavior, marketing management, financial management, human resource management, strategic management, operations management, entrepreneurship, and research methodology. Candidates need to have a comprehensive understanding of these subjects to excel in the exam.
3. How can candidates prepare effectively for the UGC NET Management exam?
Ans. Candidates can prepare effectively by creating a structured study plan, reviewing the UGC NET syllabus, practicing previous years' question papers, taking mock tests, and focusing on time management. Additionally, referring to standard textbooks and online resources, joining coaching classes, and participating in study groups can further enhance their preparation.
4. What is the exam pattern for UGC NET Management?
Ans. The UGC NET Management exam consists of two papers: Paper I and Paper II. Paper I is a general paper on teaching and research aptitude, while Paper II focuses specifically on management. Both papers are conducted in a multiple-choice format, with Paper I containing 50 questions and Paper II containing 100 questions. The total duration of the exam is 3 hours.
5. How can candidates access the UGC NET past year question papers for Management?
Ans. Candidates can access UGC NET past year question papers for Management from the official UGC NET website or other educational platforms that provide study materials. Many coaching institutes also offer compiled question papers along with answer keys for practice. Additionally, candidates can find resources on various educational forums and websites that specialize in competitive exam preparation.
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