Page 1
-1-
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2024
Date of Exam :
Duration : 120 Minutes
Max. Marks : 150
Center’s Name : ___________________________
Roll No. : ___________________________
OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions
as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to
be answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer
ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN
in the OMR Response Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above
shall be considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than
the details required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation
of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification,
may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
M
?
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
Page 2
-1-
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2024
Date of Exam :
Duration : 120 Minutes
Max. Marks : 150
Center’s Name : ___________________________
Roll No. : ___________________________
OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions
as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to
be answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer
ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN
in the OMR Response Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above
shall be considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than
the details required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation
of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification,
may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
M
?
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
-2-
LLB
BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 16
B
Current Affairs
and General
Knowledge
30 51 – 80 17 – 22
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 23 – 42
Total Marks 150
Page 3
-1-
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2024
Date of Exam :
Duration : 120 Minutes
Max. Marks : 150
Center’s Name : ___________________________
Roll No. : ___________________________
OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions
as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to
be answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer
ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN
in the OMR Response Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above
shall be considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than
the details required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation
of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification,
may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
M
?
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
-2-
LLB
BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 16
B
Current Affairs
and General
Knowledge
30 51 – 80 17 – 22
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 23 – 42
Total Marks 150
-3-
M
LLB
I. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.
The past century has drastically changed the concept of community, no
matter if you live in a rural area, a suburban neighbourhood, or an urban
metropolis. Families no longer co-habitat as intergenerationally as they
once did, especially as the appeal of the nuclear family began to increase.
The move from rural living to urban lifestyles to suburbia and then back
to city-life has meant that extended families often fracture and live further
and further apart. We are often caught up in the reality of constant
“busy-ness” that we don’t take the time to get to know our neighbours. And
social media has redefined “connection” and “friendship,” leaving us staring
at screens more than engaging with the people around us.
The impact of this is apparent on parents and children. The adage “it takes
a village to raise a child” is absolutely still true. But somewhere along the
way, we’ve lost the “village” we need to raise kids in nurturing, creative,
and safe ways. And as a result, families are missing out on crucial learning
experiences and much needed support systems. in the end, many parents
feel isolated and alone in their struggles, and kids don’t have the opportunity
to engage with a diverse group of people and personalities.
1. The primary reason for breaking up of the traditional community set up is
a) preference for expanding suburban neighbourhoods.
b) attraction of the small family unit.
c) changing concept of cohabiting in the modern world.
d) the lack of desire to live with the oldest family members.
2. The reason people do not know their neighbour very well is because
a) they are always in transit.
b) their lifestyle is self-destructive.
c) they are constantly preoccupied with their own affairs.
d) their self-centredness keeps them from interacting with the
neighbour.
3. The writer’s attitude towards the ‘connections’ formed via social media is
a) disparaging
b) concurrence
c) apathetic
d) elusive
SECTION – A : ENg LISH
Page 4
-1-
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2024
Date of Exam :
Duration : 120 Minutes
Max. Marks : 150
Center’s Name : ___________________________
Roll No. : ___________________________
OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions
as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to
be answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer
ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN
in the OMR Response Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above
shall be considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than
the details required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation
of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification,
may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
M
?
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
-2-
LLB
BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 16
B
Current Affairs
and General
Knowledge
30 51 – 80 17 – 22
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 23 – 42
Total Marks 150
-3-
M
LLB
I. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.
The past century has drastically changed the concept of community, no
matter if you live in a rural area, a suburban neighbourhood, or an urban
metropolis. Families no longer co-habitat as intergenerationally as they
once did, especially as the appeal of the nuclear family began to increase.
The move from rural living to urban lifestyles to suburbia and then back
to city-life has meant that extended families often fracture and live further
and further apart. We are often caught up in the reality of constant
“busy-ness” that we don’t take the time to get to know our neighbours. And
social media has redefined “connection” and “friendship,” leaving us staring
at screens more than engaging with the people around us.
The impact of this is apparent on parents and children. The adage “it takes
a village to raise a child” is absolutely still true. But somewhere along the
way, we’ve lost the “village” we need to raise kids in nurturing, creative,
and safe ways. And as a result, families are missing out on crucial learning
experiences and much needed support systems. in the end, many parents
feel isolated and alone in their struggles, and kids don’t have the opportunity
to engage with a diverse group of people and personalities.
1. The primary reason for breaking up of the traditional community set up is
a) preference for expanding suburban neighbourhoods.
b) attraction of the small family unit.
c) changing concept of cohabiting in the modern world.
d) the lack of desire to live with the oldest family members.
2. The reason people do not know their neighbour very well is because
a) they are always in transit.
b) their lifestyle is self-destructive.
c) they are constantly preoccupied with their own affairs.
d) their self-centredness keeps them from interacting with the
neighbour.
3. The writer’s attitude towards the ‘connections’ formed via social media is
a) disparaging
b) concurrence
c) apathetic
d) elusive
SECTION – A : ENg LISH
M
-4-
LLB
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?
a) The community provides a safe and healthy environment for positive
interaction with the children.
b) Crucial learning experiences and much needed support systems at home
clash with the values of the community.
c) The collective effort of the community raises children in nurturing,
creative, and safe ways.
d) Modern communities lack meaningful interactions, leaving the parents
feeling isolated and alone in their struggles.
5. Statement 1: People are available to raise other people’s children.
Statement 2: The nature of communities has undergone tremendous
transformation regardless of their location.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
II. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.
i used to be the person that would strive for perfection from the beginning
of a creative process. With more time given at the beginning an obvious
decline of quality is seen and it has become a pattern all throughout my
other works. Here’s why i had to change my system of production.
Being stuck at the beginning of a creative process (i.e., writing, designing,
painting) due to overthinking will have a ripple effect on the entire output.
in art school, i’ve had many classmates taking their time planning on how
to produce a material and half of the time given for production was wasted.
They then had more pressure to finish their works just to meet the deadline
and sacrifice the quality of output all together.
Being a working student to help support myself in school, i never had the
luxury of time that my classmates had when we were in college; when we
were given a project, i started immediately. i call my process “Finished, Not
Perfect Method” (FNPM).
FNPM allows me to be efficient. I divide the amount of time I have by the
number of parts my project has - Beginning, Middle, End, improvements.
Each part is given focus and time for potential improvements or changes.
A friend or two could tell you what their opinion is and you may add the
necessary changes based on their input. However, keep the maximum number
of people you consult for opinion to two. Anything more than that will create
more opinions that will paralyse you from progressing later on.
Page 5
-1-
LL.B. ADMISSION TEST – 2024
Date of Exam :
Duration : 120 Minutes
Max. Marks : 150
Center’s Name : ___________________________
Roll No. : ___________________________
OMR Sheet No. : ___________________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the Question Paper can be sought. Answer the questions
as they are.
2. There will be 150 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of one mark each to
be answered in the OMR Response Sheet only. Total marks are 150. Answer
ALL the Questions.
3. There will be Negative Marking for Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
For every wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted.
4. Candidates have to indicate the most appropriate answer by darkening one
of the four responses provided, with only BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN
in the OMR Response Sheet.
Example : For the question, “Where is the Taj Mahal located ?”
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
——————— —————————————————————
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
5. Answering the question by any method other than the method mentioned above
shall be considered wrong answer.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong answer.
7. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Response Sheet other than
the details required and in the spaces provided for.
8. After the examination is over, the candidate can carry the Question Booklet
along with candidate’s copy of the OMR Response Sheet. Candidate will hand
over the original OMR Response Sheet to the invigilator.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate will result in the cancellation
of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification,
may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, digital watch, pagers and calculators
etc. are strictly not permitted inside the Test Centre/Hall.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the end of the Test.
M
?
Question Booklet Sl. No.
M
M
-2-
LLB
BREAK-UP OF MARKS
Section Subject Marks Q. No. Page No.
A English 50 1 – 50 3 – 16
B
Current Affairs
and General
Knowledge
30 51 – 80 17 – 22
C Logical Reasoning 70 81 – 150 23 – 42
Total Marks 150
-3-
M
LLB
I. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.
The past century has drastically changed the concept of community, no
matter if you live in a rural area, a suburban neighbourhood, or an urban
metropolis. Families no longer co-habitat as intergenerationally as they
once did, especially as the appeal of the nuclear family began to increase.
The move from rural living to urban lifestyles to suburbia and then back
to city-life has meant that extended families often fracture and live further
and further apart. We are often caught up in the reality of constant
“busy-ness” that we don’t take the time to get to know our neighbours. And
social media has redefined “connection” and “friendship,” leaving us staring
at screens more than engaging with the people around us.
The impact of this is apparent on parents and children. The adage “it takes
a village to raise a child” is absolutely still true. But somewhere along the
way, we’ve lost the “village” we need to raise kids in nurturing, creative,
and safe ways. And as a result, families are missing out on crucial learning
experiences and much needed support systems. in the end, many parents
feel isolated and alone in their struggles, and kids don’t have the opportunity
to engage with a diverse group of people and personalities.
1. The primary reason for breaking up of the traditional community set up is
a) preference for expanding suburban neighbourhoods.
b) attraction of the small family unit.
c) changing concept of cohabiting in the modern world.
d) the lack of desire to live with the oldest family members.
2. The reason people do not know their neighbour very well is because
a) they are always in transit.
b) their lifestyle is self-destructive.
c) they are constantly preoccupied with their own affairs.
d) their self-centredness keeps them from interacting with the
neighbour.
3. The writer’s attitude towards the ‘connections’ formed via social media is
a) disparaging
b) concurrence
c) apathetic
d) elusive
SECTION – A : ENg LISH
M
-4-
LLB
4. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the passage?
a) The community provides a safe and healthy environment for positive
interaction with the children.
b) Crucial learning experiences and much needed support systems at home
clash with the values of the community.
c) The collective effort of the community raises children in nurturing,
creative, and safe ways.
d) Modern communities lack meaningful interactions, leaving the parents
feeling isolated and alone in their struggles.
5. Statement 1: People are available to raise other people’s children.
Statement 2: The nature of communities has undergone tremendous
transformation regardless of their location.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
a) Both statements are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
b) Both statements are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.
II. Read the given extract and answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.
i used to be the person that would strive for perfection from the beginning
of a creative process. With more time given at the beginning an obvious
decline of quality is seen and it has become a pattern all throughout my
other works. Here’s why i had to change my system of production.
Being stuck at the beginning of a creative process (i.e., writing, designing,
painting) due to overthinking will have a ripple effect on the entire output.
in art school, i’ve had many classmates taking their time planning on how
to produce a material and half of the time given for production was wasted.
They then had more pressure to finish their works just to meet the deadline
and sacrifice the quality of output all together.
Being a working student to help support myself in school, i never had the
luxury of time that my classmates had when we were in college; when we
were given a project, i started immediately. i call my process “Finished, Not
Perfect Method” (FNPM).
FNPM allows me to be efficient. I divide the amount of time I have by the
number of parts my project has - Beginning, Middle, End, improvements.
Each part is given focus and time for potential improvements or changes.
A friend or two could tell you what their opinion is and you may add the
necessary changes based on their input. However, keep the maximum number
of people you consult for opinion to two. Anything more than that will create
more opinions that will paralyse you from progressing later on.
-5-
M
LLB
When your work can give what’s needed and you’ve finished your work on
time (if not earlier) then the next step is to stop and find a way to be happy
about it. Contentment is important in this stage for people always feel regret
for not doing their best in a work they’ve laboured so hard for.
6. Although the writer described herself as being a perfectionist, the eventual
quality of her work was____? Choose the most appropriate answer.
a) dilapidated. b) disappointing.
c) devastating. d) distorted.
7. ‘Overthinking’ posed a big hurdle for the narrator as
a) she would be coerced into being dull.
b) she would sulk over her spoiled assignments.
c) it would not allow her to start her work.
d) it would make her anxious about her submission.
8. identify the sequence of events that ultimately led to art school students
submitting subpar work.
(1) quality of work compromised to meet the deadline
(2) large amount of time invested on planning
(3) mounting pressure to complete the task
(4) wasted half of the time in production
Choose the appropriate option:
a) (2), (3), (4), (1) b) (2), (3), (1), (4)
c) (2), (4), (3), (1) d) (2), (4), (1), (3)
9. ‘Ripple effect’ means
a) the continuing and spreading results of an event or action.
b) the cumulative effect produced when one event sets off a chain of similar
or other events.
c) anything that can go wrong will go wrong.
d) moving in a circular path towards the centre of the circle.
10. ‘Time’ is referred to as a ‘luxury’ because
a) she had to work after classes and thus, could not spare any time.
b) she had a lot of time on her hands to get things done slowly.
c) time was a valuable commodity she paid a heavy price for.
d) she was mostly running out of time because of overthinking.
11. The writer had to innovate her “Finished, Not Perfect Method” (FNPM) since:
a) she had to get better grades than her privileged classmates.
b) her overthinking pattern was a dismal failure.
c) she had very little time to spare.
d) chasing perfection never got her work done.
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