CLAT PG 2023 Question Paper with Answer Key | CLAT PG Mock Test Series 2025 PDF Download

 Page 1


Confidential
PG 2023
consortium of national law universities  
common law admission test-2023
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  candidates 
(t his b ooklet contains 44 pages of Question Paper including 3 blank pages for rough work.)
d uration of t est : 2 Hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Booklet s l. n o.
 1. Separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet is supplied along 
with this Question b ooklet and the carbon 
copy has to be detached and taken by the 
candidates.
 2. in case of any discrepancy in the question 
booklet (Qb ), please request the invigilator 
for replacement of a fresh packet of Qb with 
Omr . d o not use the previous Omr r esponse 
Sheet for a fresh booklet so obtained.
 3. Candidates will not be given a second 
blank Omr r esponse Sheet under any 
circumstance. Hence, Omr r esponse Sheet 
shall be handled carefully.
 4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 
sought on the Question Paper.
 5. Possession of e lectronic d evices in any form 
is Strictly prohibited in the e xamination 
Hall.
 6. t he use of any unfair means by any candidate 
shall result in the cancellation of his/her 
examination.
 7. impersonation is an offense and the 
candidate, apart from disqualification, will 
be liable to be prosecuted.
 8. t he t est Paper for Post Graduate (LL.m.) 
Programme is for 120 marks containing  
120 multiple Choice Questions.
 9. t here will be Negative marking for multiple 
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks 
will be deducted for every wrong answer or 
where candidates have marked more than 
one response.
 10. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen 
only for writing the r oll No. and other details 
on Omr r esponse Sheet.
 11. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen for 
shading the circles. indicate only the most 
appropriate answer by shading from the 
options provided. t he answer circle should 
be shaded completely without leaving any 
space.
 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected 
on the Omr r esponse Sheet, candidates 
have to take necessary precautions before 
marking the appropriate circle.
 13. t he candidate should retain the Admit 
Card duly Signed by the invigilator, as 
the same has to be produced at the time of 
Admission.
 14. Handle the Omr r esponse Sheet with care. 
d o not fold.
 15. e nsure that invigilator puts his/her 
signature in the space provided on the Omr 
r esponse Sheet. Candidate should sign in 
the space provided on the Omr r esponse 
Sheet.
 16. t he candidate should write Question Paper 
b ooklet No., and Omr r esponse Sheet No., 
and sign in the space/column provided in the 
attendance sheet.
 17. r eturn the Ori GiNAL Page of Omr r esponse 
Sheet to the invigilator after the e xamination.
 18. t he candidate shall not write anything on the 
Omr r esponse Sheet other than the details 
required and in the spaces provided for.
*
*
* Pb
 ^
?
#
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iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
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afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
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PG 2023
              
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  c andidates  
d uration of t est : 2 hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Question Booklet  n o.
 1. t his Question b ooklet (Qb ) contains 120  
(One hundred and t wenty) multiple Choice 
Question across 44 (Forty Four) pages 
including  3  (t hree)  blank pages for rough 
work. No additional sheet(s) of paper will be 
supplied for rough work.
 2. You shall enter your Admit Card No. on the 
first page of the Qb at the start of the test.
 3. You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet supplied along 
with this Qb . You must re Ad the detailed 
instructions provided with the Omr 
r esponse Sheet on the reverse side of this 
packet b e FOre you start the test.
 4. No clarification can be sought on the Qb 
from anyone. in case of any discrepancy in 
the Qb , request the invigilator to replace 
the Qb and Omr r esponse Sheet. d o not 
use the previous Omr r esponse Sheet with 
the fresh Qb .
 5. You should write the Qb No., and the Omr 
r esponse Sheet No., and sign in the space/
column provided in the Attendance Sheet 
circulated during the test.
 6. You should retain the Admit Card duly 
signed by the invigilator, as the same has to 
be produced at the time of admissions.
 7. t he Qb for the Post Graduate LL.m. 
Programme is for 120 marks. e very r ight 
a nswer secures 1 mark. e very wrong 
a nswer results in the deduction of  
0.25 marks. t here shall be no deductions for 
u nanswered Questions.
 8. You may retain the Qb and the Candidate’s 
copy of the Omr r esponse Sheet after the 
test.
 9. t he use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of e lectronic 
d evices including mobile phones, headphones 
and digital watches is strictly prohibited in 
the test premises. impersonation or any 
other fraudulent practice may be a criminal 
offence, and will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, penal action under the law.
M 
1
M
do not o Pen till 2 P.m.
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
Page 2


Confidential
PG 2023
consortium of national law universities  
common law admission test-2023
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  candidates 
(t his b ooklet contains 44 pages of Question Paper including 3 blank pages for rough work.)
d uration of t est : 2 Hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Booklet s l. n o.
 1. Separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet is supplied along 
with this Question b ooklet and the carbon 
copy has to be detached and taken by the 
candidates.
 2. in case of any discrepancy in the question 
booklet (Qb ), please request the invigilator 
for replacement of a fresh packet of Qb with 
Omr . d o not use the previous Omr r esponse 
Sheet for a fresh booklet so obtained.
 3. Candidates will not be given a second 
blank Omr r esponse Sheet under any 
circumstance. Hence, Omr r esponse Sheet 
shall be handled carefully.
 4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 
sought on the Question Paper.
 5. Possession of e lectronic d evices in any form 
is Strictly prohibited in the e xamination 
Hall.
 6. t he use of any unfair means by any candidate 
shall result in the cancellation of his/her 
examination.
 7. impersonation is an offense and the 
candidate, apart from disqualification, will 
be liable to be prosecuted.
 8. t he t est Paper for Post Graduate (LL.m.) 
Programme is for 120 marks containing  
120 multiple Choice Questions.
 9. t here will be Negative marking for multiple 
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks 
will be deducted for every wrong answer or 
where candidates have marked more than 
one response.
 10. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen 
only for writing the r oll No. and other details 
on Omr r esponse Sheet.
 11. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen for 
shading the circles. indicate only the most 
appropriate answer by shading from the 
options provided. t he answer circle should 
be shaded completely without leaving any 
space.
 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected 
on the Omr r esponse Sheet, candidates 
have to take necessary precautions before 
marking the appropriate circle.
 13. t he candidate should retain the Admit 
Card duly Signed by the invigilator, as 
the same has to be produced at the time of 
Admission.
 14. Handle the Omr r esponse Sheet with care. 
d o not fold.
 15. e nsure that invigilator puts his/her 
signature in the space provided on the Omr 
r esponse Sheet. Candidate should sign in 
the space provided on the Omr r esponse 
Sheet.
 16. t he candidate should write Question Paper 
b ooklet No., and Omr r esponse Sheet No., 
and sign in the space/column provided in the 
attendance sheet.
 17. r eturn the Ori GiNAL Page of Omr r esponse 
Sheet to the invigilator after the e xamination.
 18. t he candidate shall not write anything on the 
Omr r esponse Sheet other than the details 
required and in the spaces provided for.
*
*
* Pb
 ^
?
#
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
PG 2023
              
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  c andidates  
d uration of t est : 2 hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Question Booklet  n o.
 1. t his Question b ooklet (Qb ) contains 120  
(One hundred and t wenty) multiple Choice 
Question across 44 (Forty Four) pages 
including  3  (t hree)  blank pages for rough 
work. No additional sheet(s) of paper will be 
supplied for rough work.
 2. You shall enter your Admit Card No. on the 
first page of the Qb at the start of the test.
 3. You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet supplied along 
with this Qb . You must re Ad the detailed 
instructions provided with the Omr 
r esponse Sheet on the reverse side of this 
packet b e FOre you start the test.
 4. No clarification can be sought on the Qb 
from anyone. in case of any discrepancy in 
the Qb , request the invigilator to replace 
the Qb and Omr r esponse Sheet. d o not 
use the previous Omr r esponse Sheet with 
the fresh Qb .
 5. You should write the Qb No., and the Omr 
r esponse Sheet No., and sign in the space/
column provided in the Attendance Sheet 
circulated during the test.
 6. You should retain the Admit Card duly 
signed by the invigilator, as the same has to 
be produced at the time of admissions.
 7. t he Qb for the Post Graduate LL.m. 
Programme is for 120 marks. e very r ight 
a nswer secures 1 mark. e very wrong 
a nswer results in the deduction of  
0.25 marks. t here shall be no deductions for 
u nanswered Questions.
 8. You may retain the Qb and the Candidate’s 
copy of the Omr r esponse Sheet after the 
test.
 9. t he use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of e lectronic 
d evices including mobile phones, headphones 
and digital watches is strictly prohibited in 
the test premises. impersonation or any 
other fraudulent practice may be a criminal 
offence, and will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, penal action under the law.
M 
1
M
do not o Pen till 2 P.m.
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 3 
M
PG
 i. Our society is governed by the Constitution. t he values of constitutional morality 
are a non-derogable entitlement. Notions of “purity and pollution”, which stigmatise 
individuals, can have no place in a constitutional regime. r egarding menstruation 
as polluting or impure, and worse still, imposing exclusionary disabilities on the 
basis of menstrual status, is against the dignity of women which is guaranteed by 
the Constitution. Practices which legitimise menstrual taboos, due to notions of 
“purity and pollution”, limit the ability of menstruating women to attain the freedom 
of movement, the right to education and the right of entry to places of worship and, 
eventually, their access to the public sphere. Women have a right to control their own 
bodies. t he menstrual status of a woman is an attribute of her privacy and person. 
Women have a constitutional entitlement that their biological processes must be free 
from social and religious practices, which enforce segregation and exclusion. t hese 
practices result in humiliation and a violation of dignity. Article 17 prohibits the 
practice of “untouchability”, which is based on notions of purity and impurity, “in 
any form”. Article 17 certainly applies to untouchability practices in relation to lower 
castes, but it will also apply to the systemic humiliation, exclusion and subjugation 
faced by women. Prejudice against women based on notions of impurity and pollution 
associated with menstruation is a symbol of exclusion. t he social exclusion of women, 
based on menstrual status, is but a form of untouchability which is an anathema to 
constitutional values. As an expression of the anti-exclusion principle, Article 17 cannot 
be read to exclude women against whom social exclusion of the worst kind has been 
practised and legitimised on notions of purity and pollution. Article 17 cannot be read 
in a restricted manner. b ut even if Article 17 were to be read to reflect a particular 
form of untouchability, that Article will not exhaust the guarantee against other forms 
of social exclusion. t he guarantee against social exclusion would emanate from other 
provisions of Part iii , including Articles 15(2) and 21. e xclusion of women between 
the age group of ten and fifty, based on their menstrual status, from entering the 
temple in Sabarimala can have no place in a constitutional order founded on liberty 
and dignity.
  [e xtracted from Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala, (2019) 11 SCC 
1 (hereafter IYLA)]
 1. in IYLA, the Supreme Court held that the worshippers of Lord Ayyappa:
 (A) are not a religious denomination because they have not registered themselves 
as such
 (b ) are not a religious denomination because they do not have a distinct name, a 
common set of beliefs, and a common organisational structure
 (C) are a religious denomination because they have been recognised as such by the 
state
 (d ) are a religious denomination because they have consistently been treated as 
such by themselves as well as by society in general
Page 3


Confidential
PG 2023
consortium of national law universities  
common law admission test-2023
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  candidates 
(t his b ooklet contains 44 pages of Question Paper including 3 blank pages for rough work.)
d uration of t est : 2 Hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Booklet s l. n o.
 1. Separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet is supplied along 
with this Question b ooklet and the carbon 
copy has to be detached and taken by the 
candidates.
 2. in case of any discrepancy in the question 
booklet (Qb ), please request the invigilator 
for replacement of a fresh packet of Qb with 
Omr . d o not use the previous Omr r esponse 
Sheet for a fresh booklet so obtained.
 3. Candidates will not be given a second 
blank Omr r esponse Sheet under any 
circumstance. Hence, Omr r esponse Sheet 
shall be handled carefully.
 4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 
sought on the Question Paper.
 5. Possession of e lectronic d evices in any form 
is Strictly prohibited in the e xamination 
Hall.
 6. t he use of any unfair means by any candidate 
shall result in the cancellation of his/her 
examination.
 7. impersonation is an offense and the 
candidate, apart from disqualification, will 
be liable to be prosecuted.
 8. t he t est Paper for Post Graduate (LL.m.) 
Programme is for 120 marks containing  
120 multiple Choice Questions.
 9. t here will be Negative marking for multiple 
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks 
will be deducted for every wrong answer or 
where candidates have marked more than 
one response.
 10. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen 
only for writing the r oll No. and other details 
on Omr r esponse Sheet.
 11. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen for 
shading the circles. indicate only the most 
appropriate answer by shading from the 
options provided. t he answer circle should 
be shaded completely without leaving any 
space.
 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected 
on the Omr r esponse Sheet, candidates 
have to take necessary precautions before 
marking the appropriate circle.
 13. t he candidate should retain the Admit 
Card duly Signed by the invigilator, as 
the same has to be produced at the time of 
Admission.
 14. Handle the Omr r esponse Sheet with care. 
d o not fold.
 15. e nsure that invigilator puts his/her 
signature in the space provided on the Omr 
r esponse Sheet. Candidate should sign in 
the space provided on the Omr r esponse 
Sheet.
 16. t he candidate should write Question Paper 
b ooklet No., and Omr r esponse Sheet No., 
and sign in the space/column provided in the 
attendance sheet.
 17. r eturn the Ori GiNAL Page of Omr r esponse 
Sheet to the invigilator after the e xamination.
 18. t he candidate shall not write anything on the 
Omr r esponse Sheet other than the details 
required and in the spaces provided for.
*
*
* Pb
 ^
?
#
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
PG 2023
              
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  c andidates  
d uration of t est : 2 hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Question Booklet  n o.
 1. t his Question b ooklet (Qb ) contains 120  
(One hundred and t wenty) multiple Choice 
Question across 44 (Forty Four) pages 
including  3  (t hree)  blank pages for rough 
work. No additional sheet(s) of paper will be 
supplied for rough work.
 2. You shall enter your Admit Card No. on the 
first page of the Qb at the start of the test.
 3. You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet supplied along 
with this Qb . You must re Ad the detailed 
instructions provided with the Omr 
r esponse Sheet on the reverse side of this 
packet b e FOre you start the test.
 4. No clarification can be sought on the Qb 
from anyone. in case of any discrepancy in 
the Qb , request the invigilator to replace 
the Qb and Omr r esponse Sheet. d o not 
use the previous Omr r esponse Sheet with 
the fresh Qb .
 5. You should write the Qb No., and the Omr 
r esponse Sheet No., and sign in the space/
column provided in the Attendance Sheet 
circulated during the test.
 6. You should retain the Admit Card duly 
signed by the invigilator, as the same has to 
be produced at the time of admissions.
 7. t he Qb for the Post Graduate LL.m. 
Programme is for 120 marks. e very r ight 
a nswer secures 1 mark. e very wrong 
a nswer results in the deduction of  
0.25 marks. t here shall be no deductions for 
u nanswered Questions.
 8. You may retain the Qb and the Candidate’s 
copy of the Omr r esponse Sheet after the 
test.
 9. t he use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of e lectronic 
d evices including mobile phones, headphones 
and digital watches is strictly prohibited in 
the test premises. impersonation or any 
other fraudulent practice may be a criminal 
offence, and will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, penal action under the law.
M 
1
M
do not o Pen till 2 P.m.
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 3 
M
PG
 i. Our society is governed by the Constitution. t he values of constitutional morality 
are a non-derogable entitlement. Notions of “purity and pollution”, which stigmatise 
individuals, can have no place in a constitutional regime. r egarding menstruation 
as polluting or impure, and worse still, imposing exclusionary disabilities on the 
basis of menstrual status, is against the dignity of women which is guaranteed by 
the Constitution. Practices which legitimise menstrual taboos, due to notions of 
“purity and pollution”, limit the ability of menstruating women to attain the freedom 
of movement, the right to education and the right of entry to places of worship and, 
eventually, their access to the public sphere. Women have a right to control their own 
bodies. t he menstrual status of a woman is an attribute of her privacy and person. 
Women have a constitutional entitlement that their biological processes must be free 
from social and religious practices, which enforce segregation and exclusion. t hese 
practices result in humiliation and a violation of dignity. Article 17 prohibits the 
practice of “untouchability”, which is based on notions of purity and impurity, “in 
any form”. Article 17 certainly applies to untouchability practices in relation to lower 
castes, but it will also apply to the systemic humiliation, exclusion and subjugation 
faced by women. Prejudice against women based on notions of impurity and pollution 
associated with menstruation is a symbol of exclusion. t he social exclusion of women, 
based on menstrual status, is but a form of untouchability which is an anathema to 
constitutional values. As an expression of the anti-exclusion principle, Article 17 cannot 
be read to exclude women against whom social exclusion of the worst kind has been 
practised and legitimised on notions of purity and pollution. Article 17 cannot be read 
in a restricted manner. b ut even if Article 17 were to be read to reflect a particular 
form of untouchability, that Article will not exhaust the guarantee against other forms 
of social exclusion. t he guarantee against social exclusion would emanate from other 
provisions of Part iii , including Articles 15(2) and 21. e xclusion of women between 
the age group of ten and fifty, based on their menstrual status, from entering the 
temple in Sabarimala can have no place in a constitutional order founded on liberty 
and dignity.
  [e xtracted from Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala, (2019) 11 SCC 
1 (hereafter IYLA)]
 1. in IYLA, the Supreme Court held that the worshippers of Lord Ayyappa:
 (A) are not a religious denomination because they have not registered themselves 
as such
 (b ) are not a religious denomination because they do not have a distinct name, a 
common set of beliefs, and a common organisational structure
 (C) are a religious denomination because they have been recognised as such by the 
state
 (d ) are a religious denomination because they have consistently been treated as 
such by themselves as well as by society in general
M
 4 
PG
 2. t he Supreme Court determined whether a religious practice falls within Article 25 
using the:
 (A) e ssential r eligious Practice t est (b ) Sincerity of b elief t est
 (C) Proportionality t est (d ) Constitutional morality t est
 3. Parliament gave effect to Article 17 by enacting:
 (A) t he Abolition of Untouchability Act, 1951
 (b ) t he Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
 (C) t he Constitutional Offences Act, 1951
 (d ) t he Untouchability Offences (Prohibition, Protection, and Remedies)  
Act, 1950
 4. Justice d .Y. Chandrachud’s reliance on Constituent Assembly Debates 
to determine the scope of Article 17 is best explained by this method of 
constitutional interpretation:
 (A) Living Constitutionalism (b ) Originalism
 (C) Structuralism   (d ) t extualism
 5. in IYLA, Justice d .Y. Chandrachud held that Article 17 has:
 (A) Vertical application (b ) Horizontal application
 (C) indirect horizontal application (d ) None of the above
 6. in the review petition against this judgment, the Supreme Court has framed which 
of the following questions for determination by a 9-judge bench?
 (A) Scope of “public order, morality and health” in Article 25(1)
 (b ) Scope of expression “section of Hindus” in Article 25(2)(b)
 (C) Scope of “judicial recognition” to PiLs filed by people not belonging to a religious 
denomination to contest a religious practice
 (d ) All the above
 7. Which judge on the bench in IYLA disagreed with Justice Chandrachud on the 
application of Article 17?
 (A) Justice r .F. Nariman
 (b ) Justice d ipak misra
 (C) Justice indu malhotra
 (d ) None of the above
Page 4


Confidential
PG 2023
consortium of national law universities  
common law admission test-2023
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  candidates 
(t his b ooklet contains 44 pages of Question Paper including 3 blank pages for rough work.)
d uration of t est : 2 Hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Booklet s l. n o.
 1. Separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet is supplied along 
with this Question b ooklet and the carbon 
copy has to be detached and taken by the 
candidates.
 2. in case of any discrepancy in the question 
booklet (Qb ), please request the invigilator 
for replacement of a fresh packet of Qb with 
Omr . d o not use the previous Omr r esponse 
Sheet for a fresh booklet so obtained.
 3. Candidates will not be given a second 
blank Omr r esponse Sheet under any 
circumstance. Hence, Omr r esponse Sheet 
shall be handled carefully.
 4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 
sought on the Question Paper.
 5. Possession of e lectronic d evices in any form 
is Strictly prohibited in the e xamination 
Hall.
 6. t he use of any unfair means by any candidate 
shall result in the cancellation of his/her 
examination.
 7. impersonation is an offense and the 
candidate, apart from disqualification, will 
be liable to be prosecuted.
 8. t he t est Paper for Post Graduate (LL.m.) 
Programme is for 120 marks containing  
120 multiple Choice Questions.
 9. t here will be Negative marking for multiple 
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks 
will be deducted for every wrong answer or 
where candidates have marked more than 
one response.
 10. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen 
only for writing the r oll No. and other details 
on Omr r esponse Sheet.
 11. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen for 
shading the circles. indicate only the most 
appropriate answer by shading from the 
options provided. t he answer circle should 
be shaded completely without leaving any 
space.
 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected 
on the Omr r esponse Sheet, candidates 
have to take necessary precautions before 
marking the appropriate circle.
 13. t he candidate should retain the Admit 
Card duly Signed by the invigilator, as 
the same has to be produced at the time of 
Admission.
 14. Handle the Omr r esponse Sheet with care. 
d o not fold.
 15. e nsure that invigilator puts his/her 
signature in the space provided on the Omr 
r esponse Sheet. Candidate should sign in 
the space provided on the Omr r esponse 
Sheet.
 16. t he candidate should write Question Paper 
b ooklet No., and Omr r esponse Sheet No., 
and sign in the space/column provided in the 
attendance sheet.
 17. r eturn the Ori GiNAL Page of Omr r esponse 
Sheet to the invigilator after the e xamination.
 18. t he candidate shall not write anything on the 
Omr r esponse Sheet other than the details 
required and in the spaces provided for.
*
*
* Pb
 ^
?
#
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PG 2023
              
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  c andidates  
d uration of t est : 2 hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Question Booklet  n o.
 1. t his Question b ooklet (Qb ) contains 120  
(One hundred and t wenty) multiple Choice 
Question across 44 (Forty Four) pages 
including  3  (t hree)  blank pages for rough 
work. No additional sheet(s) of paper will be 
supplied for rough work.
 2. You shall enter your Admit Card No. on the 
first page of the Qb at the start of the test.
 3. You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet supplied along 
with this Qb . You must re Ad the detailed 
instructions provided with the Omr 
r esponse Sheet on the reverse side of this 
packet b e FOre you start the test.
 4. No clarification can be sought on the Qb 
from anyone. in case of any discrepancy in 
the Qb , request the invigilator to replace 
the Qb and Omr r esponse Sheet. d o not 
use the previous Omr r esponse Sheet with 
the fresh Qb .
 5. You should write the Qb No., and the Omr 
r esponse Sheet No., and sign in the space/
column provided in the Attendance Sheet 
circulated during the test.
 6. You should retain the Admit Card duly 
signed by the invigilator, as the same has to 
be produced at the time of admissions.
 7. t he Qb for the Post Graduate LL.m. 
Programme is for 120 marks. e very r ight 
a nswer secures 1 mark. e very wrong 
a nswer results in the deduction of  
0.25 marks. t here shall be no deductions for 
u nanswered Questions.
 8. You may retain the Qb and the Candidate’s 
copy of the Omr r esponse Sheet after the 
test.
 9. t he use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of e lectronic 
d evices including mobile phones, headphones 
and digital watches is strictly prohibited in 
the test premises. impersonation or any 
other fraudulent practice may be a criminal 
offence, and will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, penal action under the law.
M 
1
M
do not o Pen till 2 P.m.
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 3 
M
PG
 i. Our society is governed by the Constitution. t he values of constitutional morality 
are a non-derogable entitlement. Notions of “purity and pollution”, which stigmatise 
individuals, can have no place in a constitutional regime. r egarding menstruation 
as polluting or impure, and worse still, imposing exclusionary disabilities on the 
basis of menstrual status, is against the dignity of women which is guaranteed by 
the Constitution. Practices which legitimise menstrual taboos, due to notions of 
“purity and pollution”, limit the ability of menstruating women to attain the freedom 
of movement, the right to education and the right of entry to places of worship and, 
eventually, their access to the public sphere. Women have a right to control their own 
bodies. t he menstrual status of a woman is an attribute of her privacy and person. 
Women have a constitutional entitlement that their biological processes must be free 
from social and religious practices, which enforce segregation and exclusion. t hese 
practices result in humiliation and a violation of dignity. Article 17 prohibits the 
practice of “untouchability”, which is based on notions of purity and impurity, “in 
any form”. Article 17 certainly applies to untouchability practices in relation to lower 
castes, but it will also apply to the systemic humiliation, exclusion and subjugation 
faced by women. Prejudice against women based on notions of impurity and pollution 
associated with menstruation is a symbol of exclusion. t he social exclusion of women, 
based on menstrual status, is but a form of untouchability which is an anathema to 
constitutional values. As an expression of the anti-exclusion principle, Article 17 cannot 
be read to exclude women against whom social exclusion of the worst kind has been 
practised and legitimised on notions of purity and pollution. Article 17 cannot be read 
in a restricted manner. b ut even if Article 17 were to be read to reflect a particular 
form of untouchability, that Article will not exhaust the guarantee against other forms 
of social exclusion. t he guarantee against social exclusion would emanate from other 
provisions of Part iii , including Articles 15(2) and 21. e xclusion of women between 
the age group of ten and fifty, based on their menstrual status, from entering the 
temple in Sabarimala can have no place in a constitutional order founded on liberty 
and dignity.
  [e xtracted from Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala, (2019) 11 SCC 
1 (hereafter IYLA)]
 1. in IYLA, the Supreme Court held that the worshippers of Lord Ayyappa:
 (A) are not a religious denomination because they have not registered themselves 
as such
 (b ) are not a religious denomination because they do not have a distinct name, a 
common set of beliefs, and a common organisational structure
 (C) are a religious denomination because they have been recognised as such by the 
state
 (d ) are a religious denomination because they have consistently been treated as 
such by themselves as well as by society in general
M
 4 
PG
 2. t he Supreme Court determined whether a religious practice falls within Article 25 
using the:
 (A) e ssential r eligious Practice t est (b ) Sincerity of b elief t est
 (C) Proportionality t est (d ) Constitutional morality t est
 3. Parliament gave effect to Article 17 by enacting:
 (A) t he Abolition of Untouchability Act, 1951
 (b ) t he Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
 (C) t he Constitutional Offences Act, 1951
 (d ) t he Untouchability Offences (Prohibition, Protection, and Remedies)  
Act, 1950
 4. Justice d .Y. Chandrachud’s reliance on Constituent Assembly Debates 
to determine the scope of Article 17 is best explained by this method of 
constitutional interpretation:
 (A) Living Constitutionalism (b ) Originalism
 (C) Structuralism   (d ) t extualism
 5. in IYLA, Justice d .Y. Chandrachud held that Article 17 has:
 (A) Vertical application (b ) Horizontal application
 (C) indirect horizontal application (d ) None of the above
 6. in the review petition against this judgment, the Supreme Court has framed which 
of the following questions for determination by a 9-judge bench?
 (A) Scope of “public order, morality and health” in Article 25(1)
 (b ) Scope of expression “section of Hindus” in Article 25(2)(b)
 (C) Scope of “judicial recognition” to PiLs filed by people not belonging to a religious 
denomination to contest a religious practice
 (d ) All the above
 7. Which judge on the bench in IYLA disagreed with Justice Chandrachud on the 
application of Article 17?
 (A) Justice r .F. Nariman
 (b ) Justice d ipak misra
 (C) Justice indu malhotra
 (d ) None of the above
 5 
M
PG
 8. in reaching his conclusion on the scope of Article 17, Justice d .Y. Chandrachud 
cited which of the following works of d r. b .r . Ambedkar?
 (A) Coming out as Dalit (b ) Goolami
 (C) Annihilation of Caste (d ) All the above
 9. in the passage above, what does the term “non-derogable” mean?
 (A) Cannot be extracted under any circumstances
 (b ) Cannot be precisely determined
 (C) Cannot be infringed under any circumstances
 (d ) None of the above
 10. t he petition filed by the indian Young Lawyers Association in this case was a:
 (A) Special Leave Petition from the decision of the Kerala High Court
 (b ) Public interest Litigation
 (C) Writ Appeal from a petition filed under Article 226
 (d ) None of the above
 ii . An Ordinance which is promulgated by the Governor has (as clause 2 of Article 
213 provides) the same force and effect as an Act of the legislature of the State 
assented to by the Governor. However - and this is a matter of crucial importance 
– clause 2 goes on to stipulate in the same vein significant constitutional 
conditions. t hese conditions have to be fulfilled before the ‘force and effect’ 
fiction comes into being. t hese conditions are prefaced by the expression  
“but every such Ordinance” which means that the constitutional fiction is subject to what 
is stipulated in sub-clauses (a) and (b). Sub-clause (a) provides that the Ordinance “shall 
be laid before the legislative assembly of the state” or before both the Houses in the case 
of a bi-cameral legislature. is the requirement of laying an Ordinance before the state 
legislature mandatory? t here can be no manner of doubt that it is. t he expression “shall be 
laid” is a positive mandate which brooks no exceptions. t hat the word ‘shall’ in sub-clause  
(a) of clause 2 of Article 213 is mandatory, emerges from reading the provision in its 
entirety. As we have noted earlier, an Ordinance can be promulgated only when the 
legislature is not in session. u pon the completion of six weeks of the reassembling of 
the legislature, an Ordinance “shall cease to operate”. 
  … 
  Article 213(2)(a) postulates that an ordinance would cease to operate upon the expiry of 
a period of six weeks of the reassembly of the legislature. t he Oxford e nglish dictionary 
defines the expression “cease” as : “to stop, give over, discontinue, desist; to come to 
the end.” P r amanatha Aiyar’s, t he major Law Lexicon defines the expression “cease” 
to mean “discontinue or put an end to”. Justice C K t hakker’s e ncyclopaedic Law 
Lexicon defines the word “cease” as meaning: “to put an end to; to stop, to terminate 
or to discontinue”. t he expression has been defined in similar terms in b lack’s Law 
d ictionary.
Page 5


Confidential
PG 2023
consortium of national law universities  
common law admission test-2023
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  candidates 
(t his b ooklet contains 44 pages of Question Paper including 3 blank pages for rough work.)
d uration of t est : 2 Hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Booklet s l. n o.
 1. Separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet is supplied along 
with this Question b ooklet and the carbon 
copy has to be detached and taken by the 
candidates.
 2. in case of any discrepancy in the question 
booklet (Qb ), please request the invigilator 
for replacement of a fresh packet of Qb with 
Omr . d o not use the previous Omr r esponse 
Sheet for a fresh booklet so obtained.
 3. Candidates will not be given a second 
blank Omr r esponse Sheet under any 
circumstance. Hence, Omr r esponse Sheet 
shall be handled carefully.
 4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 
sought on the Question Paper.
 5. Possession of e lectronic d evices in any form 
is Strictly prohibited in the e xamination 
Hall.
 6. t he use of any unfair means by any candidate 
shall result in the cancellation of his/her 
examination.
 7. impersonation is an offense and the 
candidate, apart from disqualification, will 
be liable to be prosecuted.
 8. t he t est Paper for Post Graduate (LL.m.) 
Programme is for 120 marks containing  
120 multiple Choice Questions.
 9. t here will be Negative marking for multiple 
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks 
will be deducted for every wrong answer or 
where candidates have marked more than 
one response.
 10. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen 
only for writing the r oll No. and other details 
on Omr r esponse Sheet.
 11. u se Black/Blue Ball Point Pen for 
shading the circles. indicate only the most 
appropriate answer by shading from the 
options provided. t he answer circle should 
be shaded completely without leaving any 
space.
 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected 
on the Omr r esponse Sheet, candidates 
have to take necessary precautions before 
marking the appropriate circle.
 13. t he candidate should retain the Admit 
Card duly Signed by the invigilator, as 
the same has to be produced at the time of 
Admission.
 14. Handle the Omr r esponse Sheet with care. 
d o not fold.
 15. e nsure that invigilator puts his/her 
signature in the space provided on the Omr 
r esponse Sheet. Candidate should sign in 
the space provided on the Omr r esponse 
Sheet.
 16. t he candidate should write Question Paper 
b ooklet No., and Omr r esponse Sheet No., 
and sign in the space/column provided in the 
attendance sheet.
 17. r eturn the Ori GiNAL Page of Omr r esponse 
Sheet to the invigilator after the e xamination.
 18. t he candidate shall not write anything on the 
Omr r esponse Sheet other than the details 
required and in the spaces provided for.
*
*
* Pb
 ^
?
#
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 iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
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afafafaf
afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
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afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
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afafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafafafafafafafa
fafafafaf
PG 2023
              
ll .m. Programme
 
                     Admit C Ard Number
                           (in Figures)
instructions  to  c andidates  
d uration of t est : 2 hours (120 minutes) maximum marks : 120
Question Booklet  n o.
 1. t his Question b ooklet (Qb ) contains 120  
(One hundred and t wenty) multiple Choice 
Question across 44 (Forty Four) pages 
including  3  (t hree)  blank pages for rough 
work. No additional sheet(s) of paper will be 
supplied for rough work.
 2. You shall enter your Admit Card No. on the 
first page of the Qb at the start of the test.
 3. You have to answer ALL questions in the 
separate carbonised Optical mark r eader 
(Omr ) r esponse Sheet supplied along 
with this Qb . You must re Ad the detailed 
instructions provided with the Omr 
r esponse Sheet on the reverse side of this 
packet b e FOre you start the test.
 4. No clarification can be sought on the Qb 
from anyone. in case of any discrepancy in 
the Qb , request the invigilator to replace 
the Qb and Omr r esponse Sheet. d o not 
use the previous Omr r esponse Sheet with 
the fresh Qb .
 5. You should write the Qb No., and the Omr 
r esponse Sheet No., and sign in the space/
column provided in the Attendance Sheet 
circulated during the test.
 6. You should retain the Admit Card duly 
signed by the invigilator, as the same has to 
be produced at the time of admissions.
 7. t he Qb for the Post Graduate LL.m. 
Programme is for 120 marks. e very r ight 
a nswer secures 1 mark. e very wrong 
a nswer results in the deduction of  
0.25 marks. t here shall be no deductions for 
u nanswered Questions.
 8. You may retain the Qb and the Candidate’s 
copy of the Omr r esponse Sheet after the 
test.
 9. t he use of any unfair means shall result in 
your disqualification. Possession of e lectronic 
d evices including mobile phones, headphones 
and digital watches is strictly prohibited in 
the test premises. impersonation or any 
other fraudulent practice may be a criminal 
offence, and will lead to your disqualification 
and possibly, penal action under the law.
M 
1
M
do not o Pen till 2 P.m.
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii iiiiiiiiii
iiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiiii
 3 
M
PG
 i. Our society is governed by the Constitution. t he values of constitutional morality 
are a non-derogable entitlement. Notions of “purity and pollution”, which stigmatise 
individuals, can have no place in a constitutional regime. r egarding menstruation 
as polluting or impure, and worse still, imposing exclusionary disabilities on the 
basis of menstrual status, is against the dignity of women which is guaranteed by 
the Constitution. Practices which legitimise menstrual taboos, due to notions of 
“purity and pollution”, limit the ability of menstruating women to attain the freedom 
of movement, the right to education and the right of entry to places of worship and, 
eventually, their access to the public sphere. Women have a right to control their own 
bodies. t he menstrual status of a woman is an attribute of her privacy and person. 
Women have a constitutional entitlement that their biological processes must be free 
from social and religious practices, which enforce segregation and exclusion. t hese 
practices result in humiliation and a violation of dignity. Article 17 prohibits the 
practice of “untouchability”, which is based on notions of purity and impurity, “in 
any form”. Article 17 certainly applies to untouchability practices in relation to lower 
castes, but it will also apply to the systemic humiliation, exclusion and subjugation 
faced by women. Prejudice against women based on notions of impurity and pollution 
associated with menstruation is a symbol of exclusion. t he social exclusion of women, 
based on menstrual status, is but a form of untouchability which is an anathema to 
constitutional values. As an expression of the anti-exclusion principle, Article 17 cannot 
be read to exclude women against whom social exclusion of the worst kind has been 
practised and legitimised on notions of purity and pollution. Article 17 cannot be read 
in a restricted manner. b ut even if Article 17 were to be read to reflect a particular 
form of untouchability, that Article will not exhaust the guarantee against other forms 
of social exclusion. t he guarantee against social exclusion would emanate from other 
provisions of Part iii , including Articles 15(2) and 21. e xclusion of women between 
the age group of ten and fifty, based on their menstrual status, from entering the 
temple in Sabarimala can have no place in a constitutional order founded on liberty 
and dignity.
  [e xtracted from Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala, (2019) 11 SCC 
1 (hereafter IYLA)]
 1. in IYLA, the Supreme Court held that the worshippers of Lord Ayyappa:
 (A) are not a religious denomination because they have not registered themselves 
as such
 (b ) are not a religious denomination because they do not have a distinct name, a 
common set of beliefs, and a common organisational structure
 (C) are a religious denomination because they have been recognised as such by the 
state
 (d ) are a religious denomination because they have consistently been treated as 
such by themselves as well as by society in general
M
 4 
PG
 2. t he Supreme Court determined whether a religious practice falls within Article 25 
using the:
 (A) e ssential r eligious Practice t est (b ) Sincerity of b elief t est
 (C) Proportionality t est (d ) Constitutional morality t est
 3. Parliament gave effect to Article 17 by enacting:
 (A) t he Abolition of Untouchability Act, 1951
 (b ) t he Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
 (C) t he Constitutional Offences Act, 1951
 (d ) t he Untouchability Offences (Prohibition, Protection, and Remedies)  
Act, 1950
 4. Justice d .Y. Chandrachud’s reliance on Constituent Assembly Debates 
to determine the scope of Article 17 is best explained by this method of 
constitutional interpretation:
 (A) Living Constitutionalism (b ) Originalism
 (C) Structuralism   (d ) t extualism
 5. in IYLA, Justice d .Y. Chandrachud held that Article 17 has:
 (A) Vertical application (b ) Horizontal application
 (C) indirect horizontal application (d ) None of the above
 6. in the review petition against this judgment, the Supreme Court has framed which 
of the following questions for determination by a 9-judge bench?
 (A) Scope of “public order, morality and health” in Article 25(1)
 (b ) Scope of expression “section of Hindus” in Article 25(2)(b)
 (C) Scope of “judicial recognition” to PiLs filed by people not belonging to a religious 
denomination to contest a religious practice
 (d ) All the above
 7. Which judge on the bench in IYLA disagreed with Justice Chandrachud on the 
application of Article 17?
 (A) Justice r .F. Nariman
 (b ) Justice d ipak misra
 (C) Justice indu malhotra
 (d ) None of the above
 5 
M
PG
 8. in reaching his conclusion on the scope of Article 17, Justice d .Y. Chandrachud 
cited which of the following works of d r. b .r . Ambedkar?
 (A) Coming out as Dalit (b ) Goolami
 (C) Annihilation of Caste (d ) All the above
 9. in the passage above, what does the term “non-derogable” mean?
 (A) Cannot be extracted under any circumstances
 (b ) Cannot be precisely determined
 (C) Cannot be infringed under any circumstances
 (d ) None of the above
 10. t he petition filed by the indian Young Lawyers Association in this case was a:
 (A) Special Leave Petition from the decision of the Kerala High Court
 (b ) Public interest Litigation
 (C) Writ Appeal from a petition filed under Article 226
 (d ) None of the above
 ii . An Ordinance which is promulgated by the Governor has (as clause 2 of Article 
213 provides) the same force and effect as an Act of the legislature of the State 
assented to by the Governor. However - and this is a matter of crucial importance 
– clause 2 goes on to stipulate in the same vein significant constitutional 
conditions. t hese conditions have to be fulfilled before the ‘force and effect’ 
fiction comes into being. t hese conditions are prefaced by the expression  
“but every such Ordinance” which means that the constitutional fiction is subject to what 
is stipulated in sub-clauses (a) and (b). Sub-clause (a) provides that the Ordinance “shall 
be laid before the legislative assembly of the state” or before both the Houses in the case 
of a bi-cameral legislature. is the requirement of laying an Ordinance before the state 
legislature mandatory? t here can be no manner of doubt that it is. t he expression “shall be 
laid” is a positive mandate which brooks no exceptions. t hat the word ‘shall’ in sub-clause  
(a) of clause 2 of Article 213 is mandatory, emerges from reading the provision in its 
entirety. As we have noted earlier, an Ordinance can be promulgated only when the 
legislature is not in session. u pon the completion of six weeks of the reassembling of 
the legislature, an Ordinance “shall cease to operate”. 
  … 
  Article 213(2)(a) postulates that an ordinance would cease to operate upon the expiry of 
a period of six weeks of the reassembly of the legislature. t he Oxford e nglish dictionary 
defines the expression “cease” as : “to stop, give over, discontinue, desist; to come to 
the end.” P r amanatha Aiyar’s, t he major Law Lexicon defines the expression “cease” 
to mean “discontinue or put an end to”. Justice C K t hakker’s e ncyclopaedic Law 
Lexicon defines the word “cease” as meaning: “to put an end to; to stop, to terminate 
or to discontinue”. t he expression has been defined in similar terms in b lack’s Law 
d ictionary.
M
 6 
PG
  …
  t he expression “cease to operate” in Article 213(2)(a) is attracted in two situations. 
t he first is where a period of six weeks has expired since the reassembling of the 
legislature. t he second situation is where a resolution has been passed by the 
legislature disapproving of an ordinance. Apart from these two situations that are 
contemplated by sub-clause (a), sub-clause (b) contemplates that an ordinance may 
be withdrawn at any time by the Governor. u pon its withdrawal the ordinance would 
cease to operate as well. 
  [e xtracts from the judgment of majority judgment in Krishna Kumar Singh v. 
State of Bihar, Civil Appeal No. 5875 of 1994, decided on January 2, 2017 hereafter  
‘KK Singh’]
 11. t he power to promulgate an ordinance is an instance of the:
 (A) e xecutive power of the Governor
 (b ) d elegated power of the Governor
 (C) Sovereign prerogative power of the Governor
 (d ) None of the above
 12. t he Constitution b ench in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987) 1 SCC 378 held 
that re-promulgation of an Ordinance was a ‘fraud on the Constitution’ because:
 (A) Legislative power is vested in the legislatures by the Constitution of India
 (b ) it is a colourable exercise of power under the Constitution of India
 (C) t he role of the e xecutive is to implement a law, not make it
 (d ) None of the above
 13. in States which are bicameral, the Governor can promulgate an Ordinance only 
when:
 (A) b oth Houses are not in session
 (b ) When a Proclamation of e mergency is in operation
 (C) When the state has been placed under President’s rule
 (d ) None of the above
 14. u nder Article 213, an Ordinance once promulgated by the Governor shall be laid 
before the Legislative Assembly of the State or where it is bicameral, before both the 
Houses. Keeping in mind the constitutional provisions, an ordinance promulgated 
by the Governor can remain effective for a maximum period of:
 (A) Six weeks   (b ) Six months
 (C) Seven-and-a-half months (d ) One year