CLAT PG 2019 Question Paper with Answer Key | CLAT PG Mock Test Series 2025 PDF Download

 Page 1


   
A PG 2019 
3 
CONSORTIUM OF NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITIES 
LLM. – COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST, 2019 
PART-A 
1. Which one of the following is not formally considered as an amendment to the Constitution 
under Article 368?  
(A) Creation of new states (B) Change in the Preamble 
(C) Change in the Part IV A  (D) Change in Part XII 
2. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament? 
(A) Speaker  (B) President 
(C) Vice President (D) Nominee of the Chief Justice of India.  
3. Which of the following category of judges is not mentioned in the Constitution? 
(A) Acting Judge. (B) Additional Judge 
(C) Adhoc Judge (D) Puisne Judge 
4. The right to vote in elections in India is a: 
(A) Fundamental right (B) Constitutional right 
(C) Statutory right (D) Customary right 
5. The fundamental right to form co-operative societies is provided under: 
(A) Article 19 (1) (C) (B) Article 21 
(C) Article 14  (D) Article 51 A (j) 
6. The Ordinance making power of the President under the Indian Constitution is: 
(A) An Executive power (B) A legislative power 
(C) Quasi-legislative power (D) Quasi executive power 
7. The concurrent power to impose tax has been provided under: 
(A) Article 246  (B) List III of Schedule VII 
(C) Article 307  (D) Article 246 A 
8. The Goods and Services Tax Council is set up under : 
(A) Article 263  (B) Article 269-A 
(C) Article 279-A (D) Article 281 
9. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly? 
(A) B N Rau  (B) B R Ambedkar 
(C) Rajendra Prasad (D) K M Munshi 
Page 2


   
A PG 2019 
3 
CONSORTIUM OF NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITIES 
LLM. – COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST, 2019 
PART-A 
1. Which one of the following is not formally considered as an amendment to the Constitution 
under Article 368?  
(A) Creation of new states (B) Change in the Preamble 
(C) Change in the Part IV A  (D) Change in Part XII 
2. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament? 
(A) Speaker  (B) President 
(C) Vice President (D) Nominee of the Chief Justice of India.  
3. Which of the following category of judges is not mentioned in the Constitution? 
(A) Acting Judge. (B) Additional Judge 
(C) Adhoc Judge (D) Puisne Judge 
4. The right to vote in elections in India is a: 
(A) Fundamental right (B) Constitutional right 
(C) Statutory right (D) Customary right 
5. The fundamental right to form co-operative societies is provided under: 
(A) Article 19 (1) (C) (B) Article 21 
(C) Article 14  (D) Article 51 A (j) 
6. The Ordinance making power of the President under the Indian Constitution is: 
(A) An Executive power (B) A legislative power 
(C) Quasi-legislative power (D) Quasi executive power 
7. The concurrent power to impose tax has been provided under: 
(A) Article 246  (B) List III of Schedule VII 
(C) Article 307  (D) Article 246 A 
8. The Goods and Services Tax Council is set up under : 
(A) Article 263  (B) Article 269-A 
(C) Article 279-A (D) Article 281 
9. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly? 
(A) B N Rau  (B) B R Ambedkar 
(C) Rajendra Prasad (D) K M Munshi 
PG 2019  A 
4 
10. Which one of the following is the correct statement in relation to the Collegium? 
(A) Appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary  
(B) Appointment and transfer of judges in the judiciary  
(C) Appointment, transfer and removal of judges in the judiciary 
(D) Appointment, transfer, recusal and removal of judges in the judiciary 
11. The Vice – President of India can be removed from office by: 
(A) Impeachment. 
(B) Resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament. 
(C) Resolution passed by the Council of States and agreed to by the House of the People.  
(D) Resolution by both Houses and Order signed by the President of India. 
12. The President decides on disqualification of Members of Parliament under Article 103 only 
on the advice of:  
(A) Council of Ministers 
(B) Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India 
(C) Election Commission 
(D) Chief Justice of India. 
13. The recent amendment to the Constitution of India paving way for 10% reservation for 
Economically Weaker sections was done by amending: 
(A) Article 14  (B) Articles 15 and 16 
(C) Article 15   (D) Article 338 
14. How many amendments have been made to the Indian Constitution so far? 
(A) 102   (B) 121 
(C) 103   (D) 126 
15. The National Commission for Backward Classes was created by: 
(A) The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 
(B) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 
(C) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 
(D) The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 
16. Which among the following States has no Legislative Council? 
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Telangana 
(C) Bihar  (D) Madhya Pradesh 
Page 3


   
A PG 2019 
3 
CONSORTIUM OF NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITIES 
LLM. – COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST, 2019 
PART-A 
1. Which one of the following is not formally considered as an amendment to the Constitution 
under Article 368?  
(A) Creation of new states (B) Change in the Preamble 
(C) Change in the Part IV A  (D) Change in Part XII 
2. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament? 
(A) Speaker  (B) President 
(C) Vice President (D) Nominee of the Chief Justice of India.  
3. Which of the following category of judges is not mentioned in the Constitution? 
(A) Acting Judge. (B) Additional Judge 
(C) Adhoc Judge (D) Puisne Judge 
4. The right to vote in elections in India is a: 
(A) Fundamental right (B) Constitutional right 
(C) Statutory right (D) Customary right 
5. The fundamental right to form co-operative societies is provided under: 
(A) Article 19 (1) (C) (B) Article 21 
(C) Article 14  (D) Article 51 A (j) 
6. The Ordinance making power of the President under the Indian Constitution is: 
(A) An Executive power (B) A legislative power 
(C) Quasi-legislative power (D) Quasi executive power 
7. The concurrent power to impose tax has been provided under: 
(A) Article 246  (B) List III of Schedule VII 
(C) Article 307  (D) Article 246 A 
8. The Goods and Services Tax Council is set up under : 
(A) Article 263  (B) Article 269-A 
(C) Article 279-A (D) Article 281 
9. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly? 
(A) B N Rau  (B) B R Ambedkar 
(C) Rajendra Prasad (D) K M Munshi 
PG 2019  A 
4 
10. Which one of the following is the correct statement in relation to the Collegium? 
(A) Appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary  
(B) Appointment and transfer of judges in the judiciary  
(C) Appointment, transfer and removal of judges in the judiciary 
(D) Appointment, transfer, recusal and removal of judges in the judiciary 
11. The Vice – President of India can be removed from office by: 
(A) Impeachment. 
(B) Resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament. 
(C) Resolution passed by the Council of States and agreed to by the House of the People.  
(D) Resolution by both Houses and Order signed by the President of India. 
12. The President decides on disqualification of Members of Parliament under Article 103 only 
on the advice of:  
(A) Council of Ministers 
(B) Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India 
(C) Election Commission 
(D) Chief Justice of India. 
13. The recent amendment to the Constitution of India paving way for 10% reservation for 
Economically Weaker sections was done by amending: 
(A) Article 14  (B) Articles 15 and 16 
(C) Article 15   (D) Article 338 
14. How many amendments have been made to the Indian Constitution so far? 
(A) 102   (B) 121 
(C) 103   (D) 126 
15. The National Commission for Backward Classes was created by: 
(A) The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 
(B) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 
(C) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 
(D) The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 
16. Which among the following States has no Legislative Council? 
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Telangana 
(C) Bihar  (D) Madhya Pradesh 
   
A PG 2019 
5 
17. Passive euthanasia under certain circumstance is permissible was upheld in the case of:   
(A) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India  
(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab 
(C) State of Maharashtra v.  Maruty Sripaty Dubal 
(D) P. Rathinam v. Union of India 
18.  Compensatory jurisprudence was invoked by the Supreme Court in: 
(A) Keshavanada Bharathi  v. State of Kerala 
(B) Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar  
(C) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Rajnarain 
(D) Kihota Hollohan v. Zachilhu 
19. Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax, is often quoted with reference to the: 
(A) Doctrine  of Eclipse 
(B) Doctrine of severability 
(C) Doctrine of  Waiver of Fundamental Rights 
(D) Doctrine of territorial nexus 
20. Gunupati v. Nafizul Hasan deals with:  
(A) Presidents‘ election (B) Privileges of the legislature 
(C) Pardoning power (D) Office of profit 
21. Reservation in promotions with consequential seniority in favour of Scheduled Castes and 
Scheduled Tribes is facilitated by:  
(A) Art. 16 (4A) (B) Art. 16(3) 
(C) Art. 16 (4B) (D) Art. 15 (3) 
22. Art. 141 of the Indian Constitution provides:  
(A) Law declared by it is not binding on High Courts 
(B) Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory 
of India  
(C) Advisory opinion may be given  
(D) Appeals from the High Court 
23. Doctrine of legitimate expectation and wednesbury principles were read by Supreme Court 
into: 
(A) Art. 12  (B) Art.14 
(C) Art. 23  (D) Art.22 
Page 4


   
A PG 2019 
3 
CONSORTIUM OF NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITIES 
LLM. – COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST, 2019 
PART-A 
1. Which one of the following is not formally considered as an amendment to the Constitution 
under Article 368?  
(A) Creation of new states (B) Change in the Preamble 
(C) Change in the Part IV A  (D) Change in Part XII 
2. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament? 
(A) Speaker  (B) President 
(C) Vice President (D) Nominee of the Chief Justice of India.  
3. Which of the following category of judges is not mentioned in the Constitution? 
(A) Acting Judge. (B) Additional Judge 
(C) Adhoc Judge (D) Puisne Judge 
4. The right to vote in elections in India is a: 
(A) Fundamental right (B) Constitutional right 
(C) Statutory right (D) Customary right 
5. The fundamental right to form co-operative societies is provided under: 
(A) Article 19 (1) (C) (B) Article 21 
(C) Article 14  (D) Article 51 A (j) 
6. The Ordinance making power of the President under the Indian Constitution is: 
(A) An Executive power (B) A legislative power 
(C) Quasi-legislative power (D) Quasi executive power 
7. The concurrent power to impose tax has been provided under: 
(A) Article 246  (B) List III of Schedule VII 
(C) Article 307  (D) Article 246 A 
8. The Goods and Services Tax Council is set up under : 
(A) Article 263  (B) Article 269-A 
(C) Article 279-A (D) Article 281 
9. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly? 
(A) B N Rau  (B) B R Ambedkar 
(C) Rajendra Prasad (D) K M Munshi 
PG 2019  A 
4 
10. Which one of the following is the correct statement in relation to the Collegium? 
(A) Appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary  
(B) Appointment and transfer of judges in the judiciary  
(C) Appointment, transfer and removal of judges in the judiciary 
(D) Appointment, transfer, recusal and removal of judges in the judiciary 
11. The Vice – President of India can be removed from office by: 
(A) Impeachment. 
(B) Resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament. 
(C) Resolution passed by the Council of States and agreed to by the House of the People.  
(D) Resolution by both Houses and Order signed by the President of India. 
12. The President decides on disqualification of Members of Parliament under Article 103 only 
on the advice of:  
(A) Council of Ministers 
(B) Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India 
(C) Election Commission 
(D) Chief Justice of India. 
13. The recent amendment to the Constitution of India paving way for 10% reservation for 
Economically Weaker sections was done by amending: 
(A) Article 14  (B) Articles 15 and 16 
(C) Article 15   (D) Article 338 
14. How many amendments have been made to the Indian Constitution so far? 
(A) 102   (B) 121 
(C) 103   (D) 126 
15. The National Commission for Backward Classes was created by: 
(A) The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 
(B) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 
(C) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 
(D) The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 
16. Which among the following States has no Legislative Council? 
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Telangana 
(C) Bihar  (D) Madhya Pradesh 
   
A PG 2019 
5 
17. Passive euthanasia under certain circumstance is permissible was upheld in the case of:   
(A) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India  
(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab 
(C) State of Maharashtra v.  Maruty Sripaty Dubal 
(D) P. Rathinam v. Union of India 
18.  Compensatory jurisprudence was invoked by the Supreme Court in: 
(A) Keshavanada Bharathi  v. State of Kerala 
(B) Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar  
(C) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Rajnarain 
(D) Kihota Hollohan v. Zachilhu 
19. Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax, is often quoted with reference to the: 
(A) Doctrine  of Eclipse 
(B) Doctrine of severability 
(C) Doctrine of  Waiver of Fundamental Rights 
(D) Doctrine of territorial nexus 
20. Gunupati v. Nafizul Hasan deals with:  
(A) Presidents‘ election (B) Privileges of the legislature 
(C) Pardoning power (D) Office of profit 
21. Reservation in promotions with consequential seniority in favour of Scheduled Castes and 
Scheduled Tribes is facilitated by:  
(A) Art. 16 (4A) (B) Art. 16(3) 
(C) Art. 16 (4B) (D) Art. 15 (3) 
22. Art. 141 of the Indian Constitution provides:  
(A) Law declared by it is not binding on High Courts 
(B) Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory 
of India  
(C) Advisory opinion may be given  
(D) Appeals from the High Court 
23. Doctrine of legitimate expectation and wednesbury principles were read by Supreme Court 
into: 
(A) Art. 12  (B) Art.14 
(C) Art. 23  (D) Art.22 
PG 2019  A 
6 
24. A seven member bench of the Supreme Court unanimously struck down clauses 2(d) of 
Art.323 A and Clause 3(d) of Art 323B of the Constitution relating to tribunals which 
excluded the jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme Court.  The court held that power of 
judicial review over legislative action is vested in the High Court under Art.226 and in the 
Supreme Court under Art.32.  This is an integral part of the basic structure of the 
constitution. Name the case: 
(A) L. Chandra  Kumar v.  Union of India 
(B) KihotaHollohon v. Zachilhu 
(C) Nagaraj v. State of A.P. 
(D) Rajendra Singh Rana v. Swami Prasad Maurya 
25. The phrase =complete justice‘ is used in: 
(A) Article 141  (B) Article 142 
(C) Article 144  (D) Article 145 
26. The minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court who are to sit to decide any case 
involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be: 
(A) Three  (B) Five 
(C) Seven  (D) Nine 
27. Which of the following duties was inserted by way of an amendment in 2002? 
(A) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. 
(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture 
(C) To safeguard public property and abjure violence 
(D) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as 
the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. 
28. The Parliament of India consists of: 
(A) Two Houses of Parliament 
(B) President and Two Houses of Parliament  
(C) President, Prime Minister and two Houses of Parliament 
(D) President, Vice President and two Houses of Parliament.  
29. The Goods and Services Tax Council shall make recommendations to the Union and the 
States on a number of issues. Special provisions to how many States the Council can make 
recommendations? 
(A) Six   (B) Eight 
(C) Eleven  (D) Thirteen 
30. How many High Courts are there in India? 
(A) 21   (B) 22 
(C) 23   (D) 24 
Page 5


   
A PG 2019 
3 
CONSORTIUM OF NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITIES 
LLM. – COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST, 2019 
PART-A 
1. Which one of the following is not formally considered as an amendment to the Constitution 
under Article 368?  
(A) Creation of new states (B) Change in the Preamble 
(C) Change in the Part IV A  (D) Change in Part XII 
2. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament? 
(A) Speaker  (B) President 
(C) Vice President (D) Nominee of the Chief Justice of India.  
3. Which of the following category of judges is not mentioned in the Constitution? 
(A) Acting Judge. (B) Additional Judge 
(C) Adhoc Judge (D) Puisne Judge 
4. The right to vote in elections in India is a: 
(A) Fundamental right (B) Constitutional right 
(C) Statutory right (D) Customary right 
5. The fundamental right to form co-operative societies is provided under: 
(A) Article 19 (1) (C) (B) Article 21 
(C) Article 14  (D) Article 51 A (j) 
6. The Ordinance making power of the President under the Indian Constitution is: 
(A) An Executive power (B) A legislative power 
(C) Quasi-legislative power (D) Quasi executive power 
7. The concurrent power to impose tax has been provided under: 
(A) Article 246  (B) List III of Schedule VII 
(C) Article 307  (D) Article 246 A 
8. The Goods and Services Tax Council is set up under : 
(A) Article 263  (B) Article 269-A 
(C) Article 279-A (D) Article 281 
9. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly? 
(A) B N Rau  (B) B R Ambedkar 
(C) Rajendra Prasad (D) K M Munshi 
PG 2019  A 
4 
10. Which one of the following is the correct statement in relation to the Collegium? 
(A) Appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary  
(B) Appointment and transfer of judges in the judiciary  
(C) Appointment, transfer and removal of judges in the judiciary 
(D) Appointment, transfer, recusal and removal of judges in the judiciary 
11. The Vice – President of India can be removed from office by: 
(A) Impeachment. 
(B) Resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament. 
(C) Resolution passed by the Council of States and agreed to by the House of the People.  
(D) Resolution by both Houses and Order signed by the President of India. 
12. The President decides on disqualification of Members of Parliament under Article 103 only 
on the advice of:  
(A) Council of Ministers 
(B) Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India 
(C) Election Commission 
(D) Chief Justice of India. 
13. The recent amendment to the Constitution of India paving way for 10% reservation for 
Economically Weaker sections was done by amending: 
(A) Article 14  (B) Articles 15 and 16 
(C) Article 15   (D) Article 338 
14. How many amendments have been made to the Indian Constitution so far? 
(A) 102   (B) 121 
(C) 103   (D) 126 
15. The National Commission for Backward Classes was created by: 
(A) The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 
(B) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018 
(C) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 
(D) The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015 
16. Which among the following States has no Legislative Council? 
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Telangana 
(C) Bihar  (D) Madhya Pradesh 
   
A PG 2019 
5 
17. Passive euthanasia under certain circumstance is permissible was upheld in the case of:   
(A) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India  
(B) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab 
(C) State of Maharashtra v.  Maruty Sripaty Dubal 
(D) P. Rathinam v. Union of India 
18.  Compensatory jurisprudence was invoked by the Supreme Court in: 
(A) Keshavanada Bharathi  v. State of Kerala 
(B) Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar  
(C) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Rajnarain 
(D) Kihota Hollohan v. Zachilhu 
19. Basheshar Nath v. Commissioner of Income Tax, is often quoted with reference to the: 
(A) Doctrine  of Eclipse 
(B) Doctrine of severability 
(C) Doctrine of  Waiver of Fundamental Rights 
(D) Doctrine of territorial nexus 
20. Gunupati v. Nafizul Hasan deals with:  
(A) Presidents‘ election (B) Privileges of the legislature 
(C) Pardoning power (D) Office of profit 
21. Reservation in promotions with consequential seniority in favour of Scheduled Castes and 
Scheduled Tribes is facilitated by:  
(A) Art. 16 (4A) (B) Art. 16(3) 
(C) Art. 16 (4B) (D) Art. 15 (3) 
22. Art. 141 of the Indian Constitution provides:  
(A) Law declared by it is not binding on High Courts 
(B) Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory 
of India  
(C) Advisory opinion may be given  
(D) Appeals from the High Court 
23. Doctrine of legitimate expectation and wednesbury principles were read by Supreme Court 
into: 
(A) Art. 12  (B) Art.14 
(C) Art. 23  (D) Art.22 
PG 2019  A 
6 
24. A seven member bench of the Supreme Court unanimously struck down clauses 2(d) of 
Art.323 A and Clause 3(d) of Art 323B of the Constitution relating to tribunals which 
excluded the jurisdiction of High Court and Supreme Court.  The court held that power of 
judicial review over legislative action is vested in the High Court under Art.226 and in the 
Supreme Court under Art.32.  This is an integral part of the basic structure of the 
constitution. Name the case: 
(A) L. Chandra  Kumar v.  Union of India 
(B) KihotaHollohon v. Zachilhu 
(C) Nagaraj v. State of A.P. 
(D) Rajendra Singh Rana v. Swami Prasad Maurya 
25. The phrase =complete justice‘ is used in: 
(A) Article 141  (B) Article 142 
(C) Article 144  (D) Article 145 
26. The minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court who are to sit to decide any case 
involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution shall be: 
(A) Three  (B) Five 
(C) Seven  (D) Nine 
27. Which of the following duties was inserted by way of an amendment in 2002? 
(A) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. 
(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture 
(C) To safeguard public property and abjure violence 
(D) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as 
the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. 
28. The Parliament of India consists of: 
(A) Two Houses of Parliament 
(B) President and Two Houses of Parliament  
(C) President, Prime Minister and two Houses of Parliament 
(D) President, Vice President and two Houses of Parliament.  
29. The Goods and Services Tax Council shall make recommendations to the Union and the 
States on a number of issues. Special provisions to how many States the Council can make 
recommendations? 
(A) Six   (B) Eight 
(C) Eleven  (D) Thirteen 
30. How many High Courts are there in India? 
(A) 21   (B) 22 
(C) 23   (D) 24 
   
A PG 2019 
7 
31. What is the total strength of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India? 
(A) 27   (B) 29 
(C) 31   (D) 32 
32. In which case the doctrine of severability was extended by the Supreme Court to 
constitutional amendments? 
(A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras 
(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab 
(C) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala 
(D) Kihota Hollahan v. Zachilhu 
33. Among the following judges, against whom the motion for removal were initiated in either 
House of Parliament? 
(A) Justice Ramaswamy and Justice Dinakaran 
(B) Justice Ramaswamy and Justice Soumitro Sen 
(C) Justice Dinakaran and Justice Soumitro Sen 
(D) Justice Ramaswamy and Justice Karnan 
34. Recently, the Supreme Court in Ram-Janmabhumi case: 
(A) Has ordered mediation by a panel 
(B) Has declined to decide on the case 
(C) Has upheld the Allahabad High Court‘s decision 
(D) None of the above 
35. The Constitution Day is celebrated on: 
(A) 26
th
 January (B) 15
th
 August 
(C) 26
th
 November (D) 10
th
 December 
36. If the Anglo-Indian Community is adequately represented, the President may nominate not 
more than __________ members to the Lok Sabha: 
(A) Three  (B) Two 
(C) One   (D) Four 
37. In which case the Supreme Court applied the doctrine of Prospective Over-ruling for the first 
time to resolve a constitutional question? 
(A) A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (B) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan 
(C) Shakari Prasad v. Union of India (D) Golaknath v. State of Punjab 
38. How many judges of the Supreme Court were superseded in the appointment of Justice  
A.N. Ray as the Chief Justice of India? 
(A) One   (B) Three 
(C) Two   (D) None