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Page 1
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : GEOGRAPHY
Code : 313 E
Medium : English
Page 2
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : GEOGRAPHY
Code : 313 E
Medium : English
313 E/A ( 2 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. Which of the following is a land-locked harbour ?
(1) Paradwip port
(2) Tuticorin port
(3) Haldia port
(4) Visakhapatnam port
2. Which of the following ports is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation ?
(1) Mumbai port (2) New Mangalore port
(3) Kolkata port (4) Paradwip port
3. Where is the headquarter of the ‘Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries’ (OPEC) ?
(1) Montevideo (2) Vienna
(3) Minsk (4) Aden
4. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the World Trade Organization
in _________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1995 (2) 1991
(3) 2005 (4) 1976
5. Pykara Hydroelectric Plant was built in ________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1929 (2) 1931
(3) 1932 (4) 1942
6. The total utilisable water resources in India is about __________________ cubic km.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 4,000 (2) 1,969
(3) 1,869 (4) 1,122
7. The first radio programme was broadcast in India in ______________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1910 (2) 1913
(3) 1923 (4) 1932
Page 3
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : GEOGRAPHY
Code : 313 E
Medium : English
313 E/A ( 2 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. Which of the following is a land-locked harbour ?
(1) Paradwip port
(2) Tuticorin port
(3) Haldia port
(4) Visakhapatnam port
2. Which of the following ports is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation ?
(1) Mumbai port (2) New Mangalore port
(3) Kolkata port (4) Paradwip port
3. Where is the headquarter of the ‘Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries’ (OPEC) ?
(1) Montevideo (2) Vienna
(3) Minsk (4) Aden
4. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the World Trade Organization
in _________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1995 (2) 1991
(3) 2005 (4) 1976
5. Pykara Hydroelectric Plant was built in ________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1929 (2) 1931
(3) 1932 (4) 1942
6. The total utilisable water resources in India is about __________________ cubic km.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 4,000 (2) 1,969
(3) 1,869 (4) 1,122
7. The first radio programme was broadcast in India in ______________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1910 (2) 1913
(3) 1923 (4) 1932
313 E/A ( 3 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8. Canberra was planned by ______________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) Patrick Geddes (2) Walter Burley Griffin
(3) Jean Gottmann (4) George Zipf
9. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
(Approaches in Human
Geography)
List-II
(Broad features)
(A) Areal Differentiation
(I) Identifying the uniqueness of any region and
understanding how and why it is different
(B) Spatial Organisation
(II) Application of quantitative techniques in Geography
(C) Behavioural School
(III) Discontent with quantitative revolution and its
dehumanized manner of doing Geography
(D) Post-modernism (IV) Focus on local context
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(3) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
10. Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to the characteristics of intensive
subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
(A) Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population.
(B) Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land.
(C) Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil.
(D) The yield per unit area is low, but productivity per labour is high.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only
Page 4
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : GEOGRAPHY
Code : 313 E
Medium : English
313 E/A ( 2 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. Which of the following is a land-locked harbour ?
(1) Paradwip port
(2) Tuticorin port
(3) Haldia port
(4) Visakhapatnam port
2. Which of the following ports is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation ?
(1) Mumbai port (2) New Mangalore port
(3) Kolkata port (4) Paradwip port
3. Where is the headquarter of the ‘Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries’ (OPEC) ?
(1) Montevideo (2) Vienna
(3) Minsk (4) Aden
4. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the World Trade Organization
in _________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1995 (2) 1991
(3) 2005 (4) 1976
5. Pykara Hydroelectric Plant was built in ________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1929 (2) 1931
(3) 1932 (4) 1942
6. The total utilisable water resources in India is about __________________ cubic km.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 4,000 (2) 1,969
(3) 1,869 (4) 1,122
7. The first radio programme was broadcast in India in ______________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1910 (2) 1913
(3) 1923 (4) 1932
313 E/A ( 3 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8. Canberra was planned by ______________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) Patrick Geddes (2) Walter Burley Griffin
(3) Jean Gottmann (4) George Zipf
9. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
(Approaches in Human
Geography)
List-II
(Broad features)
(A) Areal Differentiation
(I) Identifying the uniqueness of any region and
understanding how and why it is different
(B) Spatial Organisation
(II) Application of quantitative techniques in Geography
(C) Behavioural School
(III) Discontent with quantitative revolution and its
dehumanized manner of doing Geography
(D) Post-modernism (IV) Focus on local context
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(3) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
10. Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to the characteristics of intensive
subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
(A) Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population.
(B) Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land.
(C) Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil.
(D) The yield per unit area is low, but productivity per labour is high.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only
313 E/A ( 4 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
11. Arrange the following agricultural regions from equator to pole :
(A) Commercial grain farming in the Prairies
(B) Reindeer rearing by the Eskimos
(C) Tea plantations of north-east India
(D) Primitive subsistence farming in Indonesia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (C), (D), (A), (B) (2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (D), (C), (B), (A) (4) (C), (D), (B), (A)
12. Arrange the following as per the stages of demographic transition model :
(A) Population growth is slow due to high birth and high death rate.
(B) Fertility remains high, but mortality declines at a faster pace.
(C) Fertility declines at a faster pace, but mortality declines gradually.
(D) Population growth is slow due to low birth and low death rate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
(3) (D), (B), (C), (A) (4) (D), (C), (B), (A)
13. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
(Station)
List-II
(Trans-Continental Railway)
(A) Chita (I) Australian Trans-Continental Railway
(B) Winnipeg (II) Union Pacific Railway
(C) Broken Hill (III) Trans-Siberian Railway
(D) Chicago (IV) Trans-Canadian Railway
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
Page 5
A
Test Booklet No. Test Booklet Code
>
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
Important Instructions for the Candidates :
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for
evaluation.
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the
examination.
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner.
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer.
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.
P.T.O.
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________
Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________
Subject : GEOGRAPHY
Code : 313 E
Medium : English
313 E/A ( 2 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
1. Which of the following is a land-locked harbour ?
(1) Paradwip port
(2) Tuticorin port
(3) Haldia port
(4) Visakhapatnam port
2. Which of the following ports is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation ?
(1) Mumbai port (2) New Mangalore port
(3) Kolkata port (4) Paradwip port
3. Where is the headquarter of the ‘Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries’ (OPEC) ?
(1) Montevideo (2) Vienna
(3) Minsk (4) Aden
4. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the World Trade Organization
in _________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1995 (2) 1991
(3) 2005 (4) 1976
5. Pykara Hydroelectric Plant was built in ________________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1929 (2) 1931
(3) 1932 (4) 1942
6. The total utilisable water resources in India is about __________________ cubic km.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 4,000 (2) 1,969
(3) 1,869 (4) 1,122
7. The first radio programme was broadcast in India in ______________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) 1910 (2) 1913
(3) 1923 (4) 1932
313 E/A ( 3 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8. Canberra was planned by ______________.
Fill in the blank with the correct option.
(1) Patrick Geddes (2) Walter Burley Griffin
(3) Jean Gottmann (4) George Zipf
9. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
(Approaches in Human
Geography)
List-II
(Broad features)
(A) Areal Differentiation
(I) Identifying the uniqueness of any region and
understanding how and why it is different
(B) Spatial Organisation
(II) Application of quantitative techniques in Geography
(C) Behavioural School
(III) Discontent with quantitative revolution and its
dehumanized manner of doing Geography
(D) Post-modernism (IV) Focus on local context
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(3) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
10. Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to the characteristics of intensive
subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
(A) Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population.
(B) Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land.
(C) Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil.
(D) The yield per unit area is low, but productivity per labour is high.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only
313 E/A ( 4 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
11. Arrange the following agricultural regions from equator to pole :
(A) Commercial grain farming in the Prairies
(B) Reindeer rearing by the Eskimos
(C) Tea plantations of north-east India
(D) Primitive subsistence farming in Indonesia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (C), (D), (A), (B) (2) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(3) (D), (C), (B), (A) (4) (C), (D), (B), (A)
12. Arrange the following as per the stages of demographic transition model :
(A) Population growth is slow due to high birth and high death rate.
(B) Fertility remains high, but mortality declines at a faster pace.
(C) Fertility declines at a faster pace, but mortality declines gradually.
(D) Population growth is slow due to low birth and low death rate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
(3) (D), (B), (C), (A) (4) (D), (C), (B), (A)
13. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
(Station)
List-II
(Trans-Continental Railway)
(A) Chita (I) Australian Trans-Continental Railway
(B) Winnipeg (II) Union Pacific Railway
(C) Broken Hill (III) Trans-Siberian Railway
(D) Chicago (IV) Trans-Canadian Railway
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
313 E/A ( 5 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
14. Arrange the following copper mines in North to South direction :
(A) Alwar
(B) Bhilwara
(C) Khetri
(D) Udaipur
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (B), (D), (C), (A) (2) (C), (B), (A), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (D), (A) (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)
15. Arrange the agricultural development of India in chronological order from Independence to the present
day :
(A) Green Revolution
(B) Agro-Climatic Planning
(C) Intensive Agricultural District Programme
(D) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (C), (A), (B), (D) (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C) (4) (D), (A), (C), (B)
16. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
(Energy Type)
List-II
(Key Locations/Regions)
(A) Nuclear energy (I) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(B) Wind energy (II) West Coast of India
(C) Tidal energy (III) Tarapur
(D) Geothermal energy (IV) Manikaran
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(4) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)
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FAQs on CUET Geography Previous Year Paper 2024 - Geography CUET UG Mock Test Series 2026 - Humanities/Arts
| 1. What is the CUET Geography exam format and structure? |  |
Ans.The CUET Geography exam typically consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) that assess a candidate's knowledge of geographical concepts, theories, and applications. The exam may include sections on physical geography, human geography, environmental geography, and geographical tools and techniques. It usually has a specific number of questions to be answered within a set time limit.
| 2. How can I prepare effectively for the CUET Geography exam? | |
Ans.Effective preparation for the CUET Geography exam involves a combination of study strategies. Candidates should familiarize themselves with the syllabus, use standard textbooks, make notes, and practice previous year papers. Additionally, joining study groups or online forums, and utilizing educational resources such as videos and quizzes can enhance understanding and retention of concepts.
| 3. Where can I find previous year question papers for CUET Geography? | |
Ans.Previous year question papers for CUET Geography can often be found on official educational websites, university portals, or dedicated examination preparation sites. Additionally, students can check libraries or online forums where previous candidates may share their resources and experiences.
| 4. What are the important topics to focus on for the CUET Geography exam? | |
Ans.Important topics for the CUET Geography exam typically include physical geography (landforms, climate, vegetation), human geography (population, urbanization, migration), and environmental geography (sustainability, ecosystems). It's also essential to understand geographical tools such as maps and GIS (Geographic Information Systems).
| 5. Is there any negative marking in the CUET Geography exam? | |
Ans.Yes, the CUET Geography exam usually has a negative marking scheme, where incorrect answers may lead to a deduction of marks. Candidates are advised to attempt questions they are confident about and to manage their time effectively during the exam to minimize the risk of guessing answers.
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