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 Page 1


A 
Test Booklet No.  Test Booklet Code 
 
 
                                       (Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so) 
    
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40 
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
 
Important Instructions for the Candidates : 
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any  
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for 
evaluation. 
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.  
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.  
4.  The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that 
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case 
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test 
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the 
examination. 
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet 
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all 
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner. 
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and 
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.  
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more 
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer. 
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.                               
P.T.O. 
 
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________  
 
 Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________ 
 
 Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________ 
Subject :  BIOLOGY 
Code : 304 E 
Medium : English 
Page 2


A 
Test Booklet No.  Test Booklet Code 
 
 
                                       (Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so) 
    
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40 
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
 
Important Instructions for the Candidates : 
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any  
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for 
evaluation. 
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.  
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.  
4.  The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that 
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case 
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test 
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the 
examination. 
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet 
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all 
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner. 
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and 
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.  
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more 
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer. 
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.                               
P.T.O. 
 
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________  
 
 Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________ 
 
 Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________ 
Subject :  BIOLOGY 
Code : 304 E 
Medium : English 
304 E/A ( 2 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
1. Analogous structures are a result of : 
(1) Convergent evolution   
(2) Divergent evolution 
(3) Parallel evolution    
(4) Retrogressive evolution 
2. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ? 
(1) Natural selection   (2) Genetic drift 
(3) Gene pool   (4) Gene migration 
3. Which of the following primates was more like an ape ? 
(1) Homo erectus   (2) Dryopithecus 
(3) Australopithecines   (4) Ramapithecus 
4. Nucleosome is associated with _______ molecules of histones. 
(1) Four  
(2) Nine 
(3) Two  
(4) Eight 
5. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct. 
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. 
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases. 
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. 
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. 
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only  (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only 
(3) (A), (C) and (E) only   (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) 
Page 3


A 
Test Booklet No.  Test Booklet Code 
 
 
                                       (Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so) 
    
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40 
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
 
Important Instructions for the Candidates : 
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any  
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for 
evaluation. 
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.  
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.  
4.  The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that 
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case 
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test 
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the 
examination. 
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet 
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all 
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner. 
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and 
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.  
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more 
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer. 
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.                               
P.T.O. 
 
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________  
 
 Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________ 
 
 Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________ 
Subject :  BIOLOGY 
Code : 304 E 
Medium : English 
304 E/A ( 2 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
1. Analogous structures are a result of : 
(1) Convergent evolution   
(2) Divergent evolution 
(3) Parallel evolution    
(4) Retrogressive evolution 
2. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ? 
(1) Natural selection   (2) Genetic drift 
(3) Gene pool   (4) Gene migration 
3. Which of the following primates was more like an ape ? 
(1) Homo erectus   (2) Dryopithecus 
(3) Australopithecines   (4) Ramapithecus 
4. Nucleosome is associated with _______ molecules of histones. 
(1) Four  
(2) Nine 
(3) Two  
(4) Eight 
5. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct. 
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. 
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases. 
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. 
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. 
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only  (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only 
(3) (A), (C) and (E) only   (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) 
304 E/A ( 3 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
6. Match List-I with List-II :  
 
List-I 
Placental mammals 
 
List-II 
Counterpart Marsupials  
(A) Anteater  (I) Spotted cuscus  
(B) Bobcat  (II) Numbat 
(C) Lemur  (III) Flying Phalanger 
(D) Flying squirrel (IV) Tasmanian tiger cat 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) 
7. Identify the incorrect statement/s : 
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection. 
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses. 
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.  
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.  
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test. 
Choose the answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only  (2) (B) and (E) only 
(3) (D) only   (4) (A) and (D) only 
8. Match List-I with List-II :  
 
List-I  
Types of barriers  
 
List-II  
Examples  
(A) Cytokine barriers  (I) Mucus coating 
(B) Physical barriers (II) Tears from eyes 
(C) Cellular barriers (III) Phagocytosis 
(D) Physiological barriers (IV) Interferons 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) 
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) 
Page 4


A 
Test Booklet No.  Test Booklet Code 
 
 
                                       (Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so) 
    
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40 
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
 
Important Instructions for the Candidates : 
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any  
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for 
evaluation. 
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.  
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.  
4.  The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that 
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case 
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test 
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the 
examination. 
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet 
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all 
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner. 
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and 
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.  
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more 
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer. 
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.                               
P.T.O. 
 
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________  
 
 Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________ 
 
 Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________ 
Subject :  BIOLOGY 
Code : 304 E 
Medium : English 
304 E/A ( 2 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
1. Analogous structures are a result of : 
(1) Convergent evolution   
(2) Divergent evolution 
(3) Parallel evolution    
(4) Retrogressive evolution 
2. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ? 
(1) Natural selection   (2) Genetic drift 
(3) Gene pool   (4) Gene migration 
3. Which of the following primates was more like an ape ? 
(1) Homo erectus   (2) Dryopithecus 
(3) Australopithecines   (4) Ramapithecus 
4. Nucleosome is associated with _______ molecules of histones. 
(1) Four  
(2) Nine 
(3) Two  
(4) Eight 
5. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct. 
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. 
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases. 
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. 
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. 
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only  (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only 
(3) (A), (C) and (E) only   (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) 
304 E/A ( 3 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
6. Match List-I with List-II :  
 
List-I 
Placental mammals 
 
List-II 
Counterpart Marsupials  
(A) Anteater  (I) Spotted cuscus  
(B) Bobcat  (II) Numbat 
(C) Lemur  (III) Flying Phalanger 
(D) Flying squirrel (IV) Tasmanian tiger cat 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) 
7. Identify the incorrect statement/s : 
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection. 
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses. 
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.  
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.  
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test. 
Choose the answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only  (2) (B) and (E) only 
(3) (D) only   (4) (A) and (D) only 
8. Match List-I with List-II :  
 
List-I  
Types of barriers  
 
List-II  
Examples  
(A) Cytokine barriers  (I) Mucus coating 
(B) Physical barriers (II) Tears from eyes 
(C) Cellular barriers (III) Phagocytosis 
(D) Physiological barriers (IV) Interferons 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) 
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) 
304 E/A ( 4 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
9. Smack is chemically : 
(1) Diacetyl morphine   (2) Cocaine 
(3) Benzodiazepine   (4) Amphetamine 
10.  Antibodies are secreted by : 
(1) T-Cells   (2) B-Cells 
(3) ?-Cells   (4) ?-Cells 
11.  In sewage treatment, flocs are : 
(1) the solids that settle during sedimentation. 
(2) the supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge. 
(3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments. 
(4) the bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters. 
12.  Match List-I with List-II :  
 
List-I 
Products 
 
List-II 
Organisms 
(A) Statin (I) Streptococcus 
(B) Clot buster (II) Trichoderma 
(C) Swiss cheese (III) Monascus 
(D) Cyclosporin-A (IV) Propionibacterium 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) 
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 
13.  The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is : 
(1) Trichoderma   (2) Dragonflies 
(3) Ladybird   (4) Silver fish 
14.  Downstream processing method involves : 
(1) Identification   (2) Amplification 
(3) Fermentation   (4) Purification 
Page 5


A 
Test Booklet No.  Test Booklet Code 
 
 
                                       (Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so) 
    
Time Allowed : 45 minutes Maximum Marks : 200 Total Questions : 50 Number of questions to be answered : 40 
Kindly read the Instructions given on this Page and Back Page carefully before attempting this Question Paper.
 
Important Instructions for the Candidates : 
1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. Out of these, the candidate is required to answer any  
40 questions. If a candidate answers more than 40 questions, the first 40 answered questions will be considered for 
evaluation. 
2. When you are given the OMR Answer Sheet, fill in your particulars on it carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.  
3. Use only Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.  
4.  The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that 
on this Test Booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are exactly the same. In case 
of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test 
Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet. No claim in this regard will be entertained after five minutes from the start of the 
examination. 
5. Before attempting the question paper kindly check that this Test Booklet has total 16 pages and OMR Answer Sheet 
consists of one sheet. At the start of the examination within first five minutes, candidates are advised to ensure that all 
pages of Test Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet are properly printed and they are not damaged in any manner. 
6. Each question has four answer options. Out of these four options choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and 
darken/blacken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.  
7. Five (5) marks will be given for each correct answer. One (1) mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more 
than one circle is found darkened/blackened for a question, then it will be considered as an incorrect answer. 
Unanswered questions will be given no mark.                               
P.T.O. 
 
Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Application Number (in figures) : ______________________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Roll Number (in figures) : ___________________________________________________________________________________  
 
 Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters) : ___________________________________________________________________ 
 
 Candidate’s Signature : ____________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ___________________________________ 
 
 Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : __________________________________________________________ 
Subject :  BIOLOGY 
Code : 304 E 
Medium : English 
304 E/A ( 2 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
1. Analogous structures are a result of : 
(1) Convergent evolution   
(2) Divergent evolution 
(3) Parallel evolution    
(4) Retrogressive evolution 
2. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ? 
(1) Natural selection   (2) Genetic drift 
(3) Gene pool   (4) Gene migration 
3. Which of the following primates was more like an ape ? 
(1) Homo erectus   (2) Dryopithecus 
(3) Australopithecines   (4) Ramapithecus 
4. Nucleosome is associated with _______ molecules of histones. 
(1) Four  
(2) Nine 
(3) Two  
(4) Eight 
5. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct. 
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. 
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases. 
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. 
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. 
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only  (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only 
(3) (A), (C) and (E) only   (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) 
304 E/A ( 3 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
6. Match List-I with List-II :  
 
List-I 
Placental mammals 
 
List-II 
Counterpart Marsupials  
(A) Anteater  (I) Spotted cuscus  
(B) Bobcat  (II) Numbat 
(C) Lemur  (III) Flying Phalanger 
(D) Flying squirrel (IV) Tasmanian tiger cat 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) 
7. Identify the incorrect statement/s : 
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection. 
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses. 
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.  
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.  
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test. 
Choose the answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only  (2) (B) and (E) only 
(3) (D) only   (4) (A) and (D) only 
8. Match List-I with List-II :  
 
List-I  
Types of barriers  
 
List-II  
Examples  
(A) Cytokine barriers  (I) Mucus coating 
(B) Physical barriers (II) Tears from eyes 
(C) Cellular barriers (III) Phagocytosis 
(D) Physiological barriers (IV) Interferons 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) 
(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) 
304 E/A ( 4 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
9. Smack is chemically : 
(1) Diacetyl morphine   (2) Cocaine 
(3) Benzodiazepine   (4) Amphetamine 
10.  Antibodies are secreted by : 
(1) T-Cells   (2) B-Cells 
(3) ?-Cells   (4) ?-Cells 
11.  In sewage treatment, flocs are : 
(1) the solids that settle during sedimentation. 
(2) the supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge. 
(3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments. 
(4) the bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters. 
12.  Match List-I with List-II :  
 
List-I 
Products 
 
List-II 
Organisms 
(A) Statin (I) Streptococcus 
(B) Clot buster (II) Trichoderma 
(C) Swiss cheese (III) Monascus 
(D) Cyclosporin-A (IV) Propionibacterium 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) 
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 
13.  The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is : 
(1) Trichoderma   (2) Dragonflies 
(3) Ladybird   (4) Silver fish 
14.  Downstream processing method involves : 
(1) Identification   (2) Amplification 
(3) Fermentation   (4) Purification 
304 E/A ( 5 )  
 
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 
15. Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading 
enzyme ? 
(1) Fungi – Chitinase   (2) Algae – Methylase 
(3) Plant cells – Cellulase  (4) Bacteria – Lysozyme 
16.  Arrange the following steps involved in transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end. 
(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice 
(B) Treatment with divalent cations 
(C) Heat shock treatment 
(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate 
(E) Placed them again on ice 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)  (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D) 
(3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)  (4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)  
17.  Which of the following statements are incorrect ? 
(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA. 
(B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. 
(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment. 
(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector. 
Choose the answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) and (C) only   (2) (A) and (B) only 
(3) (B) and (C) only   (4) (A), (C) and (D) only 
18.  Which of the following statements are true ? 
(A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk. 
(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorisation from MNCs. 
(C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively. 
(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease. 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 
(1) (A) and (C) only   (2) (C) and (D) only 
(3) (A) and (D) only   (4) (B) and (C) only

	Biology CUET UG Mock Test Series 2026 3 docs\|171 tests

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FAQs on CUET Biology Previous Year Paper 2024 - Biology CUET UG Mock Test Series 2026 - NEET

1. What is the CUET exam and what is its significance for biology students?

Ans. The CUET (Common University Entrance Test) is an entrance exam conducted for admission to various undergraduate programs in central universities across India. For biology students, the CUET is significant as it tests their knowledge in biological sciences, which is essential for pursuing further studies in fields such as medicine, biotechnology, and environmental science.

2. How can I effectively prepare for the biology section of the CUET exam?

Ans. Effective preparation for the biology section of the CUET exam can be achieved through a combination of techniques. Students should start by reviewing the NCERT textbooks, as they cover the core concepts. Additionally, practicing previous year question papers, taking mock tests, and focusing on important topics such as genetics, ecology, and human physiology can enhance understanding and retention.

3. What types of questions are typically included in the CUET biology exam?

Ans. The CUET biology exam typically includes a variety of question types such as multiple-choice questions (MCQs), assertion-reasoning questions, and case-based questions. These questions assess not only knowledge of biological concepts but also the ability to apply that knowledge in practical scenarios.

4. Are there any specific topics in biology that are frequently asked in the CUET exam?

Ans. Yes, certain topics in biology are frequently emphasized in the CUET exam. These include cell biology, human anatomy and physiology, plant physiology, genetics, evolution, and ecology. Focusing on these topics can be beneficial for students preparing for the exam.

5. How important is time management during the CUET biology exam?

Ans. Time management is crucial during the CUET biology exam. With a limited amount of time to answer a significant number of questions, students must practice pacing themselves during preparation. Strategies such as allocating time for each question and moving on if they are stuck can help maximize performance on exam day.

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Introduction of CUET Biology Previous Year Paper 2024 in English is available as part of our Biology CUET UG Mock Test Series 2026 for NEET & CUET Biology Previous Year Paper 2024 in Hindi for Biology CUET UG Mock Test Series 2026 course. Download more important topics related with notes, lectures and mock test series for NEET Exam by signing up for free. NEET: CUET Biology Previous Year Paper 2024 | Biology CUET UG Mock Test Series 2026 - NEET

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