Class 11 Physics: CBSE Sample Question Papers - 2 (2024-25) | Sample Papers for Class 11 Medical and Non-Medical - JEE PDF Download

 Page 1


Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70 
General Instructions:
1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. All the sections
are compulsory.
3. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D
contains two case study-based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of
five marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D and E. You have to
attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section A
a)
10
4
 dyne
b)
10
8
 dyne
c)
10
3
 dyne
d)
10
5
 dyne
1. When 1 m, 1 kg and 1 min are taken as the fundamental units, the magnitude of the force is 36 units. What will
be the value of this force in CGS system?
[1]
a) 90 Hz b) 36 Hz
c) 110 Hz d) 50 Hz
2. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec. with 50 cm and 40 cm of a stretched wire, of a sonometer. The frequency of
fork is:
[1]
a) 3.54 cm b) 2.51 cm
c) 6.54 cm d) 1.52 cm
3. The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 100 g and radius 5 cm about an axis passing through its centre of gravity
and perpendicular to the plane is
[1]
a) b)
c) d)
4. Average pressure p
av
 is defined as [1]
= p a v A F = p a v F A = p a v F V = p a v   V F 5. Average distance of the earth frorn the sun is L
1
. If one year of the earth = D days, one year of another planet [1]
Page 1 of 17
Page 2


Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70 
General Instructions:
1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. All the sections
are compulsory.
3. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D
contains two case study-based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of
five marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D and E. You have to
attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section A
a)
10
4
 dyne
b)
10
8
 dyne
c)
10
3
 dyne
d)
10
5
 dyne
1. When 1 m, 1 kg and 1 min are taken as the fundamental units, the magnitude of the force is 36 units. What will
be the value of this force in CGS system?
[1]
a) 90 Hz b) 36 Hz
c) 110 Hz d) 50 Hz
2. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec. with 50 cm and 40 cm of a stretched wire, of a sonometer. The frequency of
fork is:
[1]
a) 3.54 cm b) 2.51 cm
c) 6.54 cm d) 1.52 cm
3. The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 100 g and radius 5 cm about an axis passing through its centre of gravity
and perpendicular to the plane is
[1]
a) b)
c) d)
4. Average pressure p
av
 is defined as [1]
= p a v A F = p a v F A = p a v F V = p a v   V F 5. Average distance of the earth frorn the sun is L
1
. If one year of the earth = D days, one year of another planet [1]
Page 1 of 17
a)
 days
b)
c)
 days
d)
whose average distance from the sun is L
2
 will be:
D ( ) L 2 L 1 1 2 D ( ) L 2 L 1 2 3 D ( ) L 2 L 1 3 2 D ( ) L 2 L 1 a) i and ii b) only iv
c) only ii d) iii and iv
6. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by y
1
 = 4 sin 600 t and
y
2
 = 5 sin 608 t. An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear:
i. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
ii. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
iii. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
iv. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
[1] p p a) 6 b) 3
c) 4 d) 7
7. A truck has a velocity of 2 m/s at time t=0. It accelerates at 2 m /  on seeing police. What is its velocity in m/s
at a time of 2 sec?
[1] s 2 a) 0.00000001 cm b) 1 cm
c) 0.1 cm d) 0.0001 cm
8. The wavelength of ultrasonic waves in air is of the order of: [1]
a) b)
c) d)
9. A solid sphere of volume V and density  floats at the interface of two immiscible liquids of densities  and 
respectively. If , then the ratio of the volume of the parts of the sphere in upper and lower liquids is
[1] ? ? 1 ? 2 < ? < ? 1 ? 2 ? + ? 2 ? + ? 1 ? - ? 1 - ? ? 2 - ? ? 2 ? - ? 1 ? + ? 1 ? + ? 2 a) b)
c) d)
10. The time period of a satellite is related to the density of earth ( ) as: [1] ? ? ? 1 2 ? - 1 2 ? - 3 2 a) 1.5 m b) 2.5 m
c) 2 m d) 3.0 m
11. A rod has length 3 m and its mass acting per unit length is directly proportional to distance x from one of its end,
then its centre of gravity from that end will be at
[1]
a) B to A b) A to B
c) first A to B then B to A d) heat can't flow
12. A body A of mass 0.5 kg and specific heat 0.85 is at a temperature of 60 °C. Another body B of mass 0.3 kg and
specific heat 0.9 is at a temperature of 90°C. When they are connected to a conducting rod, heat will flow from
[1]
13. Assertion: When percentage errors in the measurement of mass and velocity are 1% and 2% respectively, the
percentage error in KE is 5%. 
[1]
Page 2 of 17
Page 3


Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70 
General Instructions:
1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. All the sections
are compulsory.
3. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D
contains two case study-based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of
five marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D and E. You have to
attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section A
a)
10
4
 dyne
b)
10
8
 dyne
c)
10
3
 dyne
d)
10
5
 dyne
1. When 1 m, 1 kg and 1 min are taken as the fundamental units, the magnitude of the force is 36 units. What will
be the value of this force in CGS system?
[1]
a) 90 Hz b) 36 Hz
c) 110 Hz d) 50 Hz
2. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec. with 50 cm and 40 cm of a stretched wire, of a sonometer. The frequency of
fork is:
[1]
a) 3.54 cm b) 2.51 cm
c) 6.54 cm d) 1.52 cm
3. The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 100 g and radius 5 cm about an axis passing through its centre of gravity
and perpendicular to the plane is
[1]
a) b)
c) d)
4. Average pressure p
av
 is defined as [1]
= p a v A F = p a v F A = p a v F V = p a v   V F 5. Average distance of the earth frorn the sun is L
1
. If one year of the earth = D days, one year of another planet [1]
Page 1 of 17
a)
 days
b)
c)
 days
d)
whose average distance from the sun is L
2
 will be:
D ( ) L 2 L 1 1 2 D ( ) L 2 L 1 2 3 D ( ) L 2 L 1 3 2 D ( ) L 2 L 1 a) i and ii b) only iv
c) only ii d) iii and iv
6. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by y
1
 = 4 sin 600 t and
y
2
 = 5 sin 608 t. An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear:
i. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
ii. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
iii. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
iv. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
[1] p p a) 6 b) 3
c) 4 d) 7
7. A truck has a velocity of 2 m/s at time t=0. It accelerates at 2 m /  on seeing police. What is its velocity in m/s
at a time of 2 sec?
[1] s 2 a) 0.00000001 cm b) 1 cm
c) 0.1 cm d) 0.0001 cm
8. The wavelength of ultrasonic waves in air is of the order of: [1]
a) b)
c) d)
9. A solid sphere of volume V and density  floats at the interface of two immiscible liquids of densities  and 
respectively. If , then the ratio of the volume of the parts of the sphere in upper and lower liquids is
[1] ? ? 1 ? 2 < ? < ? 1 ? 2 ? + ? 2 ? + ? 1 ? - ? 1 - ? ? 2 - ? ? 2 ? - ? 1 ? + ? 1 ? + ? 2 a) b)
c) d)
10. The time period of a satellite is related to the density of earth ( ) as: [1] ? ? ? 1 2 ? - 1 2 ? - 3 2 a) 1.5 m b) 2.5 m
c) 2 m d) 3.0 m
11. A rod has length 3 m and its mass acting per unit length is directly proportional to distance x from one of its end,
then its centre of gravity from that end will be at
[1]
a) B to A b) A to B
c) first A to B then B to A d) heat can't flow
12. A body A of mass 0.5 kg and specific heat 0.85 is at a temperature of 60 °C. Another body B of mass 0.3 kg and
specific heat 0.9 is at a temperature of 90°C. When they are connected to a conducting rod, heat will flow from
[1]
13. Assertion: When percentage errors in the measurement of mass and velocity are 1% and 2% respectively, the
percentage error in KE is 5%. 
[1]
Page 2 of 17
Section B
a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is
wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is
correct statement.
Reason:   = + ? E E ? m m 2 ? v v a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): State variables are required to specify the equilibrium state of the system. 
Reason (R): Pressure is an intensive state variable.
[1]
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
15. Assertion (A): A planet moves faster, when it is closer to the sun in its orbit and vice versa. 
Reason (R): Orbital velocity in orbital of planet is constant.
[1]
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
16. Assertion (A): If  = , then  may not always be equal to . 
Reason (R): The dot product of two vectors involves cosine of the angle between the two vectors.
[1] · A ?  B ?  · B ?  C ?  A ?  C ?  17. A steel wire has a length of 12.0 m and a mass of 2.10 kg. What should be the tension in the wire so that the
speed of a transverse wave on the wire equals the speed of sound in dry air at 20
o
C = 343 ms
-1
?
[2]
18. Convert:
i. 3.0m/s
2
 = .............. km/hr
2
ii. 6.67 10
-11
Nm
2
/kg
2
 = .............. g
-1
cm
3
s
-2
[2]
19. If force F, length L and time T are taken as fundamental units then what will be the dimensions of mass? [2]
20. In the Atwood's machine (figure), the system starts from rest. What is the speed and distance moved by each
mass at t = 3s? 
[2]
21. Derive an expression for work done against gravity. [2]
OR
Page 3 of 17
Page 4


Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70 
General Instructions:
1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. All the sections
are compulsory.
3. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D
contains two case study-based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of
five marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D and E. You have to
attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section A
a)
10
4
 dyne
b)
10
8
 dyne
c)
10
3
 dyne
d)
10
5
 dyne
1. When 1 m, 1 kg and 1 min are taken as the fundamental units, the magnitude of the force is 36 units. What will
be the value of this force in CGS system?
[1]
a) 90 Hz b) 36 Hz
c) 110 Hz d) 50 Hz
2. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec. with 50 cm and 40 cm of a stretched wire, of a sonometer. The frequency of
fork is:
[1]
a) 3.54 cm b) 2.51 cm
c) 6.54 cm d) 1.52 cm
3. The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 100 g and radius 5 cm about an axis passing through its centre of gravity
and perpendicular to the plane is
[1]
a) b)
c) d)
4. Average pressure p
av
 is defined as [1]
= p a v A F = p a v F A = p a v F V = p a v   V F 5. Average distance of the earth frorn the sun is L
1
. If one year of the earth = D days, one year of another planet [1]
Page 1 of 17
a)
 days
b)
c)
 days
d)
whose average distance from the sun is L
2
 will be:
D ( ) L 2 L 1 1 2 D ( ) L 2 L 1 2 3 D ( ) L 2 L 1 3 2 D ( ) L 2 L 1 a) i and ii b) only iv
c) only ii d) iii and iv
6. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by y
1
 = 4 sin 600 t and
y
2
 = 5 sin 608 t. An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear:
i. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
ii. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
iii. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
iv. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
[1] p p a) 6 b) 3
c) 4 d) 7
7. A truck has a velocity of 2 m/s at time t=0. It accelerates at 2 m /  on seeing police. What is its velocity in m/s
at a time of 2 sec?
[1] s 2 a) 0.00000001 cm b) 1 cm
c) 0.1 cm d) 0.0001 cm
8. The wavelength of ultrasonic waves in air is of the order of: [1]
a) b)
c) d)
9. A solid sphere of volume V and density  floats at the interface of two immiscible liquids of densities  and 
respectively. If , then the ratio of the volume of the parts of the sphere in upper and lower liquids is
[1] ? ? 1 ? 2 < ? < ? 1 ? 2 ? + ? 2 ? + ? 1 ? - ? 1 - ? ? 2 - ? ? 2 ? - ? 1 ? + ? 1 ? + ? 2 a) b)
c) d)
10. The time period of a satellite is related to the density of earth ( ) as: [1] ? ? ? 1 2 ? - 1 2 ? - 3 2 a) 1.5 m b) 2.5 m
c) 2 m d) 3.0 m
11. A rod has length 3 m and its mass acting per unit length is directly proportional to distance x from one of its end,
then its centre of gravity from that end will be at
[1]
a) B to A b) A to B
c) first A to B then B to A d) heat can't flow
12. A body A of mass 0.5 kg and specific heat 0.85 is at a temperature of 60 °C. Another body B of mass 0.3 kg and
specific heat 0.9 is at a temperature of 90°C. When they are connected to a conducting rod, heat will flow from
[1]
13. Assertion: When percentage errors in the measurement of mass and velocity are 1% and 2% respectively, the
percentage error in KE is 5%. 
[1]
Page 2 of 17
Section B
a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is
wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is
correct statement.
Reason:   = + ? E E ? m m 2 ? v v a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): State variables are required to specify the equilibrium state of the system. 
Reason (R): Pressure is an intensive state variable.
[1]
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
15. Assertion (A): A planet moves faster, when it is closer to the sun in its orbit and vice versa. 
Reason (R): Orbital velocity in orbital of planet is constant.
[1]
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
16. Assertion (A): If  = , then  may not always be equal to . 
Reason (R): The dot product of two vectors involves cosine of the angle between the two vectors.
[1] · A ?  B ?  · B ?  C ?  A ?  C ?  17. A steel wire has a length of 12.0 m and a mass of 2.10 kg. What should be the tension in the wire so that the
speed of a transverse wave on the wire equals the speed of sound in dry air at 20
o
C = 343 ms
-1
?
[2]
18. Convert:
i. 3.0m/s
2
 = .............. km/hr
2
ii. 6.67 10
-11
Nm
2
/kg
2
 = .............. g
-1
cm
3
s
-2
[2]
19. If force F, length L and time T are taken as fundamental units then what will be the dimensions of mass? [2]
20. In the Atwood's machine (figure), the system starts from rest. What is the speed and distance moved by each
mass at t = 3s? 
[2]
21. Derive an expression for work done against gravity. [2]
OR
Page 3 of 17
Section C
Section D
Assuming the earth to be a uniform sphere of radius 6400 km and density 5.5 gcm
-3
, find the value of g on its
surface. Given G = 6.66 10
-11
 Nm
2
kg
-2
. × 22. Show that the Reynold's number represents the ratio of the inertial force per unit area to the viscous force per
unit area.
[3]
23. Two vessels A and B of different materials but having identical shape, size and wall thickness are filled with ice
and kept at the same place. Ice melts at the rate of 100 g min
-1
 and 150g min
-1
 in A and B, respectively.
Assuming that heat enters the vessels through the walls only, calculate the ratio of thermal conductivities of their
materials.
[3]
24. On a foggy day two drivers spot each other when they are just 80 metres apart. They are travelling at 72 km h
-1
and 60 km h
-1
, respectively. Both of them applied brakes retarding their cars at the rate of 5 ms
-2
. Determine
whether they avert collision or not.
[3]
25. A railway car of mass 20 tonnes moves with an initial speed of 54km/hr. On applying brakes, a constant negative
acceleration of 0.3m/s
2
 is produced.
i. What is the breaking force acting on the car?
ii. In what time it will stop?
iii. What distance will be covered by the car before it finally stops?
[3]
26. What is a refrigerator? Draw a schematic representation of a refrigerator. [3]
27. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope which can stand a maximum tension 600 N. In which of the following
cases will the rope break?
The monkey
a. climbs up with an acceleration of 6m/s
2
b. climbs down with an acceleration of 4m/s
2
c. climbs up with a uniform speed of 5m/s
d. falls down the rope freely under gravity. Take g = 10m/s
2
 and ignore the mass of the rope.
[3]
28. The flow rate of water is 0.58 L/mm from a tap of diameter of 1.30 cm. After some time, the flow rate is
increased to 4 L/min. Determine the nature of the flow for both the flow rates. The coefficient of viscosity of
water is 10
-3
Pa - s and the density of water is 10
3
 kg/m
3
.
[3]
OR
Calculate the radius of new bubble formed when two bubbles of radius r
1
 and r
2
 coalesce?
29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Potential energy is the energy stored within an object, due to the object's position, arrangement or state. Potential
energy is one of the two main forms of energy, along with kinetic energy. Potential energy depends on the force
acting on the two objects.
[4]
Page 4 of 17
Page 5


Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70 
General Instructions:
1. There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E. All the sections
are compulsory.
3. Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B
contains five questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D
contains two case study-based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer questions of
five marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D and E. You have to
attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section A
a)
10
4
 dyne
b)
10
8
 dyne
c)
10
3
 dyne
d)
10
5
 dyne
1. When 1 m, 1 kg and 1 min are taken as the fundamental units, the magnitude of the force is 36 units. What will
be the value of this force in CGS system?
[1]
a) 90 Hz b) 36 Hz
c) 110 Hz d) 50 Hz
2. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec. with 50 cm and 40 cm of a stretched wire, of a sonometer. The frequency of
fork is:
[1]
a) 3.54 cm b) 2.51 cm
c) 6.54 cm d) 1.52 cm
3. The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 100 g and radius 5 cm about an axis passing through its centre of gravity
and perpendicular to the plane is
[1]
a) b)
c) d)
4. Average pressure p
av
 is defined as [1]
= p a v A F = p a v F A = p a v F V = p a v   V F 5. Average distance of the earth frorn the sun is L
1
. If one year of the earth = D days, one year of another planet [1]
Page 1 of 17
a)
 days
b)
c)
 days
d)
whose average distance from the sun is L
2
 will be:
D ( ) L 2 L 1 1 2 D ( ) L 2 L 1 2 3 D ( ) L 2 L 1 3 2 D ( ) L 2 L 1 a) i and ii b) only iv
c) only ii d) iii and iv
6. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by y
1
 = 4 sin 600 t and
y
2
 = 5 sin 608 t. An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear:
i. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
ii. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81:1 between waxing and waning
iii. 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
iv. 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25:16 between waxing and waning
[1] p p a) 6 b) 3
c) 4 d) 7
7. A truck has a velocity of 2 m/s at time t=0. It accelerates at 2 m /  on seeing police. What is its velocity in m/s
at a time of 2 sec?
[1] s 2 a) 0.00000001 cm b) 1 cm
c) 0.1 cm d) 0.0001 cm
8. The wavelength of ultrasonic waves in air is of the order of: [1]
a) b)
c) d)
9. A solid sphere of volume V and density  floats at the interface of two immiscible liquids of densities  and 
respectively. If , then the ratio of the volume of the parts of the sphere in upper and lower liquids is
[1] ? ? 1 ? 2 < ? < ? 1 ? 2 ? + ? 2 ? + ? 1 ? - ? 1 - ? ? 2 - ? ? 2 ? - ? 1 ? + ? 1 ? + ? 2 a) b)
c) d)
10. The time period of a satellite is related to the density of earth ( ) as: [1] ? ? ? 1 2 ? - 1 2 ? - 3 2 a) 1.5 m b) 2.5 m
c) 2 m d) 3.0 m
11. A rod has length 3 m and its mass acting per unit length is directly proportional to distance x from one of its end,
then its centre of gravity from that end will be at
[1]
a) B to A b) A to B
c) first A to B then B to A d) heat can't flow
12. A body A of mass 0.5 kg and specific heat 0.85 is at a temperature of 60 °C. Another body B of mass 0.3 kg and
specific heat 0.9 is at a temperature of 90°C. When they are connected to a conducting rod, heat will flow from
[1]
13. Assertion: When percentage errors in the measurement of mass and velocity are 1% and 2% respectively, the
percentage error in KE is 5%. 
[1]
Page 2 of 17
Section B
a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct explanation
for assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is
wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is
correct statement.
Reason:   = + ? E E ? m m 2 ? v v a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
14. Assertion (A): State variables are required to specify the equilibrium state of the system. 
Reason (R): Pressure is an intensive state variable.
[1]
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
15. Assertion (A): A planet moves faster, when it is closer to the sun in its orbit and vice versa. 
Reason (R): Orbital velocity in orbital of planet is constant.
[1]
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
16. Assertion (A): If  = , then  may not always be equal to . 
Reason (R): The dot product of two vectors involves cosine of the angle between the two vectors.
[1] · A ?  B ?  · B ?  C ?  A ?  C ?  17. A steel wire has a length of 12.0 m and a mass of 2.10 kg. What should be the tension in the wire so that the
speed of a transverse wave on the wire equals the speed of sound in dry air at 20
o
C = 343 ms
-1
?
[2]
18. Convert:
i. 3.0m/s
2
 = .............. km/hr
2
ii. 6.67 10
-11
Nm
2
/kg
2
 = .............. g
-1
cm
3
s
-2
[2]
19. If force F, length L and time T are taken as fundamental units then what will be the dimensions of mass? [2]
20. In the Atwood's machine (figure), the system starts from rest. What is the speed and distance moved by each
mass at t = 3s? 
[2]
21. Derive an expression for work done against gravity. [2]
OR
Page 3 of 17
Section C
Section D
Assuming the earth to be a uniform sphere of radius 6400 km and density 5.5 gcm
-3
, find the value of g on its
surface. Given G = 6.66 10
-11
 Nm
2
kg
-2
. × 22. Show that the Reynold's number represents the ratio of the inertial force per unit area to the viscous force per
unit area.
[3]
23. Two vessels A and B of different materials but having identical shape, size and wall thickness are filled with ice
and kept at the same place. Ice melts at the rate of 100 g min
-1
 and 150g min
-1
 in A and B, respectively.
Assuming that heat enters the vessels through the walls only, calculate the ratio of thermal conductivities of their
materials.
[3]
24. On a foggy day two drivers spot each other when they are just 80 metres apart. They are travelling at 72 km h
-1
and 60 km h
-1
, respectively. Both of them applied brakes retarding their cars at the rate of 5 ms
-2
. Determine
whether they avert collision or not.
[3]
25. A railway car of mass 20 tonnes moves with an initial speed of 54km/hr. On applying brakes, a constant negative
acceleration of 0.3m/s
2
 is produced.
i. What is the breaking force acting on the car?
ii. In what time it will stop?
iii. What distance will be covered by the car before it finally stops?
[3]
26. What is a refrigerator? Draw a schematic representation of a refrigerator. [3]
27. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope which can stand a maximum tension 600 N. In which of the following
cases will the rope break?
The monkey
a. climbs up with an acceleration of 6m/s
2
b. climbs down with an acceleration of 4m/s
2
c. climbs up with a uniform speed of 5m/s
d. falls down the rope freely under gravity. Take g = 10m/s
2
 and ignore the mass of the rope.
[3]
28. The flow rate of water is 0.58 L/mm from a tap of diameter of 1.30 cm. After some time, the flow rate is
increased to 4 L/min. Determine the nature of the flow for both the flow rates. The coefficient of viscosity of
water is 10
-3
Pa - s and the density of water is 10
3
 kg/m
3
.
[3]
OR
Calculate the radius of new bubble formed when two bubbles of radius r
1
 and r
2
 coalesce?
29. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Potential energy is the energy stored within an object, due to the object's position, arrangement or state. Potential
energy is one of the two main forms of energy, along with kinetic energy. Potential energy depends on the force
acting on the two objects.
[4]
Page 4 of 17
OR
a) mechanical energy b) Electrical energy
c) potential energy d) kinetic energy
A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone in a vacuum. Which of the following quantities
remain constant during the fall?
(a)
a) potential energy decreases b) kinetic energy increases
c) potential energy increases d) kinetic energy decreases
Work done by a conservative force is positive, if (b)
a) only when spring is compressed b) only when spring is moved
c) both only when spring is stretched and
compressed
d) only when spring is stretched
When does the potential energy of a spring increase? (c)
a)
5  10
4 b)
5  10
5
 J
c) 500 J d) 5 J
A vehicle of mass 5000 kg climbs up a hill of 10 m. The potential energy gained by it
× × a)
T
2 b)
T
-2
c)
T
-1 d)
T
1
Dimension of k/m is, here k is the force constant (d)
30. Read the text carefully and answer the questions:
Root mean square velocity (RMS value)is the square root of the mean of squares of the velocity of individual
gas molecules and the Average velocity is the arithmetic mean of the velocities of different molecules of a gas at
a given temperature. 
[4]
Moon has no atmosphere because: (a)
Page 5 of 17