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Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not ______ but ______

  • a)
    Social, Natural

  • b)
    Natural, Social

  • c)
    Desirable, undesirable

  • d)
    Economic, racial

Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
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Most Upvoted Answer
Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not _...
Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not natural but social.

Explanation:
- Scholars argue that the differences between men and women are not inherent or biologically determined, but are constructed by social and cultural factors.
- Gender roles and expectations are social constructs that vary across different societies and historical periods.
- For example, the idea that women are suited for domestic work and childcare while men are suited for paid work outside the home is not a natural or universal truth, but a social norm that has been reinforced and challenged by various movements and ideologies.
- Similarly, the idea that women are emotional and nurturing while men are rational and competitive is not a biological fact, but a cultural stereotype that can have harmful consequences for both genders.
- Scholars also argue that gender inequalities are not only social but also political, economic, and legal in nature, as women have been historically excluded from equal participation in these domains.
- Therefore, the goal of gender equality is not to erase all differences between men and women, but to challenge and transform the social norms and institutions that perpetuate gender-based discrimination and oppression.
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Community Answer
Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not _...
For most of us who are born and live in India, social inequality and exclusion are facts of life. This everydayness of social inequality and exclusion often make them appear inevitable, almost natural. If we do sometimes recognise that inequality and exclusion are not inevitable, we often think of them as being ‘deserved’ or ‘justified’ in some sense.
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The background of the emergence of political secularism in Europe is profound religious homogenisation -dissenters, and adherents of non-dominant religions, were expelled or exterminated during and after the wars of religion. Rulers publicly confessed allegiance to one of the many churches in these predominantly single-religion societies, thereby consolidating a strong alliance between state and the dominant church. Trouble began, however, when this church became increasingly politically meddlesome and socially oppressive. The key issue then was how to tame the power of this church. The states disentanglement from the dominant church (church-state separation) was necessary to realise a number of goals, including the enhancement of individual liberty and equality. But for this secularism, tackling religious diversity was simply not an issue, because it had already been liquidated in all kinds of ethically undesirable ways.By contrast, in India, deep religious diversity was not an optional extra but part of its social, cultural and historical landscape. Gandhi understood this and never tired of stating it: India is "perhaps one nation in the ancient world which had recognised cultural democracy, whereby it is held that the roads to one and the same God are many, but the goal was one, because God was one and the same. In fact, the roads are as many as there are individuals in the world... The various religions were as so many leaves of a tree; they might seem different but at the trunk they are one". Gandhi dismissed the idea that there could ever be one religion in the world, a uniform religious code, as it were, for all humankind.Q. According to the author, the idea of political secularism in Europe, emerged in the backdrop of

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Inequalities between men and women according to the Scholars are not ______ but ______a)Social, Naturalb)Natural, Socialc)Desirable, undesirabled)Economic, racialCorrect answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
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