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If f(x) = y then f-1(y) is equal to __________
- a)y
- b)x
- c)x2
- d)none of the mentioned
Correct answer is option 'B'. Can you explain this answer?
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If f(x) = y then f-1(y) is equal to __________a)yb)xc)x2d)none of the ...
On giving inverse, image the function returns preimage thus f-1 (y) = x.
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If f(x) = y then f-1(y) is equal to __________a)yb)xc)x2d)none of the ...
Explanation:
Understanding the concept:
In mathematics, f(x) = y represents a function where x is the input value and y is the output value. The function f maps x to y. The inverse of a function f, denoted as f^-1, maps y back to x.
Applying the concept to the given question:
Given f(x) = y, we are asked to find f^-1(y). This means we need to find the inverse function that maps y back to x.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B, which is "y". This is because the inverse function f^-1(y) simply reverses the mapping of the original function f(x) = y. So, when we apply the inverse function f^-1 to y, we get back the original input value x.
Therefore, the inverse function f^-1(y) is equal to y.
Understanding the concept:
In mathematics, f(x) = y represents a function where x is the input value and y is the output value. The function f maps x to y. The inverse of a function f, denoted as f^-1, maps y back to x.
Applying the concept to the given question:
Given f(x) = y, we are asked to find f^-1(y). This means we need to find the inverse function that maps y back to x.
Answer:
The correct answer is option B, which is "y". This is because the inverse function f^-1(y) simply reverses the mapping of the original function f(x) = y. So, when we apply the inverse function f^-1 to y, we get back the original input value x.
Therefore, the inverse function f^-1(y) is equal to y.
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