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Q7: In the Mundell-Fleming model, why is an independent monetary policy ineffective under a fixed exchange rate regime?
  • a)
    Capital inflows lead to higher domestic interest rates.
  • b)
    Capital outflows lead to currency depreciation.
  • c)
    Capital mobility is restricted.
  • d)
    Capital flows and exchange rate adjustments counteract the impact.
Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Most Upvoted Answer
Q7: In the Mundell-Fleming model, why is an independent monetary polic...
In the Mundell-Fleming model under a fixed exchange rate regime, an independent monetary policy is ineffective because capital flows and exchange rate adjustments offset its impact. Any change in the domestic interest rate would lead to capital flows, causing shifts in the balance of payments and requiring the Central Bank to intervene to maintain the fixed exchange rate. This process nullifies the effects of the monetary policy change.
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Q7: In the Mundell-Fleming model, why is an independent monetary policy ineffective under a fixed exchange rate regime?a)Capital inflows lead to higher domestic interest rates.b)Capital outflows lead to currency depreciation.c)Capital mobility is restricted.d)Capital flows and exchange rate adjustments counteract the impact.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?
Question Description
Q7: In the Mundell-Fleming model, why is an independent monetary policy ineffective under a fixed exchange rate regime?a)Capital inflows lead to higher domestic interest rates.b)Capital outflows lead to currency depreciation.c)Capital mobility is restricted.d)Capital flows and exchange rate adjustments counteract the impact.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? for B Com 2024 is part of B Com preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the B Com exam syllabus. Information about Q7: In the Mundell-Fleming model, why is an independent monetary policy ineffective under a fixed exchange rate regime?a)Capital inflows lead to higher domestic interest rates.b)Capital outflows lead to currency depreciation.c)Capital mobility is restricted.d)Capital flows and exchange rate adjustments counteract the impact.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? covers all topics & solutions for B Com 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Q7: In the Mundell-Fleming model, why is an independent monetary policy ineffective under a fixed exchange rate regime?a)Capital inflows lead to higher domestic interest rates.b)Capital outflows lead to currency depreciation.c)Capital mobility is restricted.d)Capital flows and exchange rate adjustments counteract the impact.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer?.
Solutions for Q7: In the Mundell-Fleming model, why is an independent monetary policy ineffective under a fixed exchange rate regime?a)Capital inflows lead to higher domestic interest rates.b)Capital outflows lead to currency depreciation.c)Capital mobility is restricted.d)Capital flows and exchange rate adjustments counteract the impact.Correct answer is option 'D'. Can you explain this answer? in English & in Hindi are available as part of our courses for B Com. Download more important topics, notes, lectures and mock test series for B Com Exam by signing up for free.
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