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Let f(x)=x sinx and g(x) be the inverse function of f(x) then integration of g(x)dx from (0 to π)=?
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Let f(x)=x sinx and g(x) be the inverse function of f(x) then integrat...
The inverse function of a function f(x) is a function g(x) such that g(f(x)) = x and f(g(x)) = x for all values of x in the domain of g(x). If g(x) is the inverse function of f(x), then the function g(x) will have the same values as f(x), but the domain and range of g(x) will be reversed compared to the domain and range of f(x).
In this case, the function f(x) is given by f(x) = x sinx. The inverse function of f(x) is g(x).

To find the integral of g(x) from 0 to π, we need to find an expression for g(x) and then evaluate the integral.
Since g(x) is the inverse function of f(x), we can find g(x) by solving the equation g(f(x)) = x for x.
In this case, we have:

g(f(x)) = g(x sinx) = x

Solving this equation for x, we find that x = g(x). Therefore, g(x) = x.

The integral of g(x) from 0 to π is then given by:

∫g(x)dx = ∫xdx

Evaluating this integral, we find that:

∫g(x)dx = [x^2/2]^π_0 = (π^2 - 0^2)/2 = π^2/2

Therefore, the integral of g(x) from 0 to π is equal to π^2/2.

This question is part of UPSC exam. View all JEE courses
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Let f(x)=x sinx and g(x) be the inverse function of f(x) then integrat...
Integration of g(x) from (0 to π)

Given function f(x) = x sin(x) and g(x) is the inverse function of f(x), we need to find the integration of g(x) from 0 to π.

To find the integration of g(x), we need to determine the function g(x) first.

Let's start by finding the inverse function g(x):

1. Finding the inverse function g(x):
To find the inverse function g(x), we need to switch the roles of x and f(x) in the equation f(x) = x sin(x).

Let y = f(x) = x sin(x)
Now, we interchange x and y:
x = y sin(y)

Next, we solve this equation for y:
x / sin(y) = y
This gives us the inverse function g(x) = x / sin(x).

2. Integration of g(x) from 0 to π:
Now that we have the inverse function g(x) = x / sin(x), we can find the integration of g(x) from 0 to π.

∫[0 to π] g(x) dx
= ∫[0 to π] (x / sin(x)) dx

Unfortunately, this integral does not have a closed-form solution. It cannot be expressed in terms of elementary functions. Therefore, we need to use numerical methods or approximation techniques to evaluate this integral.

One possible approach is to use numerical integration methods, such as the trapezoidal rule or Simpson's rule, to approximate the value of the integral. These methods involve dividing the interval [0, π] into smaller subintervals and approximating the integral over each subinterval.

Another approach is to use computer software or calculators that have built-in functions for numerical integration. These tools can provide accurate numerical approximations of the integral.

In conclusion, the integration of g(x) from 0 to π, which is ∫[0 to π] (x / sin(x)) dx, does not have a closed-form solution and needs to be approximated using numerical methods or computer software.
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Let f(x)=x sinx and g(x) be the inverse function of f(x) then integration of g(x)dx from (0 to π)=?
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Let f(x)=x sinx and g(x) be the inverse function of f(x) then integration of g(x)dx from (0 to π)=? for JEE 2024 is part of JEE preparation. The Question and answers have been prepared according to the JEE exam syllabus. Information about Let f(x)=x sinx and g(x) be the inverse function of f(x) then integration of g(x)dx from (0 to π)=? covers all topics & solutions for JEE 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, meanings, examples, exercises and tests below for Let f(x)=x sinx and g(x) be the inverse function of f(x) then integration of g(x)dx from (0 to π)=?.
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