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 Page 1


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents
speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, the non-zero
integers x,y and z such that P
x
Q
y
c
z 
is
dimensionless, are.
(a) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (b) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(c) x = – 1, y = 1, z = 1 (d) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
2. The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as
x = A t
2
 – B t
3
. The acceleration at time t of the
particle will be equal to zero. What is the value
of t?
(a)
B 3
A 2
(b)
B
A
(c)
B 3
A
(d) zero
3. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with the same
speed but angles are 40º and 50º with the
horizontal. Then
(a) A w ill fall earlier
(b) B will fall earlier
(c) both will fall at the same time
(d) None of these
4. A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It
(a) has a constant velocity
(b) is not accelerated
(c) has an inward radial acceleration
(d) has an outward radial acceleration
5. T wo blocks are connected
over a massless pulley as
shown in fig. The mass of
block A is 10 kg and the
coefficient of kinetic
A
B
30º
friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the incline at
constant speed. The mass of block B in kg is:
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
6. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of
mass m
1
 and m
2
. When the toy carts are released,
the springs exert equal and opposite average
forces for the same time on each toy cart. If v
1
and v
2
 are the velocities of the toy carts and there
is no friction between the toy carts and the ground,
then :
(a)v
1
/v
2
 = m
1
/m
2
(b) v
1
/v
2
 = m
2
/m
1
(c)v
1
/v
2
 = –m
2
/m
1
(d) v
1
/v
2
 = –m
1
/m
2
7. The potential energy for a force field F
r
 is given
by U (x,y) = cos (x + y). The force acting on a
particle at position given by coordinates (0, p/4)
is –
(a)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
-+
(b)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
+
(c)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
+
ç÷
èø
(d)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
-
ç÷
èø
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
Page 2


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents
speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, the non-zero
integers x,y and z such that P
x
Q
y
c
z 
is
dimensionless, are.
(a) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (b) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(c) x = – 1, y = 1, z = 1 (d) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
2. The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as
x = A t
2
 – B t
3
. The acceleration at time t of the
particle will be equal to zero. What is the value
of t?
(a)
B 3
A 2
(b)
B
A
(c)
B 3
A
(d) zero
3. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with the same
speed but angles are 40º and 50º with the
horizontal. Then
(a) A w ill fall earlier
(b) B will fall earlier
(c) both will fall at the same time
(d) None of these
4. A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It
(a) has a constant velocity
(b) is not accelerated
(c) has an inward radial acceleration
(d) has an outward radial acceleration
5. T wo blocks are connected
over a massless pulley as
shown in fig. The mass of
block A is 10 kg and the
coefficient of kinetic
A
B
30º
friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the incline at
constant speed. The mass of block B in kg is:
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
6. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of
mass m
1
 and m
2
. When the toy carts are released,
the springs exert equal and opposite average
forces for the same time on each toy cart. If v
1
and v
2
 are the velocities of the toy carts and there
is no friction between the toy carts and the ground,
then :
(a)v
1
/v
2
 = m
1
/m
2
(b) v
1
/v
2
 = m
2
/m
1
(c)v
1
/v
2
 = –m
2
/m
1
(d) v
1
/v
2
 = –m
1
/m
2
7. The potential energy for a force field F
r
 is given
by U (x,y) = cos (x + y). The force acting on a
particle at position given by coordinates (0, p/4)
is –
(a)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
-+
(b)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
+
(c)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
+
ç÷
èø
(d)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
-
ç÷
èø
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
8. A long string is stretched by 2 cm and the
potential energy is V . If the spring is stretched by
10 cm, its potential energy will be
(a) V / 25 (b) V /5 (c) 5 V (d) 2 5 V
9. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere
(mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline
of angle ‘q’ without slipping and slipping down
the incline without rolling is :
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5
10. A system consists of three particles, each of mass
m and located at (1, 1), (2, 2) and (3, 3). The
co-ordinates of the centre of mass are
(a) (1, 1) (b) (2, 2) (c) (3, 3) (d) (6, 6)
11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely
as the nth power of distance. Then the time period
of a planet in circular orbit of radius ‘R’ around
the sun will be proportional to
(a)R
n
(b)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ -
2
1 n
R (c)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ +
2
1 n
R
(d)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ -
2
2 n
R
12. Two planets A and B have the same material
density . If the radius of A is twice that of B, then
the ratio of the escape velocity v
A
/v
B
 is
(a)2 (b)
2
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/2
13. The upper end of a wire of diameter 12mm and
length 1m is clamped and its other end is twisted
through an angle of 30°. The angle of shear is
(a) 18° (b) 0.18° (c) 36° (d) 0.36°
14. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a
viscous liquid. The speed (n) of the ball as a
function of time (t) may be best represented by
(a)
t
v
(b)
t
v
(c)
t
v
(d)
t
v
15. Two mercury drops (each of radius r) merge to
form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop, if T is the surface tension, is
(a)2
5/3
 pr
2
T (b) 4 pr
2
T
(c) 2 pr
2
T (d) 2
8/3 
pr
2
T
16. Two circular plates of radius 5 cm each, have a
0.01 mm thick water film between them. Then what
will be the force required to separate these plate
(S.T. of water = 73 dyne/cm) ?
(a) 125 N (b) 95 N (c) 115 N (d) 105 N
17. One kilogram of ice at 0°C is mixed with one
kilogram of water at 80°C. The final temperature
of the mixture is (Take specific heat of water
= 4200 kJ/kg-°C, Latent heat of ice = 336 kJ/kg)
(a) 0 °C (b) 40°C (c) 50°C (d) 60°C
18. In the equation PV
g
 = constant, the value of g is
unity. Then the  process is
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) isobaric (d) irreversible
19. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature
of 13ºC. The coefficient of performance of the
engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which
heat is rejected) is
(a) 320ºC (b) 39ºC (c) 325 K (d) 325ºC
20. 3 moles of an ideal gas at a temperature of 27°C
are mixed with 2 moles of an ideal gas at a
temperature 227°C, determine the equilibrium
temperature of the mixture, assuming no loss of
energy .
(a) 327°C (b) 107°C (c) 318°C (d) 410°C
21. A simple pendulum has time period 't'. Its time
period in a lift which is moving upwards with
acceleration 3 ms
–2 
is
(a) 
8 . 12
8 . 9
t
(b) 
8 . 9
8 . 12
t
(c) 
8 . 6
8 . 9
t
(d) 
8 . 9
8 . 6
t
22. A wave y = a sin (wt – kx) on a string meets with
another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then
the equation of the unknown wave is
(a) y = a sin (wt + kx) (b) y = –a sin (w t + kx)
(c) y = a sin (wt – kx) (d) y = –a sin (w t – kx)
23. A source of sound produces waves of
wavelength 60 cm when it is stationary. If the
speed of sound in air is 320 m s
–1
 and source
moves with speed 20 m s
–1
, the wavelength of
sound in the forward direction will be nearest to
(a) 56 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 64 cm (d) 68 cm
24. A charge +q is at a distance L/2 above a square
of side L. Then what is the flux linked with the
surface?
(a)
0
q
4e
(b)
0
2q
3e
(c)
0
q
6e
(d)
0
6q
e
25. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm
are given charges of –1 × 10
–2
 C and 5×10
–2
 C,
respectively. If these are connected by a
conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger
sphere is
(a) 2 × 10
–2
 C (b) 3 × 10
–2
 C
(c) 4 × 10
–2
 C (d) 1 × 10
–2
 C
Page 3


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents
speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, the non-zero
integers x,y and z such that P
x
Q
y
c
z 
is
dimensionless, are.
(a) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (b) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(c) x = – 1, y = 1, z = 1 (d) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
2. The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as
x = A t
2
 – B t
3
. The acceleration at time t of the
particle will be equal to zero. What is the value
of t?
(a)
B 3
A 2
(b)
B
A
(c)
B 3
A
(d) zero
3. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with the same
speed but angles are 40º and 50º with the
horizontal. Then
(a) A w ill fall earlier
(b) B will fall earlier
(c) both will fall at the same time
(d) None of these
4. A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It
(a) has a constant velocity
(b) is not accelerated
(c) has an inward radial acceleration
(d) has an outward radial acceleration
5. T wo blocks are connected
over a massless pulley as
shown in fig. The mass of
block A is 10 kg and the
coefficient of kinetic
A
B
30º
friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the incline at
constant speed. The mass of block B in kg is:
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
6. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of
mass m
1
 and m
2
. When the toy carts are released,
the springs exert equal and opposite average
forces for the same time on each toy cart. If v
1
and v
2
 are the velocities of the toy carts and there
is no friction between the toy carts and the ground,
then :
(a)v
1
/v
2
 = m
1
/m
2
(b) v
1
/v
2
 = m
2
/m
1
(c)v
1
/v
2
 = –m
2
/m
1
(d) v
1
/v
2
 = –m
1
/m
2
7. The potential energy for a force field F
r
 is given
by U (x,y) = cos (x + y). The force acting on a
particle at position given by coordinates (0, p/4)
is –
(a)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
-+
(b)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
+
(c)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
+
ç÷
èø
(d)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
-
ç÷
èø
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
8. A long string is stretched by 2 cm and the
potential energy is V . If the spring is stretched by
10 cm, its potential energy will be
(a) V / 25 (b) V /5 (c) 5 V (d) 2 5 V
9. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere
(mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline
of angle ‘q’ without slipping and slipping down
the incline without rolling is :
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5
10. A system consists of three particles, each of mass
m and located at (1, 1), (2, 2) and (3, 3). The
co-ordinates of the centre of mass are
(a) (1, 1) (b) (2, 2) (c) (3, 3) (d) (6, 6)
11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely
as the nth power of distance. Then the time period
of a planet in circular orbit of radius ‘R’ around
the sun will be proportional to
(a)R
n
(b)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ -
2
1 n
R (c)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ +
2
1 n
R
(d)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ -
2
2 n
R
12. Two planets A and B have the same material
density . If the radius of A is twice that of B, then
the ratio of the escape velocity v
A
/v
B
 is
(a)2 (b)
2
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/2
13. The upper end of a wire of diameter 12mm and
length 1m is clamped and its other end is twisted
through an angle of 30°. The angle of shear is
(a) 18° (b) 0.18° (c) 36° (d) 0.36°
14. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a
viscous liquid. The speed (n) of the ball as a
function of time (t) may be best represented by
(a)
t
v
(b)
t
v
(c)
t
v
(d)
t
v
15. Two mercury drops (each of radius r) merge to
form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop, if T is the surface tension, is
(a)2
5/3
 pr
2
T (b) 4 pr
2
T
(c) 2 pr
2
T (d) 2
8/3 
pr
2
T
16. Two circular plates of radius 5 cm each, have a
0.01 mm thick water film between them. Then what
will be the force required to separate these plate
(S.T. of water = 73 dyne/cm) ?
(a) 125 N (b) 95 N (c) 115 N (d) 105 N
17. One kilogram of ice at 0°C is mixed with one
kilogram of water at 80°C. The final temperature
of the mixture is (Take specific heat of water
= 4200 kJ/kg-°C, Latent heat of ice = 336 kJ/kg)
(a) 0 °C (b) 40°C (c) 50°C (d) 60°C
18. In the equation PV
g
 = constant, the value of g is
unity. Then the  process is
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) isobaric (d) irreversible
19. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature
of 13ºC. The coefficient of performance of the
engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which
heat is rejected) is
(a) 320ºC (b) 39ºC (c) 325 K (d) 325ºC
20. 3 moles of an ideal gas at a temperature of 27°C
are mixed with 2 moles of an ideal gas at a
temperature 227°C, determine the equilibrium
temperature of the mixture, assuming no loss of
energy .
(a) 327°C (b) 107°C (c) 318°C (d) 410°C
21. A simple pendulum has time period 't'. Its time
period in a lift which is moving upwards with
acceleration 3 ms
–2 
is
(a) 
8 . 12
8 . 9
t
(b) 
8 . 9
8 . 12
t
(c) 
8 . 6
8 . 9
t
(d) 
8 . 9
8 . 6
t
22. A wave y = a sin (wt – kx) on a string meets with
another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then
the equation of the unknown wave is
(a) y = a sin (wt + kx) (b) y = –a sin (w t + kx)
(c) y = a sin (wt – kx) (d) y = –a sin (w t – kx)
23. A source of sound produces waves of
wavelength 60 cm when it is stationary. If the
speed of sound in air is 320 m s
–1
 and source
moves with speed 20 m s
–1
, the wavelength of
sound in the forward direction will be nearest to
(a) 56 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 64 cm (d) 68 cm
24. A charge +q is at a distance L/2 above a square
of side L. Then what is the flux linked with the
surface?
(a)
0
q
4e
(b)
0
2q
3e
(c)
0
q
6e
(d)
0
6q
e
25. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm
are given charges of –1 × 10
–2
 C and 5×10
–2
 C,
respectively. If these are connected by a
conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger
sphere is
(a) 2 × 10
–2
 C (b) 3 × 10
–2
 C
(c) 4 × 10
–2
 C (d) 1 × 10
–2
 C
26. In a region, the potential is represented by
V(x, y , z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts
and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force
experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at
point (1, 1, 1) is :
(a) 65 N (b) 30 N
(c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
27. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the
figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is
R
10V
5W
(a) 20 W (b) 15 W (c) 10 W (d) 30 W
28. Which of the following quantities do not change
when a resistor connected to a battery is heated
due to the current?
(a) Drift speed
(b) Resistivity
(c) Resistance
(d) Number of free electrons
29. The magnetic field at the origin due to the current
flowing in the wire is –
a
a
I
Y
X
Z I
upto 
parallel to y axis
upto 
(a)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
8a
m
-+
p
(b)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
2a
m
+
p
(c)
0
I
ˆˆ
( i k)
8a
m
-+
p
(d)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
4 a2
m
-
p
30. The back emf induced in a coil, when current
changes from 1 ampere to zero in one milli-second,
is 4 volts, the self inductance of the coil is
(a) 1 henry (b) 4 henry
(c) 10
–3
 henry (d) 4 × 10
–3 
henry
31. Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have
their lengths and number of turns in ratio of 1 : 2.
The ratio of self-inductance of two solenoids is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
32. An alternating voltage V = V
0
 sin w t is applied acro ss
a circuit. As a result, a current I = I
0
 sin (wt – p/2)
flows in it. The power consumed per cycle is
(a) zero (b) 0.5 V
0
I
0
(c) 0.707 V
0
I
0
(d) 1.414 V
0
I
0
33. A resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor
C all are connected in series with an AC supply .
The resistance of R is 16 ohm and for a given
frequency , the inductive reactance of L is 24 ohm
and capacitive reactance of C is 12 ohm. If the
current in the circuit is 5 amp., find the potential
difference across R, L and C.
(a) 30, 20, 50 volt (b) 40, 100, 60 volt
(c) 70, 110, 60 volt (d) 80, 120, 60 volt
34. The diameter of the objective of a telescope is a,
its magnifying power is m and wavelength of
light is l, The resolving power of the telescope
is:
(a) (1.22 l)/ a (b) (1.22 a)/ l
(c) lm / (1.22 a) (d) a /(1.22 l)
35. The photoelectric threshold of  metal is 2000Å.
The energy of the electrons ejected from the surface
by ultraviolet light of wavelength 1500Å is
(a) 2.0 eV   (b) 1.5 eV (c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV
36. A material particle with a rest mass m
0
 is moving
with a velocity of light c. Then the wavelength of
the de Broglie wave associated with it is :
(a) (h/m
0
c) (b) zero
(c) ¥ (d) (m
0
c/h)
37. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
monochromatic radiation of l = 975 Å. Number
of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted
will be
(a)3 (b) 2 (c)6 (d) 1 0
38. Which of the following is best nuclear fuel
(a) tho rium 236 (b) plutonium 239
(c) uranium 236 (d) neptunium 239
39. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and
emitter current 90 mA. The collector current will
(a) 90 mA (b) 1 mA (c) 89 mA (d) 91 mA
Page 4


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents
speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, the non-zero
integers x,y and z such that P
x
Q
y
c
z 
is
dimensionless, are.
(a) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (b) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(c) x = – 1, y = 1, z = 1 (d) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
2. The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as
x = A t
2
 – B t
3
. The acceleration at time t of the
particle will be equal to zero. What is the value
of t?
(a)
B 3
A 2
(b)
B
A
(c)
B 3
A
(d) zero
3. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with the same
speed but angles are 40º and 50º with the
horizontal. Then
(a) A w ill fall earlier
(b) B will fall earlier
(c) both will fall at the same time
(d) None of these
4. A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It
(a) has a constant velocity
(b) is not accelerated
(c) has an inward radial acceleration
(d) has an outward radial acceleration
5. T wo blocks are connected
over a massless pulley as
shown in fig. The mass of
block A is 10 kg and the
coefficient of kinetic
A
B
30º
friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the incline at
constant speed. The mass of block B in kg is:
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
6. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of
mass m
1
 and m
2
. When the toy carts are released,
the springs exert equal and opposite average
forces for the same time on each toy cart. If v
1
and v
2
 are the velocities of the toy carts and there
is no friction between the toy carts and the ground,
then :
(a)v
1
/v
2
 = m
1
/m
2
(b) v
1
/v
2
 = m
2
/m
1
(c)v
1
/v
2
 = –m
2
/m
1
(d) v
1
/v
2
 = –m
1
/m
2
7. The potential energy for a force field F
r
 is given
by U (x,y) = cos (x + y). The force acting on a
particle at position given by coordinates (0, p/4)
is –
(a)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
-+
(b)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
+
(c)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
+
ç÷
èø
(d)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
-
ç÷
èø
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
8. A long string is stretched by 2 cm and the
potential energy is V . If the spring is stretched by
10 cm, its potential energy will be
(a) V / 25 (b) V /5 (c) 5 V (d) 2 5 V
9. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere
(mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline
of angle ‘q’ without slipping and slipping down
the incline without rolling is :
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5
10. A system consists of three particles, each of mass
m and located at (1, 1), (2, 2) and (3, 3). The
co-ordinates of the centre of mass are
(a) (1, 1) (b) (2, 2) (c) (3, 3) (d) (6, 6)
11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely
as the nth power of distance. Then the time period
of a planet in circular orbit of radius ‘R’ around
the sun will be proportional to
(a)R
n
(b)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ -
2
1 n
R (c)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ +
2
1 n
R
(d)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ -
2
2 n
R
12. Two planets A and B have the same material
density . If the radius of A is twice that of B, then
the ratio of the escape velocity v
A
/v
B
 is
(a)2 (b)
2
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/2
13. The upper end of a wire of diameter 12mm and
length 1m is clamped and its other end is twisted
through an angle of 30°. The angle of shear is
(a) 18° (b) 0.18° (c) 36° (d) 0.36°
14. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a
viscous liquid. The speed (n) of the ball as a
function of time (t) may be best represented by
(a)
t
v
(b)
t
v
(c)
t
v
(d)
t
v
15. Two mercury drops (each of radius r) merge to
form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop, if T is the surface tension, is
(a)2
5/3
 pr
2
T (b) 4 pr
2
T
(c) 2 pr
2
T (d) 2
8/3 
pr
2
T
16. Two circular plates of radius 5 cm each, have a
0.01 mm thick water film between them. Then what
will be the force required to separate these plate
(S.T. of water = 73 dyne/cm) ?
(a) 125 N (b) 95 N (c) 115 N (d) 105 N
17. One kilogram of ice at 0°C is mixed with one
kilogram of water at 80°C. The final temperature
of the mixture is (Take specific heat of water
= 4200 kJ/kg-°C, Latent heat of ice = 336 kJ/kg)
(a) 0 °C (b) 40°C (c) 50°C (d) 60°C
18. In the equation PV
g
 = constant, the value of g is
unity. Then the  process is
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) isobaric (d) irreversible
19. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature
of 13ºC. The coefficient of performance of the
engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which
heat is rejected) is
(a) 320ºC (b) 39ºC (c) 325 K (d) 325ºC
20. 3 moles of an ideal gas at a temperature of 27°C
are mixed with 2 moles of an ideal gas at a
temperature 227°C, determine the equilibrium
temperature of the mixture, assuming no loss of
energy .
(a) 327°C (b) 107°C (c) 318°C (d) 410°C
21. A simple pendulum has time period 't'. Its time
period in a lift which is moving upwards with
acceleration 3 ms
–2 
is
(a) 
8 . 12
8 . 9
t
(b) 
8 . 9
8 . 12
t
(c) 
8 . 6
8 . 9
t
(d) 
8 . 9
8 . 6
t
22. A wave y = a sin (wt – kx) on a string meets with
another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then
the equation of the unknown wave is
(a) y = a sin (wt + kx) (b) y = –a sin (w t + kx)
(c) y = a sin (wt – kx) (d) y = –a sin (w t – kx)
23. A source of sound produces waves of
wavelength 60 cm when it is stationary. If the
speed of sound in air is 320 m s
–1
 and source
moves with speed 20 m s
–1
, the wavelength of
sound in the forward direction will be nearest to
(a) 56 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 64 cm (d) 68 cm
24. A charge +q is at a distance L/2 above a square
of side L. Then what is the flux linked with the
surface?
(a)
0
q
4e
(b)
0
2q
3e
(c)
0
q
6e
(d)
0
6q
e
25. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm
are given charges of –1 × 10
–2
 C and 5×10
–2
 C,
respectively. If these are connected by a
conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger
sphere is
(a) 2 × 10
–2
 C (b) 3 × 10
–2
 C
(c) 4 × 10
–2
 C (d) 1 × 10
–2
 C
26. In a region, the potential is represented by
V(x, y , z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts
and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force
experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at
point (1, 1, 1) is :
(a) 65 N (b) 30 N
(c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
27. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the
figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is
R
10V
5W
(a) 20 W (b) 15 W (c) 10 W (d) 30 W
28. Which of the following quantities do not change
when a resistor connected to a battery is heated
due to the current?
(a) Drift speed
(b) Resistivity
(c) Resistance
(d) Number of free electrons
29. The magnetic field at the origin due to the current
flowing in the wire is –
a
a
I
Y
X
Z I
upto 
parallel to y axis
upto 
(a)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
8a
m
-+
p
(b)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
2a
m
+
p
(c)
0
I
ˆˆ
( i k)
8a
m
-+
p
(d)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
4 a2
m
-
p
30. The back emf induced in a coil, when current
changes from 1 ampere to zero in one milli-second,
is 4 volts, the self inductance of the coil is
(a) 1 henry (b) 4 henry
(c) 10
–3
 henry (d) 4 × 10
–3 
henry
31. Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have
their lengths and number of turns in ratio of 1 : 2.
The ratio of self-inductance of two solenoids is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
32. An alternating voltage V = V
0
 sin w t is applied acro ss
a circuit. As a result, a current I = I
0
 sin (wt – p/2)
flows in it. The power consumed per cycle is
(a) zero (b) 0.5 V
0
I
0
(c) 0.707 V
0
I
0
(d) 1.414 V
0
I
0
33. A resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor
C all are connected in series with an AC supply .
The resistance of R is 16 ohm and for a given
frequency , the inductive reactance of L is 24 ohm
and capacitive reactance of C is 12 ohm. If the
current in the circuit is 5 amp., find the potential
difference across R, L and C.
(a) 30, 20, 50 volt (b) 40, 100, 60 volt
(c) 70, 110, 60 volt (d) 80, 120, 60 volt
34. The diameter of the objective of a telescope is a,
its magnifying power is m and wavelength of
light is l, The resolving power of the telescope
is:
(a) (1.22 l)/ a (b) (1.22 a)/ l
(c) lm / (1.22 a) (d) a /(1.22 l)
35. The photoelectric threshold of  metal is 2000Å.
The energy of the electrons ejected from the surface
by ultraviolet light of wavelength 1500Å is
(a) 2.0 eV   (b) 1.5 eV (c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV
36. A material particle with a rest mass m
0
 is moving
with a velocity of light c. Then the wavelength of
the de Broglie wave associated with it is :
(a) (h/m
0
c) (b) zero
(c) ¥ (d) (m
0
c/h)
37. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
monochromatic radiation of l = 975 Å. Number
of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted
will be
(a)3 (b) 2 (c)6 (d) 1 0
38. Which of the following is best nuclear fuel
(a) tho rium 236 (b) plutonium 239
(c) uranium 236 (d) neptunium 239
39. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and
emitter current 90 mA. The collector current will
(a) 90 mA (b) 1 mA (c) 89 mA (d) 91 mA
40. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series
combination of a resistor R and an ideal diode D
as shown in the figure below. The potential
difference across R will be
V
R D
(a)2V when diode is forward biased
(b) Zero when diode is forward biased
(c) V when diode is reverse biased
(d) V when diode is forward biased
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
41. The vapour density  of ozone is
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 24 (d) 48
42. In redox reaction 1 g-eq of reducing agent requires
P gm-eq. of oxidising agent. The value of P is
(a)1 (b) 2
(c)3
(d) Depends on reaction
43. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic.
Then :
(a) Their sizes are same
(b) Cl
–
 ion is bigger than K
+
 ion
(c)K
+
 ion is relatively bigger
(d) Their sizes depend on other cation and
anion
44. Which of the following pairs has both members
from the same period of periodic table :
(a) Na, Ca (b) Na, Cl
(c) Ca, Cl (d) Cl, B r
45. In the periodic table, with the increase in atomic
number, the metallic character of an element
(a) decreases in a period and increases in a group
(b) increases in a period and decreases in a group
(c) increases both in a period and the group
(d) decreases in a period and the group
46. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. PH
5
 and BiCl
5
 do not exist.
2. pp – dp bond is present in SO
2
.
3.
+
3
I has bent geometry. .
4. SeF
4
 and CH
4
 have same shape.
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3 (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4
47. When the temperature is raised, the viscosity of
liquid decreases this is because
(a) decreased volume of the solution.
(b) increased attraction between molecules.
(c) decreased covalent and hydrogen bond
forces.
(d) increase in temperature increase the average
kinetic energy of molecules which
overcomes the attractive force between
them.
48. At a constant volume the specific heat of a gas is
0.075 and its molecular weight is 40. The gas is:
(a) Monoatomic (b) Diatomic
(c) Triatomic (d) None of these
49. Which of these is least likely to act as Lewis
base?
(a)F
–
(b) BF
3
(c) PF
3
(d) CO
50. The K
sp
 of CuS, Ag
2
S and HgS are 10
–31
,10
–44
and 10
–54
 respectively. The solubility of these
sulphides are in the order :
(a) Ag
2
S > CuS > HgS
(b) AgS > HgS > CuS
(c) HgS > Ag
2
S > CuS
(d) CuS > Ag
2
S > HgS
51. In which of the following reactions, H
2
O
2
 is
acting as a reducing agent?
(a)
4 2 2 2 2
SO H SO O H ® +
(b)
2 2 2
I KOH 2 O H KI 2 + ® +
(c) O H 4 PbSO O H 4 PbS
2 4 2 2
+ ® +
(d)
2 2 2 2 2
O O H Ag 2 O H O Ag + + ® +
52. Sodium peroxide in contact with moist air turns
white due to formation of :
(a) Na
2
CO
3
(b) Na
2
O
(c) NaOH (d) NaHCO
3
53. Which of the following is similar to graphite
(a)B (b) B N (c)B
2
H
6
(d) B
4
C
54. The number of geometrical isomers of
CH
3
– CH = CH – CH = CH – CH = CHCl is
(a)2 (b) 4 (c)6 (d) 8
55. According to IUPAC system, the correct name
of the compound having the formula
3 22
23
CH C CH CH
|||
CH CH
---
(a) 2-ethyl-3-methyl but-1-ene
(b) 2-methyl pent-3-ene
(c) 2-methyl but-1-ene
(d) None of these
56. Liebig’s method is used for the estimation of
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Sulphur
(c) Carbon and hydrogen
(d) Halogens
Page 5


PART - I : PHYSICS
1. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents
speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, the non-zero
integers x,y and z such that P
x
Q
y
c
z 
is
dimensionless, are.
(a) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (b) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(c) x = – 1, y = 1, z = 1 (d) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
2. The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as
x = A t
2
 – B t
3
. The acceleration at time t of the
particle will be equal to zero. What is the value
of t?
(a)
B 3
A 2
(b)
B
A
(c)
B 3
A
(d) zero
3. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with the same
speed but angles are 40º and 50º with the
horizontal. Then
(a) A w ill fall earlier
(b) B will fall earlier
(c) both will fall at the same time
(d) None of these
4. A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It
(a) has a constant velocity
(b) is not accelerated
(c) has an inward radial acceleration
(d) has an outward radial acceleration
5. T wo blocks are connected
over a massless pulley as
shown in fig. The mass of
block A is 10 kg and the
coefficient of kinetic
A
B
30º
friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the incline at
constant speed. The mass of block B in kg is:
(a) 3.5 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
6. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of
mass m
1
 and m
2
. When the toy carts are released,
the springs exert equal and opposite average
forces for the same time on each toy cart. If v
1
and v
2
 are the velocities of the toy carts and there
is no friction between the toy carts and the ground,
then :
(a)v
1
/v
2
 = m
1
/m
2
(b) v
1
/v
2
 = m
2
/m
1
(c)v
1
/v
2
 = –m
2
/m
1
(d) v
1
/v
2
 = –m
1
/m
2
7. The potential energy for a force field F
r
 is given
by U (x,y) = cos (x + y). The force acting on a
particle at position given by coordinates (0, p/4)
is –
(a)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
-+
(b)
1
ˆˆ
(i j)
2
+
(c)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
+
ç÷
èø
(d)
13
ˆˆ
ij
22
æö
-
ç÷
èø
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
  (B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours
8. A long string is stretched by 2 cm and the
potential energy is V . If the spring is stretched by
10 cm, its potential energy will be
(a) V / 25 (b) V /5 (c) 5 V (d) 2 5 V
9. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere
(mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline
of angle ‘q’ without slipping and slipping down
the incline without rolling is :
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5
10. A system consists of three particles, each of mass
m and located at (1, 1), (2, 2) and (3, 3). The
co-ordinates of the centre of mass are
(a) (1, 1) (b) (2, 2) (c) (3, 3) (d) (6, 6)
11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely
as the nth power of distance. Then the time period
of a planet in circular orbit of radius ‘R’ around
the sun will be proportional to
(a)R
n
(b)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ -
2
1 n
R (c)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ +
2
1 n
R
(d)
÷
ø
ö
ç
è
æ -
2
2 n
R
12. Two planets A and B have the same material
density . If the radius of A is twice that of B, then
the ratio of the escape velocity v
A
/v
B
 is
(a)2 (b)
2
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/2
13. The upper end of a wire of diameter 12mm and
length 1m is clamped and its other end is twisted
through an angle of 30°. The angle of shear is
(a) 18° (b) 0.18° (c) 36° (d) 0.36°
14. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a
viscous liquid. The speed (n) of the ball as a
function of time (t) may be best represented by
(a)
t
v
(b)
t
v
(c)
t
v
(d)
t
v
15. Two mercury drops (each of radius r) merge to
form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop, if T is the surface tension, is
(a)2
5/3
 pr
2
T (b) 4 pr
2
T
(c) 2 pr
2
T (d) 2
8/3 
pr
2
T
16. Two circular plates of radius 5 cm each, have a
0.01 mm thick water film between them. Then what
will be the force required to separate these plate
(S.T. of water = 73 dyne/cm) ?
(a) 125 N (b) 95 N (c) 115 N (d) 105 N
17. One kilogram of ice at 0°C is mixed with one
kilogram of water at 80°C. The final temperature
of the mixture is (Take specific heat of water
= 4200 kJ/kg-°C, Latent heat of ice = 336 kJ/kg)
(a) 0 °C (b) 40°C (c) 50°C (d) 60°C
18. In the equation PV
g
 = constant, the value of g is
unity. Then the  process is
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) isobaric (d) irreversible
19. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature
of 13ºC. The coefficient of performance of the
engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which
heat is rejected) is
(a) 320ºC (b) 39ºC (c) 325 K (d) 325ºC
20. 3 moles of an ideal gas at a temperature of 27°C
are mixed with 2 moles of an ideal gas at a
temperature 227°C, determine the equilibrium
temperature of the mixture, assuming no loss of
energy .
(a) 327°C (b) 107°C (c) 318°C (d) 410°C
21. A simple pendulum has time period 't'. Its time
period in a lift which is moving upwards with
acceleration 3 ms
–2 
is
(a) 
8 . 12
8 . 9
t
(b) 
8 . 9
8 . 12
t
(c) 
8 . 6
8 . 9
t
(d) 
8 . 9
8 . 6
t
22. A wave y = a sin (wt – kx) on a string meets with
another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then
the equation of the unknown wave is
(a) y = a sin (wt + kx) (b) y = –a sin (w t + kx)
(c) y = a sin (wt – kx) (d) y = –a sin (w t – kx)
23. A source of sound produces waves of
wavelength 60 cm when it is stationary. If the
speed of sound in air is 320 m s
–1
 and source
moves with speed 20 m s
–1
, the wavelength of
sound in the forward direction will be nearest to
(a) 56 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 64 cm (d) 68 cm
24. A charge +q is at a distance L/2 above a square
of side L. Then what is the flux linked with the
surface?
(a)
0
q
4e
(b)
0
2q
3e
(c)
0
q
6e
(d)
0
6q
e
25. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm
are given charges of –1 × 10
–2
 C and 5×10
–2
 C,
respectively. If these are connected by a
conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger
sphere is
(a) 2 × 10
–2
 C (b) 3 × 10
–2
 C
(c) 4 × 10
–2
 C (d) 1 × 10
–2
 C
26. In a region, the potential is represented by
V(x, y , z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts
and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force
experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at
point (1, 1, 1) is :
(a) 65 N (b) 30 N
(c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
27. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the
figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is
R
10V
5W
(a) 20 W (b) 15 W (c) 10 W (d) 30 W
28. Which of the following quantities do not change
when a resistor connected to a battery is heated
due to the current?
(a) Drift speed
(b) Resistivity
(c) Resistance
(d) Number of free electrons
29. The magnetic field at the origin due to the current
flowing in the wire is –
a
a
I
Y
X
Z I
upto 
parallel to y axis
upto 
(a)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
8a
m
-+
p
(b)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
2a
m
+
p
(c)
0
I
ˆˆ
( i k)
8a
m
-+
p
(d)
0
I
ˆˆ
(i k)
4 a2
m
-
p
30. The back emf induced in a coil, when current
changes from 1 ampere to zero in one milli-second,
is 4 volts, the self inductance of the coil is
(a) 1 henry (b) 4 henry
(c) 10
–3
 henry (d) 4 × 10
–3 
henry
31. Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have
their lengths and number of turns in ratio of 1 : 2.
The ratio of self-inductance of two solenoids is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
32. An alternating voltage V = V
0
 sin w t is applied acro ss
a circuit. As a result, a current I = I
0
 sin (wt – p/2)
flows in it. The power consumed per cycle is
(a) zero (b) 0.5 V
0
I
0
(c) 0.707 V
0
I
0
(d) 1.414 V
0
I
0
33. A resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor
C all are connected in series with an AC supply .
The resistance of R is 16 ohm and for a given
frequency , the inductive reactance of L is 24 ohm
and capacitive reactance of C is 12 ohm. If the
current in the circuit is 5 amp., find the potential
difference across R, L and C.
(a) 30, 20, 50 volt (b) 40, 100, 60 volt
(c) 70, 110, 60 volt (d) 80, 120, 60 volt
34. The diameter of the objective of a telescope is a,
its magnifying power is m and wavelength of
light is l, The resolving power of the telescope
is:
(a) (1.22 l)/ a (b) (1.22 a)/ l
(c) lm / (1.22 a) (d) a /(1.22 l)
35. The photoelectric threshold of  metal is 2000Å.
The energy of the electrons ejected from the surface
by ultraviolet light of wavelength 1500Å is
(a) 2.0 eV   (b) 1.5 eV (c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV
36. A material particle with a rest mass m
0
 is moving
with a velocity of light c. Then the wavelength of
the de Broglie wave associated with it is :
(a) (h/m
0
c) (b) zero
(c) ¥ (d) (m
0
c/h)
37. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
monochromatic radiation of l = 975 Å. Number
of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted
will be
(a)3 (b) 2 (c)6 (d) 1 0
38. Which of the following is best nuclear fuel
(a) tho rium 236 (b) plutonium 239
(c) uranium 236 (d) neptunium 239
39. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and
emitter current 90 mA. The collector current will
(a) 90 mA (b) 1 mA (c) 89 mA (d) 91 mA
40. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series
combination of a resistor R and an ideal diode D
as shown in the figure below. The potential
difference across R will be
V
R D
(a)2V when diode is forward biased
(b) Zero when diode is forward biased
(c) V when diode is reverse biased
(d) V when diode is forward biased
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
41. The vapour density  of ozone is
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 24 (d) 48
42. In redox reaction 1 g-eq of reducing agent requires
P gm-eq. of oxidising agent. The value of P is
(a)1 (b) 2
(c)3
(d) Depends on reaction
43. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic.
Then :
(a) Their sizes are same
(b) Cl
–
 ion is bigger than K
+
 ion
(c)K
+
 ion is relatively bigger
(d) Their sizes depend on other cation and
anion
44. Which of the following pairs has both members
from the same period of periodic table :
(a) Na, Ca (b) Na, Cl
(c) Ca, Cl (d) Cl, B r
45. In the periodic table, with the increase in atomic
number, the metallic character of an element
(a) decreases in a period and increases in a group
(b) increases in a period and decreases in a group
(c) increases both in a period and the group
(d) decreases in a period and the group
46. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. PH
5
 and BiCl
5
 do not exist.
2. pp – dp bond is present in SO
2
.
3.
+
3
I has bent geometry. .
4. SeF
4
 and CH
4
 have same shape.
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3 (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4
47. When the temperature is raised, the viscosity of
liquid decreases this is because
(a) decreased volume of the solution.
(b) increased attraction between molecules.
(c) decreased covalent and hydrogen bond
forces.
(d) increase in temperature increase the average
kinetic energy of molecules which
overcomes the attractive force between
them.
48. At a constant volume the specific heat of a gas is
0.075 and its molecular weight is 40. The gas is:
(a) Monoatomic (b) Diatomic
(c) Triatomic (d) None of these
49. Which of these is least likely to act as Lewis
base?
(a)F
–
(b) BF
3
(c) PF
3
(d) CO
50. The K
sp
 of CuS, Ag
2
S and HgS are 10
–31
,10
–44
and 10
–54
 respectively. The solubility of these
sulphides are in the order :
(a) Ag
2
S > CuS > HgS
(b) AgS > HgS > CuS
(c) HgS > Ag
2
S > CuS
(d) CuS > Ag
2
S > HgS
51. In which of the following reactions, H
2
O
2
 is
acting as a reducing agent?
(a)
4 2 2 2 2
SO H SO O H ® +
(b)
2 2 2
I KOH 2 O H KI 2 + ® +
(c) O H 4 PbSO O H 4 PbS
2 4 2 2
+ ® +
(d)
2 2 2 2 2
O O H Ag 2 O H O Ag + + ® +
52. Sodium peroxide in contact with moist air turns
white due to formation of :
(a) Na
2
CO
3
(b) Na
2
O
(c) NaOH (d) NaHCO
3
53. Which of the following is similar to graphite
(a)B (b) B N (c)B
2
H
6
(d) B
4
C
54. The number of geometrical isomers of
CH
3
– CH = CH – CH = CH – CH = CHCl is
(a)2 (b) 4 (c)6 (d) 8
55. According to IUPAC system, the correct name
of the compound having the formula
3 22
23
CH C CH CH
|||
CH CH
---
(a) 2-ethyl-3-methyl but-1-ene
(b) 2-methyl pent-3-ene
(c) 2-methyl but-1-ene
(d) None of these
56. Liebig’s method is used for the estimation of
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Sulphur
(c) Carbon and hydrogen
(d) Halogens
57. Hyperconjugation involves
(a) s – p conjugation
(b) s – p delocalisation
(c) No bond resonance
(d) All
58. Name of following reaction is
  +  ||
CN
 
¾® ¾
 
CN
(a) Claisen Condensation
(b) Diel’s Alder reaction
(c) Dieckmann cyclisation
(d) Michael addition reaction
59. The unsaturated hydrocarbon which on
ozonolysis gives one mole each of formaldehyde,
acetaldehyde and methyl glyoxal (CH
3
COCHO) is
(a)
3
CH – CH = C(
3
CH ) – 
3
CH
(b)
2
CH = CH – 
2
CH – CH = 
2
CH
(c)
2
CH = CH – C(
3
CH ) = CH – 
3
CH
(d)
3 2 3
CH CH C ) CH ( - =
60. Minamata disease is due to pollution of
(a) aresenic into the atmosphere
(b) organic waste into drinking water
(c) oil spill in water
(d) industrial waste mercury into fishing water
61. Phosphate pollution is caused by:
(a) Sewage and agricultural fertilizers.
(b) Weathering of phosphate rocks only.
(c) Agriculutral fertilizers only .
(d) Phosphate rocks and sewage.
62. Eutrophication causes reduction in
(a) Dissolved oxygen (b) Nutrients
(c) Dissolved salts (d) All of these
63. Coolant used in car radiator is aqueous solution
of ethylene glycol. In order to prevent the
solution from freezing at – 0.3°C. How much
ethylene glycol must be added to 5 kg of water ?
(K
f
 = 1.86 K Kg mol
–1
)
(a) 50 g (b) 55 g (c) 45 g (d) 40 g
64. Which of the following will form the cathode with
respect to iron anode in an electrolyte cell?
(a) Mg (b) Al (c) Cu (d) Zn
65. The activation energy for a simple chemical
reaction A ® B is E
a
 in forward direction. The
activation energy for reverse reaction
(a) is always less than E
a
(b) can be less than or more than E
a
(c) is always double of E
a
(d) is negative of E
a
66. The following  data are for the decomposition of
ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution :
V ol. of N
2
 in cc Time (min)
6.25 10
9.00 15
11.40 20
13.65 25
35.65 Infinity
The order of reaction is :
(a) Zero (b) One
(c) Two (d) Three
67. Which liberates ammonia when treated with
water?
(a) Li
3
N (b) Mg
3
N
2
(c) CaCN
2
(d) All
68. The correct order of reactivity of halogens with
alkalies is
(a) F > Cl > Br > I (b) F < Cl > Br < I
(c) F < Cl < Br < I (d) F < Cl < Br > I
69. In the manufacture of iron from haematite,
limestone is added to act as :
(a) Flux (b) Slag
(c) A reducing agent (d) An oxidizing agent
70. Which of the following has square planar geometry ?
(a)
- 2
4
] PtCl [ (b)
- 2
4
] NiCl [
(c)
- 2
4
] ZnCl [ (d)
- 2
4
] CoCl [
71. In which of the following conversions,
phosphorus pentachloride is used as the reagent?
(a)
2 2
CH C H =
  ¾® ¾ 
Cl CH CH
2 3
(b)
OH CH CH
2 3
 ¾® ¾ 
Cl CH CH
2 3
(c)
3 3
CH O C H - -
 ¾® ¾ 
Cl CH
3
(d) CH º CH  ¾® ¾ 
2
CH = CHCl
72. Match List I (Reaction) with List II (Reagent)
and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Etard reaction A. Alcoholic KOH
II. Hydroxylation B . Anhydrous AlCl
3
III. Dehydro- C . Chromyl chloride
halogenation
I V . Friedel-Crafts D. Dilute alkaline
reaction KMnO
4
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1. What is the BITSAT exam?
Ans. The BITSAT exam stands for Birla Institute of Technology and Science Admission Test. It is a computer-based entrance exam conducted by BITS Pilani for admission to its undergraduate engineering programs.
2. How can I apply for the BITSAT exam?
Ans. To apply for the BITSAT exam, candidates need to visit the official website of BITS Pilani and fill out the online application form. The application form includes personal details, educational qualifications, and preferred exam centers. Candidates also need to pay the application fee online.
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Ans. The BITSAT exam consists of four sections: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, and English Proficiency & Logical Reasoning. The exam is conducted in online mode and has a total of 150 multiple-choice questions. Each correct answer carries 3 marks, while each incorrect answer deducts 1 mark.
4. What is the eligibility criteria for BITSAT?
Ans. To be eligible for the BITSAT exam, candidates must have passed their 10+2 examination from a recognized board with Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics as compulsory subjects. They should also have scored a minimum aggregate of 75% marks in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Additionally, candidates should have proficiency in English.
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Ans. Yes, there is negative marking in the BITSAT exam. For each incorrect answer, 1 mark is deducted from the total score. However, no marks are deducted for unanswered questions. It is advisable for candidates to attempt only those questions they are confident about to avoid unnecessary negative marking.
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