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Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 PDF Download

SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 087)
CLASS X – SESSION 2019-20
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
i. The question paper has 35 questions in all.
ii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii. Questions from serial number 1 to 20 are objective type questions. Each question carries one mark. Answer them as instructed.
iv. Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
v. Questions from serial number 29 to 34 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
vi. Question number 35 is a map question of 6 marks with two parts - 35 a. from History (2 marks) and 35b. from Geography (4 marks).

SECTION – A VERY SHORT ANS. QUESTIONS 

Q.1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in the year    (1 Mark)
(a) 1931

(b) 1935
(c) 1942
(d) 1919
Ans: 
(a) 1931

Q.2. Which one of the following types of government was Functioning in France before the Revolution of 1789?    (1 Mark)
(a) Dictatorship

(b) Military
(c) Body of French citizens
(d) Monarchy
Ans:
(d) Monarchy

Q.3. Which materials are required by the cement industry?    (1 Mark)
Ans:
The cement industry requires bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum.

Q.4.  ___________wrote about the injustices of the caste system in Gulamgiri.    (1 Mark)
Ans:
Jyotiba Phule.

Q.5. Which was the most powerful weapon used by the Spain to conquer America?    (1 Mark)
Ans: 
Smallpox was the most powerful weapon used by the Spain to conquer America.

Q.6. Which regions of India have well developed terrace farming?
OR
Which soil type is made up of lava flows?    (1 Mark)
Ans: 
Western and Central Himalayas.
OR
Black soil.

Q.7. Who published newspaper entitled ‘Kesar'?    (1 Mark)
(a) Dada Bhai Nauroji
(b) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(c) Bal Gangaclhar Tilak
(d) Motilal Nehru
Ans:
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.8. Look at the given picture carefully and answer the questions that follow:    (1 Mark)
(i) Name the crop shown in the picture.
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10
(ii) State the rainfall required for the cultivation of this crop.
Ans:
(i) Wheat
(ii) 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall.

Q.9. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:    (1 Mark)
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10
Which of the following aspect best signifies this image of London in 1851?    (1 Mark)
(a) Slaves for trade
(b) People Searching for work
(c) People waiting outside a ration shop
(d) People celebrating some festivity
Ans:
(a) Slaves for trade

Q.10. Why was States Reorganisation Commission formed?
OR
Any one country which follows homing together' style of federalism.    (1 Mark)
Ans: 
It was formed in 1954 to recommend creation of states on the linguistic basis.
OR
USA, Switzerland and Australia

Q.11. Who enjoys residuary powers in India?    (1 Mark)
(a) Central govt.
(b) State govt.
(c) Local govt.
(d) None of the above.
Ans:
(a) Central govt.

Q.12.  A government that is attentive to the needs and demands of the people is termed as________.    (1 Mark)
Ans: 
Responsive government

Q.13. Democratic form of government is considered favourable in many countries in the world because________.    (1 Mark)
OR
Non-Pemocratic form of government is unpopular in many countries because________.
Ans:
Transparency and responsibility are present in this government.
OR
Transparency and responsibility are absent in this government.

Q.14. According to per capita income prepared by the World Bank in 2004, in which category is India included?    (1 Mark)
(a) Rich countries
(b) Middle income countries
(c) low income countries
(d) None of the above
Ans: 
(c) low income countries

Q.15. ________ is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India.    (1 Mark)
Ans: Rice

Q.16. Under the scheme, all those who are able to, and are in need of, work are guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year by the government. Identify the scheme.    (1 Mark)
Ans: MGNREGA 2005.

Q.17. Study the picture and answer the question that follows:    (1 Mark)
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10
Which of the following options best signifies this cartoon?
(a) Demand for a separate state from democratic government.
(b) Democratic government accepts demands based on separate state.
(c) States placed for more powers.
(d) Running a coalition government.
Ans: 
(c) States placed for more powers.

Q.18. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:    (1 Mark)
(i) Transporting flowers to the vendors.
(ii) Plucking flowers from the plants
(iii) Selling garlands at the shops
(iv) Making garlands with flowers
Options:
(a) (ii) - (iv) - (i) - (iii)
(b) (ii) - (i) - (iv) - (iii)
(c) (i) - (ii) - (iii) - (iv)
(d) (iii) - (i) - (ii) - (iv)
Ans:
  (a) (ii) - (i) - (iv) - (iii)

Q.19. Gold is a non-ferrous metallic mineral.    (1 Mark)
Ans:
False.

Q.20. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government on foreign trade and foreign investment is known as _________ .    (1 Mark)
Ans:
Liberalization.

SECTION – B SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS 

Q.21. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Source A : The idea of Satyagraha
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915. As you know, he had come from South Africa where he had successfully fought the racist regime with a novel method of mass agitation, which he called Satyagraha. The idea of Satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth. It suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor.
Source B : The Rowlatt Act
Emboldened with this success, Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919). This Act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite the united opposition of the Indian members. It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violence civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which would start with a hartal on 6 April.
Source C : Why Non-Cooperation?
In his famous book 'Hind Swaraj (1909)' Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year and Swaraj would come.
How could non-cooperation become a movement? Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages. It should begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded and a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools and foreign goods.
Then, in case the government used repression, a full Civil Disobedience Campaign would be launched. Through the summer of 1920, Mahatma Gandhi and Shaukat Ali toured extensively, mobilising popular support for the movement.
Questions
(a) What do you understand by 'The Idea of Satyagraha'
(b) Why did Gandhiji oppose 'the Rowlatt Act'?
(c) How could non-cooperation become a movement?    (3 Mark)
Ans: 
(a) Satyagraha is a method of a gitation and protest based on truth and non-violence. It was first introduced by Mahatma Gandhi as the National Movement. The method was passive resistance, consisting of defiance of laws, non-payment of taxes, boycott of government institutions, etc.
(b) Gandhiji opposed to the Rowlatt Act because it was passed hurriedly through the Imperial Legislative Council, despite the united opposition of the Indian members. This act gave the British government enormous powers to repress political activities. According to this law, political prisoners could be detained in prison without trial for two years.
(c) The non-cooperation became a movement when people started to surrender their titles that the government awarded to them and they also boycotted civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools and foreign goods.

Q.22. How had the earliest printing technology developed in the world? Explain with examples.
OR
What was an Accordian Book? Describe any two features of hand printing in China.    (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) The earliest kind of print technology was developed in China/Japan and Korea. In China woodblocks were used for hand printing.
(ii) Up to the 6th century print was used only by the scholar officials but later it became common.
(iii) The Buddhist missionaries introduced hand printing technology from China to Japan.
(iv) It was Marco Polo, a great explorer, who brought printing knowledge of woodblock from China to Italy.
(v) The invention of the printing press proved great miracle in spreading knowledge.
OR
Accordion Book'is a traditional Chinese book, folded and stitched at the side.
(i) Chinese Accordion Books were hand printed. They were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of wooden blocks.
(ii) As both sides of the thin, porous sheet would not be printed, the traditional Chinese 'Accordion Book' was folded and stitched at the side.
(iii) These Accordion Books could be duplicated by superbly-skilled craftsmen with remarkable accuracy and the beauty of calligraphy.

Q.23. Imagine if oil supplies get exhausted, how will this affect our life-style?    (3 Mark)
Ans: (i) If oil supplies get exhausted, the world would come to a halt. People would end up living wherever they were. There will be no more planes, operating boats and trains.
(ii) Pricing for any transportation would be out of reach but for the richest for a limited period.
(iii) We would be limited to existing supplies of coal, natural gas etc.
(iv) A lot of jobs would be lost because many factories, restaurants etc. would be shut down.
(v) Many would leave cities to live in rural areas.
(vi) Cities would become ghost towns. There may be killing in order to control the necessaiy things needed for survival in the world. We would not only lose our life style but lose contact with the whole world.
However, as the scientists are doing research to find out alternative source of energy, it is hoped that they would be successful in their efforts. They may be able to use solar or wind energy in place of petroleum products and in that case, if the oil supplies get exhausted, it would not make any difference in our lives. Perhaps, life would become better in future.

Q.24. ‘Most federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its constituent units.’ Is it true for India? Explain.    (3 Mark)
Ans: 
Yes, the above statement is true for India.
(i) All states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers. Some states enjoy a special status. Jammu and Kashmir tras its own Constitution. Many provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to this state without the permission of the state assembly. Indians who are not permanent residents of this state cannot buy land or house here.
(ii) Similar special provisions exist for Assam and the hill states of North-East India.
(iii) There are some units of Indian Union which enjoy very little power. These are areas which are too small to become an independent state but which could not be merged with any of the existing states. These areas, like Chandigarh, or Lakshadweep or the capital city of Delhi, Eire called the Union Territories. These territories do not have the powers of a state. The central government has special powers in running these areas.

Q.25. What role can citizens play in strengthening democracy?
OR
What conditions make democratic government as the responsive government?    (3 Mark)
Ans:
Citizens can play a decisive and crucial role in strengthening democracy in the following ways:
(i) They can choose the right and honest people to form and run the government.
(ii) They can actively participate in the governance of the country and the decision-making process. They can keep themselves aware of the current issues and help the government to maintain peace.
(iii) They should exercise their rights and carry out their duties. People can put pressure on political parties and this can be done through petitions, publicity and agitations. If political parties feel that they would lose public support by not taking up reforms, they will become more serious about reforms.
OR
The following conditions make democratic government as responsive government:
(i) In democracy, people have the right to choose their rulers and people have control over their rulers.
(ii) In democracy, citizens have the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making.
(iii) They have the right to participate in decision-making which affects them all. This factor is often missing from a non-democratic government. Thus, the most basic outcome of democracy is that it produces a government that is accountable to the needs of citizens and also democracy is responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. For example, in democracy, the government is taking more time to take a decision about any subject to protect the interest of the citizens.

Q.26. Define Feminist Movements. Write their main objective.    (3 Mark)
Ans:
Definition of Feminist Movements:
Agitations or movements demanding enhancement in the political and legal status of women and improving their education and career opportunities are called Feminist Movement.
Main objective:
The main objective of the Feminist Movement is to attain equality among men and women.

Q.27. Manav needs a loan to set up a small business. On what basis will Manav decide whether to borrow from the bank or the moneylender? Discuss.    (3 Mark)
Ans:
Manav will decide to borrow from the bank or the moneylender on the following basis:
(i) Rate of interest.
(ii) Terms for repayment of loan.
(iii) Other conditions such as collateral.
Wherever the above conditions favour him or are more satisfactory, he will take loan from them accordingly. Generally, in India, the terms and conditions that are offered in the formal sector i.e., the banks and cooperatives are better than the informal sector i.e., moneylenders who charge much higher rate of interest.

Q.28. “The Indian government, after independence, has put many such barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment.” Why was this considered necessary? Explain with three reasons.    (3 Mark)
Ans:
(i) To protect the producers within the country from foreign competition: Industries were just coming up in the 1950s and the 1960s and competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed these industries to come up. Thus, India allowed imports of only essential items such as machinery, fertilisers, etc.
(ii) To establish basic industries: Some restrictions were levied to provide boost to basic; industries like iron and steel, coal, etc.
Around 1991, government felt that it was the proper time for Indian producers to face competition and improve quality of products in comparison to foreign producers.
(iii) To check flow of goods: Governments can use trade barriers to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kinds of goods and how much of each, should come into the country.

SECTION – C LONG ANS. QUESTIONS 

Q.29. Summarise the attributes of a nation, as Ernest Renan understands them. Why in his views, nation are important?    (5 Mark)
Ans:
Ernest Renan was a French philosopher who outlined the attributes of a nation as follows:
(i) A nation is not formed by a common language, race, religion or torritory.
(ii) To form a nation, social capital, common glories, deeds of the past and common will are necessary. A nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion.
(iii) Nation is a large scale solidarity, its existence is a daily plebiscite and its inhabitants have the right to be consulted.
(iv) The existence of a nation is not only a good thing, but also a necessity.
(v) A nation has never any real interest in annexing or holding on to a country against its will.
According to Renan, "Nation is important because existence of the nation is a guarantee of liberty. Liberty would be lost if the world had only one law and only one master."

Q.30. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
Cotton, jute , silk, woollen textile, sugar and edible oil, etc. industries are based on agricultural raw materials. As on 30 November 2011, there were 1946 cotton and human-made fibre textile mills in the country. About 80 per cent of these are in the private sector and the rest in the public and cooperative sectors. Apart from these, there are several thousand small factories with four to ten looms. In the early years, the cotton textile industry was concentrated in the cotton growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat. Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, labour, moist climate, etc. contributed towards its localisation. This industry has close links with agriculture and provides a living to farmers, cotton boll pluckers and workers engaged in ginning, spinning, weaving, dyeing, designing, packaging, tailoring and sewing. The industry by creating demands supports many other industries, such as, Parchemicals and dyes, mill stores, packaging materials and engineering works.
(1) Define agro-based industries.
(2) Explain any two factors which were responsible for the concentration of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra and Gujarat in early years.
(3) Which other industries are supported by the cotton textile industry? Name any four of them.    (5 Mark)
Ans:
(1) Industries which use agricultural products as raw materials are known as agro-based industries, e.g., cotton textile industry.
(2) (i) Availability of raw cotton.
(ii) Proximity to market
(iii) Transport and port facilities
(iv) Cheap labour
(v) Moist climate
(3) Other industries which are supported by this industry are
(i) Chemical and dyes
(ii) Mill stores
(iii) Packaging materials
(iv) Engineering works.

Q.31. Name the two major fibre crops grown in India. Describe the conditions required for growth of these two crops with their growing areas.
OR
Why do industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand? Explain.    (5 Mark)
Ans:
(a) Cotton and jute are two major fibre crops.
(b) Cotton : (i) It requires high temperature.
(ii) It requires light rainfall or irrigation.
(iii) It needs 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine for its growth.
(iv) It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature.
(v) Major cotton producing states are Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Jute: (1) Jute is known as the 'golden fibre’.
(2) Geographical conditions essential for the cultivation of jute are as mentioned below:
(i) Soil: It requires well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
(ii) Temperature: High temperature is needed during the time of growth.
(iii) Jute producing states: West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Orissa and Meghalaya.
OR
Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand because sometimes industries are set up in or near the cities. The reasons for this are as mentioned below:
(i) Industries need different types of services such as labour, banking, transport, insurance and financial consultants. Such services are available in cities.
(ii) In cities the manufactured products are sold. They become markets for these products and people are able to buy them according to their requirements.
(iii) Availability of products attracts people from other parts to settle there. Thus, industrialisation leads to urbanisation.
(iv) Sometimes many industries are set up together to make use of the advantage offered by the urban centres known as agglomeration economies. Gradually a large industrial agglomeration takes place.
Thus, it is correct to state that the industries are located in or near the cities.

Q.32. How do the physiographic and economic factors influence the distribution pattern of the Indian railway network? Explain with suitable examples.
OR
“Pipeline transport network is on the increase these days.” Give five arguments in favour of this statement.    (5 Mark)
Ans:
(i) Difficult terrain: The mountainous regions have less concentration of the railway network because of the high cost of construction.
(ii) Levelled surface: Most of the levelled plains have dense network of railway. So flood plains of Bihar and Assam have very few railway lines.
(iii) Industrial and Agricultural development: Regions with greater industrial and agricultural activities favour the development of a dense railway network.
(iv) Trade: Regions with high trade activities favour the development of a dense network of railways because the railways help in transporting products from one region to another.
(v) Availability of minerals: The Chota Nagpur plateau region has a good density of rail track because of the presence of large volume of minerals.
OR
(i) Transportation through pipelines rules out delay and transportation losses. Many fertilizer plants and thermal power stations are benefiting by the supply of gas through pipelines.
(ii) Though the initial cost of laying pipelines is high, but the running cost is very low.
(iii) It maintains a continuous supply of gas and oil.
(iv) The pipes can be laid through difficult terrains as well as under the sea.
(v) The far inland locations of important refineries like Barauni, Mathura, Panipat, etc. could be thought of only because of the pipelines.

Q.33. Why are better public facilities needed for the development of the country? Explain any four public facilities.
OR
Elucidate the significance of secondary sector in Indian economy.    (5 Mark)
Ans: 
Public facilities are the facilities provided by the government either free of cost or at very low price for the welfare of the people like schools, health centres, public transports, etc. The importance of these facilities is to make these available for everyone to use. Four major facilities are as follows:
(i) Basic Education Government provides schools and other educational facilities like chairs, books etc to be used by the public. But, their use and performance are depended on collective response and community cooperation.
(ii) Basic Health Facilities Government provides hospitals and vaccine programmes to maintain proper health.
(iii) Law and Order Facility/Security It is the duty of the government to ensure law and order and provide security In order to maintain peace In the country.
(iv) Provide Public Distribution System (PDS) Government opens PDS shops or ration shops through which it supplies basic food items like rice, wheat, pulses, etc at very low price/subsidised rate to the lower income group or poor people.
Other facilities are infrastructure facilities like road, irrigation projects, drinking water supplies in urban areas, etc.
OR
The significance of secondary sector in Indian economy is as follows:
(i) Secondary sector involves the industrial production. Industrial activities utilise the materials produced in the primary sector.
(ii) In the process, it creates massive employment of various scales. It also induces service sector like transport, market, etc to flourish.
(iii) As all the sectors of economy are interdependent, secondary sector has a great contribution for the sustainance and growth of other sectors.
(iv) Secondary sector induces growth and productivity to primary sector and helps in Nourishment of tertiary sector. It produces instruments and appliances that directly help primary sector for better production.
(v) It absorbs excess labour from the primary sector and reduces disguised unemployment.
(vi) It also contributes significantly to the GDP of India and employment basket.

Q.34. Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian economy with examples.    (5 Mark)
Ans:
Impact of globalization on Indian economy:
(i) Higher standard of living in urban areas.
(ii) The impact has not been uniform among producers and workers.
(iii) There is the greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy the improved quality and lower prices for several products.
(iv) MNCs have increased their investments in India leading to more job opportunities.
(v) Globalization has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs themselves like Tata " Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian Paints, etc.
(vi) Globalization has also created new opportunities for companies providing services particularly those involving IT (Information: Technology). For example, the Indian company producing a magazine for the London based company and call centres.
(vii) Local companies supply raw materials to foreign industries and have prospered. However, for a large number of producers and workers, globalisation has posed major challenges.

MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION 

Q.35. (a) On the given political outline map of India, mark and locate the following:    (2 Mark)
(i) The place where December 1920 National Congress session held. 
(ii) The place where Movement of Indigo Planters took place.
(b) On the same outline map of India identify/any four of the following with suitable symbols:    (4 Mark)
(i) Cotton textile centre in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Iron and steel plant in Chhattisgarh.
(iii) A major port in Goa.
(iv) A thermal Power Plant.
(v) A major tea producing state.
(vi) A dam.
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10
Ans: The answer map is given below :
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 

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FAQs on Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 3 - CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10

1. What is the importance of CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science?
Ans. CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science are important as they help students to understand the exam pattern, marking scheme, and the types of questions that can be asked in the actual exam. These papers allow students to practice and assess their knowledge and exam preparation. They provide a clear idea of the expected format and structure of the exam, helping students to perform better.
2. How can CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science be used effectively for exam preparation?
Ans. CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science can be used effectively for exam preparation by solving them within the specified time limit. Students should treat these papers as mock tests and attempt them with full concentration. After solving the papers, students should evaluate their answers and identify their strengths and weaknesses. This will help them focus on areas that need improvement and develop effective exam strategies.
3. Are the CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science similar to the actual exam question paper?
Ans. The CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science are designed to be similar to the actual exam question paper in terms of the format, marking scheme, and types of questions. However, the actual exam paper may have some variations in terms of specific content and difficulty level. The sample papers serve as a guideline and give students a fair idea of what to expect in the actual exam.
4. How can students utilize the CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science to improve their time management skills?
Ans. Students can utilize the CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science to improve their time management skills by practicing solving the papers within the given time limit. They should set a timer and attempt to complete the paper within the allocated time. This exercise will help them become familiar with the actual exam duration and train their minds to work efficiently under time constraints.
5. Are the CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science available online?
Ans. Yes, the CBSE sample question papers for Class 10 Social Science are available online. Students can access them on the official website of CBSE or various educational websites. These papers can be downloaded and printed for offline practice. Additionally, some websites also provide solutions or answer keys to the sample papers, which can be used for self-evaluation and improvement.
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