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Page 1 Sample Question Paper Class XII 044 Biology (2024-25) Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours General Instructions: (i) All questions are compulsory. (ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. (iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each. (iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions. (v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn. Section – A Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions. Q. No Question Mark s 1 Signals for parturition in human female originate from A. Fully developed foetus only B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus C. Placenta only D. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 1 2 To produce 1600 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be A. 2400 B. 2000 C. 1600 D. 1800 1 3 A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have thymine content of 27%. What will be the expected proportion of guanine in this strand? A. 23% B. 32% C. 36% D. 73% 1 Page 2 Sample Question Paper Class XII 044 Biology (2024-25) Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours General Instructions: (i) All questions are compulsory. (ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. (iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each. (iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions. (v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn. Section – A Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions. Q. No Question Mark s 1 Signals for parturition in human female originate from A. Fully developed foetus only B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus C. Placenta only D. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 1 2 To produce 1600 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be A. 2400 B. 2000 C. 1600 D. 1800 1 3 A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have thymine content of 27%. What will be the expected proportion of guanine in this strand? A. 23% B. 32% C. 36% D. 73% 1 4 Observe the schematic diagram that depicts a small section of nucleic acid. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds that are shown by the dark lines. Identify the correct sequence of nucleotide in the 5’-3’ direction. A. GCAT B. CGTA C. TAGC D. ATCG - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - For Visual Impaired Students E. coli has 4.6 X 10 6 base pairs and completes the process of replication in 18 minutes, then the average rate of polymerization is approximately A. 2000 bp/s B. 4000 bp/s C. 3000 bp/s D. 1000 bp/s 1 5 Suresh and Rajesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. In Suresh, the problem is qualitative as he is having incorrectly functioning globin molecules while in Rajesh the problem is quantitative as he is having very few globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are suffering from. Suresh Rajesh A Thalassemia - Autosomal Dominant blood disorder Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Recessive trait B Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Dominant trait Thalassemia - Autosomal Recessive blood disorder C Sickle Cell Anaemia – Autosomal linked Recessive trait Thalassemia – Autosomal Recessive blood disorder D Thalassemia - Autosomal Dominant blood disorder Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Dominant trait 1 Page 3 Sample Question Paper Class XII 044 Biology (2024-25) Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours General Instructions: (i) All questions are compulsory. (ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. (iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each. (iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions. (v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn. Section – A Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions. Q. No Question Mark s 1 Signals for parturition in human female originate from A. Fully developed foetus only B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus C. Placenta only D. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 1 2 To produce 1600 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be A. 2400 B. 2000 C. 1600 D. 1800 1 3 A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have thymine content of 27%. What will be the expected proportion of guanine in this strand? A. 23% B. 32% C. 36% D. 73% 1 4 Observe the schematic diagram that depicts a small section of nucleic acid. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds that are shown by the dark lines. Identify the correct sequence of nucleotide in the 5’-3’ direction. A. GCAT B. CGTA C. TAGC D. ATCG - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - For Visual Impaired Students E. coli has 4.6 X 10 6 base pairs and completes the process of replication in 18 minutes, then the average rate of polymerization is approximately A. 2000 bp/s B. 4000 bp/s C. 3000 bp/s D. 1000 bp/s 1 5 Suresh and Rajesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. In Suresh, the problem is qualitative as he is having incorrectly functioning globin molecules while in Rajesh the problem is quantitative as he is having very few globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are suffering from. Suresh Rajesh A Thalassemia - Autosomal Dominant blood disorder Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Recessive trait B Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Dominant trait Thalassemia - Autosomal Recessive blood disorder C Sickle Cell Anaemia – Autosomal linked Recessive trait Thalassemia – Autosomal Recessive blood disorder D Thalassemia - Autosomal Dominant blood disorder Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Dominant trait 1 6 In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is A. present in the medium and it binds to the repressor. B. not present in the medium and the repressor binds to the operator. C. not present in the medium and RNA polymerase binds to the operator. D. Active lactose present in the medium binds to RNA polymerase. 1 7 Which of the following features shows the mechanism of sex determination in honey-bee? (i) An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops as a female. (ii) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female. (iii) The males are haploid having 32 chromosomes. (iv) All workers and males are diploid having 16 chromosomes A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (i) and (iv) D. (ii) and (iv) 1 8 The following diagram shows a fragment of DNA which is going to be transcribed, the upper strand with polarity 3’ to 5’ is the template strand: 3´ ATTGCC 5´ 5´ TAACGG 3´ After transcription the mRNA can be represented by: A. 5´ AUUGCC 3´ B. 5´ AUUGCC 3’ C. 5´ UAACGG 3´ D. 5´ GGCAAU 3´ 1 9 Idli – dosa dough rises due to production of which of the following gas? A. CO B. CO2 C. NO D. NO2 1 10 Adaptive radiation leads to which of the following? A. Increased competition among species B. Decreased speciation rates C. Limited morphological diversity among species D. Rapid divergence of traits among populations inhabiting a given geographical area. 1 Page 4 Sample Question Paper Class XII 044 Biology (2024-25) Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours General Instructions: (i) All questions are compulsory. (ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. (iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each. (iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions. (v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn. Section – A Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions. Q. No Question Mark s 1 Signals for parturition in human female originate from A. Fully developed foetus only B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus C. Placenta only D. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 1 2 To produce 1600 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be A. 2400 B. 2000 C. 1600 D. 1800 1 3 A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have thymine content of 27%. What will be the expected proportion of guanine in this strand? A. 23% B. 32% C. 36% D. 73% 1 4 Observe the schematic diagram that depicts a small section of nucleic acid. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds that are shown by the dark lines. Identify the correct sequence of nucleotide in the 5’-3’ direction. A. GCAT B. CGTA C. TAGC D. ATCG - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - For Visual Impaired Students E. coli has 4.6 X 10 6 base pairs and completes the process of replication in 18 minutes, then the average rate of polymerization is approximately A. 2000 bp/s B. 4000 bp/s C. 3000 bp/s D. 1000 bp/s 1 5 Suresh and Rajesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. In Suresh, the problem is qualitative as he is having incorrectly functioning globin molecules while in Rajesh the problem is quantitative as he is having very few globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are suffering from. Suresh Rajesh A Thalassemia - Autosomal Dominant blood disorder Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Recessive trait B Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Dominant trait Thalassemia - Autosomal Recessive blood disorder C Sickle Cell Anaemia – Autosomal linked Recessive trait Thalassemia – Autosomal Recessive blood disorder D Thalassemia - Autosomal Dominant blood disorder Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Dominant trait 1 6 In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is A. present in the medium and it binds to the repressor. B. not present in the medium and the repressor binds to the operator. C. not present in the medium and RNA polymerase binds to the operator. D. Active lactose present in the medium binds to RNA polymerase. 1 7 Which of the following features shows the mechanism of sex determination in honey-bee? (i) An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops as a female. (ii) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female. (iii) The males are haploid having 32 chromosomes. (iv) All workers and males are diploid having 16 chromosomes A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (i) and (iv) D. (ii) and (iv) 1 8 The following diagram shows a fragment of DNA which is going to be transcribed, the upper strand with polarity 3’ to 5’ is the template strand: 3´ ATTGCC 5´ 5´ TAACGG 3´ After transcription the mRNA can be represented by: A. 5´ AUUGCC 3´ B. 5´ AUUGCC 3’ C. 5´ UAACGG 3´ D. 5´ GGCAAU 3´ 1 9 Idli – dosa dough rises due to production of which of the following gas? A. CO B. CO2 C. NO D. NO2 1 10 Adaptive radiation leads to which of the following? A. Increased competition among species B. Decreased speciation rates C. Limited morphological diversity among species D. Rapid divergence of traits among populations inhabiting a given geographical area. 1 11 Eco R1 cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the sequence of GAATTC is present. The number of nucleotides present in the resultant sticky ends that will be formed in each of the two strands of DNA after this enzyme cuts the DNA will be: Vector DNA Foreign DNA A. 1 & 5 5 &1 B. 2 & 4 4 &2 C. 2 & 5 5 & 2 D. 3 & 4 4 & 3 1 12 During the secondary treatment of sewage, which of the following change in the effluent occur due to flocs? A. Reduction in BOD B. Increase in BOD C. Decrease in DO D. No change in DO or BOD 1 Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is False but R is true. 13 Assertion (A): Cells of tapetum have more than one nucleus. Reason (R): They undergo meiosis without cytokinesis. 1 14 Assertion (A): Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes. Reason (R): They act as proof readers and provide energy. 1 15 Assertion (A): A floating cover placed over the slurry in a biogas plant keeps on rising. Reason (R): This cover keeps on rising due to the gas produced in the tank by the microbial activity. 1 16 Assertion (A): DNA fragments can be isolated by Gel electrophoresis on the basis of their size. Reason (R): The larger the fragment size, the faster it moves. 1 Section - B 17 Attempt either option A or B. A. (i) A blood test reported negative for hCG. What does negative hCG imply? Name the tissue which produces hCG? 2 Page 5 Sample Question Paper Class XII 044 Biology (2024-25) Maximum Marks: 70 Time: 3 hours General Instructions: (i) All questions are compulsory. (ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. (iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each. (iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions. (v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn. Section – A Q. No. 1 to 12 are multiple choice questions. Only one of the choices is correct. Select and write the correct choice as well as the answer to these questions. Q. No Question Mark s 1 Signals for parturition in human female originate from A. Fully developed foetus only B. Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus C. Placenta only D. Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 1 2 To produce 1600 seeds, the number of meiotic divisions required will be A. 2400 B. 2000 C. 1600 D. 1800 1 3 A sample of normal double-stranded DNA was found to have thymine content of 27%. What will be the expected proportion of guanine in this strand? A. 23% B. 32% C. 36% D. 73% 1 4 Observe the schematic diagram that depicts a small section of nucleic acid. The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bonds that are shown by the dark lines. Identify the correct sequence of nucleotide in the 5’-3’ direction. A. GCAT B. CGTA C. TAGC D. ATCG - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - For Visual Impaired Students E. coli has 4.6 X 10 6 base pairs and completes the process of replication in 18 minutes, then the average rate of polymerization is approximately A. 2000 bp/s B. 4000 bp/s C. 3000 bp/s D. 1000 bp/s 1 5 Suresh and Rajesh have defective haemoglobin due to genetic disorders. In Suresh, the problem is qualitative as he is having incorrectly functioning globin molecules while in Rajesh the problem is quantitative as he is having very few globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are suffering from. Suresh Rajesh A Thalassemia - Autosomal Dominant blood disorder Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Recessive trait B Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Dominant trait Thalassemia - Autosomal Recessive blood disorder C Sickle Cell Anaemia – Autosomal linked Recessive trait Thalassemia – Autosomal Recessive blood disorder D Thalassemia - Autosomal Dominant blood disorder Sickle Cell Anaemia - Autosomal linked Dominant trait 1 6 In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when lactose is A. present in the medium and it binds to the repressor. B. not present in the medium and the repressor binds to the operator. C. not present in the medium and RNA polymerase binds to the operator. D. Active lactose present in the medium binds to RNA polymerase. 1 7 Which of the following features shows the mechanism of sex determination in honey-bee? (i) An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and egg develops as a female. (ii) Males have half the number of chromosomes than that of female. (iii) The males are haploid having 32 chromosomes. (iv) All workers and males are diploid having 16 chromosomes A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iii) C. (i) and (iv) D. (ii) and (iv) 1 8 The following diagram shows a fragment of DNA which is going to be transcribed, the upper strand with polarity 3’ to 5’ is the template strand: 3´ ATTGCC 5´ 5´ TAACGG 3´ After transcription the mRNA can be represented by: A. 5´ AUUGCC 3´ B. 5´ AUUGCC 3’ C. 5´ UAACGG 3´ D. 5´ GGCAAU 3´ 1 9 Idli – dosa dough rises due to production of which of the following gas? A. CO B. CO2 C. NO D. NO2 1 10 Adaptive radiation leads to which of the following? A. Increased competition among species B. Decreased speciation rates C. Limited morphological diversity among species D. Rapid divergence of traits among populations inhabiting a given geographical area. 1 11 Eco R1 cuts the DNA between bases G and A only when the sequence of GAATTC is present. The number of nucleotides present in the resultant sticky ends that will be formed in each of the two strands of DNA after this enzyme cuts the DNA will be: Vector DNA Foreign DNA A. 1 & 5 5 &1 B. 2 & 4 4 &2 C. 2 & 5 5 & 2 D. 3 & 4 4 & 3 1 12 During the secondary treatment of sewage, which of the following change in the effluent occur due to flocs? A. Reduction in BOD B. Increase in BOD C. Decrease in DO D. No change in DO or BOD 1 Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is False but R is true. 13 Assertion (A): Cells of tapetum have more than one nucleus. Reason (R): They undergo meiosis without cytokinesis. 1 14 Assertion (A): Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes. Reason (R): They act as proof readers and provide energy. 1 15 Assertion (A): A floating cover placed over the slurry in a biogas plant keeps on rising. Reason (R): This cover keeps on rising due to the gas produced in the tank by the microbial activity. 1 16 Assertion (A): DNA fragments can be isolated by Gel electrophoresis on the basis of their size. Reason (R): The larger the fragment size, the faster it moves. 1 Section - B 17 Attempt either option A or B. A. (i) A blood test reported negative for hCG. What does negative hCG imply? Name the tissue which produces hCG? 2 (ii) If a blood test reported positive for hCG in a person, then which other hormones would also be secreted by the tissue secreting hCG? OR B. (i) The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperm during a coitus, however the ovum is fertilized by only one sperm. How does the ovum block the entry of additional sperms? (ii) All copulations will not lead to fertilization. Why? 18 Attempt either option A or B. A. The schematic representation given below shows a DNA strand and two types of mutations in the DNA strand. (i) Identify the type of mutation exhibited in I and II. (ii) Which of the above mutation is more harmful? Give reason. OR B. Given below is a schematic representation of a mRNA strand (i) In the above sequence identify the translational unit in mRNA. (ii) Where are UTRs found and what is their significance? 2Read More
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Document Description: Class 12 Biology: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2024-25) for Class 12 2024 is part of Sample Papers for Class 12 Medical and Non-Medical preparation.
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