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GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

General Awareness

Q1: Eri silk is considered one of the purest types of silk. Which plant's leaves does the silk-worm that produces Eri silk consume?
(a) Banana plant
(b) Castor plant
(c) Mustard plant
(d) Cotton plant

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Ans: (b)

  • The silk-worm that creates Eri silk primarily feeds on the leaves of the Castor plant.
  • This type of silk is known for its purity and is often used in various textiles.
  • The Castor plant is essential for the life cycle of the Eri silk-worm, making it a key component in silk production.
  • Other plants listed do not provide the necessary nutrition for the Eri silk-worm.

Q2: Select the false statement.
(a) A giant squid has twelve arms.
(b) A catfish can taste with its whole body.
(c) Cuttlefish are color blind.
(d) Bats are the only mammals capable of flight.

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Ans: (a)

  • The giant squid actually has eight arms and two longer tentacles, making a total of ten limbs.
  • A catfish is unique because it can taste through its entire body, which helps it find food.
  • Cuttlefish are indeed color blind, which affects how they perceive their environment.
  • Bats are the only mammals that can truly fly, unlike other mammals that can only glide.

Q3: Proboscis monkey is a reddish-brown arboreal Old World monkey that is native to the Southeast Asian island of Borneo. Which of the following is a notable characteristic of a proboscis monkey?
(a) Tail
(b) Nose
(c) Ear
(d) Lip

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Ans: (b)

  • Proboscis monkeys are known for their distinctive large and elongated noses, which is a prominent feature that sets them apart from other monkeys.
  • This unique nose is not just for show; it plays a role in attracting mates and is a key characteristic of the species.
  • While they do have tails, ears, and lips, none of these features are as notable as their nose.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) Nose, highlighting the importance of this feature in identifying proboscis monkeys.

Q4: Which is the largest Ramsar site in India?
(a) Renuka Lake
(b) Chilika Lake
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(d) Sundarban Wetland

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Ans: (d)

  • Sundarban Wetland is recognized as the largest Ramsar site in India.
  • It is a unique ecosystem known for its vast mangrove forests and rich biodiversity.
  • This site plays a crucial role in protecting the coastal areas and supporting various wildlife.
  • Ramsar sites are designated for their importance in conserving wetlands and their ecological significance.

Q5: A rainforest is a vast, thick forest featuring four unique layers. Which layer is situated above the canopy layer?
(a) Forest floor
(b) Emergent
(c) Understorey
(d) Canopy is the uppermost layer.

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Ans: (b)

  • Emergent layer is the one that rises above the canopy layer in a rainforest.
  • The canopy is the uppermost layer where most of the tree branches and leaves are found.
  • Below the canopy, there are layers like the understorey and the forest floor.
  • The emergent layer consists of the tallest trees that reach above the canopy, receiving the most sunlight.

Q6: Bandipur National Park was created as part of Project Tiger in 1973. In which state can it be found?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan

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Ans: (b)

  • Bandipur National Park is a protected area aimed at conserving the tiger population.
  • It was established in 1973 as part of the Project Tiger initiative.
  • This national park is located in the state of Karnataka, which is known for its rich biodiversity.
  • It serves as a crucial habitat for various wildlife species, including tigers, elephants, and many others.

Q7: Which of the following is a primary factor contributing to biomagnification?
(a) Forest fire
(b) Pesticide pollution
(c) Soil degradation
(d) Eutrophication

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Ans: (b)

  • Biomagnification refers to the process where certain substances, like toxins, become more concentrated as they move up the food chain.
  • The major cause of this phenomenon is pesticide pollution, as these chemicals accumulate in the bodies of organisms.
  • When smaller organisms consume these pesticides, they retain them, and when larger predators eat these smaller organisms, the concentration increases.
  • Other options like forest fire, soil degradation, and eutrophication do not directly lead to the accumulation of toxins in the food chain.

Q8: Which of the following medications is known for its ability to reduce fever?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Insulin
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Betadine

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Ans: (c)

  • Paracetamol is widely recognized as an antipyretic, meaning it effectively lowers fever.
  • Ampicillin is an antibiotic, while Insulin is a hormone used to manage blood sugar levels.
  • Betadine is an antiseptic used for cleaning wounds, not for reducing fever.
  • Thus, among the options, Paracetamol is the correct choice for treating fever.

Q9: Which of the following items is produced using petrochemicals?
(a) Plastic
(b) Fertilisers
(c) Detergent
(d) All of these

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Ans: (d)

  • Petrochemicals are chemical products derived from petroleum or natural gas.
  • They are used to manufacture a wide range of products, including plastics, fertilisers, and detergents.
  • Since all the options listed are made from petrochemicals, the correct answer is All of these.
  • This highlights the versatility of petrochemicals in various industries.

Q10: Aqueous solution of which of the following substances does not conduct electricity?
(a) Salt
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Sugar
(d) Baking soda

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is Sugar. Unlike salt and sulphuric acid, which dissociate into ions in water and allow electricity to flow, sugar does not break down into ions.
  • When sugar dissolves in water, it forms a solution, but it remains as whole molecules, which do not conduct electricity.
  • In contrast, substances like caustic soda and sulphuric acid are strong electrolytes and can conduct electricity due to their ion formation.
  • Thus, the only option that does not conduct electricity in an aqueous solution is Sugar.

Q11: The brightest star of the Orion Constellation is situated in the hunter’s leg. What is it called?
(a) Rigel
(b) Alpha Centauri
(c) Sirius
(d) Betelgeuse

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Ans: (a)

  • Rigel is the name of the brightest star in the Orion Constellation, located in the hunter's leg.
  • It is a blue supergiant star, which makes it very luminous and easily visible in the night sky.
  • Other options like Alpha Centauri and Sirius are bright stars, but they belong to different constellations.
  • Understanding constellations helps in identifying stars and their positions in the sky.

Q12: ________ was the spacecraft sent by NASA to study the planet Jupiter and its moons.
(a) Endeavour
(b) Galileo
(c) Messenger
(d) Magellan

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Ans: (b)

  • Galileo was the spacecraft specifically designed for studying Jupiter and its moons.
  • It provided valuable data about the planet's atmosphere, magnetic field, and its largest moons.
  • The mission helped scientists understand more about the Jovian system and its complex dynamics.
  • Other options like Endeavour, Messenger, and Magellan were not focused on Jupiter.

Q13: How many of Saturn's moons can be seen from Earth using a telescope?
(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 9
(d) None

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Ans: (a)

  • Saturn has a total of 82 moons, but only a few can be seen from Earth.
  • Through a telescope, you can observe 7 of these moons clearly.
  • The most notable moons visible include Titan, which is the largest, and several others like Rhea and Iapetus.
  • While some smaller moons may be present, they are not easily visible without a powerful telescope.

Q14: The well-known structure depicted in the image was created by
(a) Farshid Moussavi
(b) Nader Khalili
(c) Fariborz Sahba
(d) Bimal Patel

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Ans: (c)

  • Fariborz Sahba is the architect behind this famous monument, which is recognized for its unique design and cultural significance.
  • The monument showcases innovative architectural techniques and reflects the vision of its creator.
  • Understanding the contributions of different architects helps appreciate the diversity in architectural styles.
  • Each option represents a notable architect, but only Fariborz Sahba is associated with this specific monument.

Q15: The man in the given picture was a mathematician and physicist. The idea of gravity came to him when an apple fell on his head while sitting under an apple tree. Who was this famous scientist?
(a) Sir Isaac Newton
(b) Carl Edward Sagan
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Charles Babbage

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Ans: (a)
In the given picture, the person is Sir Isaac Newton. He came up with his idea of gravity after seeing an apple fall from a tree in the late summer of 1666.

Q16: Inuit are the native people of which region?
(a) Peru
(b) South Africa
(c) Greenland
(d) Belgium

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Ans: (c)

  • The Inuit are indigenous people primarily found in the Arctic regions, particularly in Greenland.
  • They have a rich culture and history that is closely tied to the cold climate and environment of the Arctic.
  • Unlike the other options, which refer to regions in South America and Africa, Greenland is known for its significant Inuit population.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Greenland, where the Inuit have traditionally lived and thrived.

Q17: Which of the following served as the initial capital of Shah Jahan?
(a) Shahjahanabad
(b) Surat
(c) Agra
(d) Srirangapatnam

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Ans: (c)

  • Agra was the first capital established by Shah Jahan before he moved to Shahjahanabad.
  • Shahjahanabad later became famous as the capital of the Mughal Empire.
  • Surat and Srirangapatnam were important cities but not capitals under Shah Jahan.
  • Understanding the historical context helps in recognizing Agra's significance during Shah Jahan's reign.

Q18: This tribe is primarily located in Tamil Nadu and the Palakkad district of Kerala. Recently, they have been involved in catching snakes and collecting snake venom. Additionally, these tribal members work as fishermen and as laborers in rice fields during sowing and harvesting, or in rice mills. Who are they?
(a) Gond
(b) Bhil
(c) Irula
(d) Bhutia

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Ans: (c)

  • Irula is the correct answer as this tribe is known for their unique skills in snake catching and venom collection.
  • They are also involved in fishing and agricultural labor, particularly in rice fields during key farming seasons.
  • Their presence is mainly in the regions of Tamil Nadu and Kerala, highlighting their geographical significance.
  • This tribe plays an important role in both traditional practices and local economies through their diverse activities.

Q19: In which year were the Fundamental Duties incorporated into the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1950
(b) 1957
(c) 1976
(d) 1975

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Ans: (c)

  • The Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment in the year 1976.
  • This amendment was enacted during the Emergency period in India, which lasted from 1975 to 1977.
  • Before this amendment, the Constitution primarily focused on Fundamental Rights.
  • The inclusion of Fundamental Duties aimed to promote a sense of responsibility among citizens towards the nation.

Q20: What does the phrase 'bring to the table' signify?
(a) To be extremely annoyed
(b) To contribute something to a group effort
(c) To give directions to others
(d) To start something new

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Ans: (b)

  • Bring to the table refers to the act of contributing something valuable or useful to a discussion or group effort.
  • This phrase is often used in business or teamwork contexts where individuals are expected to share their ideas or resources.
  • It emphasizes the importance of collaboration and input from all members involved.
  • In contrast, the other options do not capture the essence of contribution that this phrase implies.

Q21: Select the mismatched author and their respective book.
(a) Toni Morrison – The Bluest Eye
(b) J.K. Rowling – The Casual Vacancy
(c) Margaret Atwood – The Handmaid's Tale
(d) Virginia Woolf – To the Lighthouse

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Ans: (c)

  • Margaret Atwood is known for her novel The Handmaid's Tale, not Shirley.
  • Toni Morrison wrote The Bluest Eye, which is correctly matched.
  • J.K. Rowling is the author of The Casual Vacancy, also a correct match.
  • Virginia Woolf indeed wrote To the Lighthouse, making that match correct as well.

Q22: He is an Indian American actor renowned for his roles in the 'Harold & Kumar' comedy films. In 2009, he became part of the Obama Administration as an Associate Director of the White House Office of Public Engagement. Who is he?
(a) Kunal Nayyar
(b) Kal Penn
(c) Jimi Mistry
(d) Riz Ahmed

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Ans: (b)

  • Kal Penn is the correct answer as he is widely recognized for his role in the 'Harold & Kumar' series.
  • In 2009, he took on a significant role in the Obama Administration, showcasing his involvement in public service.
  • This combination of acting and political engagement makes him a notable figure in both entertainment and government.
  • His contributions highlight the intersection of art and public service.

Q23: How many films are there in the Harry Potter series?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 3

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Ans: (b)

  • The Harry Potter series consists of a total of 8 movies. These films are adaptations of the popular book series written by J.K. Rowling.
  • The movies were released between 2001 and 2011, covering all seven books, with the final book split into two films.
  • Each film follows the journey of Harry Potter and his friends as they face various challenges in the wizarding world.
  • Thus, the correct answer is 8, as it represents the total number of films produced in this beloved series.

Q24: Who is recognized as a renowned Kuchipudi dancer?
(a) Rukmini Devi Arundale
(b) Padma Subrahmanyam
(c) Sobha Naidu
(d) Ranjumoni Saikia

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Ans: (c)

  • Sobha Naidu is celebrated for her exceptional skills in the traditional Indian dance form of Kuchipudi.
  • Kuchipudi is known for its expressive storytelling and intricate footwork.
  • While other options like Rukmini Devi Arundale and Padma Subrahmanyam are also prominent figures in Indian classical dance, Sobha Naidu is specifically noted for her contributions to Kuchipudi.
  • Her performances have significantly popularized this dance style both nationally and internationally.

Q25: Who is the owner of the Bengaluru Bulls team, which is part of the Pro Kabaddi League?
(a) Gautam Adani
(b) Abhishek Bachchan
(c) Kosmik Global Media
(d) Suresh Kotak and Family

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Ans: (c)

  • Bengaluru Bulls is a team in the Pro Kabaddi League.
  • The correct owner of this team is Kosmik Global Media.
  • Other options like Gautam Adani and Abhishek Bachchan are not associated with this team.
  • This ownership is significant as it reflects the growing interest in kabaddi in India.

Q26: If ‘M’ represents ‘+’, ‘N’ represents ‘–’, ‘Q’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘P’ represents ‘×’, what is the result of 350 Q 25 M 8 P 12 N 9?
(a) 101
(b) 90
(c) 98
(d) 141

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Ans: (a)

  • First, replace the symbols with their respective operations: 350 ÷ 25 + 8 × 12 - 9.
  • Next, follow the order of operations: division and multiplication first, then addition and subtraction.
  • Calculate 350 ÷ 25 = 14.
  • Then, calculate 8 × 12 = 96.
  • Now, combine these results: 14 + 96 - 9 = 101.
  • Thus, the final answer is 101.

Q27: Identify the following: It is a type of input device. It has a flat surface and it comes with a stylus. It can be used to draw graphics and images onscreen as you draw with a pencil on paper.
(a) OCR
(b) OMR
(c) Digitizer
(d) Both A and C

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Ans: (c)

  • Digitizer is an input device that allows users to create digital drawings and graphics using a stylus on a flat surface.
  • It functions similarly to drawing on paper, making it intuitive for artists and designers.
  • Options A and B refer to other types of input devices: OCR (Optical Character Recognition) and OMR (Optical Mark Recognition), which serve different purposes.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Digitizer, as it specifically matches the description given.

Q28: The Vedic age was between _______
(a) 1500 – 600 BCE
(b) 3000 – 1500 BCE
(c) 1000 – 500 BCE
(d) 4000 – 1500 BCE

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Ans: (a) 
It was between 1500 and 600 BC during the Vedic Age. Following the collapse of the Indus Valley Civilisation around 1400 BC, this is the next significant civilisation to flourish in ancient India. This age got its name since the Vedas were written during this time.

Q29: If 40 individuals can complete a task in 30 hours, how many hours will it take for 15 individuals to finish the same task?
(a) 80
(b) 70
(c) 60
(d) None of these

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Ans: (a)

  • To find out how long it will take for 15 persons to complete the same work, we first calculate the total work done in person-hours.
  • Total work = 40 persons * 30 hours = 1200 person-hours.
  • Now, if 15 persons are working, we can find the time taken by dividing the total work by the number of persons: 1200 person-hours / 15 persons = 80 hours.
  • Thus, it will take 80 hours for 15 persons to complete the work.

Q30: With reference to the Digi Yatra Initiative of the Airports Authority of India, consider the following statements:
1. It is mandatory in nature.
2. NEC Corporation Limited is the implementing agency.
3. It is the country’s first facial recognition technology-based biometric boarding system.
4. For the first phase, it is available at Varanasi, Delhi, Kolkata and Chennai airports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 & 4
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 2, 3 & 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

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Ans: (b)
The Airports Authority of India (AAI) commissioned NEC Corporation Private Limited to construct the country's first face recognition technology-based biometric boarding system.

Current Affairs

Q31: Who is the present Prime Minister of New Zealand?
(a) Chris Hipkins
(b) Anthony Albanese
(c) Jacinda Ardern
(d) None of these

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Ans: (a)

  • Chris Hipkins is the current Prime Minister of New Zealand, having taken office in January 2023.
  • He succeeded Jacinda Ardern, who was the previous Prime Minister.
  • Anthony Albanese is the Prime Minister of Australia, not New Zealand.
  • The option None of these is incorrect as Chris Hipkins is indeed the current Prime Minister.

Q32: What was the central theme for World Book Day 2023?
(a) Indigenous Languages
(b) Read ... So You Never Feel Alone
(c) Share a Story
(d) Promoting Literary Appreciation

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Ans: (a)

  • World Book Day 2023 focused on the importance of Indigenous Languages, highlighting their role in culture and identity.
  • This theme encourages people to appreciate and celebrate the rich diversity of languages around the world.
  • By promoting Indigenous Languages, the event aims to raise awareness about preservation and recognition of these languages.
  • Overall, it emphasizes the significance of language in literature and communication.

Q33: India’s first water-based metro service was inaugurated in __________.
(a) Visakhapatnam
(b) Kochi
(c) Kanpur
(d) Pune

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Ans: (b)

  • The first water-based metro service in India is located in Kochi.
  • This service utilizes boats to provide transportation, making it unique compared to traditional metro systems.
  • Kochi's metro service aims to enhance urban mobility and reduce traffic congestion.
  • It showcases innovation in public transport, utilizing the city's waterways effectively.

Q34: Who holds the position of Chairman of the International Cricket Council (ICC) at present?
(a) Greg Barclay
(b) Roger Binny
(c) Alan Isaac
(d) None of these

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Ans: (a)

  • Greg Barclay is the current Chairman of the ICC, overseeing international cricket governance.
  • The ICC is responsible for organizing major cricket tournaments and setting the rules of the game.
  • His role involves making important decisions that affect cricket globally.
  • Other options like Roger Binny and Alan Isaac are not in the current position, making them incorrect.

Q35: Which country will host the multinational air exercise INIOCHOS-23?
(a) India
(b) Malaysia
(c) Germany
(d) Greece

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Ans: (d)

  • INIOCHOS-23 is a significant multinational air exercise that focuses on enhancing cooperation among various nations.
  • This exercise will be hosted by Greece, showcasing its strategic role in international military collaboration.
  • Participating countries will engage in various air operations, improving their tactical skills and interoperability.
  • Such exercises are crucial for strengthening alliances and ensuring regional security.

Q36: Which initiative has the Indian government initiated to rescue its citizens stuck in Sudan?
(a) Ganga
(b) Kaveri
(c) Sewa
(d) Raahat

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Ans: (b)

  • Kaveri is the name of the operation launched by the Indian government.
  • This operation aims to evacuate Indian citizens who are stranded in Sudan due to ongoing conflicts.
  • The initiative reflects the government's commitment to ensuring the safety and well-being of its citizens abroad.
  • Other options like Ganga, Sewa, and Raahat are not related to this specific evacuation effort.

Q37: Which nation is the venue for the Special Olympics World Games 2023?
(a) Berlin
(b) Greece
(c) China
(d) Uzbekistan

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Ans: (a)

  • The Special Olympics World Games 2023 are being held in Berlin, Germany.
  • This event brings together athletes with intellectual disabilities from around the world.
  • Berlin was chosen as the host city, showcasing its commitment to inclusivity and sports.
  • Other options like Greece, China, and Uzbekistan are not hosting this particular event.

Q38: Who claimed victory in the 2023 Italian Open for Men's singles?
(a) Novak Djokovic
(b) Casper Ruud
(c) Rafael Nadal
(d) Daniil Medvedev

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Ans: (d)

  • Daniil Medvedev emerged as the champion of the 2023 Italian Open in the Men's singles category.
  • This tournament is a significant event in the tennis calendar, showcasing top players.
  • Medvedev's victory highlights his skill and competitiveness on clay courts.
  • His win adds to his achievements and solidifies his position among the elite in tennis.

Q39: ‘Navratna Companies’ are public sector companies that are granted financial independence to invest up to ₹ 1000 crores without needing approval from the Indian government. Which company was recently elevated to the status of ‘Navratna Company’ in May 2023?
(a) Rail Vikas Nigam Limited
(b) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(c) Oil India Limited
(d) Engineers India Limited

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Ans: (a)

  • Navratna Companies are a special category of public sector enterprises in India that enjoy greater financial freedom.
  • In May 2023, Rail Vikas Nigam Limited was recognized and upgraded to this prestigious status.
  • This upgrade allows the company to make significant investments without prior government approval, enhancing its operational efficiency.
  • The other options listed do not reflect the recent upgrade to Navratna status.

Q40: Which US state has taken the lead in 2023 by prohibiting natural gas and other fossil fuels in the majority of new constructions?
(a) New York
(b) California
(c) Washington
(d) Florida

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Ans: (a)

  • New York has set a precedent by being the first state to implement a ban on natural gas and fossil fuels in most new buildings.
  • This move is part of a broader effort to promote clean energy and combat climate change.
  • By making this change, New York aims to reduce its carbon footprint and encourage the use of renewable energy sources.
  • This decision reflects a growing trend among states to prioritize sustainability in construction practices.

Life Skills

Q41: What is positive stress?
(a) Stress that prevents you from doing what you need to do.
(b) Stress that can lead to mental and physical problems.
(c) Stress that can help you reach your goal.
(d) Stress that makes you feel overwhelmed and anxious all the time.

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Ans: (c)

  • Positive stress is a type of stress that can actually motivate you and help you achieve your goals.
  • Unlike negative stress, which can hinder your performance, positive stress can push you to perform better and stay focused.
  • It is important to recognize that not all stress is harmful; some can be beneficial and lead to personal growth.
  • In summary, positive stress is the kind that encourages you to take action and succeed.

Q42: What is meant by the term "dress code"?
(a) Against the law
(b) Color coordinated outfits
(c) A set of guidelines on appropriate attire
(d) None of these

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Ans: (c)

  • Dress code refers to a specific set of rules or guidelines that dictate how individuals should dress in certain settings, such as workplaces, schools, or events.
  • It helps maintain a certain professionalism or uniformity in appearance.
  • Understanding a dress code is important for adhering to social norms and expectations.
  • Options like "against the law" or "color coordinated outfits" do not accurately describe what a dress code entails.

Q43: Select the accurate statement.
(a) A person you recently encountered online can be viewed as a reliable friend.
(b) Opening emails from unfamiliar sources can transmit computer viruses.
(c) Sending hurtful messages is an enjoyable online pastime.
(d) We can disclose our computer or internet password to our close friends.

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Ans: (b)

  • Opening emails from unknown sources can be dangerous as they may contain harmful software or viruses that can infect your computer.
  • It's important to be cautious and not trust emails from people you do not know.
  • While some online interactions can lead to friendships, it is not safe to consider someone a trusted friend just because you met them online.
  • Sharing passwords, even with close friends, is risky and can lead to security issues.

Q44: Which of the following is not considered a positive leadership trait?
(a) Sense of responsibility
(b) Arrogance
(c) Creativity
(d) Intelligence

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Arrogance is viewed negatively in leadership as it can alienate team members.
  • In contrast, a strong sense of responsibility, creativity, and intelligence are essential qualities that help leaders inspire and guide their teams.
  • Good leaders should be approachable and open to feedback, which arrogance undermines.
  • Thus, while the other options contribute positively to effective leadership, arrogance does not.

Q45: Which of the following is considered a positive gesture?
(a) Tapping fingers or feet while listening to someone
(b) Rapid blinking of the eye while talking to someone
(c) Maintaining eye contact with people you are talking to
(d) Rolling your eyes when listening to someone

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Maintaining eye contact is a sign of attentiveness and respect during conversations.
  • It shows that you are engaged and interested in what the other person is saying.
  • In contrast, actions like tapping fingers or rolling eyes can be seen as disrespectful or disinterested.
  • Therefore, option (c) is the best choice as it reflects good communication skills.

Achievers Section

Q46: What is the name of the world’s longest river cruise, which was flagged off by the Prime Minister?
(a) MV Ganga Vilas
(b) MV Bharat Vilas
(c) MV Gangayaan
(d) MV Uttarayaan

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)
The world's longest river cruise, the MV Ganga Vilas, was launched in Varanasi by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

Q47: Some of the events are given below. Select the mismatched pairs.
(i) Introduce Zero - India
(ii) 1st Surgery - USA
(iii) Nile civilization - Egypt
(iv) Oldest religion - Jainism
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (d)
1st surgery happened in ancient India and the oldest religion is Hinduism

Q48: Which of the following statements are accurate?
I. Papua New Guinea has the most languages in use.
II. Cambodia’s official language ‘Khmer’ has 74letters.
III. English and French are the official languages ofCanada.
IV. English is the most spoken language in the world. (a) I and III only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, II and IV only
(d) I, II, III and IV

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Statement I: Papua New Guinea indeed has the most languages spoken, with over 800 languages.
  • Statement II: The official language of Cambodia, Khmer, has 74 letters, which is correct.
  • Statement III: Canada recognizes both English and French as its official languages.
  • Statement IV: English is widely recognized as the most spoken language globally.

Conclusion: All four statements are true, making option (d) the correct choice.

Q49: Which award is given for exceptional achievements in the music world?

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8(a) Magsaysay Awards
(b) Grammy Awards
(c) Right Livelihood Award
(d) Dadasaheb Phalke Award

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Pandit Ravi Shankar has won the Grammy Award three times. It is given for exceptional achievements in the music world.

Q50: It is one of the most famous monuments in Paris built between 1806 and 1836. It stands at the centre of the place Charles de Gaulle at the western end of the Champs-Elysees. It honours those who fought for France during Napoleonic wars with the names of the French victories and generals inscribed on its inner and outer surfaces. Identify the monument:
(a) Arc de Triomphe
(b) Notre Dame Cathedral
(c) The Pont du Gard
(d) Basilique de Vezelay

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)
The Arc de Triomphe honours those who fought and died in the Napoleonic and French Revolutionary Wars for France.

The document GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 8 is a part of the Class 8 Course GK Olympiad for Class 8.
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FAQs on GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 - GK Olympiad for Class 8

1. What is the importance of General Knowledge for students in Class 8?
Ans. General Knowledge is essential for students in Class 8 as it helps them stay informed about the world around them, enhances their critical thinking skills, and prepares them for competitive exams. It also encourages curiosity and a love for learning, which is crucial at this developmental stage.
2. How can students effectively prepare for the GK Olympiad?
Ans. Students can prepare for the GK Olympiad by regularly reading newspapers, magazines, and online resources. They should also practice sample papers and previous years' question papers, participate in quizzes, and engage in group discussions to enhance their knowledge and retention.
3. What types of questions can be expected in the GK Olympiad Model Test Paper for Class 8?
Ans. The GK Olympiad Model Test Paper for Class 8 may include multiple-choice questions, true or false statements, fill in the blanks, and match the following types of questions. Topics can range from current affairs, history, geography, science, and notable personalities.
4. How does participating in the GK Olympiad benefit students academically?
Ans. Participating in the GK Olympiad benefits students academically by improving their knowledge base, boosting their confidence, and enhancing their problem-solving skills. It also helps them perform better in school exams and prepares them for future competitive exams.
5. What resources are recommended for studying current affairs for the GK Olympiad?
Ans. Recommended resources for studying current affairs include daily newspapers, news websites, current affairs magazines, educational apps, and online video tutorials. These resources provide the latest updates and important events that are commonly featured in GK Olympiad questions.
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