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Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

General Awareness

Q1: Which of the following flowering plants possesses the largest unbranched inflorescence globally?
(a) Titan arum
(b) Rafflesia
(c) Dancing plant
(d) Eucalyptus

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Ans: (a)

  • Titan arum is known for having the largest unbranched inflorescence in the world, reaching heights of up to 3 meters.
  • This plant is also famous for its strong odor, which resembles that of rotting flesh, attracting pollinators like carrion beetles.
  • While Rafflesia is notable for its large flowers, it does not have a traditional inflorescence structure like the Titan arum.
  • The other options, Dancing plant and Eucalyptus, do not have the same characteristics as the Titan arum in terms of inflorescence size.

Q2: Which of the following is recognized as the national flower of Australia?
(a) Tulip
(b) Golden wattle
(c) Zinnia
(d) Canna

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Ans: (b)

  • Golden wattle is the national flower of Australia, symbolizing the country's unique flora.
  • This flower is known for its bright yellow blooms and is celebrated for its beauty and resilience.
  • It plays a significant role in Australian culture and is often associated with national pride.
  • Other options like Tulip, Zinnia, and Canna are not native to Australia and do not hold the same significance.

Q3: Identify the group that belongs to 'Bovine' among the following.
(a) Goat, Sheep, Bison
(b) Horse, Zebra, Donkey
(c) Lion, Leopard, Tiger
(d) Dolphin, Shark, Whale

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Ans: (a)

  • The term 'Bovine' refers to animals that are part of the cattle family, which includes species like cows and bison.
  • Among the options, Goat, Sheep, and Bison are the only ones that belong to the broader category of domesticated and wild ruminants.
  • The other groups consist of animals that do not fall under the Bovine classification.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (a) because it includes Bison, which is a true member of the Bovine family.

Q4: The chemical compound used in artificial vanilla flavoring is derived from which of the following?
(a) Sperm whale
(b) Female civet
(c) Beaver
(d) Musk deer

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Ans: (c)

  • Beaver produces a substance called castoreum, which is used in artificial vanilla flavoring.
  • This compound is extracted from the glands of beavers and has a vanilla-like aroma.
  • Other options like sperm whale, female civet, and musk deer do not produce compounds used for vanilla flavoring.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Beaver, as it is the source of the chemical compound used in artificial vanilla flavoring.

Q5: The amount of greenhouse gases emitted into the atmosphere due to the actions of a specific individual, organization, or community is referred to as
(a) Carbon dating
(b) Carbon footprint
(c) Greenhouse effect
(d) Carbon emissions

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Ans: (b)

  • Carbon footprint is the term used to describe the total amount of greenhouse gases that are produced directly or indirectly by an individual or organization.
  • This includes emissions from activities like driving, electricity use, and manufacturing.
  • Understanding your carbon footprint is important for taking steps to reduce it and combat climate change.
  • Other options like carbon dating and greenhouse effect refer to different concepts, making them incorrect in this context.

Q6: This water body is a region of one of the Earth’s great oceans bounded by four currents. It has no land boundaries. The water of this body is distinctive for its blue color and exceptional clarity. Which water body is this?
(a) Sargasso Sea
(b) Coral Sea
(c) North Sea
(d) Caspian Sea

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Ans: (a)

  • Sargasso Sea is unique because it is surrounded by four major ocean currents, creating a distinct area in the Atlantic Ocean.
  • This sea is known for its deep blue color and clear waters, making it stand out from other bodies of water.
  • Unlike many seas, it has no land boundaries, which contributes to its unique characteristics.
  • It is an important ecological zone, providing habitat for various marine species.

Q7: Bannerghatta National Park is located in which state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Karnataka
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Assam

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Ans: (b)

  • Bannerghatta National Park is a well-known wildlife sanctuary.
  • It is situated in Karnataka, which is in southern India.
  • The park is famous for its rich biodiversity and various species of animals.
  • It is a popular destination for nature lovers and tourists.

Q8: Which metal is the most prevalent in the Earth's crust?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Aluminium
(d) Zinc

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Ans: (c)

  • Aluminium is the most abundant metal in the Earth's crust, making up about 8% of its weight.
  • It is widely used in various industries due to its lightweight and corrosion-resistant properties.
  • In contrast, while iron is also common, it is not as abundant as aluminium.
  • Understanding the composition of the Earth's crust helps in mining and resource management.

Q9: Bakelite and melamine are examples of
(a) Thermoplastics
(b) Thermosetting plastics
(c) Synthetic fibres
(d) Elastomers

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Ans: (b)

  • Bakelite and melamine are types of plastics that do not melt when heated, which makes them thermosetting plastics.
  • Unlike thermoplastics, which can be reshaped when heated, thermosetting plastics harden permanently after being set.
  • This property makes them suitable for applications where heat resistance is important.
  • They are commonly used in electrical insulators and kitchenware.

Q10: A dehiscent fruit opens up when it matures to release its seeds. Which of the following is not classified as a dehiscent fruit?
(a) Bean
(b) Magnolia
(c) Banana
(d) Peanut

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Ans: (c)

  • Dehiscent fruits are those that split open when they are ripe, allowing seeds to be dispersed.
  • Examples of dehiscent fruits include beans and peanuts, which open to release their seeds.
  • Bananas, on the other hand, do not split open; they are classified as indehiscent fruits because they do not release seeds in this manner.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) Banana, as it does not fit the definition of a dehiscent fruit.

Q11: A ‘Kaleidoscope’ operates based on which principle?
(a) Refraction
(b) Diffraction
(c) Multiple reflections
(d) Interference

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Ans: (c)

  • The Kaleidoscope is a fascinating optical device that creates beautiful patterns.
  • It works primarily on the principle of multiple reflections, where light bounces off mirrors inside the tube.
  • This bouncing creates a variety of symmetrical designs as the viewer rotates the device.
  • While refraction and diffraction involve bending and spreading of light, they are not the main principles at play in a kaleidoscope.

Q12: Select the false statement.
(a) The Pole star is near the Earth's rotation axis.
(b) Similar to Mars, Uranus rotates from west to east.
(c) Saturn is the least dense of all the planets.
(d) The outer planets possess many moons.

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct answer is (b) because Uranus actually rotates from east to west, just like Venus, which is opposite to the typical rotation direction of most planets.
  • The statement about the Pole star is true as it is indeed located near the Earth's axis of rotation.
  • Saturn is known for being the least dense planet, even less dense than water.
  • Outer planets like Jupiter and Saturn have a large number of moons, which is a true statement.

Q13: When was India's first lunar probe, Chandrayaan-1, launched by ISRO?
(a) October 2008
(b) March 2018
(c) October 2004
(d) April 2006

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Ans: (a)

  • Chandrayaan-1 was India's first mission to the moon, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • It was successfully launched in October 2008, marking a significant achievement in India's space exploration.
  • The mission aimed to explore the lunar surface and gather data about the moon's composition.
  • Other options, such as March 2018 and October 2004, do not correspond to the actual launch date of Chandrayaan-1.

Q14: A geostationary satellite is an earth-orbiting satellite placed at an altitude of approximately __________ directly over the equator and, it revolves in the same direction in which the Earth rotates.
(a) 36,000 km
(b) 24,000 km
(c) 39,000 km
(d) 27,000 km

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Ans: (a)

  • Geostationary satellites are positioned at a specific altitude to match the Earth's rotation.
  • The correct altitude for these satellites is approximately 36,000 km above the equator.
  • This allows them to stay fixed over one point on the Earth's surface, making them ideal for communication.
  • Other altitudes like 24,000 km or 39,000 km do not provide the same stationary effect.

Q15: Which nation is the leading producer of Uranium from mining operations?
(a) Australia
(b) China
(c) Canada
(d) Kazakhstan

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Ans: (d)

  • Kazakhstan is recognized as the top producer of Uranium globally, contributing a significant portion of the world's supply.
  • This country has extensive mining operations that allow it to extract Uranium efficiently.
  • In contrast, while Australia, China, and Canada also produce Uranium, their output is less than that of Kazakhstan.
  • Thus, Kazakhstan holds the largest share in Uranium production from mines.

Q16: If Javanese is your native language, which country are you from?
(a) Japan
(b) Indonesia
(c) Spain
(d) Italy

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Ans: (b)

  • Javanese is primarily spoken in the island of Java, which is part of Indonesia.
  • It is one of the most widely spoken languages in the country.
  • The other options, such as Japan, Spain, and Italy, do not have Javanese as a native language.
  • Therefore, if Javanese is your native language, you belong to Indonesia.

Q17: Which island is referred to as the ‘Lighthouse of the Mediterranean’?
(a) Stromboli
(b) Bora Bora
(c) La Digue
(d) Bali

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Ans: (a)

  • Stromboli is known for its active volcano, which makes it a significant landmark in the Mediterranean.
  • This island's frequent eruptions have earned it the nickname ‘Lighthouse’ because it can be seen from afar, guiding sailors.
  • In contrast, the other options like Bora Bora, La Digue, and Bali are not located in the Mediterranean and do not have similar volcanic activity.
  • Thus, Stromboli stands out as the correct answer due to its unique geographical features.

Q18: The European Union (EU) is a political and economic union of 27 member states that are located primarily in Europe. Its original members were the Inner Six, four of which are France, Italy, Netherlands, and West Germany. The other two countries of the Inner Six were 
(a) Luxembourg and Belgium 
(b) Greece and Poland 
(c) Switzerland and Austria 
(d) Spain and Portugal 

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Ans: (a)

  • Key members: The EU started with six founding countries, known as the Inner Six.
  • Original members: Among them, France, Italy, and the Netherlands are well-known.
  • Correct pair: The other two countries that joined these four are Luxembourg and Belgium.
  • Other options: The other options listed do not include the correct founding members of the EU.

Q19: The ‘Bastar Rebellion’ in Central India occurred in which year?
(a) 1933
(b) 1920
(c) 1910
(d) 1857

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Ans: (c)

  • Bastar Rebellion was a significant uprising in Central India.
  • This rebellion took place in the year 1910, when local tribes revolted against British colonial rule.
  • The causes included oppression and exploitation of tribal lands and resources.
  • It highlighted the struggle of indigenous people for their rights and autonomy.

Q20: Which of the following terms refers to land suitable for growing crops?
(a) Pasture
(b) Meadow
(c) Arable
(d) Barren

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Ans: (c)

  • Arable land is specifically designated for the cultivation of crops, making it the correct choice.
  • Pasture is land used for grazing animals, while meadow refers to grassland, often not cultivated.
  • Barren land is unproductive and unsuitable for farming.
  • Thus, arable land is essential for agriculture, as it is where crops are actively grown.

Q21: Who was the African American woman that declined to give up her seat to a white man in 1955?
(a) Rosa Parks
(b) Marion Bromley
(c) Susan B Anthony
(d) Elizabeth Cady Stanton

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Ans: (a)

  • Rosa Parks is known for her courageous act of refusing to give up her bus seat, which became a pivotal moment in the Civil Rights Movement.
  • This act of defiance occurred in Montgomery, Alabama, and sparked the Montgomery Bus Boycott.
  • Parks' actions highlighted the struggle against racial segregation and inspired many to fight for equality.
  • Her bravery is celebrated as a significant contribution to the fight for civil rights in the United States.

Q22: In which year were Fundamental Duties incorporated into the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1980
(b) 1976
(c) 1957
(d) 1990

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Ans: (b)

  • Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment in the year 1976.
  • This amendment was made during the Emergency period in India, which lasted from 1975 to 1977.
  • The inclusion aimed to remind citizens of their responsibilities towards the nation.
  • These duties are not legally enforceable but serve as a moral obligation for citizens.

Q23: What does the term 'Faux Pas', a phrase borrowed from another language, refer to in English?
(a) Common language
(b) Values
(c) Embarrassing social blunder
(d) Latest fashion

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Ans: (c)

  • 'Faux Pas' is a French term that translates to an embarrassing social mistake. It describes situations where someone makes a social error, like saying something inappropriate at a gathering.
  • It is not related to common language, values, or latest fashion, which are different concepts.
  • Understanding this term helps in recognizing social norms and avoiding awkward situations.

Q24: Who wrote the well-known fairy tale 'The Snow Queen'?
(a) Charles Perrault
(b) The Brothers Grimm
(c) Oscar Wilde
(d) Hans Christian Andersen

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Ans: (d)

  • Hans Christian Andersen is the author of 'The Snow Queen', a classic fairy tale.
  • This story is famous for its enchanting narrative and deep themes.
  • Andersen is well-known for his contributions to children's literature, with many beloved tales.
  • Other options like Charles Perrault and The Brothers Grimm are also famous authors, but they did not write this particular story.

Q25: Which of the following is known as the traditional folk dance of Chhattisgarh?
(a) Raut Nacha
(b) Garba
(c) Laho
(d) Chhau

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Ans: (a)

  • Raut Nacha is the traditional folk dance of Chhattisgarh, celebrated during festivals and special occasions.
  • This dance is performed by the Raute community and is characterized by its vibrant movements and cultural significance.
  • Other options like Garba and Chhau are popular in different regions of India, but they do not represent Chhattisgarh.
  • Understanding regional dances helps appreciate the rich cultural diversity of India.

Q26: This famous Indian form of painting is one of the popular forms of classical painting marked by dense composition, surface richness and use of vibrant colours with embellishment of semi-precious stones, pearls and glass pieces. Identify the form of painting.
GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8
(a) Warli painting
(b) Tanjore painting
(c) Madhubani painting
(d) Rajput painting

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Ans: (b)

Q27: Deepika Kumari has brought international recognition to India. She has received the Arjuna Award and the esteemed Padma Shri. Which sport is she associated with?
(a) Archery
(b) Badminton
(c) Tennis
(d) Skating

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Ans: (a)

  • Deepika Kumari is a renowned athlete known for her exceptional skills in Archery.
  • She has achieved significant accolades, including the Arjuna Award and Padma Shri, which highlight her contributions to sports.
  • Archery is a sport that requires precision and focus, and Deepika has excelled in it on international platforms.
  • Her achievements have made her a prominent figure in Indian sports, inspiring many young athletes.

Q28: Which of the following statements is false regarding lists in HTML?
(a) Ordered lists use numbers to mark items.
(b) Unordered lists use bullets to mark items.
(c) Description list <dl> tag is used to define description list.
(d) Lists are used to link one website with another.

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Ans: (d)

  • Ordered lists are used in HTML to display items in a specific sequence, marked with numbers.
  • Unordered lists present items without a specific order, using bullets instead.
  • The description listis defined using the
    tag, which is specifically for listing terms and their descriptions.
  • However, lists are not used to connect websites; they are primarily for organizing content on a single page.

Q29: In a specific coding system, if TRANSLATE is represented as PCTVTMBUF, how will PREDICTOR be encoded in that same system?
(a) QSFEJDUPS
(b) FGTRJDUPS
(c) FGTRJEVQT
(d) QSFEKTQVE

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Ans: (b)

  • The coding system involves shifting each letter in the word by a certain number of positions in the alphabet.
  • For example, in TRANSLATE to PCTVTMBUF, each letter is shifted back by a specific pattern.
  • Applying the same pattern to PREDICTOR, we find that it translates to FGTRJDUPS.
  • This method of encoding is consistent, making it easy to decode similar words.

Q30: If 44% of a certain number equals 275, what is 60% of that number?
(a) 375
(b) 400
(c) 300
(d) 425

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Ans: (a)

  • To find the original number, we can set up the equation: 0.44 * x = 275, where x is the number we want to find.
  • Solving for x gives us x = 275 / 0.44, which equals 625.
  • Now, to find 60% of this number, we calculate 0.60 * 625.
  • This results in 375, which is the answer we are looking for.

Current Affairs

Q31: The world’s first ship tunnel will be built in which of the following nations?
(a) New Zealand
(b) Iceland
(c) Russia
(d) Norway

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Ans: (d)

  • Norway is set to construct the world's first ship tunnel, which will allow large vessels to navigate safely.
  • This innovative project aims to enhance maritime safety by providing a sheltered route for ships.
  • The tunnel will be a significant engineering achievement, showcasing Norway's commitment to advancing maritime infrastructure.
  • Other options like New Zealand, Iceland, and Russia do not have plans for such a tunnel, making Norway the correct answer.

Q32: Which of the following nations successfully launched 38 foreign satellites on March 22, 2021?
(a) Russia
(b) Germany
(c) China
(d) South Korea

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Ans: (a)

  • Russia achieved a significant milestone by launching 38 foreign satellites in a single mission.
  • This event took place on March 22, 2021, showcasing Russia's capabilities in space technology.
  • The launch demonstrates Russia's role as a key player in the global satellite deployment market.
  • Other options like Germany, China, and South Korea did not have such a launch on that date.

Q33: Name the film that received the Best Hindi Film Award at the 67th National Film Awards.
(a) Chhapaak
(b) Chhichhore
(c) Asuran
(d) Gully Boy

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Ans: (b)

  • Chhichhore is the film that won the Best Hindi Film Award at the 67th National Film Awards.
  • This film is recognized for its engaging storyline and strong performances.
  • It addresses important themes like friendship and mental health, making it relatable to many viewers.
  • The award highlights the film's impact and quality in the Hindi cinema landscape.

Q34: Which bank's employees contributed a total of ` 62.62 crores to the PM CARES Fund in July 2021?
(a) ICICI
(b) SBI
(c) CBI
(d) Bank of Baroda

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Ans: (b)

  • Employees of SBI made a significant contribution of ` 62.62 crores to the PM CARES Fund.
  • This donation took place in July 2021, showcasing the bank's commitment to social responsibility.
  • The PM CARES Fund is aimed at providing relief during the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • SBI, being one of the largest banks in India, has a strong presence and influence in such charitable initiatives.

Q35: Which Asian nation was the first to initiate a Plastics Pact in 2021?
(a) India
(b) Thailand
(c) Japan
(d) South Korea

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Ans: (a)

  • India took the lead as the first Asian country to launch a Plastics Pact in 2021.
  • This initiative aims to tackle plastic waste and promote sustainable practices.
  • The pact encourages collaboration among businesses, governments, and communities.
  • By joining this pact, India is taking significant steps towards environmental responsibility.

Q36: Which of the following represented the theme for International Women’s Day 2021?
(a) Empowering Women
(b) Choose to Challenge
(c) World for Women
(d) Change is Good

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Ans: (b)

  • International Women’s Day is celebrated on March 8 every year to honor women's achievements.
  • In 2021, the theme was "Choose to Challenge," encouraging individuals to challenge gender bias and inequality.
  • This theme aimed to promote awareness and inspire action towards gender equality.
  • Each option represents different ideas, but only "Choose to Challenge" was the official theme for that year.

Q37: The final of the World Test Championship took place between _______ and _______ from June 18 to June 23, 2021.
(a) Australia, Pakistan
(b) India, New Zealand
(c) South Africa, England
(d) West Indies, Australia

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Ans: (b)

  • India and New Zealand faced off in the final of the World Test Championship.
  • This match was held over a span of six days, from June 18 to June 23, 2021.
  • The championship was a significant event in cricket, showcasing the top two teams in the Test format.
  • New Zealand emerged victorious, marking a historic win in their cricketing journey.

Q38: Which state's government has sanctioned a Penal Law Bill that imposes life imprisonment for food adulteration as of February 26, 2021?
(a) Punjab
(b) Assam
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

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Ans: (c)

  • Madhya Pradesh is the state that has taken a significant step by approving a law aimed at combating food adulteration.
  • This law mandates life imprisonment for those found guilty of adulterating food, highlighting the seriousness of the issue.
  • The decision reflects the government's commitment to ensuring food safety and protecting public health.
  • By implementing such strict penalties, the state aims to deter potential offenders and promote ethical practices in food production.

Q39: Who is the first batsman to achieve 3,000 runs in T-20 Internationals in 2021?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Babar Azam
(c) Chris Gayle
(d) David Warner

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Ans: (a)

  • Virat Kohli made history by being the first player to reach the milestone of 3,000 runs in T-20 Internationals in 2021.
  • This achievement highlights his exceptional skill and consistency in the shortest format of cricket.
  • Other players like Babar Azam, Chris Gayle, and David Warner are also prominent in T-20 cricket, but they did not reach this milestone first.
  • Kohli's performance continues to set benchmarks for future players in the game.

Q40: Who was the first Indian fencer to qualify for the Tokyo 2020 Olympics?
(a) Savita Punia
(b) PV Sindhu
(c) Bhavani Devi
(d) Chanu Saikhom Mirabai

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Ans: (c)

  • Bhavani Devi made history as the first Indian fencer to qualify for the Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
  • This was a significant achievement for Indian fencing, showcasing her talent on an international stage.
  • Her qualification marked a milestone, inspiring many young athletes in India.
  • Fencing is a sport that requires skill, agility, and precision, and Bhavani's success highlights the growing recognition of this sport in India.

Life Skills

Q41: Which of the following traits can assist you in resisting peer pressure?
(a) Always wearing branded expensive clothes.
(b) Playing guitar and singing latest songs.
(c) Always being assertive and self confident.
(d) Being overly concerned with appearance.

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Ans: (c)

  • Being assertive means expressing your thoughts and feelings confidently, which helps you stand your ground against peer pressure.
  • Self-confidence allows you to make decisions based on your values rather than succumbing to others' influences.
  • While other options may seem appealing, they do not directly contribute to resisting peer pressure.
  • Ultimately, having a strong sense of self is key to navigating social situations effectively.

Q42: Showing politeness in one’s attitude and behaviour towards others is called ________.
(a) Empathy
(b) Sympathy
(c) Courtesy
(d) Respect

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Ans: (c)

  • Courtesy refers to the act of being polite and showing respect towards others. It involves having a considerate attitude and behaving in a way that acknowledges the feelings and rights of others.
  • While empathy and sympathy relate to understanding and sharing feelings, they do not specifically denote politeness.
  • Loyalty is about faithfulness and support, which is different from the concept of politeness.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Courtesy, as it directly relates to polite behavior.

Q43: Select the false statement about the safety guidelines we should adhere to in school laboratories.
(a) We should always wash our hands before and after the lab class.
(b) Lab coat must be taken off when exiting the lab.
(c) It’s advisable to hold the microscope with one hand and always touch or taste the chemicals before use.
(d) Students should be well aware of all the safety equipment.

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Ans: (c)

  • Washing hands before and after lab work is essential for hygiene.
  • It is important to remove the lab coat when leaving the lab to avoid contamination.
  • However, holding a microscope with one hand and tasting or touching chemicals is unsafe and incorrect.
  • Students must be knowledgeable about safety equipment to ensure a safe working environment.

Q44: Select the false statement.
(a) You should never open emails and attachments from strangers.
(b) You should always scan every file before opening it on your computer.
(c) You should not share your password with anyone, even your close friends.
(d) You should always provide your real name, address, and phone number on every site you visit while browsing.

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Statement (d) is incorrect because sharing your real name, address, and phone number on every website can lead to privacy risks and potential identity theft.
  • It's important to be cautious and only provide personal information on trusted and secure sites.
  • Statements (a), (b), and (c) promote good security practices, such as avoiding unknown emails and protecting your passwords.
  • Always prioritize your online safety by being selective about the information you share.

Q45: How should you handle a disagreement with a friend?
(a) Avoid talking to them until they apologize
(b) Discuss the issue calmly and listen to their perspective
(c) End the friendship immediately
(d) Talk to other friends about the disagreement

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Open communication and listening are key to resolving conflicts and maintaining healthy relationships.

Achievers Section

Q46: Select the false statement(s) regarding the tennis court.
I. The tennis net is 1.07 m high at the posts and 0.91 m high in the centre. II. Australian and US Open tournaments use clay courts, French Open uses hard court while Wimbeldon is played on grass court. III. The area between the baseline and service line is called ‘Backcourt’. IV. The lanes on each side of the singles court which are only used when playing doubles are called ‘Baselines’. 
(a) II only
(b) II and IV only
(c) III only
(d) I, II and IV only

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • Statement I is correct: The tennis net is indeed 1.07 m high at the posts and 0.91 m high in the center.
  • Statement II is incorrect: The Australian and US Open tournaments use hard courts, while the French Open is played on clay courts and Wimbledon on grass courts.
  • Statement III is correct: The area between the baseline and service line is referred to as the 'Backcourt'.
  • Statement IV is incorrect: The lanes on each side of the singles court used for doubles are called 'Doubles sidelines', not 'Baselines'.

Q47: The device shown in the picture is used to measure plant’s growth. It was 1st invented in the early twentieth century by Sir Jagdish Chandra Bose. Name the device.

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8

(a) Electrocardiograph 
(b) Crescograph 
(c) Chromatogram 
(d) Seismograph

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (b)
Crescograph is a device that is used to measure the growth of plants. It was invented by Sir Jagadish Chandra Bose, an Indian botanist.

Q48: 'Nature never did betray the heart that loved her' is a quotation from famous poet, identify the poet. 
(a) W. Wordsworth 
(b) J. Baryon 
(c) P. B. Shelly 
(d) J. Keats

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Wordsworth mentioned the given line in his poem "Tintern Abbey" which contains a deep meaning: From the early days of mankind, nature brought them up with a lot of affection and a lot of love.

Q49: ______ is a type of cyber crime that occurs online when an individual uses technology to intimidate or threaten another person or an organization.
(a) Query injection
(b) XML site scripting
(c) Cyberstalking
(d) Phishing

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Cyberstalking involves using the internet or other electronic means to harass or intimidate someone.
  • This can include sending threatening messages, spreading false information, or monitoring someone's online activities.
  • Unlike other forms of cyber crime, cyberstalking specifically targets individuals with the intent to cause fear or distress.
  • Understanding this term is crucial in recognizing and combating online harassment.

Q50: Select the incorrect match(es). 
I. The first Indian to get Nobel prize in Physics - CV Raman. 
II. The first Indian to cross English Channel - Reita Faria. 
III. The first Indian to receive Bharat Ratna Award - Dr Rajendra Prasad. 
IV. The first person to get Param Vir Chakra - Major Somnath Sharma.
(a) II and III only
(b) IV only
(c) I only
(d) II and IV only

GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The statement about CV Raman is correct; he was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad was indeed the first Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna Award.
  • Major Somnath Sharma was the first recipient of the Param Vir Chakra, India's highest military honor.
The document GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | GK Olympiad for Class 8 is a part of the Class 8 Course GK Olympiad for Class 8.
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FAQs on GK Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 - GK Olympiad for Class 8

1. What is the GK Olympiad and who can participate in it?
Ans.The GK Olympiad is a competitive exam that tests students' general knowledge and awareness of current affairs, life skills, and other relevant topics. It is open to students typically from Class 1 to Class 10, allowing them to enhance their knowledge and compete with peers.
2. How can students prepare effectively for the GK Olympiad?
Ans. Students can prepare for the GK Olympiad by regularly reading newspapers, magazines, and books related to general knowledge. They can also take practice tests, review previous year papers, and use online resources or study guides specifically designed for the GK Olympiad.
3. What types of questions are commonly asked in the GK Olympiad?
Ans. The GK Olympiad typically includes multiple-choice questions covering a wide range of topics, such as current affairs, historical events, geography, science, and general life skills. Questions may vary in difficulty to assess different levels of knowledge.
4. How are the results of the GK Olympiad evaluated and announced?
Ans. The results of the GK Olympiad are evaluated based on the accuracy of answers provided by the participants. The scores are usually calculated, and results are announced through the official website of the conducting organization, along with details of awards and recognitions.
5. What benefits do students gain by participating in the GK Olympiad?
Ans. Participating in the GK Olympiad helps students improve their general knowledge, boost their confidence, and develop competitive skills. It also provides a platform for recognition, awards, and opportunities for further academic pursuits or scholarships.
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