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Geography: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2021-22) | CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Humanities - Humanities/Arts PDF Download

Class - XII

Geography

Time: 90 Minutes

M.M: 35


General Instructions

  1. The Question Paper contains three sections (A, B & C).
  2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
  3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions (Map Section (Q. No. 25-29) is mandatory to attempt).
  4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions. (First Part of C Section (Source based has 4 questions (Q. No. 49-52) and all need to be attempted).
  5. All questions carry equal marks.
  6. There is no negative marking.

Section - A

Q.1: The term which is used to describe any influencing factor that motivates people to leave their place of residence or origin is known as:
(a) push factors
(b) pull factors
(c) loose factors
(d) pluck factors

Correct Answer is option (a)

Push factors are conditions in migrants' home countries that make it difficult or even impossible to live there. 


Q.2: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of:
(a) isolated huts
(b) close knit huts
(c) well dwelling huts
(d) ill planned huts

Correct Answer is option (a)

Dispersed settlements in India are found in the Northeastern states of India. Such as, hilly regions with poor agriculture.


Q.3: Human activities which generate income are known as:
(a) Economic activities
(b) Social activities
(c) Political activities
(d) Military activities

Correct Answer is option (a)

The production, distribution, and consumption of commodities is termed as economic activities. 


Q.4: What is not considered to be part of the Human development of people?
(a) Opportunities
(b) Freedom
(c) Health
(d) Number of people

Correct Answer is option (d)


Q.5: Who said "Not gold but only men can make a people great and strong".
(a) Amarthya Sen
(b) Ralph Waldo Emerson
(c) Carl Ritter
(d) Immanuel Kant

Correct Answer is option (b)

According to Ralph Waldo Emerson the strength of the nation does not lie in gold but in its brave men. The poet is of the opinion  that material things are of no use when it comes to how strong any nation is.  Ralph says that wealth cannot make a nation strong and powerful. But only sincere men can make it strong. For the sake of truth and honour, the men stand firm and suffer for long time.


Q.6: Who said "Not gold but only men can make a people great and strong".
(a) Amarthya Sen
(b) Ralph Waldo Emerson
(c) Carl Ritter
(d) Immanuel Kant

Correct Answer is option (b)

According to Ralph Waldo Emerson the strength of the nation does not lie in gold but in its brave men . The poet is of the opinion  that material things are of no use when it comes to how strong any nation is. Ralph says that wealth cannot make a nation strong and powerful. But only sincere men can make it strong. For the sake of truth and honour, the men stand firm and suffer for long time.


Q.7: Which approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or  targets  of  all  development  activities?
(a) Welfare approach
(b) Income approach
(c) Basic Needs approach
(d) Capability approach

Correct Answer is option (b)

The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare.


Q.8: Towns and cities specialising in trade and commerce are known as ________towns.
(a) Trade
(b) Commercial
(c) Commerce
(d) Port

Correct Answer is option (b)

Commercial towns are those towns that developed due to the production of fine pieces of artistic as well as useful goods like textiles, crafts, gem cutting, sculpture making. 


Q.9: What is called the mother of all branches of knowledge?
(a) Sociology
(b) Geography
(c) History
(d) Psychology

Correct Answer is option (b)

Geography is sometimes considered as the mother of all sciences due to its links and influences on a range of other scientific fields including biology, mathematics, anthropology, geology, astronomy and chemistry. 


Q.10: The urban settlements are generally compact and:
(a) smaller in size
(b) larger in size
(c) medium in size
(d) has no relation to size

Correct Answer is option (b)

Urban settlement an area with high density of human-created structures. These geometrical patterns are usually in squares and rectangles and are well laid out. 


Q.11: _________ pattern of settlement develops along the roads.
(a) Rectangular
(b) Linear
(c) Circular
(d) Spatial

Correct Answer is option (a)


Q.12: Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of:
(a) Animals
(b) Technology
(c) Arts
(d) Birds

Correct Answer is option (b)

Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society. Human beings were able to develop technology after they developed a better understanding of natural laws. 


Q.13: Movement from one place to another, usually a response to change in temperature, food, occupation opportunities is known as:
(a) Migration
(b) Immigration
(c) Emigration
(d) Journey

Correct Answer is option (a)

Migration involves the movement of people from one place to another with intentions of settling, permanently or temporarily, at a new location.


Q.14: Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest density of population?
(a) NCT Delhi
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Puducherry

Correct Answer is option (a)

NCT Delhi has the highest density of population . The city has a population density of 29,259.12 people per square mile(as per 2020) , which is one of the highest in the world.


Q.15: Arrange the following approaches in a sequential order according to their development.
Choose the correct option.
1. Spatial organization
2. Regional approach
3. Areal differentiation
4. Humanistic approach

(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 4 1

Correct Answer is option (c)


Q.16: Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla and Dhani are examples of which of the following settlements?
(a) Clustered Settlements
(b) Semi-Clustered Settlements
(c) Dispersed Settlements
(d) Hamleted Settlements

Correct Answer is option (d)

A settlement which is fragmented into several units and physically separated from each other is known as Hamleted settlement. 


Q.16: Which of the following programs sponsored by central government aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation?(a) Arvary Pani Sansad
(b) Haryali
(c) Neeru-Meeru
(d) Narmada bachao

Correct Answer is option (b)

Hariyali is a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government.  The main objective of Hariyali program are tree plantation and protection with the help of general public and industrial groups; it provides food and employment through tree plantation and develops self-sustainable programmes for poverty eradication.

Hariyali aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation.


Q.17: Population of India according to Occupation can be categorized into:
(a) Main workers, Marginal workers, Non workers
(b) Marginal workers, Household industrial workers, Non workers
(c) Agricultural labourers, Marginal workers, Non workers
(d) Cultivators, Main workers, Marginal workers

Correct Answer is option (a)

The population of India according to their economic status is divided into three groups, namely; main workers, marginal workers and non-workers. this constitutes about 39.8 per cent (2011) leaving a vast majority of about 60 per cent as non-workers.


Q.18: Who among the following developed the concept of ‘human development’?
(a) Ellen C. Semple
(b) Dr Mahbub-ul-haq
(c) Kanwar Sen
(d) Griffith Tailor

Correct Answer is option (b)

Mahbub-ul-Haq was the pioneer in developing the concept of human development. He not only articulated the human development philosophy for making economic development plans but he also provided the world with a statistical measure to quantify the indicators of economic growth with human development. 


Q.19: Which one of the following is not a plantation crop?
(a) Coffee
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Rubber
(d) Wheat

Correct Answer is option (d)

Plantation crops are usually grown for profits. Wheat is a principal crop and worldwide staple food. Wheat comes  into the category of food grains. Plantation crops are grown in large scale farms and estates for sale. They are not grown for local consumption like food grains which are used by the farmer as well.


Q.20: Which of the following best describes ‘development’?
(a) An increase in size
(b) A constant in size
(c) A positive change in quality
(d) A simple change in quality

Correct Answer is option (c)

Development occurs when there is a positive change in quality over a time frame. Although development is always influenced by growth but only in the case of positive and qualitative growth. 


Q.21: Which of the following programme is launched by the present Union Government for the cleaning of river Ganga?
(a) Ganga Action Plan
(b) Namami Gange
(c) Ganga Namami Action Plan
(d) Ganga Cleaning Mission

Correct Answer is option (b)

Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a 'Flagship Programme' by the Union Government in June 2014 to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution and conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.


Q.22: Which of the following mainly is not an industrial city?
(a) Bhilai
(b) Durgapur
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Barauni

Correct Answer is option (c)

Chandigarh is one of the largest IT / ITES hubs of India. 


Q.23: Which one of the following is not a method of mining?
(a) Shaft mining
(b) Opencast mining
(c) Underground mining
(d) Refining

Correct Answer is option (d)

Refinement or refining  is the process in which the mined material undergoes a treatment so as to remove all undesirable minerals and separate the desired elements.


Q.24: According to census 2011, which of the following depicts the percentage of the level of urbanization in India?
(a) 31.16 %
(b) 28 %
(c) 33.16 %
(d) 26 %

Correct Answer is option (a)

Urbanization refers to the increasing number of people that live in urban areas. The level of urbanisation is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to total population. The level of urbanisation in India in 2011 was 31.16 per cent, which is quite low in comparison to developed countries.

Section - B

Q.25: The interaction between primitive human society and strong forces of nature is termed as:
(a) Environmental determinism
(b) Neo-determinism
(c) Bio-determinism
(d) Anti-determinism

Correct Answer is option (a)

The environmental determinism suggests that humans are not a product of their environment, but rather that they possess the skills necessary to change their environment to satisfy human needs.


Q.26: The state which receives a very significant amount from their international migrants are:
(a) Goa
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Punjab
(d) Kerala

Correct Answer is option (c)

The rate of out migration from rural areas to foreign countries is more in Punjab than other states. 


Q.27: Primitive societies depended on:
(a) wild animals
(b) domesticated animals
(c) zoo animals
(d) Pet animals

Correct Answer is option (a)

Primitive human society was completely dependent on wild animals because at this time, level of human development and technology was very low. Due to less knowledge and without development of agriculture main foods of human were from wild animals, roots and fruits. 


Q.28: In Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, more than 85 per cent of their net sown area is under:
(a) Irrigation
(b) Agriculture
(c) Pesticides
(d) Wasteland

Correct Answer is option (a)

These states prosperity has been largely due to the state's development of agriculture. One factor that makes these states as productive agricultural area is its fertile soil. 


Q.29: Consider the following and choose the correct answer from the given options:
1. The people in the coastal areas still catch fish though fishing has experienced modernisation due to technological progress.
2. Many species, now have become extinct or endangered due to illegal hunting (poaching).
(a) Only statement I is correct
(b) Both statements are correct and statement II correctly explains statement I
(c) Only statement II is correct
(d) Both the statements are incorrect

Correct Answer is option (b)

The main source of food for people living in coastal area is fish which was abundant there as less of land is available for farming. 


Q.30: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option for the same
1. People engaged in primary activities are called red-collar workers.
2. This is due to the outdoor nature of their work.
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(c) Only 2 is correct
(d) Both are incorrect

Correct Answer is option (b)

Red collar workers activities include activities such as hunting of animals, gathering of plant products such as fruits and nuts, obtaining minerals, etc. 


Q.31: The North-western India and Deccan Plateau are deficient in:
(a) population
(b) rainfall
(c) moist air
(d) sunlight

Correct Answer is option (b)

The Western Ghats Mountain range is very massive and blocks the moisture from the southwest monsoon from reaching the Deccan Plateau, so the region receives very little rainfall. 


Q.32: Intensive subsistence agriculture is largely practiced in densely populated regions of:
(a) Monsoon Asia
(b) South Africa
(c) Australia
(d) North America

Correct Answer is option (a)

This type of agriculture mentioned requires a lot of water as source for optimal growth of crop. 


Q.33: Urban centre with population of more than one lakh is called a:
(a) Class I town
(b) Class II town
(c) Class III town
(d) Class IV town

Correct Answer is option (a)

Class I town is grouped on the basis of their population in Census. 


Q.34: A town containing military base is known as:
(a) Defence town
(b) Garrison town
(c) Military town
(d) Closed town

Correct Answer is option (b)

Garrison town often applies to certain facilities that constitute a military base or fortified military headquarters 


Q.35: Consider and evaluate the following statements than choose correct options for them from the given options.
1. Nomadic herding is also called pastoral nomadism.
2. It is basically a modern intensive activity, in which herders depend upon animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.
(a) Only statement 1 is correct
(b) Only statement 2 is correct
(c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Both statements are incorrect

Correct Answer is option (a)

They move from one place to other places with their livestock for the quality of pastures and water. Movement in search of pastures is undertaken either over vast grassland or mountainous regions. 


Q.36: Arrange the correct sequence of column II against column I:

Geography: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2021-22) | CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Humanities - Humanities/Arts
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
(b) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-1
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4

Correct Answer is option (b)

The different fields of humans deals with humans and their relationships with communities, cultures, economies, and interactions with the environment by studying their relations with and across locations.


Question no. 37-41 are based on map and are mandatory to attempt.

Geography: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2021-22) | CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Humanities - Humanities/Arts

Q.37: Choose the country with largest Geographical area in the African Continent.
(a) Algeria
(b) Sudan
(c) Egypt
(d) South Africa

Correct Answer is option (a)

Algeria is the biggest country in Africa. Exceeding 2.38 million square kilometres as of 2020, Algeria is the African country with the largest area.


Q.38: Which one of the following is a region of commercial grain farming practiced in Europe?
(a) Pampas
(b) Steppes
(c) Downs
(d) Prairies

Correct Answer is option (b)

Steppes experience semi-arid climate which is best for commercial grain cultivation.


Q.39: Which one of the following is a region of North America practicing subsistence gathering?
(a) Great Lake
(b) Prairies
(c) North Canada
(d) Mexico

Correct Answer is option (c)

Hunting and gathering are the oldest activities carried out by human beings.  It is practised in High latitude zones of Northern Canada. 


Q.40: Which of the following terminal stations connect Trans-Canadian Railway?
(a) Halifax and Vancouver
(b) New York and San Francisco
(c) Halifax and Montreal
(d) Calgary and Vancouver

Correct Answer is option (a)


Q.41: Which of the following is the most heavily used inland waterway of the world?
(a) Suez Canal
(b) Panama Canal
(c) Rhine Waterway
(d) Volga Waterway

Correct Answer is option (c)

It is the most heavily employed inland waterway in the world with above 20,000 ocean-going ships, along with 2,000 inland vessels exchanging their cargo within this route.


Q.42: Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the given options
1. Population grown rapidly during the sixteenth and seventeenth century.
2. Expansion of world trade during sixteenth and seventeenth century is an important cause of it.
(a) Only 1 is correct.
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both the statements are incorrect
(d) Both statements are correct and statement 2 correctly explains the statement

Correct Answer is option (d)

The expanding world trade during the sixteenth and seventeenth century, set the stage for rapid population growth. Around 1750, at the dawn of the Industrial Revolution, the world population was 550 million.


Q.43: Which of the following pair is not correctly matched PILLARS OF HUMAN DEVELOPENT - INDICATORS
(a) Equity -making equal access to opportunities available to everybody
(b) Sustainability -Continuity in the availability of opportunities
(c) Productivity -Resources must be used keeping in mind the future
(d) Empowerment-To have the power to make choices

Correct Answer is option (c)

Productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. 


Q.44: ”Each community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition”.

Above mentioned line is an important characteristic of which of the following activity?
(a) Subsistence agriculture
(b) Nomadic herding
(c) Plantation agriculture
(d) Collective farming

Correct Answer is option (b)

Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of tradition.


Q.45: Which of the following statement is not true regarding the ‘Smart City Mission’?
(a) To promote cities that provide core infrastructure, a clean and sustainable environment and give a decent quality of life to its citizens
(b) To apply smart solutions to infrastructure and services in order to make them better
(c) Use of fewer resources, providing cheaper services and focus on sustainable and inclusive development.
(d) Increase in unemployment

Correct Answer is option (d)

The purpose of the Smart Cities Mission is to drive economic growth and improve the quality of life of people by enabling local area development and harnessing technology, especially technology that leads to Smart outcomes.


Q.46: Which of the following is NOT an environmental consequence of migration?
(a) Unplanned growth of urban settlement
(b) Mixing of diverse culture
(c) Depletion of ground water
(d) Exploitation of natural resource

Correct Answer is option (b)

Mixing of diverse culture is the cultural effect of migration. 


Q.47: In Himalayan regions which of the following tribes are linked with the activity of Transhumance?
(a) Bheels
(b) Gonds
(c) Bakarwals
(d) Santhals

Correct Answer is option (c)

The transhumant system is prevalent in the Himalayas, where there are several nomadic tribes, such as the Gujjars, Bakarwals, Gaddis and Changpas, who rear sheep and goats under this system. 


Q.48: Match the column I with Column II and choose the correct options with the help of given Codes.

Geography: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2021-22) | CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Humanities - Humanities/Arts

Geography: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2021-22) | CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Humanities - Humanities/Arts

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Correct Answer is option (b)

Section - C

Question no. 53-56 are based on Graph.

Geography: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2021-22) | CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Humanities - Humanities/Arts

Q.49: Identify the Asian country with the maximum population.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Pakistan
(d) USA

Correct Answer is option (b)

The rise of industry and large-scale agriculture and many other factors has lead China to have maximum population.


Q.50: Why is Japan’s population decreasing?
(a) No pull factors
(b) Terrorism
(c) Government policies
(d) Low fertility rate

Correct Answer is option (d)

Japan's overall population is shrinking due to low fertility rates because of the rapidly increasing aging populations.


Q.51: Why is Brazil sparsely populated?
(a) Due to climate
(b) Due to drug mafia
(c) Due to less land availability
(d) None of the Above

Correct Answer is option (a)

Brazil is very sparsely populated due to the climate of the area. The country suffers from frequent droughts.


Q.52: Why is Asia the most populous continent?
(a) No contact with Western world
(b) Dictatorship
(c) No emigration allowed
(d) Rich in natural resources

Correct Answer is option (d)

Asia is rich in natural resources such as petroleum, forests, fish, water, rice, copper and silver.


Question no. 53-56 are based on Passage.

Jal Kranti Abhiyan (2015-16)

Water is a recyclable resource but its availability is limited and the gap between supply and demand will be widening over time. Climate change at the global scale will be creating water stress conditions in many regions of the world. India has a unique situation of high population growth and rapid economic development with high water demand. The Jal Kranti Abhiyan was launched by the Government of India in 2015–16 with an aim to ensure water security through per capita availability of water in the country.People in different regions of India had practised the traditional knowledge of water conservation and management to ensure water availability. The Jal Kranti Abhiyan aims at involving local bodies, NGOs and cititzens, at large, in creating awareness regarding its objectives.

The following activities have been proposed under the Jal Kranti Abhiyan:
1. Selection of one water stressed village in each 672 districts of the country to create a ‘Jal Gram’.
2. dentification of 13 model command area of about 1000 hectares in different parts of the country, for example, UP, Haryana (North), Karnataka, Telangana, Tamil Nadu (South), Rajasthan, Gujarat (West), Odisha (East), Meghalaya (North-East).
3. Abatement of pollution:

  • Water conservation and artificial recharge.
  • Reducing groundwater pollution.
  • Construction of Arsenic-free wells in selected areas of the country.

4. Creating mass awareness through social media, radio, TV, print media, poster and essay writing competitions in schools. Jal Kranti Abhiyan is designed to provide livelihood and food security through water security.

Q.53: Present day world is experiencing acute water paucity due to:
(a) Climate Change
(b) Industrial Pollution
(c) Rising Sea level
(d) Forest Depletion

Correct Answer is option (b)

Climate change impacts the water cycle by influencing when, where, and how much precipitation falls. Climate change is disrupting weather patterns, leading to extreme weather events, unpredictable water availability, exacerbating water scarcity and contaminating water supplies. Such impacts can drastically affect the quantity and quality of water.


Q.54: Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Model Command Area in India?
(a) Water conservation and artificial recharge
(b) Reducing groundwater pollution
(c) Construction of Arsenic-free wells in selected areas of the country
(d) Not concerned with food security and livelihood of the people

Correct Answer is option (d)


Q.55: The Objective of the Jal Kranti Abhiyan is achieved through:
(a) Using traditional know how
(b) Adopting modern technology
(c) Mixing modern technology with traditional knowledge
(d) Outsource to some other organization

Correct Answer is option (c)

Their main objective is to strengthen grassroots involvement at the village-level, adoption of both traditional and modern knowledge and practices for water resource conservation.


Q.56: The main aim of The Jal Kranti Abhiyan is to ensure water security through--
(a) Creating Jal Grams
(b) Reducing ground water pollution
(c) Per capita availability of water
(d) Construction of arsenic free wells

Correct Answer is option (c)

The Jal Kranti Abhiyan launched by the Government of India in 2015–16 with an aim to ensure water security through per capita availability of water in the country. Jal Kranti Abhiyan aims to consolidate water conservation and management in the country through a holistic and integrated approach.


Question no. 57-60 are based on Data.
Geography: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2021-22) | CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Humanities - Humanities/Arts

Q.57: Which year has seen a negative population growth rate in India?
(a) 1931
(b) 1921
(c) 1911
(d) 1941

Correct Answer is option (b)

The rate of life expectancy at birth was low before 1921 for both males as well as females. It is because of this decline in place for the rise in population that the year 1921 is called the 'demographic divide' in the demographic history of India.


Q.58: What was the highest recorded growth rate of population in India?
(a) 24.66
(b) 24.80
(c) 23.85
(d) 21.54

Correct Answer is option (b)


Q.59: Which year has recorded the highest growth of population in India in terms of absolute numbers?
(a) 2001
(b) 2011
(c) 1991
(d) 1981

Correct Answer is option (a)


Q.60: How much population increase has been registered between the census years 1911 to census year 2011?
(a) 900789600
(b) 182307640
(c) 181583094
(d) 958100032

Correct Answer is option (d)

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FAQs on Geography: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2021-22) - CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Humanities - Humanities/Arts

1. What is the duration of the Geography exam for Class XII?
Ans. The duration of the Geography exam for Class XII is 90 minutes.
2. How many marks is the Geography exam worth in Class XII?
Ans. The Geography exam in Class XII is worth 35 marks.
3. How many sections are there in the Geography exam for Class XII?
Ans. There are three sections in the Geography exam for Class XII - Section A, Section B, and Section C.
4. What is the time allotted for Section A in the Geography exam for Class XII?
Ans. The time allotted for Section A in the Geography exam for Class XII is not mentioned in the given article.
5. Is the Geography exam for Class XII conducted by CBSE?
Ans. Yes, the Geography exam for Class XII is conducted by CBSE (Central Board of Secondary Education).
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