Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.
Q1: Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 1
Ans: (a)
In one step, the figure gets laterally inverted and one line segment is lost from the upper end of the RHS portion of the figure. In the next step, the figure gets laterally inverted and one line segment is lost from the upper end of the LHS portion of the figure.
Q2: Read the given information carefully and answer the question that follows. 'A + B' means A is less than B. 'A – B' means A is more than B. 'A ÷ B' means A is either less than or equal to B. 'A × B' means A is equal to B. Assuming the above statements to be true, identify which of the two conclusions regarding the statements given below are true?
Statements: D – E, E ÷ F, F × G
Conclusions: I. E ÷ G II. D ÷ G
(a) Both I and II
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Neither I nor II
Ans: (b)
Q3: Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans: (c)
Only in fig. (3), the two shaded portions lies on the same side of the main line.
Q4: A word arrangement machine, when provided with a set of words, organizes them in a specific manner as illustrated below. Input: happiness comes from your own actions
Step I: your happiness comes from own actions
Step II: your own happiness comes from actions
Step III: your own happiness from comes actions And Step III is the final step for the above input.
According to the pattern followed in the previous steps, what is the last step for the following input? Input: slow and steady wins the race
(a) Step I
(b) Step II
(c) Step III
(d) Step IV
Ans: (d)
Q5: Pointing to a girl in the picture, Salman said, her mother’s brother is the only son of my mother’s father. How is the girl’s mother related to Salman if the girl is not the real sister of Salman?
(a) Sister
(b) Aunt
(c) Cousin
(d) Grandmother
Ans: (b)
Only son of Salman’s mother’s father - Salman’s maternal uncle.
So, the girl’s maternal uncle is Salman's maternal uncle.
Thus, the girl’s mother is Salman’s aunt.
Q6: M is the son of N and the husband of P. S and P are sisters. S is married to H. What is H's relationship to M?
(a) Brother
(b) Cousin
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Son-in-law
Ans: (c)
Q7: Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 1
Ans: (c)
The number of sides of the central figure increases by one and the number of line segments attached to the central figure decreases by one.
Q8: What time did the train leave today?
Statement I: The train normally leaves on time.
Statement II: The scheduled departure is at 14 : 30.
(a) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
(b) Both I and II are sufficient
(c) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
(d) Neither I nor II is sufficient
Ans: (d)
Clearly, even both I and II together do not reveal the exact time of departure of the train today.
Q9: If Star is called Sun, Sun is called Moon, Moon is called Earth and Earth is called Comet, then man lives on
(a) Moon
(b) Earth
(c) Star
(d) Comet
Ans: (d)
Man lives on Earth and earth called a comet. So, the correct answer is a comet.
Q10: Study the following information carefully and answer the question that follows:
(i) Five persons P, Q, R, S, and T are traveling in a train to different cities. These persons have different professions, i.e., doctor, professor, accountant, officer, and manager but not in the same order.
(ii) P is going to Chandigarh and is not an officer.
(iii) S is going to Mumbai and is a doctor.
(iv) R is going to Dehradun but is not a professor.
(v) An accountant is going to Delhi.
(vi) T is going to Amritsar and is a manager.
Which of the following persons is going to Delhi?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
Ans: (b)
Q11: A force of magnitude F1 accelerates a body of mass 2 kg from rest to a speed v. Another force F2 accelerates another body of mass 6 kg from rest to a speed 2v. Determine the ratio of work done by force F2 to that by force F1.
(a) 1:12
(b) 1:8
(c) 12:1
(d) 8:1
Ans: (c)
Q12: A particle moving along a straight line covers the first one-third distance with a speed of 3 m/s. The remaining distance is traversed in two equal time intervals at speeds of 4.5 m/s and 7.5 m/s. What is the average speed of the particle?
(a) 5.0 m/s
(b) 5.5 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s
(d) 4.0 m/s
Ans: (c)
Q13: A stone is thrown straight up. At a specific height h above the ground, the ratio of its potential energy to kinetic energy is 3:4. At what height will the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy be 3:4? (All heights are measured from the ground.)
(a) 2/5h
(b) 9/8h
(c) 4/3h
(d) 4/7h
Ans: (c)
Q14: An object moves in a circular path of radius 6 cm with a constant speed. If it takes 2 minutes to move from a point on the path to the diametrically opposite point, find the average velocity:
(a) 12 cm/min
(b) 24 cm/min
(c) 31.4 cm/min
(d) 6 cm/min
Ans: (a)
Q15: Which among the following cell organelle provides the surface for various biochemical activities of the cell?
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(c) Myosin
(d) Plasma membrane
Ans: (b)
The endoplasmic reticulum forms a vast network inside the cytoplasm and provides the surface for various biochemical activities.
Q16: A player kicks a ball of mass 200 g placed at the center of a field. The ball leaves his foot with a speed of 8 m/s. Find the work done by the player on the ball:
(a) 1.6 J
(b) 6.4 J
(c) 1.3 J
(d) 5.8 J
Ans: (b)
The work done on the ball is equal to its kinetic energy when kicked: Work = (1/2) * m * v²
Where:
m = mass (200 g = 0.2 kg)
v = velocity (8 m/s)
Work = (1/2) * (0.2 kg) * (8 m/s)² = 0.1 * 64 = 6.4 J
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 6.4 J.
Q17: When a glass rod is rubbed with fur, what type of charge does the fur acquire?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Can be positive or negative
(d) No charge at all
Ans: (a)
Q18: There are two walls P and W which are 240 m apart from each other. A person standing 80 m away from wall P (in between the walls) claps his hands once. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, then the time interval between the first and second echoes that he hears is:
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 2.00 s
(c) 0.47 s
(d) 0.12 s
Ans: (c)
Q19: Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
Statement 1: The orbital motion of Uranus appears to roll on its side.
Statement 2: The rotational axis of Uranus is highly tilted.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Ans: (a)
Q20: The gravitational force between two masses kept at a certain distance is f N. The same two masses are now kept at a distance of 5 km under seawater, and the distance between them remains the same. The gravitational force between them in water is:
(a) f N
(b) (f + 5) N
(c) (f + 0.005) N
(d) f/5 N
Ans: (a)
Q21: A body of mass M strikes a rigid wall perpendicularly with a velocity u and rebounds with the same velocity. What is the change in momentum?
(a) 2Mu
(b) Mu
(c) Zero
(d) Mu/3
Ans: (a)
Q22: The pitch of the sound depends on the:
(a) Frequency
(b) Velocity
(c) Intensity
(d) Amplitude
Ans: (a)
Q23: Which of the following substances will not allow light to pass through them and illuminate the path of light when it is passed through?
(I) Blood,
(II) Brine,
(III) Milk,
(IV) Soda water
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and IV only
(d) I, II, and III only
Ans: (c)
Q24: Arrange the following atoms in the order of decreasing number of moles: I. 28 g of He II. 46 g of Na III. 60 g of Ca
(a) I > II > III
(b) III > II > I
(c) I > III > II
(d) III > I > II
Ans: (a)
Q25: A gun of mass 1 kg fires 5 bullets per sec each of mass 30 g with a velocity 250 ms-1. The force requires to hold the gun is:
(a) 37.5 N
(b) 12.8 N
(c) 15.6 N
(d) 23.6 N
Ans: (a)
Force = Rate of change of momentum
= (mass/time) x velocity
= (0.03 x 5) x 250 = 37.5 N
Q26: A ball of mass 2 kg thrown upwards reaches a maximum height of 5 m. Calculate the work done by the force of gravity during this vertical displacement:
(a) 98 J
(b) 196 J
(c) 49 J
(d) 78 J
Ans: (a)
W = F x s = (mg) x s = 2 x 9.8 x 5 = 98 J
Q27: The frequency of a source is 25 kHz. The frequencies of the sound wave produced by it in water and air will:
(a) be the same as that of the source
(b) depend on the velocity of the waves in these media
(c) depend on the wavelength of the waves in these media
(d) depend on the density of the media
Ans: (a)
The frequency of sound waves remains the same regardless of the medium through which they travel. Therefore, the answer is: (a)
Q28: Which of the following has the highest number of atoms?
(a) 0.3 mol of nitrogen gas
(b) 0.5 mol of oxygen gas
(c) 0.4 mol of ozone gas
(d) 0.2 mol of carbon dioxide gas
Ans: (c)
Q29: Find the correct pair.
(a) Virus – Common cold
(b) Bacteria – Kala-azar
(c) Fungi – Anthrax
(d) Protozoa – Elephantiasis
Ans: (a)
The common cold is caused by a virus. Kala-azar is caused by a protozoan, anthrax is caused by a bacterium and elephantiasis is caused by a nematode.
Q30: A block of mass 2 kg is at rest on a plane surface inclined at an angle 30° to the horizontal. Find the magnitude of force exerted by the plane on the block. (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(a) 19.6 N
(b) 9.8 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 24.6 N
Ans: (a)
Force = Mg = 2 x 9.8 = 19.6 N
Q31: Element P has 5 electrons in its L shell while element Q has 5 electrons in its M shell. Which of the following statements is correct regarding elements P and Q?
(a) Both elements have valency equal to 5 only.
(b) Both elements have the same atomic weight.
(c) Atomic number of element P is 7 and that of element Q is 15.
(d) Both elements lose 5 electrons to attain noble gas configuration.
Ans: (c)
Q32: Which of the following does not represent a correct pairing?
(a) Burning of LPG in kitchen stove – Rapid combustion
(b) Burning of white phosphorus – Spontaneous combustion
(c) Burning of coal dust in coal mines – Spontaneous combustion
(d) Burning of magnesium – Slow combustion
Ans: (d)
Q33: Select the option that correctly pairs one rabi crop with one kharif crop:
(a) Pea, Soybean
(b) Mustard, Linseed
(c) Cotton, Bajra
(d) Groundnut, Maize
Ans: (a)
Q34: Which among the following are the negative effects of NPK fertiliser?
(a) Water pollution
(b) Loss of soil texture
(c) Loss of soil fertility
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
NPK is chemical fertiliser. Chemical fertilisers tend to cause water pollution and reduces soil fertility and texture.
Q35: Read the given sentences and select the option that correctly fills the blanks in any two of them:
(i) Zoological parks, botanical gardens, and seed banks are ______ method of conservation of biodiversity.
(ii) ______ is the zone of a biosphere reserve where no human activity is permitted.
(iii) _______ refers to planting of new trees where forests have been destroyed.
(iv) Mudumalai Sanctuary that is famous for Indian elephants is present in ________ state of India.
(a) (i) In situ, (ii) Manipulation zone
(b) (iii) Reforestation, (iv) Kerala
(c) (i) Ex situ, (iii) Reforestation
(d) (ii) Core zone, (iv) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (c)
Q36: A man carrying a bag of mass 30 kg climbs up to a height of 15 m in 50 seconds. Calculate the power delivered by him to the bag:
(a) 78.4 W
(b) 88.2 W
(c) 98.9 W
(d) 19.6 W
Ans: (b)
Power is calculated using the formula: Power = Work / Time
First, we need to calculate the work done against gravity: Work = m * g * h
Where:
m = mass (30 kg)
g = 9.8 m/s2
h = height (15 m)
Work = (30 kg) * (9.8 m/s²) * (15 m) = 4410 J
Now, using the time taken (50 seconds): Power = 4410 J / 50 s = 88.2 W
Thus, the correct answer is (b) 88.2 W.
Q37: A person is sitting 300 m away from a 40 Hz sound source. What is the time interval at which successive compression pulses from the source reach him?
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.025 s
(c) 0.25 s
(d) 0.5 s
Ans: (b)
The time interval (T) can be calculated as T = 1 / Frequency = 1 / 40 Hz = 0.025 s.
Q38: Aradhya's teacher requested her to identify three fundamental characteristics that are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells without exception. Which of the following options do you think could be Aradhya's accurate response?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum, Nucleus, Cytoplasm
(b) Cytoplasm, Plasma membrane, Ribosome
(c) Cell wall, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
(d) Plasma membrane, Mitochondria, Chloroplast
Ans: (b)
Q39: Health is a state of:
I. Physical well being
II. Mental well being
III. Social well being
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) Only I
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (d)
Physical, mental and social well-being must be at an ideal level to consider a person as healthy.
Q40: Read the given statements and select the correct option:
Statement 1: Parenchyma and collenchyma tissues have thick walls and living cells.
Statement 2: Parenchyma forms hard grit of pear fruit and collenchyma forms hard walls of nuts.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Ans: (d)
Q41: Identify the incorrect statement:
(a) The nitrogen cycle involves the fixing of nitrogen gas by nitrogen-fixing bacteria and lightning.
(b) The nitrates and nitrites are used by plants to produce amino acids.
(c) The nitrates and nitrites are released into the atmosphere by denitrifying bacteria and combustion.
(d) Water cycles help to control the level of humidity, water availability etc.
Ans: (c)
Combustion cannot release nitrogen into the atmosphere
Q42: A body of mass 200 g kept at rest breaks into two parts due to internal forces. One part of mass 150 g is found to move at a speed of 12 m/s towards east. What will be the velocity of the other part?
(a) 24 m/s
(b) 6 m/s
(c) 12 m/s
(d) 36 m/s
Ans: (d)
According to conservation of linear momentum,
Initial momentum = Final momentum
200 x 0 = 150 x 12 – 50 x v
⇒ v = 36 m/s
Q43: Read the given statements and select the correct one:
(a) Acute diseases last for an extended period, leading to long-term health issues.
(b) Acquired diseases are physiological irregularities that are present from birth.
(c) Cleft palate results from environmental influences, while haemophilia is due to genetic mutations.
(d) AIDS and German measles cannot be transmitted to a baby from infected mothers.
Ans: (c)
Q44: Which among the following factors does not contribute to soil formation?
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Wind
(c) Water
(d) None of these
Ans: (d)
Bryophytes establish over rocks just after lichens and their roots help to whether the rocks over time.
The wind picks up rocks and smashes them against each other and produces soil.
Water on the other hand may freeze during the night in the crevices and causes breakage of rocks.
Q45: Read the given paragraph. Soil L is well aerated but cannot hold much water, soil M is well aerated and has a very good water holding capacity. Soil N has excellent water holding capacity but is poorly aerated. Select the correct statement regarding soils L, M, and N.
(a) Soil M is commonly found in those regions where xerophytes are abundant.
(b) Soil N is best suited for growing garden plants.
(c) Soil L is best suited for making pots, statues, and toys.
(d) Soil L and N are not suitable for plant growth whereas soil M is best suited for plant growth.
Ans: (d)
Q46: Which among the following is a cell organelle seen in prokaryotes?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Ribosome
(c) Peroxisome
(d) Nucleolus
Ans: (b)
Ribosomes are seen in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. But they are structurally different. However, ribosomes that are similar to the ones in prokaryotes can be seen inside both mitochondria and plastids.
Q47: Look at the given options. Study them carefully and choose the option which is caused by the bacteria named Helicobacter.
(a) Peptic ulcer
(b) Gastric ulcer
(c) Duodenal ulcer
(d) Oesophageal ulcer
Ans: (d)
Peptic ulcer is caused by the bacteria named Helicobacter and is mostly found in the upper gastrointestinal tract.
Q48: Which of the following substances is not pure?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Iron
(c) Milk
(d) Calcium oxide
Ans: (c)
A pure substance consists of a single type of particles having the same chemical nature.
Elements like iron, and compounds like hydrochloric acid and calcium oxide are all pure substances.
Milk, however, is a mixture of several substances, such as water, sugar, fat, protein etc. It is an impure substance because the constituent particles are chemically different.
Q49: Which force directs the passengers to fall sideways when a speeding car takes a sharp turn?
(a) Centrifugal force
(b) Centripetal force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Frictional force
Ans: (a)
When a speeding car takes a sharp turn, the centripetal force helps keep the car in its curved track. The part of passenger's body that is in contact with the car will be in its position due to frictional force.
The rest of the body of the passengers will experience a centrifugal force which is directed away from the center of the curved path.
So the passengers tend to fall sideways when a speeding car takes a sharp turn.
Q50: Which of the following is found at the highest part of the stem?
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Lateral meristem
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Parenchyma
Ans: (a)
Meristem is a region of plant tissue, found chiefly at the growing tips of roots and shoots and in the cambium, consisting of actively dividing cells forming new tissue. Apical meristem is found at the apices of the stem, root and their branches
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