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Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: In a specific coding system, the word ‘LATEST’ is represented as ‘VUGVCN’. How will the word ‘SOURCE’ be encoded in this same system?
(a) GETWQU
(b) TEGUQW
(c) GFWTEU
(d) UQWTEG

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Ans: (a)

Step 1:Understand the encoding for LATEST → VUGVCN

Step 2:Split LATEST into two halves:

  • First half: LAT
  • Second half: EST

Step 3: Reverse LAT (first half) to get TAL.

  • Add +2 to each letter in TAL:
  • T → V (20 + 2 = 22, V)
  • A → C (1 + 2 = 3, C)
  • L → N (12 + 2 = 14, N)
  • This gives VCN, which forms the second half of the encoded word.

Step 4: Reverse EST (second half) to get TSE.

  • Add +2 to each letter in TSE:
  • E → G (5 + 2 = 7, G)
  • S → U (19 + 2 = 21, U)
  • T → V (20 + 2 = 22, V)
  • This gives VUG, which forms the first half of the encoded word.

Thus, LATEST → VUGVCN.

Using the same logic, 'SOURCE' will be coded as  'GETWQU'.

Q2: If PROFESSOR is coded as OSNGDTRPQ, then the word ALLOWED will be coded as:
(a) BMMPXFE
(b) BKMNXDE
(c) ZKKNVDC
(d) ZMKPVFC

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Ans: (d)

In the given word PROFESSOR, the following pattern is used:

P – 1 = O

R + 1 = S

O – 1 = N

F + 1 = G

E – 1 = D

S + 1 = T

S – 1 = R

O + 1 = P

R – 1 = Q

Similarly, ALLOWED will be coded as follows:

A – 1 = Z

L + 1 = M

L – 1 = K

O + 1 = P

W – 1 = V

E + 1 = F

D – 1 = C

Q3: Find the missing terms in the given pattern:
E, M, F, L, G, K, ?, ?
(a) H, J
(b) J, H
(c) S, A
(d) J, I

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Ans: (a)

The given pattern is made up of two series:

(i) E, F, G, ?

(ii) M, L, K, ?

Now, in the first series, the pattern is to add 1.

So, E + 1 = F

F + 1 = G

G + 1 = H

In the second series, the pattern is to subtract 1.

So, M - 1 = L

L - 1 = K

K - 1 = J

Therefore, the missing terms are H and J.

Q4: Find the missing value in the following series:
1, 2, 6, 15, 31, ?

(a) 46
(b) 48
(c) 54
(d) 56

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Ans: (d)

The series is as follows:

1 + 12 = 2

2 + 22 = 6

6 + 3= 15

15 + 42 = 31

31 + 52 = 56

Q5: Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ...
What number should come next?
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 27
(d) 53

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Ans: (b)

In this series, each number is repeated, then 13 is subtracted to arrive at the next number.

So, 27 - 13 = 14

Q6: Puneet is the father of Isha. Isha is the sister of Anjali and Ravi is the grandfather of Anjali. If Suman is the sister of Puneet, then how is Isha related to Suman?
(a) Niece
(b) Aunt
(c) Mother
(d) Grandmother

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Ans: (a)

  • Isha is the daughter of Puneet.
  • Suman is the sister of Puneet, making her the aunt of Isha.
  • Since Isha is the daughter of Puneet, she is also the niece of Suman.
  • Thus, the correct relationship is that Isha is Suman's niece.

Q7: In the following question, there is a relationship between the two terms to the left of (: :) and the same relationship holds between the two terms to its right, out of which one term is missing. Choose the missing term from the given options.
6 : 47 : : 8 : ?
(a) 65
(b) 64
(c) 63
(d) 56

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Ans: (c)

According to the question,

6 × 8 = 48

And 48 – 1 = 47

Similarly, 8 × 8 = 64

And 64 – 1 = 63

Q8: Sameer runs 80 m towards the North, then turns right and runs 40 m. After that, he turns right again and runs 20 m. Finally, he turns left and runs 40 m. What is the distance from his starting point now?
(a) 95 m
(b) 120 m
(c) 100 m
(d) 85 m

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Ans: (c)

  • Sameer starts by running 80 m North.
  • He then turns right (which is East) and runs 40 m.
  • After another right turn (now facing South), he runs 20 m.
  • Finally, he turns left (now facing East) and runs 40 m.
  • To find the distance from the starting point, we can visualize his path: he ends up 100 m away from the starting point.

Q9: If ACE : IKM, then which of the following is true?
(a) DFH : UYZ
(b) RTV : ZBD
(c) PQR : WXY
(d) GHI : PST

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Ans: (b)

According to the question,

ACE : IKM

The pattern followed is as follows:

A + 8 = I

C + 8 = K

E + 8 = M

Now, out of the given options, the same rule is applied for option 2 as follows:

R + 8 = Z

T + 8 = B

V + 8 = D

Q10: A, B and C are siblings. B is the nephew of D, A is the niece of E, and C is the daughter of F. If G is the father of A, then how is B related to C?
(a) Uncle
(b) Brother
(c) Sister
(d) Cousin

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Ans: (b)

A, B and C are siblings.

B is the nephew of D, so it means B is a male.

So, B is the brother of C.

Science Section

Q11: What happens to the speed of wind, if air pressure of a certain area decreases?
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) None of these

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Ans: (b)

As the pressure decreases, the air from high pressure area moves toward the low pressure area, hence the speed of wind increases. 

Q12: Why do we have holes in banners and hoardings?
(a) To save them from air pressure
(b) To pass air from holes
(c) To increase the durability of the hoarding.
(d) All of the above

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Ans: (d)

Holes are made in hanging banners and hoardings in order to tackle the air pressure. The air gets passed through these holes made on the hoardings or banners and thus, reduces the pressure of air on them. Therefore, the hoardings do not get blown away or tear due to air pressure. 

Q13: Which of the following is used as a magnifying glass?
(a) A convex lens
(b) A plane mirror
(c) A concave lens
(d) A concave mirror

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Ans: (a)

A convex lens is used as a magnifying glass. The convex lens bends the parallel rays so that they converge and create a virtual image on our eyes retinas. That virtual image on our retinas appears larger than the real object due to principles of geometry. 

Q14: Which of the following indicates only a physical change?
(a) Burning of wood
(b) Rotting of garbage
(c) Electrolysis of water
(d) Boiling of water

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Ans: (d)

Boiling water is an example of a physical change and not a chemical change because water vapour still has the same molecular structure as liquid water (H2O). Since only the state of the substance has changed and not its chemical nature, it is a physical change.
However, electrolysis of water is a chemical change as the following reaction takes place:
2H2O → 2H2 + O2
Burning of wood and rotting of garbage are also chemical changes as the chemical composition of the substance changes.

Q15: Which of the following is not an adaptation of camels to live in hot deserts?
(a) Water storage ability
(b) Dry dung
(c) Thick fur
(d) Less urine

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Ans: (a)

Camels have thick fur. Camel excrete very small amount of urine and dry dung which help it to conserve water. There's no evidence, though, that camels can store water for long periods of time anywhere in their bodies. Camels store fat in their humps, not water. They can very efficiently conserve water but not store it. Rather than directly storing water, camels are built for adapting to the scarcity of water.  

Q16: The leaves, which are used to protect stored grains from insects and micro-organisms are: 
(a) Mango leaves 
(b) Peepal leaves 
(c) Neem leaves 
(d) Banana leaves

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Ans: (c)
Neem leaves act as insecticides during storage. It protects the stored grains from insects and pathogens like fungi.

Q17: Study the given correlation and identify X. 
Heat treatment: Sterilisation: : Vaccination : X 
(a) Pasteurisation 
(b) Immunisation 
(c) Fertilisation 
(d) Inoculation.

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Ans: (b)
As sterilisation is obtained through heat treatment, similarly immunisation is obtained through vaccination.

Q18: Priyal mixed some pieces of chalk with water. In this change, how many new substances is/are formed? 
(a) 1 
(b) 2 
(c) 3 
(d) No new substance is formed.

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Ans: (d)
When few pieces of chalk are mixed with water,  no new substance is not formed. So, it is a physical change. 

Q19: A boy kicks a football. This is an example of: 
(a) Exothermic reaction 
(b) Endothermic reaction 
(c) Physical change 
(d) Chemical change

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Ans: (c)
The kicking of a ball by the player is an example of a physical change.

Q20: The solutions which do not change the colour of either red or blue litmus are known as _________ solutions. 
(a) Acidic 
(b) Basic    
(c) Neutral 
(d) Alcohol

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Ans: (c)
The solutions which do not change their colour to either red or blue litmus are known as neutral solutions.

Q21: Nylon is used to make ropes because: 
(a) It is wrinkle resistant. 
(b) It is easy to wash. 
(c) It is lustrous in appearance. 
(d) It is very strong.

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Ans: (d)
Nylon is used to make ropes because it is very strong. 

Q22: Given below are two statements about synthetic fibres. 
Choose the correct option.
Statement-I: Synthetic fibres melt on heating and catche fire. 
Statement-II: Synthetic fibres are water absorbers. 
(a) Both the statements are correct. 
(b) Both the statements are incorrect. 
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 
(d) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

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Ans: (d)
Synthetic fibres soak less water than natural fibres.

Q24: Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7(a) I-(i), II-(iv), III-(ii), IV-(iii) 
(b) I-(iii), II-(iv), III-(ii), IV-(i) 
(c) I-(iv), II-(iii), III-(i), IV-(ii) 
(d) I-(ii), II-(iv), III-(iii), IV-(i)

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Ans: (b)
Nylon shrinks after exposure to flame, forms hard beads and gives a smell of burning hair. Wool burns slowly with a smell of burning hair. Acrylic burns with sooty flame, fabric shrinks and black beads are formed. Rayon burns quickly with a smell of burning paper.

Q25: Select the incorrect statement. 
(a) Gold and silver are the most malleable and ductile metals. 
(b) All metals are hard and strong. 
(c) Mercury and gallium are metals which exist in liquid state at room temperature. 
(d) Most of the metals have high specific gravities.

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Ans: (b)
Sodium and potassium are soft metals and can be easily cut with a knife.

Q26: Choose the incorrect statement. 
(a) Anode is an electrode connected to the positive terminal of the battery. 
(b) Pure water is poor conductor of electricity. 
(c) Electrolysis is used in the refining of impure metals. 
(d) Ions can have only a positive charge.

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Ans: (d)
Ions can have negative and positive chargers.

Q27: In the oil wells, X forms the topmost layer, followed by Y and finally Z.  What are X, Y and Z? 
(a) Natural gas, oil and water respectively. 
(b) Petroleum gas, oil and natural gas respectively. 
(c) Natural gas, water and oil respectively. 
(d) Petroleum gas, oil and water respectively.

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Ans: (a)
In oil wells, the layers containing petroleum oil and gas are above that of water, because oil and gas are lighter than water and do not mix with it.  Hence, X is natural is natural gas, Y is oil and Z is water. 

Q28: Radhika examined the properties of three distinct substances using various indicators and noted her findings. Substance X caused phenolphthalein to turn pink, substance Y made the China rose indicator green, and substance Z resulted in methyl orange turning red. What could X, Y, and Z be, respectively?
(a) Sugar solution, Spinach juice, Baking soda
(b) Window cleaner, Apple juice, Soap solution
(c) Lemon juice, Window cleaner, Aerated drink
(d) Lime water, Milk of magnesia, Curd

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Ans: (d)

  • Substance X turned phenolphthalein pink, indicating it is a base. Lime water is a common base.
  • Substance Y turned the China rose indicator green, which suggests it is also a base. Milk of magnesia is known to have this effect.
  • Substance Z turned methyl orange red, indicating it is an acid. Curd is acidic in nature.
  • Thus, the correct identification of X, Y, and Z is Lime water, Milk of magnesia, and Curd, respectively.

Q29: Which of the following is the correct explanation of 'land breeze'?
(a) Winds that flow on oceans only
(b) Winds that flow on land only
(c) Flow of winds from ocean towards land
(d) Flow of winds from land to ocean

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Ans: (d)

When winds flow from land to ocean, they are called land breeze. During night, the land cools down faster than the ocean surface. The warmer air from the ocean surface rises up and creates an area of low pressure near the surface. This is filled in by cooler air from the land. This gives rise to the land breeze.  

Q30: What is the role of lactic acid production in our body during intense exercise?
(a) It provides energy in shortage of oxygen.
(b) It excretes waste substance from the body.
(c) Its decreases heart rate.
(d) It helps to decrease blood sugar level.

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Ans: (a)

During intense exercise, there may not be enough oxygen available to complete the process, so a substance called lactate is made. Our body can convert this lactate to energy without using oxygen.

Q31: Select the correct statement regarding the given picture.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7(i) Micro organism shown is bread mould (Rhizopus). 
(ii) It belongs to group fungi. 
(iii) It is safe to eat bread infected with this microbe. 
(iv) It does not grow in moist condition. 
(a) (i) and (ii) 
(b) (iii) an (iv) 
(c) (i) and (iv) 
(d) Only (i)

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Ans: (c)
Option (a) and (d) show fungi, while option (b) represents the picture of an Amoeba.

Q32: Identify the given micro-organism. 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7(a) Bacteria 
(b) Algae 
(c) Fungi 
(d) Protozoa

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Ans: (b)
The shown microorganism is Spirogyra belonging to Algae. Spirogyra is a filamentous alga that consists of thin unbranched chains of cylindrical cells.

Q33: Based on the diagram, select the correct statement. 

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

(a) Q and R show holozoic heterotrophic nutrition whereas P shows mixotrophic nutrition. 
(b) S is helpful in crop growth and increases capacity of soil to hold water. 
(c) P and S use pseudopodia for feeding and locomotion. 
(d) In Q, cilia help in locomotion and catching prey whereas in P pseudopodia help in catching prey.

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Ans: (d)
P is Amoeba, Q is Paramecium, R is Euglena, S is AIDS virus. In Amoeba, pseudopodia help in catching prey. In Paramecium, cilia help in locomotion.

Q34: Match the columns and choose the correct option.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7(a) (A)- (iv), (B)-(i), (C)- (ii), (D)-(iii) 
(b) (A)- (ii), (B)-(i), (C)- (iv), (D)-(iii) 
(c) (A)- (iii), (B)-(i), (C)- (ii), (D)-(iv) 
(d) (A)- (iv), (B)-(ii), (C)- (i), (D)-(iii)

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Ans: (a)
The correct matching is
Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

Q35: How many of the listed organisms are classified as ureotelic?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5

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Ans: (c)

  • The term ureotelic refers to organisms that excrete urea as their primary nitrogenous waste.
  • In this case, the question asks for the count of such organisms among the given options.
  • After analyzing the organisms, it is determined that 3 of them are ureotelic.
  • This means that they primarily convert ammonia into urea, which is less toxic and easier to excrete.

Q36: Which among the given statements is incorrect regarding anaerobic respiration?
(a) It takes place in the absence of oxygen.
(b) Less energy is released during this process.
(c) Food is broken down into carbon dioxide, alcohol, and energy in this process.
(d) Yeast, some bacteria and parasitic flatworms perform this type of respiration.

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Ans: (c)

  • Anaerobic respiration occurs when there is no oxygen available.
  • During this process, less energy is produced compared to aerobic respiration.
  • In anaerobic respiration, food is typically broken down into carbon dioxide and alcohol, not just carbon dioxide and water.
  • Organisms like yeast and certain bacteria utilize this method to generate energy.

Q37: Which of the following control(s) the movement of lungs?
(a) Diaphragm membrane
(b) Trachea
(c) Ribs
(d) Internal oblique muscles

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Ans: (a)

The breathing is controlled by the movement of diaphragm. Diaphragm is a membrane which is between the chest and abdomen. The movement of diaphragm is controlled by a group of muscles, called intercostal muscles.

When the diaphragm moves down, the rib cage expands. This leads to the expansion inside the lungs. As a result, the air moves into the lungs. This process is called inspiration or inhalation.

Q38: Which of the following is/are the way(s) to prevent soil erosion?
(a) Less use of fertilisers
(b) Planting grass and shrubs
(c) Step farming
(d) All of the above

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Ans: (d)

Soil erosion is a naturally occurring process that affects all land forms. In agriculture, soil erosion refers to the wearing away of a field's topsoil by the natural physical forces of water and wind or through forces associated with farming activities such as tillage. Less use of fertilisers, planting grass and shrubs, and step farming all are the ways of preventing the soil erosion.

Q39: Which of the following options does not show a chemical change?
(a) Souring of milk
(b) Crushing of a can
(c) Toasting of bread
(d) Burning of wood

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Ans: (b)

Crushing of a can only changes the shape of the object and is a physical change.

Since no new substance is produced, it cannot be a chemical change.

Q40: Which of the following is not a measure of conservation of water?
(a) Generation of hydro electricity
(b) Keeping the tap close while brushing
(c) Rainwater harvesting
(d) Using waste water for plants

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Ans: (a)

Water conservation includes all the policies, strategies and activities made to sustainably manage the natural resource fresh water, to protect the water environment, and to meet the current and future human demand. Generation of hydro electricity is a measure of making electricity by running water, it has nothing to do with water conservation.

Q41: How do the roots of the sweet potato benefit the plant?
(a) (ii) and (iii) only
(b) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

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Ans: (a)

  • Roots of sweet potato play a crucial role in the plant's survival.
  • They store food for the plant, which is essential for growth.
  • Additionally, they absorb water and mineral salts from the soil, which are vital for the plant's health.
  • While roots do transport nutrients, they do not only send them to the leaves, making option (a) the correct choice.

Q42: Which of the following does not exist in a balanced ecosystem?
(a) Interconnected food chains. 
(b) Interdependence among living organisms and the environment. 
(c) Animals dependent on plants but plants are not dependent on animals. 
(d) Communities made up of different populations of organisms.

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Ans: (c)
Plants and animal depend on each other to maintain the ecological balance. Plants not only depend on animals for their supply of carbon dioxide but also for other processes like pollination and dispersal of seeds.

Q43: Mercury is closer to the sun than Venus. But Venus is hotter than Mercury. It is because: 
(a) Mercury has no atmosphere and Venus has a thick atmosphere which can retain the heat. 
(b) Mercury is mostly made up of sedimentary rocks while Venus contains igneous rocks. 
(c) The sun absorbs the heat of the Mercury as it is closer to the sun. 
(d) All of the above.

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Ans: (a)
Though mercury is closer to the sun than Venus, Venus is hotter than Mercury. The reason is that Mercury has no atmosphere and Venus has a thick atmosphere which can retain the heat.

Q44: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a submerged aquatic plant?
(a) Flexible stem
(b) Plant absorbs dissolved oxygen through its body surface
(c) Long and narrow leaves
(d) Stomata are located only on the upper side of the leaves

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Ans: (d)

  • Stomata are small openings on leaves that allow gas exchange. In submerged aquatic plants, they are typically found on both sides of the leaves to maximize oxygen intake.
  • A flexible stem helps the plant withstand water currents.
  • Long and narrow leaves reduce resistance in water, aiding in movement and light capture.
  • Absorbing dissolved oxygen through the body surface is essential for survival underwater.

Q45: Select the plants that can be pollinated by air:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(b) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) only
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) only

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Ans: (d)

  • Pollination by air is known as anemophily, where pollen is carried by wind.
  • Plants that rely on air for pollination typically have lightweight pollen and are often found in open areas.
  • Options (iii), (iv), (v), and (vi) are examples of such plants that utilize wind for their reproductive process.
  • Understanding the characteristics of these plants helps in identifying their pollination methods.

Achievers Section

Q46: Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the correct statement regarding P–S:
(a) S contains one or more R, inside which female gamete is formed.
(b) During pollination, pollen grains from P are transferred to R of different flowers.
(c) Q is a two-lobed structure that contains double layered pollen grains.
(d) R is a tubular stalk that connects stigma to the T.

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Ans: (a)

  • S is described as containing one or more R, where the female gamete develops. This indicates that S plays a crucial role in reproduction.
  • Option (b) is incorrect because it mentions pollen transfer to R of different flowers, which is not the case.
  • Option (c) incorrectly states that Q has double layered pollen grains, while the key indicates otherwise.
  • Option (d) changes the connection from stigma to S to stigma to T, which is not accurate.

Q47: Read the given paragraph where few words have been italicised and select the correct statement regarding them:
(a) Small intestine should be replaced with large intestine.
(b) Vesicles should be replaced with valves.
(c) Pancreas should not be changed as it is correctly mentioned.
(d) Amino acids should be replaced with fatty acids.

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Ans: (d)

  • Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, while fatty acids are components of fats. The statement suggests that the term "amino acids" is incorrect in the context and should be replaced with "fatty acids".
  • The other options either suggest incorrect replacements or state that the term is already correct, which is not the case here.
  • Understanding the difference between these terms is crucial in biology, as they play different roles in the body.
  • Thus, the correct choice is to replace "amino acids" with "fatty acids".

Q48: Study the given experimental set-up carefully.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7Rusting of iron nails will not take place in: 
(a) P and Q only 
(b) Q and R only 
(c) P and R only 
(d) All of these

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (a)
In test tube P, iron nails do not rust because boiled water does not contain any oxygen. 

A thin layer of oil also prevents oxygen from reaching the water in the test tube. In test tube Q, iron nails do not rust because soda lime absorbs water vapours. In test tube R, iron nails will rust because water and oxygen both are available.

Q49: Choose the correct statement regarding P, Q, R and S .

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7(i) P is the mould from which penicillin is made. 
(ii) R is considered as connecting link between plants and animals. 
(iii) Q and S are parasite which lives in the bodies of other organisms including human beings. 
(iv) R and S bear chlorophyll and prepare food in presence of sunlight. 
(v) S is colonial form of algae. 
(a) (ii), (iv), and (v) only
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) only 
(c) (i), (iii), and (iv) only 
(d) All of the above

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (a)
P is Rhizopus, Q is Giardia, R is Euglena and S is Volvox. Euglena (R) is considered as connecting link between plants and animals, Euglena (R) and Volvox (S) are parasites which live in the bodies of other organisms including human beings, and Volvox (S) is fungi.

Q50: Ms. Vrinda demonstrated a science experiment to her student in following steps: 
Step 1: She burned a substance ‘X’ over the candle flame and white dazzling light was observed. Also, white powdery ash was left behind.
Step 2:  She mixed the white ash formed with small amount of water. Then she dipped red and blue litmus papers into the solution one by one.
Which of the following observations are correct?
I. The substance burned in step 1 was magnesium.
II. The white ash formed in step 1 was magnesium oxide.
III. The solution formed in step 2 was acidic in nature.
IV. The solution formed in step 2 turned blue litmus red.
(a) I and II only 
(b) III and IV only 
(c) I, II and III only 
(d) II, III and IV only

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (a)
The substance “X” burned in step 1 was magnesium. When magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, magnesium reacts with the oxygen present in the air to form magnesium oxide. Ash from magnesium ribbon is magnesium oxide. When this oxide is dissolved in water, it liberates hydroxyl ions in water. This makes the solution basic. Hence, we know in the basic solution red litmus turns into blue.

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FAQs on Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 1 - Science Olympiad Class 7

1. What topics are covered in the Class 7 Science Olympiad exam?
Ans. The Class 7 Science Olympiad exam typically covers a variety of topics including life sciences, physical sciences, earth sciences, and environmental science. Students may encounter questions related to biology, chemistry, physics, and astronomy, among others.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Class 7 Science Olympiad?
Ans. To prepare effectively for the Class 7 Science Olympiad, students should review their school science textbooks, practice sample papers, and take mock tests. Joining study groups and using online resources, such as educational videos and quizzes, can also enhance understanding and retention of scientific concepts.
3. What is the format of the Class 7 Science Olympiad exam?
Ans. The Class 7 Science Olympiad exam generally consists of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) that assess students' knowledge across various scientific topics. The exam typically has a specific time limit, and students must answer a set number of questions, which may vary each year.
4. How does the scoring system work in the Class 7 Science Olympiad?
Ans. In the Class 7 Science Olympiad, each correct answer usually earns students a certain number of points, while incorrect answers may lead to a deduction of points. There may also be a neutral score for unanswered questions, so it’s essential for students to manage their time and answer confidently.
5. Are there any benefits of participating in the Science Olympiad for Class 7 students?
Ans. Yes, participating in the Science Olympiad offers several benefits for Class 7 students, including the opportunity to enhance their scientific knowledge, improve critical thinking and problem-solving skills, and gain experience in competitive exams. It also helps build confidence and can be a valuable addition to academic profiles.
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