UGC NET Paper 2: Commerce 3rd Sept 2024 Shift 1 | UGC NET Past Year Papers PDF Download

Q1: Which one of the following is not a basic property of Indifference curve?

(a) Indifference curve slope downwards to right

(b) Indifference curve of imperfect substitutes are convex to the origin

(c) Indifference curve either intersect or are tangent to one another

(d) Upper indifference curves indicate a higher level of satisfaction

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Indifference curve either intersects or are tangent to one another.

Indifference curve either intersect or are tangent to one another:

• This is incorrect. Indifference curves represent different levels of satisfaction or utility. If two indifference curves were to intersect, it would imply that the same bundle of goods provides two different levels of satisfaction, which is logically inconsistent. Therefore, indifference curves cannot intersect or be tangent to one another.

Other Related Points

Indifference curve slopes downwards to right:

• This is correct. Indifference curves slope downwards to the right because, to maintain the same level of satisfaction, an increase in the quantity of one good must be accompanied by a decrease in the quantity of another good.

Indifference curve of imperfect substitutes are convex to the origin:

• This is correct. Indifference curves are convex to the origin because of the diminishing marginal rate of substitution. As a consumer substitutes one good for another, the amount of the good being given up decreases at a diminishing rate.

Upper indifference curves indicate a higher level of satisfaction:

• This is correct. Higher indifference curves represent higher levels of satisfaction because they correspond to larger quantities of one or both goods.

Q2: Arrange the given steps involved in designing a channel system in the logical order - 

A. Evaluating the distribution environment

B. Evaluating the short-listed alternative designs and selecting the one that suits the firm best

C. Matching the channel design to customer needs/characteristics

D. Choosing the channel intensity and number of tiers

E. Evaluating competitors channel design

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C, E, B, D

(b) C, A, E, D, B

(c) C, E, D, A, B

(d) C, A, E, B, D

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is C, A, E, B, D.

Matching the channel design to customer needs/characteristics (C):

• This is the first step because understanding customer needs is fundamental to designing an effective channel system.
• It ensures that the channel design aligns with what the customers require, enhancing customer satisfaction and loyalty.

Evaluating the distribution environment (A):

• Next, it's crucial to assess the current distribution environment to understand existing capabilities and constraints.
• This helps in identifying potential opportunities and threats within the market.

Evaluating competitors' channel design (E):

• After understanding the environment, analyzing competitors' channel strategies provides insights into industry standards and best practices.
• This step is essential for benchmarking and identifying areas for differentiation.

Evaluating the short-listed alternative designs and selecting the one that suits the firm best (B):

• Based on the gathered information, the firm can now evaluate different channel designs and choose the most suitable one.
• This ensures that the selected design aligns with the firm’s goals and customer needs.

Choosing the channel intensity and number of tiers (D):

• The final step involves deciding on the intensity and tier structure of the channel, ensuring it is efficient and effective.
• This decision impacts the reach and depth of the distribution network.

Q3: Arrange the following steps of Activity Based Costing (ABC) in proper sequence - 

A. Staff Training and Review Follow up

B. Identify Main Activities

C. Process specification

D. Identify Non-value adding Activity and cost pools

E. Selection of Activity Cost Drivers and Tracing of Costs with objects

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) C, B, D, E, A

(b) B, C, D, E, A

(c) D, B, C, A, E

(d) E, D, B, C, A

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is C, B, D, E, A.

Process Specification (C):

• This initial step involves detailing the essential processes within the organization. This includes mapping out each process to understand its components, workflow, and the sequence of activities involved.
• It helps in understanding the integral aspects of operations, which is crucial for accurate activity identification and cost allocation.
• Detailed process specification ensures consistency and completeness in documenting how tasks are performed.

Identify Main Activities (B):

• After the processes are specified, the next step is to identify the main activities within those processes. Main activities are the core functions or operations such as production, order processing, customer service, etc.
• This identification distinguishes between primary activities that add value and become the focal point for cost analysis.
• Main activities are essential for allocating direct costs accurately to various cost objects (products, services, etc.).

Identify Non-value Adding Activities and Cost Pools (D):

• Once the main activities are identified, it is important to evaluate all activities and distinguish non-value adding activities which do not contribute directly to the customer’s perception of worth.
• Non-value adding activities often involve waste, redundancy, or inefficiencies. Examples include rework, inspections, and waiting time.
• Creating cost pools involves grouping costs related to similar non-value adding activities, helping to focus on areas where cost reduction can be significantly impactful.

Selection of Activity Cost Drivers and Tracing of Costs with Objects (E):

• The fourth step involves selecting the most appropriate activity cost drivers, which are factors that drive the cost associated with an activity. These can include the number of hours worked, units produced, machine hours, or any measurable event that correlates with cost generation.
• Tracing costs with objects means associating the costs incurred in activities with specific cost objects, such as products, services, projects, or departments. This is done using the identified cost drivers to assign costs accurately.
• This step ensures that overhead costs are allocated based on actual consumption rather than arbitrary averages, leading to more precise product costing.

Staff Training and Review Follow-up (A):

• The final step is to implement training programs for staff to ensure they understand how to use the ABC system effectively. This includes learning how to identify activities, select cost drivers, and allocate costs.
• Ongoing review and follow-up are also critical to ensure that the ABC system remains accurate and effective. Regular reviews help in identifying areas for improvement, ensuring data accuracy, and maintaining the relevance of the cost drivers and activity analysis.
• Review and follow-up activities also help in refining the system over time based on feedback and changing organizational needs.

Other Related Points

• Activity Based Costing (ABC): This is a comprehensive costing method that provides a more accurate reflection of costs incurred by an organization in the production of its goods and services. It does this by tracing costs to activities and then to products based on their use of these activities, rather than just spreading costs uniformly.
• Benefits of ABC: The main advantages include more precise product costing, a better understanding of overheads, stimulated process improvements, and valuable data for strategic decisions. It helps companies identify and eliminate waste, better manage spending, and improve profitability.
• Implementation Challenges: Implementing ABC can be complex and resource-intensive. It requires detailed data collection and continuous monitoring to ensure accuracy. However, the insights gained typically justify the effort and expense.

Q4: The Narasimham Committee 1991 recommended the reforms with respect to the banking sector. These reforms are also known as:

(a) First generation reforms

(b) Second generation reforms

(c) Financial sector reforms

(d) Third generation reforms

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is First generation reforms.

First Generation Reforms:

• The Narasimham Committee (1991) was instrumental in recommending a series of reforms to modernize and liberalize the Indian banking sector.
• These reforms are commonly referred to as First Generation Reforms because they were the initial set of changes aimed at improving the efficiency and competitiveness of the banking sector.
• The focus was on reducing the fiscal deficit, liberalizing interest rates, enhancing prudential norms, improving the efficiency of public sector banks, and facilitating the entry of private and foreign banks.

Other Related Points

Second Generation Reforms:

• These were subsequent reforms aimed at further deepening the financial sector reforms initiated by the first generation.
• They focused on areas such as strengthening the regulatory framework, improving corporate governance, and enhancing the transparency and disclosure norms.

Financial Sector Reforms:

• While this term is broader and could encompass both first and second generation reforms, it is not specific to the recommendations of the Narsimhan Committee 1991 alone.

Third Generation Reforms:

• This term generally refers to the most recent phase of reforms targeting advanced financial instruments, technology integration, and more sophisticated risk management practices.
• It is not directly related to the initial reforms recommended by the Narsimhan Committee 1991.

Q5: Import of service means: 

A. The Supplier of service is located in India

B. The Supplier of service is located outside India

C. The Recipient of service is located in India

D. The Recipient of service is located outside India

E. The place of Supply of service is in India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & E Only

(b) A, D & E Only

(c) B, D & E Only

(d) B, C & E Only

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is B, C & E Only.

The supplier of service is located outside India (B):

• This criterion implies that the provider or seller of the service operates and is established in a location outside the territorial boundaries of India.
• For a service to be considered an "import," it must originate from an external source, which means the supplier's operations are based outside India.
• Examples include consultancy services provided by a US company, IT services delivered by a firm in Ireland, or marketing services offered by an entity in Singapore.

The recipient of service is located in India (C):

• The recipient being located in India indicates that the end user or the client of the service is based within the geographical confines of India.
• This ensures that the services consumed are for the benefit of an individual or business entity operating within India, thus falling under the purview of Indian regulations and policies.
• An example could be an Indian company utilizing the web design services of a UK-based firm for developing its corporate website, where the beneficiary is clearly the Indian company.

The place of supply of service is in India (E):

• The "place of supply" refers to the location where the service is utilized or where the benefits of the service are consumed. For imports, this place must be within India.
• This condition is critical for the services to qualify as imports because it establishes the jurisdiction for taxation and regulatory compliance. By defining the place of supply as India, the services become subject to Indian tax laws like GST.
• For instance, if an Indian company hires a foreign consultant to provide strategic advice and the advice is implemented and used in India, the place of supply is India.

Q6: A statistical statement in International business that shows at a point the value of financial assets of residents of an economy that are claims on non-residents or are gold bullion held as reserve assets and the liabilities of residents of an economy to non-residents is known as

(a) Currency Composition Table

(b) Special Purpose Entities (SPES)

(c) Cross Border Flows

(d) The International Investment Position (IIP)

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is The International Investment Position (IIP).

The International Investment Position (IIP):

• The International Investment Position (IIP) is a financial statement that provides a snapshot of an economy's external financial assets and liabilities at a specific point in time.
• It includes financial assets of residents that are claims on non-residents or are gold bullion held as reserve assets.
• Additionally, it accounts for the liabilities of residents to non-residents, such as foreign investments in the local economy.
• The IIP helps in assessing a country's financial stability and its economic relationships with the rest of the world.

Other Related Points

Currency Composition Table:

• This table typically provides information on the currency composition of a country's foreign exchange reserves, not the overall investment position.

Special Purpose Entities (SPES):

• Special Purpose Entities (SPES) are legal entities created for a specific, narrow purpose, often used in structured finance transactions to isolate financial risk.
• They do not provide a comprehensive snapshot of an economy's financial assets and liabilities to non-residents.

Cross Border Flows:

• Cross Border Flows refer to the movement of capital and financial assets between different countries, often tracked as part of the Balance of Payments.
• However, they do not provide a point-in-time snapshot of an economy's financial position.

Q7: If two regression lines are: 8x - 10y + 66 = 0 and 40x - 18y = 214, then X̅ & Y̅ are respectively

(a) 13, 14

(b) 16, 15

(c) 14, 13

(d) 13, 17

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is 13, 17.

Regression Lines:

• The given regression lines are: 8x - 10y + 66 = 0 and 40x - 18y = 214.
• The intersection of these lines represents the means (X̅ and Y̅) of the variables.

Finding the Point of Intersection:

• To find X̅ and Y̅, solve the two equations simultaneously:
• Simplify the first equation: 8x - 10y = -66
• Simplify the second equation: 40x - 18y = 214
• Multiply the first equation by 2 to align y coefficients: 16x - 20y = -132
• Solve the system of equations:
  • 16x - 20y = -132
  • 40x - 18y = 214
• Subtract the two equations to eliminate y:
  • (16x - 20y) - (40x - 18y) = -132 - 214
  • -24x - 2y = -346
  • Solve for y: y = 17
  • Substitute y = 17 back into one of the original equations to solve for x: x = 13
• Thus, the means are X̅ = 13 and Y̅ = 17.

Q8: Which of the following are true in case of Internal Reconstruction? 

A. The existing company is liquidated

B. No new company is formed

C. There is certain reduction of capital and sometime liabilities are also reduced

D. The new company issues fresh capital

E. It is done as per section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, D & E only

(b) A, C & E only

(c) B, C & E only

(d) B, C & D only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is B, C & E Only.

B: No new company is formed:

• This point confirms that during internal reconstruction, the existing company undergoes restructuring but is not dissolved or liquidated.
• Internal reconstruction mainly involves reorganizing the financial structure of the same legal entity, without any necessity to create a new company.

C: There is certain reduction of capital and sometimes liabilities are also reduced:

• Internal reconstruction often involves altering the existing capital structure. This might include reducing share capital, writing off accumulated losses, or modifying debt obligations.
• Such measures are taken to present a healthier financial state of the company and potentially make it more attractive to investors and creditors.
• Reduction of liabilities can help in improving the company's balance sheet and financial ratios.

E: It is done as per section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013:

• Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013, governs the reduction of share capital, which is a key aspect of internal reconstruction.
• This section outlines the legal framework and procedures required for a company to reduce its capital, ensuring that it is done in compliance with statutory regulations and safeguards the interests of creditors and shareholders.

Other Related Points

• Internal Reconstruction: It refers to the reorganization of a company’s financial structure without dissolving the existing company. The purpose is typically to reduce liabilities, adjust capital structure, and write off accumulated losses to rejuvenate the company financially.
• Key Features:
  • Involves actions such as reduction of share capital, rearrangement of company debts, and sometimes change in ownership stakes.
  • Does not involve the creation of a new company but focuses on reshaping the financial framework of the existing entity.
  • Requires approval from shareholders and compliance with relevant sections of the Companies Act to ensure the legality of the processes.
• Legal Framework: Section 66 of the Companies Act, 2013, is pivotal as it details the procedures and legal requirements for the reduction of share capital, ensuring that the interests of stakeholders are protected and the company adheres to statutory compliance during its reconstruction efforts.

Q9: If selling price per unit is ₹56.00. Variable cost per unit is ₹32.00 and total fixed cost is ₹60,000, what is the number of units that used to be sold in order to achieve a profit of ₹84,000?

(a) 6000 units

(b) 8400 units

(c) 5000 units

(d) 6500 units

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is 6000 units.

• To achieve a profit of ₹84,000, the total revenue must cover both the total fixed costs and the desired profit.

• Total fixed cost is ₹60,000.

• Desired profit is ₹84,000.

• Contribution per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit = ₹56 - ₹32 = ₹24.

• Number of units to be sold = (Total fixed cost + Desired profit) / Contribution per unit = (₹60,000 + ₹84,000) / ₹24 = 6000 units.

Q10: Arrange the following sequentially with respect to operating cycle of a manufacturing firm - 

A. Payables Deferral Period

B. Finished Goods Conversion Period

C. Raw Material Conversion Period

D. Receivables Conversion Period

E. Work-in-progress Conversion Period

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, D, C, E, B

(b) C, E, B, D, A

(c) B, D, A, E, C

(d) D, B, E, A, C

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is C, E, B, D, A.

Raw Material Conversion Period (C):

• This is the initial phase where raw materials are procured and converted into work-in-progress items.
• It marks the beginning of the manufacturing process where raw materials are prepared for production.

Work-in-progress Conversion Period (E):

• During this phase, raw materials are further processed and converted into finished goods.
• This stage includes all activities involved in transforming raw materials into completed products.

Finished Goods Conversion Period (B):

• In this period, the finished goods are stored before being sold.
• It involves managing inventory until the products are ready for delivery to customers.

Receivables Conversion Period (D):

• This phase involves the time taken to collect payments from customers after the goods have been sold.
• It is crucial for maintaining cash flow and ensuring liquidity for the firm.

Payables Deferral Period (A):

• This final phase involves the time period in which the firm can defer payments to its suppliers.
• It helps in managing cash outflows and maintaining a balance between receivables and payables.

Q11: The current ratio of a company is 2 ∶ 1. Which one the following suggestions would improve the current ratio?

(a) Purchase of stock for cash

(b) Cash collection from debtors

(c) Pay a current liability

(d) Purchase of fixed assets

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is to Pay a current liability

Option 1: Purchase of stock for cash

• This transaction decreases cash (a current asset) and increases inventory (another current asset).
• The total current assets remain unchanged.
• Therefore, the current ratio remains the same.
• This does not improve the current ratio.

Option 2: Cash collection from debtors

• This transaction increases cash (a current asset) and decreases debtors (another current asset).
• The total current assets remain unchanged.
• Therefore, the current ratio remains the same.
• This does not improve the current ratio.

Option 3: Pay a current liability

1. This transaction decreases cash (a current asset) and decreases current liabilities.
2. As a result, the numerator (current assets) decreases, but the denominator (current liabilities) decreases as well.
3. This generally results in an improvement in the current ratio.
4. Therefore, this option improves the current ratio.

Option 4: Purchase of fixed assets

• This transaction decreases cash (a current asset) and increases fixed assets (a non-current asset).
• The total current assets decrease.
• Therefore, the current ratio decreases.
• This does not improve the current ratio.

Q12: Which one of the following is NOT an issue (to be tackled) of conceptual component of a CRM programme?

(a) Choosing the technology

(b) Setting out the objectives in clear terms

(c) Processing all customer requests coming in through multiple channels

(d) Putting customers first

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Processing all customer requests coming in through multiple channels.

Processing all customer requests coming in through multiple channels:

• This task falls under the operational or technical component of a CRM programme rather than the conceptual component. It involves the implementation of systems and processes to handle customer interactions efficiently.
• In a financial enterprise, this would include integrating various communication channels like phone, email, chat, and social media to ensure a seamless customer experience.

Other Related Points

Choosing the technology:

• This is indeed a conceptual issue because it involves strategic decisions about the type of CRM system that will best support the organization's goals and customer relationship strategies.

Setting out the objectives in clear terms:

• Another conceptual issue, setting clear objectives helps define the purpose and goals of the CRM programme, ensuring alignment with the overall business strategy of the financial enterprise.

Putting customers first:

• This is a key conceptual principle of any CRM programme. It emphasizes the importance of customer-centric strategies and aligning the organization's operations to meet customer needs effectively.

Q13: Which of the following are the characteristics of a Leader? 

A. Focuses on systems and structure

B. Eye on the horizon

C. Asks how and when

D. Does things right

E. Originates

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & D Only

(b) B & E Only

(c) B, C & D Only

(d) A, B, D & E Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is B & E Only.

Eye on the horizon (B):

• Leaders are visionary and focus on the long-term goals and future direction of the organization.
• They anticipate future trends and prepare the organization to adapt and thrive in changing environments.

Originates (E):

• Leaders are innovative and original, often coming up with new ideas and approaches.
• They inspire and motivate others to follow their lead and embrace change and innovation.

Other Related Points

Focuses on systems and structure (A):

• This is typically a characteristic of managers rather than leaders.
• Managers ensure that organizational processes and structures are functioning efficiently.

Asks how and when (C):

• This is more of a managerial trait, focusing on the implementation and execution of tasks.
• Leaders, on the other hand, are more concerned with 'what' and 'why', setting the vision and direction.

Does things right (D):

• Again, this is a trait associated with managers who ensure that tasks are completed correctly and efficiently.
• Leaders focus on doing the right things, aligning actions with the overall vision and goals.

Q14: Which of the following item is included in the definition of the term "Goods" as per Sales of Goods Act, 1930?

(a) Purchase of lottery tickets

(b) The decree of Court of Law

(c) Actionable claims

(d) Immovable Property

Ans: B

Sol: The answer is The decree of Court of Law

The decree of Court of Law:

• A decree of Court of Law is considered a "good" under the Sales of Goods Act, 1930, because it represents a tangible, transferable document that can be bought and sold.
• It can be treated as personal property and falls under the definition of goods in the legal context.

Other Related Points

Purchase of lottery tickets:

• This option is incorrect because lottery tickets are considered gambling instruments and not "goods" under the Sales of Goods Act, 1930.
• Actionable claims:
  • Incorrect as actionable claims refer to claims that can be enforced by a legal action and are excluded from the definition of goods under the Sales of Goods Act, 1930.

Immovable Property:

• This is not included in the definition of "goods" as the Sales of Goods Act, 1930, specifically pertains to movable property. Immovable property such as land and buildings are governed by different laws.

Q15: Compute the after-tax cost of capital of a company in case a perpetual bond (face value is ₹100) is sold as well as redeemed at par having coupon rate of interest being 7% and corporate tax rate is 30%.

(a) 2.1%

(b) 4.9%

(c) 7%

(d) 10%

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is 4.9%.
​Given:

• Coupon rate (interest rate): 7% or 0.07
• Corporate tax rate: 30% or 0.30

Steps for Computation:

1. Calculate the pre-tax interest:
   Pre-tax interest = Coupon rate = 0.07
2. Calculate the after-tax interest:
   After-tax interest = 0.07 × (1 - 0.30)
3. Simplify:
   After-tax interest = 0.07 × 0.70
4. Final Calculation:
   After-tax interest = 0.049 or 4.9%

Answer: 4.9%

Q16: Which of the following is NOT the assumption of Baumol's model of cash management?

(a) The firm is unable to forecast its cash needs with certainty

(b) The opportunity cost of holding cash is known

(c) The firm will incur the same transaction cost whenever it converts securities to cash

(d) The firm's cash payments occur uniformly over a period of time

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is The firm is unable to forecast its cash needs with certainty.

The firm is unable to forecast its cash needs with certainty:

• This statement is not an assumption of Baumol's model of cash management. The Baumol model assumes that the firm has predictable and stable cash flow requirements.
• The model aims to minimize the total cost of holding cash and the transaction costs of converting securities to cash, which relies on the predictability of cash needs.
• If a firm cannot forecast its cash needs, it would not be able to effectively apply the Baumol model to manage its cash holdings.

Other Related Points

The opportunity cost of holding cash is known:

• This is a correct assumption of Baumol's model. The opportunity cost represents the return that could be earned if the cash were invested in marketable securities instead.

The firm will incur the same transaction cost whenever it converts securities to cash:

• Baumol's model assumes a constant transaction cost for converting securities to cash, which simplifies the calculation of the optimal cash balance.

The firm's cash payments occur uniformly over a period of time:

• This is another assumption of Baumol's model. The uniform distribution of cash outflows allows for a more straightforward application of the model to calculate the optimal cash balance.

Q17: Which one of the following is NOT good for bargainers while bargaining with employees?

(a) Do not hurry

(b) Build a reputation for being fair but not firm

(c) Strive to keep some flexibility in your position

(d) Respect the importance of face saving for the other party

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Build a reputation for being fair but not firm.

Build a reputation for being fair but not firm:

• In financial enterprises, being perceived as fair but not firm can be detrimental during bargaining processes.
• A firm stance is often necessary to ensure that negotiations lead to mutually beneficial agreements.
• Lack of firmness can lead to perceptions of weakness, potentially compromising future negotiations.

Other Related Points

Do not hurry:

• Not hurrying during negotiations allows for thorough consideration of all aspects of the agreement, leading to better outcomes.

Strive to keep some flexibility in your position:

• Flexibility can help in finding common ground and reaching a compromise, which is beneficial in a dynamic financial environment.

Respect the importance of face saving for the other party:

• Respecting the other party's need to save face helps in maintaining a positive relationship and can facilitate smoother future negotiations.

Q18: An exploratory study is finished when the researcher has achieved the following: 

A. Established the major dimensions of the research task

B. Defined a set of subsidiary investigative questions that can be used as guides to a detailed research design

C. Developed several hypotheses about possible causes of a management dilemma

D. Learned that certain other hypothesis are such remote possibilities that they can be safely ignored in any subsequent study

E. Concluded additional research is needed and it is feasible

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A & B only

(b) A, B & C only

(c) A, B, C & D only

(d) B, C, D & E only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A, B, C & D only.

Established the major dimensions of the research task (A):

• This involves identifying the key areas and boundaries of the research topic.
• It helps in setting a clear scope for the study and ensures that the research is focused and manageable.

Defined a set of subsidiary investigative questions that can be used as guides to a detailed research design (B):

• These questions break down the main research question into smaller, more manageable parts.
• They provide a roadmap for the detailed research design and help in addressing specific aspects of the research problem.

Developed several hypotheses about possible causes of a management dilemma (C):

• Hypotheses are tentative s that can be tested through further research.
• In an exploratory study, developing hypotheses helps in understanding potential reasons behind a management issue.

Learned that certain other hypotheses are such remote possibilities that they can be safely ignored in any subsequent study (D):

• This involves identifying and ruling out unlikely s.
• It streamlines the research process by focusing on more plausible hypotheses.

Other Related Points

• Exploratory studies are typically conducted when the researcher has a limited understanding of the topic and seeks to gain insights.
• They are often the initial phase of a larger research project, setting the stage for more detailed and structured research.
• Methods used in exploratory studies include literature reviews, expert interviews, and focus groups.
• The main goal is to generate ideas, identify key issues, and establish a foundation for future research.

Q19: Arrange the following Financial Institution in the increasing order of their date of establishment- 

A. NABARD

B. EXIM Bank

C. UTI

D. SIDBI

E. ECGC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) C, B, A, D, E

(c) C, A, B, E, D

(d) E, C, B, A, D

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is 'E, C, B, A, D.

ECGC (Export Credit Guarantee Corporation) (E):

• Established in 1957, ECGC is a government-owned export credit provider. It provides export credit insurance, offering risk protection against non-payment by foreign buyers due to political or commercial risks, thereby supporting Indian exporters.

UTI (Unit Trust of India) (C):

• Founded in 1963, UTI is India’s oldest mutual fund, established to promote savings and investment among the public. It has played a significant role in the financial ecosystem, providing a variety of investment options to retail and institutional clients.

EXIM Bank (Export-Import Bank of India) (B):

• Established in 1982, EXIM Bank aims to provide financial assistance to exporters and importers and to function as the principal financial institution for coordinating the working of institutions engaged in financing export and import of goods and services.

NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) (A):

• Formed in 1982, NABARD was created to promote sustainable and equitable agriculture and rural development. It provides credit for the promotion of agriculture, small-scale industries, and other economic activities in rural areas.

SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) (D):

• Established in 1990, SIDBI focuses on the growth and development of micro, small, and medium-scale enterprises (MSMEs) in India. It provides financial assistance and services to improve the performance and efficiency of MSMEs in the national economic scenario.

 Other Related Points

• ECGC’s Role: ECGC supports Indian exporters by offering insurance covers to banks and financial institutions to enable them to extend better loan facilities to exporters.
• UTI’s Impact: UTI has significantly contributed to the Indian mutual fund industry, playing a pivotal role in channeling household savings into equity markets, thereby aiding the growth of the capital market.
• EXIM Bank’s Contributions: EXIM Bank fosters, promotes, and finances international trade of India and offers a range of services, including buyer’s credit, lines of credit, and export credit.
• NABARD’s Focus Areas: NABARD concentrates on providing and regulating credit for the promotion and development of agriculture, cottage, and village industries, emphasizing the credit needs of rural India.
• SIDBI’s Initiatives: SIDBI works through various schemes and programs to support the MSME sector, including credit and refinance solutions, developmental initiatives for capacity building, and creating a conducive business environment for small industries.

Q20: Match the List-I with List-II

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

(c) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

(d) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II.

National Housing Bank (A) matches with 09-07-1988 (IV).

• The National Housing Bank (NHB) was established on July 9, 1988, under the National Housing Bank Act, 1987. It serves as the apex financial institution for housing in India, promoting housing finance institutions both at local and regional levels.

Industrial Development Bank of India (B) matches with 01-07-1964 (I).

• The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was established on July 1, 1964, as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India. It was created to provide credit and other facilities for the development of industry in India.

Small Industrial Development Bank of India (C) matches with 02-04-1990 (III).

• The Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was established on April 2, 1990. It is the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector in India.

Industrial Finance Corporation of India (D) matches with 01-07-1948 (II).

• The Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) was established on July 1, 1948. It was the first development financial institution in India, created to provide long-term finance to industries in the country.

Other Related Points

• The National Housing Bank was set up with the mandate to promote housing finance institutions both at local and regional levels and to provide financial and other support to such institutions.
• IDBI was initially set up as a subsidiary of RBI but was later transferred to the Government of India. It has played a significant role in financing large industrial projects and infrastructure development.
• SIDBI operates under the Department of Financial Services, Government of India, and has been instrumental in the development of the MSME sector, which is crucial for the Indian economy.
• IFCI was established primarily to cater to the long-term financial needs of the industrial sector and has contributed significantly to the industrial development of the country.

Q21: Which of the following are the instruments of qualitative Credit Control Methods in India's Monetary Policy? 

A. Cash Reserve Ratio

B. Consumer Credit Regulation

C. Altering Margin Requirements

D. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

E. Differential Rate of Interest

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & D only

(b) B, C & E only

(c) C, D & E only

(d) D, E & A only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is B, C & E only.

Consumer Credit Regulation (B):

• This involves setting limits and guidelines on the terms and conditions under which credit is extended to consumers.
• It aims to control the volume of credit in specific sectors and ensure that credit is used for productive purposes.

Altering Margin Requirements (C):

• This refers to changing the amount of margin money required for purchasing securities.
• By altering margin requirements, the central bank can control the amount of speculative activity in the market, thereby influencing credit flow.

Differential Rate of Interest (E):

• This involves setting different interest rates for different sectors based on their importance and needs.
• It helps in directing credit towards priority sectors and away from non-essential sectors.

Other Related Points

Cash Reserve Ratio (A):

• This is a quantitative tool where banks are required to maintain a certain percentage of their deposits as reserves with the central bank.

Statutory Liquidity Ratio (D):

• This is another quantitative tool that mandates banks to maintain a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities in the form of liquid assets.

Q22: Arrange the steps of Sampling Design in a form of questions that are to be answered in securing a sample - 

A. What is the appropriate sampling method?

B. What are the parameters of interest?

C. What size sample is needed?

D. What is the target population?

E. What is the sampling frame?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) E, D, B, A, C

(b) B, E, A, C, D

(c) C, B, A, E, D

(d) D, B, E, A, C

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is D, B, E, A, C.

Defining the target population (D):

• This is the first step where you identify the group of individuals or items you are interested in studying.
• It forms the basis for the entire sampling process as it sets the boundaries of the study.

Identifying the parameters of interest (B):

• Next, you determine what specific characteristics or metrics you want to measure within the target population.
• These parameters guide the selection process and ensure that the sample will be relevant to your study objectives.

Selecting the sampling frame (E):

• In this step, you identify a list or database from which the sample will be drawn.
• The sampling frame should accurately represent the target population to avoid selection bias.

Choosing the sampling method (A):

• Here, you decide on the technique to be used for selecting the sample, such as random sampling, stratified sampling, etc.
• The choice of method affects the accuracy and generalizability of the results.

Determining the sample size (C):

• The final step involves calculating the number of subjects or units to be included in the sample.
• Sample size affects the reliability and validity of the study results, making it a crucial consideration.

Q23: Which one of the following is known as backbone of auditing?

(a) Verification of assets

(b) Internal check

(c) Vouching

(d) Internal audit

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Vouching.

Vouching:

• Vouching is the process of verifying the authenticity of accounting entries recorded in the books of accounts. It involves cross-checking transactions with supporting documents like invoices, receipts, and vouchers.
• It ensures that all recorded transactions are genuine and have been authorized properly, providing a strong foundation for accurate financial reporting.
• As the backbone of auditing, vouching helps auditors detect errors, frauds, and discrepancies in financial statements, ensuring their reliability and accuracy.

Other Related Points

Verification of assets:

• This involves confirming the existence, ownership, and valuation of assets recorded in the financial statements. While important, it is not considered the backbone of auditing as it is more specific to asset management.

Internal check:

• Internal check refers to the system of controls within an organization aimed at preventing errors and fraud. Although crucial for internal controls, it is not as comprehensive as vouching in terms of auditing.

Internal audit:

• Internal audit is an independent, objective assurance activity designed to add value and improve an organization's operations. It focuses on evaluating and improving the effectiveness of risk management, control, and governance processes. While significant, it supports the audit process rather than being the backbone itself.

Q24: Data preparation needs to ensure the accuracy of the data and their conversion from raw form to reduced and classified forms for analysis. It includes which of the following: 

A. Coding

B. Data Entry

C. Editing

D. Stemming

E. Aliasing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A & C only

(b) B & D only

(c) A, B & C only

(d) C, D & E only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A, B, & C only.

Coding (A):

• Coding is the process of converting qualitative data into quantitative form by assigning numerical or other symbols to answers so that responses can be put into a limited number of categories or classes. This is essential for simplifying data handling and analysis.
• This step helps in organizing data into systematic categories, making it easier to analyze and draw conclusions. For instance, responses to open-ended questions can be coded into themes for easier analysis.
• Examples of coding include assigning a number to represent a gender (1 for male, 2 for female) or using numerical codes to categorize survey responses (1 for "Strongly Agree", 2 for "Agree", etc.).

Data Entry (B):

• Data entry is the act of transcribing information from surveys, interviews, or other data collection instruments into a database or spreadsheet. This is a critical step to ensure that data is captured accurately and can be used for analysis.
• The accuracy of data entry is paramount as any errors can lead to incorrect analysis and results. Various techniques such as double data entry (entering the same data twice and cross-checking) and automated tools can help minimize errors.
• An example of data entry is inputting survey responses into an Excel file or a statistical analysis software like SPSS or SAS. Each response is recorded accurately in the corresponding fields.

Editing (C):

• Editing involves reviewing and correcting collected data to identify and fix errors or inconsistencies. This ensures that the data set is clean, reliable, and suitable for accurate analysis.
• Editing can include checking for missing values, identifying outliers, correcting typographical errors, and ensuring consistency in data entry. For example, ensuring that all dates are in the same format or correcting entries that are out of range for a given variable.
• Tools for data editing range from simple spreadsheet functions to more sophisticated data validation and cleaning tools provided by statistical software like R or Python's Pandas library.

Other Related Points

Stemming (D):

• Stemming is the process of reducing words to their root form. For example, the words "running", "runner", and "ran" can be reduced to their root form "run". It is commonly used in natural language processing and text analysis to improve the consistency and efficiency of the analysis.
• While stemming is important in text data preprocessing, it is not typically involved in general data preparation processes that focus on structuring and cleaning raw data for analysis.
• Aliasing (E):
  • Aliasing in the context of data refers to the effect that occurs when continuous signals are sampled and reconstructed inaccurately, leading to a distortion. In data science, aliasing is often a consideration in signal processing and time series analysis.
  • Aliasing is not generally a part of standard data preparation tasks, which focus on ensuring data accuracy, cleaning data, and converting raw data into usable forms for analysis.

Q25: Which among the following is the correct value of Income Elasticity of Petrol consumption from the following information? 

The Government announces a 10 per cent dearness allowance to its employees. As a result, average monthly salary of Government employees increases from Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 22,000. Following the pay hike, monthly petrol consumption of government employees increased from 150 litres per month to 165 litres per month:

(a) 0.5

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 0.1

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is 1

Calculation of Income Elasticity:

• Income Elasticity of demand is calculated as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in income.

• Percentage change in quantity demanded = ((New Quantity - Old Quantity) / Old Quantity) * 100 = ((165 - 150) / 150) * 100 = 10%

• Percentage change in income = ((New Income - Old Income) / Old Income) * 100 = ((22000 - 20000) / 20000) * 100 = 10%

• Income Elasticity = Percentage change in quantity demanded / Percentage change in income = 10% / 10% = 1

Q26: How much per cent of income by way of interest received on compensation or on enhanced compensation is allowed as deduction while computing income under the head Income from Other Sources under the Income-tax Act, 1961?

(a) 25%

(b) 50%

(c) 75%

(d) 100%

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is 0.5

50 per cent of income by way of interest received on compensation or on enhanced compensation is allowed as deduction:

• According to the Income-tax Act, 1961, specifically under section 57(iv), 50% (or 0.5) of the income by way of interest received on compensation or on enhanced compensation is allowed as a deduction.
• This provision aims to provide relief to taxpayers who receive interest on compensation awarded by courts or tribunals, ensuring that only half of the interest income is taxed.
• This deduction helps to mitigate the tax burden on individuals who receive compensation for losses or damages, acknowledging that such interest income is somewhat compensatory in nature.

Other Related Points

0.25 per cent:

• This option is incorrect. The Income-tax Act does not provide for a 0.25% deduction on interest received on compensation or enhanced compensation.

0.75 per cent:

• This is also incorrect. The law specifically allows a 50% deduction, not 75%.

1 per cent:

• This is incorrect as well. The allowable deduction is set at 50% (or 0.5), not 1%.

Q27: Match the List-I with List-II

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

(b) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

(c) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

(d) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.

Systematic Risk (A) matches with Increase in corporate tax rate (II).

• Systematic risk, also known as market risk, affects the entire market or economy and cannot be eliminated through diversification.
• An increase in the corporate tax rate is an example of a systematic risk because it impacts all businesses operating within the same economic environment.
• Other examples of systematic risk include changes in interest rates, inflation, and political instability.

Beta (B) matches with Sensitivity coefficient (III).

• Beta is a measure of a stock's volatility in relation to the overall market. It indicates how much a stock's price is expected to move in response to market changes.
• As a sensitivity coefficient, beta helps investors understand the risk associated with a particular stock compared to the market.
• A beta greater than 1 indicates that the stock is more volatile than the market, while a beta less than 1 means it is less volatile.

Risk-free Rate (C) matches with Compensation for time (I).

• The risk-free rate represents the return on an investment with zero risk, typically associated with government bonds.
• It serves as a benchmark for the minimum return investors require for any investment, compensating them for the time value of money.
• In financial models, the risk-free rate is used as a baseline to evaluate the attractiveness of other investments.

Unsystematic Risk (D) matches with Competitor enters the market (IV).

• Unsystematic risk, or specific risk, is unique to a particular company or industry and can be reduced through diversification.
• A competitor entering the market is an example of unsystematic risk, as it directly affects the competitive landscape and profitability of the existing company.
• Other examples include company management decisions, product recalls, and regulatory changes specific to an industry.

Q28: Which one of the following refers to the need on the part of the customer that gets satisfied by the service?

(a) Service Benefits

(b) Service Expectations

(c) Service Offer

(d) Service Level

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Service Benefits

Service Benefits:

• Service benefits refer to the specific advantages or positive outcomes that a customer receives from using a service provided by a financial enterprise.
• These benefits satisfy the customer's needs and can include things like convenience, time savings, financial gains, or improved financial management.
• For example, a customer using a financial advisory service might benefit from better investment returns or more efficient tax planning.

Other Related Points

Service Expectations:

• This refers to what customers anticipate or hope to receive from a service. While important, expectations are not the same as the actual benefits received.
• In a financial enterprise, service expectations might include timely responses to inquiries or personalized financial advice.

Service Offer:

• This is the package or proposition made by the financial enterprise, detailing what services they provide. It includes the scope, features, and terms of the service.
• For instance, a bank might offer a service package that includes checking accounts, savings accounts, and loan products.

Service Level:

• Service level refers to the standard or quality of service provided. It often includes metrics like response time, accuracy, and customer satisfaction.
• In a financial context, service level agreements might specify the time within which a financial transaction should be processed or a customer query should be resolved.

Q29: Which of the following factors constitute the Economic Environment of a country? 

A. Financial System

B. Socio-cultural environment

C. Economic Policies

D. Educational environment

E. Structural Equilibrium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & C only

(b) A, C & E only

(c) B, D & E only

(d) C, D & E only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is  A, C & E only.

Financial System

• This is a crucial component of the economic environment. The financial system includes banks, financial markets, and institutions that facilitate economic transactions, influencing the availability and cost of credit, investments, and overall economic stability.

Socio-cultural Environment

• This factor is not directly a part of the economic environment. The socio-cultural environment pertains to the societal and cultural values, beliefs, and attitudes that can affect consumer behavior and business practices but is distinct from economic factors.

Economic Policies

• Economic policies, such as fiscal policy, monetary policy, and trade policy, are instrumental in shaping the economic environment. They determine government spending, taxation, interest rates, and trade regulations, impacting economic growth and stability.

Educational Environment

• While the educational environment affects human capital development and long-term productivity, it is not a direct component of the current economic environment. It falls more within the socio-cultural and structural aspects rather than immediate economic conditions.

Structural Equilibrium

• Structural equilibrium refers to the balance within an economy's structure, including sectoral composition and resource allocation. Maintaining structural equilibrium is key to economic stability and sustainable growth, making it a relevant factor in the economic environment.

In conclusion, the elements that directly constitute the economic environment of a country are the Financial System, Economic Policies, and Structural Equilibrium. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2: A, C & E only. This option accurately reflects the factors that directly influence a country's economic environment. Socio-cultural and educational environments, although important, are not primary components of the economic environment.

Q30: Which one of the following theory of capital structure discusses Arbitrage Process?

(a) Traditional Approach

(b) Modigliani and Miller (MM) Approach

(c) Net Operating Income (NOI) Approach

(d) Net Income (NI) Approach

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Modigliani and Miller (MM) Approach.

Modigliani and Miller (MM) Approach:

• The MM approach to capital structure was developed by Franco Modigliani and Merton Miller in 1958.
• They proposed that, under certain conditions (e.g., no taxes, no bankruptcy costs, efficient markets), the value of a firm is unaffected by its capital structure.
• One key aspect of their theory is the arbitrage process, which suggests that if two firms are identical in every way except their capital structure, investors can create leverage on their own to achieve the same returns, thus neutralizing any advantage of one capital structure over another.
• This arbitrage process implies that the market value of a firm is determined by its earning power and the risk of its underlying assets, not by how it finances its operations.

Other Related Points

Traditional Approach:

• This approach suggests that there is an optimal capital structure where the cost of capital is minimized and the firm’s value is maximized.
• It assumes that the cost of debt remains constant up to a certain level of leverage, after which it starts to increase, reflecting the increasing risk of bankruptcy.

Net Operating Income (NOI) Approach:

• According to the NOI approach, the value of the firm is determined by the capitalization of its net operating income, and this value is independent of its capital structure.
• It assumes that the cost of equity increases linearly with leverage, offsetting the benefits of cheaper debt.

Net Income (NI) Approach:

• This approach posits that a firm can increase its value and decrease its overall cost of capital by increasing the proportion of debt in its capital structure, given that debt is usually cheaper than equity.
• It assumes that the cost of debt and equity remain constant regardless of the level of leverage.

Q31: Arrange the given component tasks to be handled in positioning in the logical sequence - 

A. Developing the value proposition

B. Analysing competitors' positioning: Is there a gap somewhere?

C. Communicating the value proposition to target consumers

D. Deciding the locus in consumers' mind: Where to lodge the product/brand?

E. Ensuring the infrastructure/competitive advantage for delivering the premise

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) D, B, A, E, C

(b) D, B, E, A, C

(c) B, D, A, E, C

(d) B, D, C, A, E

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is B, D, A E, C.

B. Analyzing competitors' positioning
→ First, understand the market and where competitors are positioned. Look for gaps or opportunities.

D. Deciding the locus in consumers' mind
→ Next, decide where you want your product to be positioned in the customer’s mind — based on gaps found.

A. Developing the value proposition
→ Create a clear value proposition to support your desired position.

E. Ensuring infrastructure/competitive advantage
→ Ensure your organization can deliver the promised value effectively.

C. Communicating the value proposition
→ Finally, communicate the positioning to your target audience via marketing and branding.

Logical Sequence: B → D → A → E → C
Final Answer: (c) B, D, A, E, C

Q32: WTO in its 8th Ministerial conference adopted a decision allowing members to waive the provisions of Article II (most favored-National Treatment) of the GATS to allow the granting of preferential treatment to services and service supplies to which countries?

(a) Adjacent Countries

(b) Non-Nuclear Countries

(c) Least-Developed Countries

(d) SAARC Countries

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Least-Developed Countries.

Least-Developed Countries (LDCs):

• The WTO's decision to allow waivers for Article II (Most-Favored-Nation Treatment) of the GATS is aimed at granting preferential treatment to services and service suppliers from Least-Developed Countries (LDCs).
• This move is designed to support LDCs in integrating more effectively into the global trading system by offering them better access to markets of more developed nations.
• Financial enterprises operating in developed countries can offer preferential terms to LDCs, fostering economic development and enhancing service sector growth in those regions.
• Such preferential treatment can include reduced tariffs, better market access, and more favorable regulatory conditions, all of which can help LDCs improve their economic standing and reduce poverty.

Other Related Points

Adjacent Countries:

• This option is incorrect because the preferential treatment under the WTO decision is not specifically aimed at adjacent countries but rather at LDCs, which may or may not be geographically close to the more developed nations.

Non-Nuclear Countries:

• This option is incorrect as the WTO's preferential treatment decision is not based on nuclear status but on the economic development status of the countries.

SAARC Countries:

• While some SAARC countries might be LDCs, the WTO decision is not specifically targeted at SAARC countries as a group but at all LDCs globally.

Q33: Which one of the following non-functional rewards does NOT fall under job design category?

(a) Compliment of work progress

(b) Flexible hours

(c) Participation in decisions.

(d) Flexible breaks

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Compliment of work progress.

Compliment of work progress:

• Compliments and verbal recognition for work progress are generally considered a form of social reward or praise. These are non-functional rewards and do not directly influence the design of the job itself.
• These types of rewards are aimed at boosting employee morale and motivation through acknowledgment and appreciation, rather than altering the structural aspects of the job.

Other Related Points

Flexible hours:

• This is a component of job design, as it involves structuring the work schedule to allow flexibility. This can improve work-life balance and increase job satisfaction.

Participation in decisions:

• Participation in decision-making is also a part of job design. It gives employees a sense of ownership and control over their work, which can enhance engagement and motivation.

Flexible breaks:

• Flexible break times are another job design element. They allow employees to take breaks when they need them, which can improve productivity and reduce stress.

Q34: What is the correct sequence to be followed for the following while computing income under the head Capital Gains? 

A. Deduction of indexed cost of acquisition

B. Determination of full value of consideration

C. Determination whether the asset is a capital asset or not

D. Determination whether the transaction is regarded as transfer or not

E. Exemption under section 54EC in respect of investment in the long-term specified asset

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, A, C, E, D

(b) E, A, D, C, B

(c) D, B, C, A, E

(d) C, D, B, A, E

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is C, D, B, A, E.

Determination whether the asset is a capital asset or not (C):

• This is the initial step to ascertain whether the asset under consideration qualifies as a 'capital asset' under the Income Tax Act.
• It is crucial because only capital assets are subject to capital gains tax.

Determination whether the transaction is regarded as transfer or not (D):

• After confirming the asset is a capital asset, the next step is to determine whether the transaction qualifies as a 'transfer'.
• Only transfers of capital assets result in capital gains or losses.

Determination of full value of consideration (B):

• Once the asset and transaction are verified, the full value of consideration received or accruing from the transfer needs to be determined.
• This value forms the basis for computing capital gains.

Deduction of indexed cost of acquisition (A):

• In this step, the indexed cost of acquisition is deducted from the full value of consideration to compute the capital gains.
• Indexation accounts for inflation and adjusts the cost of acquisition accordingly.

Exemption under section 54EC in respect of investment in the long-term specified asset (E):

• Finally, any applicable exemptions, such as those under section 54EC for investments in specified long-term assets, are considered.
• This can reduce the taxable capital gains.

Q35: Arrange the following banks in an increasing order of their year of formation- 

A. State Bank of India

B. Imperial Bank of India

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Regional Rural Banks

E. Small Finance Bank

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) E, D, C, B, A

(b) E, D, A, B, C

(c) B, C, A, D, E

(d) C, B, A, D, E

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is B, C, A, D, E.

Option 1 (E, D, C, B, A):

• Incorrect because Small Finance Banks (E) are the most recent, formed around 2015, not the earliest.
• Regional Rural Banks (D) were established in 1975, after the formation of the Reserve Bank of India (C) in 1935.
• Reserve Bank of India (C) was established in 1935, after the Imperial Bank of India (B) in 1921.
• Imperial Bank of India (B) predates the State Bank of India (A), which was established in 1955.
• Thus, this option does not follow the correct chronological order.

Option 2 (E, D, A, B, C):

• Incorrect because it places the State Bank of India (A) before the Imperial Bank of India (B).
• The State Bank of India (A) was established in 1955, after the Imperial Bank of India (B) in 1921.
• Reserve Bank of India (C) was established in 1935, before the State Bank of India (A).
• Regional Rural Banks (D) were established in 1975, much later than the Reserve Bank of India (C).
• Small Finance Banks (E) came into existence around 2015, making them the most recent.

Option 3 (B, C, A, D, E):

• Correct because it follows the correct chronological order of establishment.
• Imperial Bank of India (B) was established in 1921, making it the oldest.
• Reserve Bank of India (C) was established in 1935, following the Imperial Bank of India.
• State Bank of India (A) was established in 1955, succeeding the Reserve Bank of India.
• Regional Rural Banks (D) were established in 1975, after the State Bank of India.
• Small Finance Banks (E) were established around 2015, making them the most recent.

Option 4 (C, B, A, D, E):

• Incorrect because it places the Reserve Bank of India (C) before the Imperial Bank of India (B).
• Imperial Bank of India (B) was established in 1921, before the Reserve Bank of India (C) in 1935.
• State Bank of India (A) was established in 1955, succeeding the Reserve Bank of India.
• Regional Rural Banks (D) were established in 1975, after the State Bank of India.
• Small Finance Banks (E) were established around 2015, making them the most recent.

Q36: Which of the following methods have been prescribed by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) for computation of Arm's Length Price required to compute income arising from an International transaction under Chapter X of the Income-tax Act, 1961? 

A. Transactional Net Margin Method

B. Comparable Controlled Price Method

C. Profit Split Method

D. Resale Price Method

E. Cost Plus Method

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, D & E Only

(b) A, B & D Only

(c) C, D & E Only

(d) A, C & D Only

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is A, C & D Only.

Transactional Net Margin Method (A):

• This method compares the net profit margin relative to an appropriate base (e.g., sales, costs) that a taxpayer realizes from an international transaction with the net profit margins realized by comparable uncontrolled transactions.
• It is one of the most commonly used methods for transfer pricing analysis as prescribed by the CBDT.

Profit Split Method (C):

• This method is used where transactions are highly integrated and it is difficult to apply traditional transactional methods.
• It involves splitting the combined profits from the international transaction according to the relative value of each party’s contribution.

Resale Price Method (D):

• This method starts with the price at which a product is resold to an independent enterprise, and a resale price margin is subtracted to arrive at the Arm’s Length Price.
• It is particularly useful in cases involving the distribution of goods purchased from related parties.

Other Related Points

• The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is responsible for formulating policies and laying down rules for the Income-tax Department in India.
• Chapter X of the Income-tax Act, 1961 deals with special provisions related to the computation of income from international transactions and specified domestic transactions to ensure that they are conducted at Arm’s Length Price.
• Other methods prescribed by the CBDT for determining the Arm’s Length Price include the Comparable Uncontrolled Price (CUP) Method and the Cost Plus Method.

Q37: The tool that International Development Association (IDA) uses to address the impact of severe natural disasters, public health emergencies by providing extra finances is known as

(a) Emergency Response Fund (ERF)

(b) Long term Lending system

(c) Crisis Response Window (CRW)

(d) Monetary Fund

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Crisis Response Window (CRW).

Crisis Response Window (CRW):

• The CRW is a mechanism established by the IDA to provide additional financial resources to countries affected by severe natural disasters, public health emergencies, and other crises.
• It aims to help countries manage the immediate financial needs and support recovery efforts in the aftermath of a crisis.
• The CRW helps ensure that countries can maintain essential services and continue development activities despite the crisis.

Other Related Points

Emergency Response Fund (ERF):

• This is not a specific tool used by the IDA. While emergency response funds exist in various organizations, the IDA specifically uses the CRW for crisis-related funding.

Long term Lending system:

• This refers to the general practice of providing long-term loans, which is not specifically tailored for crisis response like the CRW.

Monetary Fund:

• This term is generally associated with organizations like the International Monetary Fund (IMF), which provides financial assistance but is not specific to the IDA’s crisis response tools.

Q38: Which of the following are the assumptions of Gordon's dividend-capitalization model? 

A. No taxes

B. Cost of capital is less than the growth rate

C. No internal financing

D. Constant retention

E. Constant cost of capital

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & D only

(b) B, C & E only

(c) A, C & D only

(d) A, D & E only

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is A, D & E only.

Let's analyze each assumption:

No Taxes

• One of the assumptions of Gordon's dividend-capitalization model is that there are no taxes.
• This simplification helps in focusing on the relationship between dividends, growth rates, and discount rates without the complications introduced by taxes.

Cost of Capital is Less Than the Growth Rate

• This assumption is not correct. In Gordon's model, the growth rate (g) is assumed to be less than the cost of capital (k), because if the growth rate were higher than the cost of capital, the model would yield negative or non-feasible values.
• Hence, this assumption is incorrect as per Gordon's original framework.

No Internal Financing

• This assumption is not a part of Gordon's model.
• Rather, the model works under the scenario where retained earnings (internal financing) are considered, as they contribute to the growth rate of dividends.

Constant Retention

• An important assumption of Gordon's model is that the retention ratio (the portion of earnings not paid out as dividends) is constant.
• This influences the growth rate of dividends, which is assumed to remain steady.

Constant Cost of Capital

• Another assumption of the Gordon model is that the cost of capital (discount rate) remains constant over time.
• This allows the model to simplify the valuation of the firm's stock by maintaining a steady discount factor for future dividends.

Based on the evaluation above, the correct assumptions of Gordon's dividend-capitalization model are No Taxes, Constant Retention, and Constant Cost of Capital. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: A, D & E only. This option accurately identifies the assumptions that align with Gordon's model, excluding the incorrect or non-related assumptions.

Q39: In which one of the following ratios, the share capital of RRBs is prescribed for the Central Government, State Government and Sponsoring bank?

(a) 50 ∶ 30 ∶ 20

(b) 50 ∶ 35 ∶ 15

(c) 60 ∶ 20 ∶ 20

(d) 50 ∶ 15 ∶ 35

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is 50 ∶ 15 ∶ 35.

The share capital ratio for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) between Central Government, State Government, and Sponsoring Bank is 50 ∶ 15 ∶ 35:

• This distribution ensures that while the Central Government has a significant share, it is not the sole decision-maker, with substantial involvement from the sponsoring bank, highlighting a collaborative governance structure.
• The Central Government's substantial share (50%) reflects its crucial role in initiating and sustaining RRBs, ensuring these banks can fulfill their mandate of promoting financial inclusion in rural areas.
• The State Government's participation (15%) ensures that local interests and regional development priorities are adequately represented in the governance of RRBs.
• The Sponsoring Bank's share (35%) highlights its operational involvement and expertise in the management of RRBs, contributing to the professional and technical support needed for efficient banking operations.

Other Related Points

Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):

• RRBs were established under the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976 with the aim to develop the rural economy by providing credit and other facilities, especially to the small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs.
• They play a crucial role in promoting financial inclusion and providing banking services to rural and semi-urban areas.
• RRBs are designed to bridge the credit gap in rural areas and serve as a link between cooperative banks and commercial banks.

Sponsoring Bank:

• A sponsoring bank is a nationalized commercial bank that facilitates the establishment and operational management of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
• The sponsoring bank provides managerial and financial assistance and ensures that RRBs are effectively integrated into the broader banking network.
• They play a role in training the staff of RRBs, providing technical expertise, and helping in maintaining the stability and growth of these regional entities.

Q40: Which one of the following is Value Added Service of EXIM Bank?

(a) Line of Credit

(b) Pre-shipment Credit

(c) Buyers Credit

(d) Export Marketing Services

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Export Marketing Services.

Export Marketing Services:

• Export Marketing Services are designed to help exporters market their products effectively in foreign markets. This includes market research, identifying potential buyers, and providing assistance in trade fairs and exhibitions.
• These services add value by enhancing the exporter's ability to reach international markets more efficiently and effectively.
• EXIM Bank offers these services to support the development and growth of export businesses, making it a value-added service rather than a direct financial product.

Other Related Points

Line of Credit:

• This is a financial product where EXIM Bank extends credit to foreign governments, financial institutions, or corporate entities to facilitate imports from India.
• It is a direct financial service and not considered a value-added service.

Pre-shipment Credit:

• This form of credit is provided to exporters to finance the purchase, processing, manufacturing, or packing of goods before the shipment takes place.
• It is a form of working capital financing, not a value-added service.

Buyers Credit:

• Buyers Credit is a short-term credit provided to an importer (buyer) by a bank to finance the purchase of goods and services.
• This is another financial product rather than a value-added service.

Q41: Match the List-l with List-Il

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

(b) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

(c) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

(d) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

Eclectic Theory (A) matches with The framework follows three tiers-ownership, location and internalization, assuming that companies are not likely to follow through the FDI, if they can get the service or product internally and at lower costs (IV).

• The Eclectic Theory, also known as the OLI framework, was proposed by John Dunning. It suggests that firms undertake Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) when they have ownership advantages, location advantages, and internalization advantages.
• Ownership advantages refer to the firm's unique assets, location advantages refer to the benefits of operating in a specific country, and internalization advantages refer to the benefits of controlling operations rather than licensing or outsourcing.

Appropriability Theory (B) matches with The firm should be able to keep the benefits resulting from its innovation & Research for its exclusive use (III).

• Appropriability Theory emphasizes the ability of firms to appropriate or capture the economic returns from their innovative activities.
• Firms are more likely to invest in innovation if they can ensure that they will retain the benefits of their research and development efforts, preventing competitors from easily imitating their innovations.

Market Imperfection Theory (C) matches with FDI occurs largely in oligopolistic industries rather than in industries operating under near perfect competition (I).

• Market Imperfection Theory suggests that FDI is motivated by imperfections in the markets for goods and factors of production.
• FDI is more likely to occur in industries where there are fewer competitors (oligopolistic markets) because firms can exploit their advantages more effectively in such markets.

Theory of Capital Movements (D) matches with Capital as an investment will move from countries where it is abundant to countries where it is scarce because the returns on investment opportunities are higher where capital is limited (II).

• The Theory of Capital Movements, also known as the Heckscher-Ohlin model, suggests that capital will flow from countries where it is abundant and yields lower returns to countries where it is scarce and yields higher returns.
• This movement of capital is driven by the desire to achieve higher returns on investments and is a fundamental principle of international capital flows.

Q42: Match the List-I with List-Il

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

(b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(c) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

(d) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.

Skimming Price Policy (A) matches with Where close substitutes of a new product are not available (II).

• Skimming Price Policy involves setting a high price initially when the product is launched to maximize profits from early adopters who value the product highly and are willing to pay more.
• This strategy is effective when the product is unique or has few competitors, making close substitutes unavailable.
• It helps in recovering the initial investment quickly before competitors enter the market.

Penetration Price Policy (B) matches with Substitutes of new products are available (IV).

• Penetration Price Policy involves setting a low price for a new product to attract customers quickly and gain market share.
• This approach is useful when there are many substitutes available, making price-sensitive customers more likely to try the new product.
• The goal is to build a customer base quickly and create brand loyalty before raising prices.

Peak Load Pricing Policy (C) matches with Where the nature of the products are non-storable (I).

• Peak Load Pricing Policy is used to manage demand by charging higher prices during peak times and lower prices during off-peak times.
• This strategy is common for non-storable goods and services, such as electricity, transportation, and accommodation, where demand fluctuates significantly.
• By adjusting prices, companies can balance demand and optimize resource utilization.

Dumping Pricing Policy (D) matches with Exporting goods at a price lower than the domestic price (III).

• Dumping Pricing Policy involves exporting goods at prices lower than the domestic market price or even below cost.
• This strategy aims to penetrate foreign markets and eliminate competition by offering significantly lower prices.
• While it can help in gaining market share abroad, dumping can lead to trade disputes and anti-dumping measures by the importing countries.

Q43: Which of the following are true about Digital Signature under Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000? 

A. A Digital Signature is an Electronic Signature

B. Digital Signatures are accepted Globally

C. Each vendor has to make his own standard to regulate Digital Signatures

D. The term Electronic Signature is broader than Digital Signature

E. A Digital Signature is less secure than Electronic Signature

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, D & E Only

(b) A, B & D Only

(c) C, B & E Only

(d) B, C & D Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A, B & D Only.

A Digital Signature is an Electronic Signature (A):

• A Digital Signature is a subset of Electronic Signatures.
• It uses cryptographic techniques to ensure the authenticity and integrity of digital documents.
• Under the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, Digital Signatures are recognized as valid and enforceable.

Digital Signatures are accepted Globally (B):

• Digital Signatures comply with international standards such as those defined by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
• Many countries recognize and accept Digital Signatures for legal and business transactions.
• This global acceptance facilitates cross-border business and legal activities.

The term Electronic Signature is broader than Digital Signature (D):

• Electronic Signature is an umbrella term that includes various forms of signing documents electronically.
• Digital Signature is a specific type of Electronic Signature that uses encryption for secure signing.
• Other types of Electronic Signatures include scanned signatures, typed names, and click-to-sign signatures.

Other Related Points 

Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000:

• The IT Act, 2000 is an Act of the Indian Parliament notified on 17 October 2000.
• It is the primary law in India dealing with cybercrime and electronic commerce.

Security of Digital Signatures:

• Digital Signatures use Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) to provide high levels of security.
• This includes encryption and decryption processes that ensure the data integrity and authenticity of signed documents.

Global Standards for Digital Signatures:

• Standards like X.509 and PGP are widely used for Digital Signatures.
• These standards ensure interoperability and compliance across different systems and jurisdictions.

Q44: Which one of the following is NOT a marketing principle?

(a) Focus on the customer

(b) Markets are homogeneous

(c) Customers do not buy products

(d) Marketing is too important to leave to the marketing department

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is Markets are homogeneous.

Markets are homogeneous:

• One of the fundamental principles of marketing is that markets are heterogeneous, meaning they consist of diverse groups of customers with varying needs, preferences, and behaviors.
• Recognizing market heterogeneity allows businesses to segment markets effectively and target specific customer groups with tailored marketing strategies, thereby enhancing customer satisfaction and business performance.
• Assuming markets are homogeneous ignores the diversity within customer bases and can lead to ineffective marketing strategies that fail to meet the unique needs of different customer segments.

Marketing is too important to leave to the marketing department

Other Related Points

Focus on the customer:

• This principle emphasizes the importance of understanding and meeting customer needs and preferences to achieve business success. Customer-centric businesses are more likely to build strong customer relationships and loyalty.

Customers do not buy products:

• This concept highlights that customers buy solutions to their problems or needs rather than just products. Effective marketing focuses on the benefits and value propositions that products or services offer to customers.

Marketing is too important to leave to the marketing department:

• This principle suggests that marketing should be an organization-wide effort, with all departments contributing to the creation of customer value and satisfaction. It underscores the importance of cross-functional collaboration in achieving marketing success.

Q45: Under section 206C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a seller is supposed to collect income tax from the buyer in respect of sale of the following goods: 

A. Motor Vehicle of the value between ₹7,00,000 - ₹9,00,000

B. Alcoholic liquor for human consumption

C. Electronic items of the value between ₹10,00,000 - ₹15,00,000

D. Timber obtained under a forest lease

E. Minerals, being coal or lignite or iron ore

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C & E Only

(b) B, D & E Only

(c) A & C Only

(d) B & E Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is B, D & E Only.

• Under section 206C of the Income-tax Act, 1961, certain sellers are required to collect tax at source (TCS) from the buyer:
  • Alcoholic liquor for human consumption: Sellers must collect TCS from buyers. This provision helps regulate the sale and taxation of alcohol, a significant revenue source for the government.
  • Timber obtained under a forest lease: TCS is applicable to timber sales under forest leases to ensure appropriate tax compliance and revenue collection from forestry products.
  • Minerals, being coal or lignite or iron ore: Sellers must collect TCS on the sale of these specific minerals, facilitating tax regulation and collection in the mining sector.

Other Related Points

• Motor Vehicle of the value between ₹7,00,000 - ₹9,00,000:
  • Section 206C of the Income-tax Act specifies TCS for motor vehicles if the value exceeds ₹10,00,000.
  • Vehicles between ₹7,00,000 - ₹9,00,000 do not fall under this provision.
• Electronic items of the value between ₹10,00,000 - ₹15,00,000:
  • Electronic items are not included in Section 206C for TCS collection.
  • The provision targets specific goods and sectors like alcohol, timber, and certain minerals.

Q46: Which of the following antecedent conditions explain intergroup conflict? 

A. Personal differences

B. Competition for resources

C. Role incompatibility

D. Task interdependence

E. Jurisdictional ambiguity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & C Only

(b) A, B, D & E only

(c) A, C & D Only

(d) B, D & E Only

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is B, D & E Only.

Competition for resources (B):

• Intergroup conflict often arises when groups vie for the same limited resources, such as budget, personnel, or physical space.
• This competition can lead to tension, hostility, and aggressive behavior between groups.

Task interdependence (D):

• Task interdependence occurs when groups rely on each other to complete their tasks, leading to potential conflicts over how tasks should be carried out.
• Misalignment in task objectives, timelines, or methods can create friction and misunderstandings.

Jurisdictional ambiguity (E):

• Conflicts often emerge when there is uncertainty or lack of clarity about who has authority over certain tasks or areas of responsibility.
• This ambiguity can lead to disputes over roles, responsibilities, and decision-making authority.

Other Related Points

Personal differences (A):

• While personal differences can contribute to conflicts, they are more often associated with interpersonal rather than intergroup conflicts.

Role incompatibility (C):

• Role incompatibility can lead to conflicts when individuals or groups have conflicting job roles or expectations, but this is more specific to role clarity rather than broader intergroup dynamics.

Q47: Which among the following are the key aspects/ determinants for an equilibrium under monopolistic competition? 

A. The mobility of factors of production

B. The Price

C. Imperfect knowledge about the market

D. The Nature of the Product

E. The amount of advertising outlay

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, D & E only

(b) A, B & C only

(c) B, C & D only

(d) C, D & E only

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is B, D & E Only.

The mobility of factors of production

• This statement is generally associated with perfect competition rather than monopolistic competition.
• In monopolistic competition, factors like product differentiation play a more significant role in maintaining equilibrium.

The Price

• This statement is correct because:
• In monopolistic competition, each firm has some degree of control over the price due to product differentiation.
• The price set by a firm affects its equilibrium, as it can influence both demand and market share.

Imperfect knowledge about the market

• This statement is incorrect because:
• While imperfect knowledge (C) does play a role in the market dynamics, it is not one of the central determinants directly driving the equilibrium in a monopolistic competitive market. 
• The emphasis in the question is more on market-driven strategies firms employ, such as pricing, product differentiation, and advertising efforts.

The Nature of the Product

• This statement is correct because:
• Monopolistic competition is characterized by product differentiation, where each firm's product is slightly different from its competitors'.
• This differentiation forms the basis for firms having some degree of market power and affects the equilibrium.

The amount of advertising outlay

• This statement is correct because:
• Advertising plays a critical role in monopolistic competition as firms aim to differentiate their products and attract more customers.
• The level of advertising expenditure can significantly affect a firm's equilibrium position by influencing demand.

Based on the analysis, the key aspects/determinants for an equilibrium under monopolistic competition are primarily the price (B), the nature of the product (D), and the amount of advertising outlay (E). Therefore, the correct answer is option 1: B, D & E only, as these factors directly relate to the firm's strategy and market position in monopolistic competition.

Q48: Which of the following subsidiaries are fully owned by the Reserve Bank of India? 

A. National Housing Bank

B. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

C. The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India

D. Bhartiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited

E. Securities Trading Corporation of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C & D Only

(b) A, D & E Only

(c) B, D & E Only

(d) B, C & E Only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is B, D & E Only.

• C: DICGC (fully owned by RBI, est. 1978).
• D: BRBNMPL (fully owned, est. 1995).
• A: NHB (not RBI-owned post-2019).
• B: NABARD (Government-owned).
• E: STCI (not RBI-owned).

RBI fully owns DICGC and BRBNMPL; NHB is Government-owned since 2019.

Q49: Which one of the following cost-value-price trio, a manufacturer would like to seek?

(a) Value > Price > Costs

(b) Price > Value > Costs

(c) Price > Costs > Value

(d) Price = Value > Costs

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Value = Price > Costs.

A manufacturer prefers the scenario where Price = Value > Costs:

• This ensures that the price the customer is willing to pay (Value) is equal to the price set by the manufacturer, and both are greater than the production costs.
• This condition maximizes profitability while ensuring that customers perceive the product as worth its price.

Other Related Points

Value > Price > Costs:

• While this option indicates that the customer perceives high value in the product (Value > Price), it suggests the manufacturer could potentially charge a higher price, leaving money on the table.

Price > Value > Costs:

• This suggests the price is higher than the perceived value, which could lead to customer dissatisfaction and reduced sales.

Price > Costs > Value:

• This is an undesirable scenario where the production cost exceeds the perceived value, indicating inefficiency and likely leading to losses.

Price = Value > Costs:

• This ensures equilibrium where the price charged matches the customer’s perceived value, both exceeding production costs. This scenario is ideal for maintaining profitability and customer satisfaction.

Q50: Which of the following are true about the equilibrium of the Industry in long run under perfect competition? 

A. The long-run supply and demand for the product of the industry should be in equilibrium

B. All firms in the industry should be in long run equilibrium by equating price with long-run marginal cost (P = LMC)

C. There should be tendency for the new firms to enter the industry, or for the existing firms to leave it

D. The firms are earning zero economic profits with price being equal to long-run minimum average cost (P = min. LAC)

E. The firms would not have adjusted their size of plants when there is long-run equilibrium (P = LMC)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & C only

(b) C, D & E only

(c) A, B & D only

(d) B, C & D only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A, B & D only.

The long-run supply and demand for the product of the industry should be in equilibrium (A):

• In long-run equilibrium, the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded, ensuring no excess supply or shortage in the market.
• This balance is necessary for market stability and is a fundamental characteristic of perfect competition in the long run.

All firms in the industry should be in long run equilibrium by equating price with long-run marginal cost (P = LMC) (B):

• In perfect competition, firms adjust their production until the price equals the long-run marginal cost.
• This ensures that firms are producing the optimal quantity of goods, maximizing efficiency, and minimizing wastage.

The firms are earning zero economic profits with price being equal to long-run minimum average cost (P = min. LAC) (D):

• In the long run, firms in a perfectly competitive industry earn zero economic profit due to free entry and exit of firms.
• Price equating to the minimum average cost indicates that firms are covering all their costs, including normal profits, but not making any supernormal profits.

Other Related Points

Perfect Competition Characteristics:

• Many buyers and sellers in the market, none of whom can influence the market price.
• Homogeneous products, meaning that each firm's product is identical to the others.
• Free entry and exit of firms in the market.
• Perfect information, where all consumers and producers have full knowledge of prices and production costs.

Long-Run Adjustments:

• In the long run, firms can adjust their production facilities, enter or exit the industry, and optimize their scale of operation.
• This flexibility ensures that firms can achieve the most efficient production methods and resource allocation.

Q51: X Ltd. incurred a capital expenditure of ₹5,00,000 for the purpose of promoting family planning amongst its employees during the assessment year 2024-25. How much deduction in respect of such expenditure can be claimed by X Ltd. during the assessment year 2024-25, while computing income under the head Profits and Gains of Business or Profession?

(a) ₹5,00,000

(b) ₹2,50,000

(c) ₹1,00,000

(d) ₹50,000

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is ₹1,00,000.

• As per the Income Tax Act, 1961, under section 36(1)(ix), expenditure incurred by a company for promoting family planning among its employees is deductible.

• The deduction is limited to 20% of the total expenditure in each assessment year.

• Therefore, for an expenditure of ₹5,00,000, X Ltd. can claim 20% of ₹5,00,000, which equals ₹1,00,000, as a deduction.

• The remaining expenditure can be carried forward and claimed in subsequent years.

Q52: For test hypothesis H₀ : μ₁ ≤ μ₂ and H₁ : μ₁ > μ₂, the critical region (Z) at ∝ = 0.10 and n > 30 will be

(a) Z ≤ 1.96

(b) Z > 1.96

(c) Z > 1.645

(d) Z ≤ -1.645

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is (c)

We are testing the hypotheses:

• Null hypothesis (H₀): μ₁ ≤ μ₂

• Alternative hypothesis (H₁): μ₁ > μ₂

This is a right-tailed test because we are checking if μ₁ is significantly greater than μ₂.

The significance level is α = 0.10, and the sample size is n > 30, which means we can use the Z-distribution (Central Limit Theorem applies).

For a right-tailed test at α = 0.10, the critical Z-value is 1.645.
The critical region is where we reject H₀, which happens when the test statistic is greater than 1.645.

Final Answer: (c) Z > 1.645

Q53: What is the correct sequence to be followed for the following transactions undertaken by an individual while computing his gross total income as per the Income-tax Act, 1961? 

A. Investment in own public provident fund

B. Investment in one residential house in India for exemption from capital gains

C. Interest on capital borrowed for purchasing a self-occupied house property

D. Tax on employment

E. Payment of Medical insurance premium on his own life

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) C, B, D, E, A

(b) D, C, B, A, E

(c) E, A, D, B, C

(d) B, C, E, A, D

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is D, C, B, A, E.

Key Points

Tax on employment (D):

• This step is generally addressed first because it relates to professional income and is directly deductible from salary income under Section 16(iii) of the Income-tax Act.
• Tax on employment is also known as Professional Tax and serves as a mandatory deduction for salaried individuals to reduce taxable income.

Interest on capital borrowed for purchasing a self-occupied house property (C):

• This deduction is applicable under Section 24(b) of the Income-tax Act, allowing individuals to claim a deduction on interest paid for loans used in the purchase of a self-occupied house property.
• This interest deduction lowers the taxable income in the computation of income from house property, and it is a preliminary step before any capital gains-related investments.

Investment in one residential house in India for exemption from capital gains (B):

• Under Section 54, individuals investing capital gains from a property sale into a residential property in India are eligible for exemption, thereby reducing their capital gains tax liability.
• This step in income computation typically follows other basic deductions as it directly impacts the capital gains component of total income.

Investment in own public provident fund (A):

• Investment in Public Provident Fund (PPF) qualifies for deduction under Section 80C, which covers various eligible deductions from total gross income.
• After calculating exemptions from salary and house property, the PPF investment deduction is computed to further reduce the individual's taxable income.

Payment of Medical insurance premium on his own life (E):

• Section 80D allows deductions on premiums paid for medical insurance. This deduction is calculated last as it specifically targets health insurance expenses rather than broad income deductions.
• Medical insurance deductions are crucial for individuals aiming to reduce taxable income while securing health benefits for themselves and their families.

Additional Information

Income-tax Act Deductions Ordering Importance:

• The order of deductions is designed to maximize tax efficiency, starting with basic deductions (like employment tax) and moving toward specific exemptions like capital gains and medical insurance premiums.
• This sequential approach helps individuals optimize tax savings by leveraging all possible deductions and exemptions available under the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Q54: Match the List-I with List-Il

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

(b) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

(c) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

(d) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.

Dinosaur (A) matches with Products that have missed their niche (IV).

•  Dinosaur products are those that were once relevant or profitable but have become outdated or irrelevant due to shifts in market trends, technology, or consumer preferences.
• These products often belong to a niche that no longer exists, meaning that they do not serve a specific group or need in the current market.
• For example, products like typewriters or VHS tapes could be considered “Dinosaurs” as they have missed their niche due to the advent of computers and digital media.
• Key Point: Businesses may need to phase out Dinosaur products or repurpose them to avoid resource wastage.

Flamingo (B) matches with Products that are beautiful but unsaleable (I).

•  Flamingo products are designed to be attractive or aesthetically pleasing, but they lack practical appeal or market demand, which makes them hard to sell.
• They might excel in design or unique features but fail in functionality or meeting core customer needs, leading to low sales despite their attractiveness.
• For example, an over-engineered, luxurious smartphone case may look appealing but might not sell if it’s priced too high or does not provide adequate protection.
• Key Point: Companies need to ensure a balance between aesthetics and functionality to avoid creating Flamingo products that struggle to find buyers.

Ostrich (C) matches with Products that are blind to the future (II).

•  Ostrich products refer to those that fail to keep up with future trends, technological advancements, or evolving consumer needs.
• These products are "blind" to the changes in the market and thus do not adapt or evolve, risking obsolescence in a rapidly changing environment.
• For instance, products relying on outdated technology or failing to adopt sustainable practices may be considered Ostriches if they ignore important market shifts.
• Key Point: Companies should monitor market trends to avoid creating Ostrich products that may become obsolete in the future.

Pearl (D) matches with Products that are a source of a profitable future (III).

•  Pearl products are those that have strong potential for future profitability and growth due to their relevance, uniqueness, or high demand.
• These products often align with future market trends, customer needs, and innovation, which makes them promising assets in a company’s portfolio.
• For example, products in renewable energy or electric vehicles could be considered Pearls due to their alignment with environmental sustainability trends.
• Key Point: Focusing on Pearl products can drive long-term growth and profitability, as they cater to emerging markets and customer preferences.

Q55: The price of a company's share is ₹80 and the value of growth opportunities is ₹20. If the company's capitalisation rate is 15%, how much is the EPS?

(a) ₹20

(b) ₹12

(c) ₹3

(d) ₹9

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is ₹9.

• The price of the company's share is ₹80, and the value of growth opportunities is ₹20.

• This means that the price without growth is ₹80 - ₹20 = ₹60.

• The company's capitalisation rate is 15%.

• The formula to find EPS (Earnings Per Share) without growth is EPS = Price without growth × Capitalisation rate.

• Thus, EPS = ₹60 × 15% = ₹9.

Q56: For the purpose of taking Capital Budgeting Decisions in respect of a company in India, following are taken into consideration in computing cash flows in the terminal year of the project: 

A. Tax loss on short-term capital gains

B. Tax loss on short-term capital loss

C. Release of net working capital

D. Tax saving on short-term capital loss

E. Tax saving on short-term capital gains

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C & D only

(b) B, C & E only

(c) C & E only

(d) B & E only

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, C & D only.

• B: Tax loss on short-term capital loss (reduces taxable income).
• C: Release of net working capital (recovered at project end).
• D: Tax saving on short-term capital loss (offset against other income).
• E: Tax saving on short-term capital gains is incorrect (tax is paid on gains).

Terminal year cash flows include recovery of working capital (C), tax losses on capital losses (B), and tax savings from those losses (D).

Q57: In international trade, factoring is widely used in short-term transactions as a continuous arrangement. Arrange the steps of export factoring operations in sequence - 

A. The export factor transfers the invoice to the import factor, who, in return, assumes credit risk and undertakes administration of receivable.

B. The export factor pays cash in advance to the exporter against receivables until the payment is received from the importer.

C. The importer and exporter enter into a sales contract and agree on the terms of sale.

D. The import factor presents invoice to importer, take payment and pays to the export factor. E. The exporter ships the goods to the importer and submits the invoice to the export factor.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) E, A, B, D, C

(b) E, B, A, D, C

(c) C, B, E, D, A

(d) C, E, B, A, D

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is C, E, B, A, D.

The importer and exporter enter into a sales contract and agree on the terms of sale (C):

• This is the initial step in the factoring process where both parties agree on the terms and conditions of the sale.
• It sets the foundation for the subsequent steps as it formalizes the business transaction between the importer and exporter.

The exporter ships the goods to the importer and submits the invoice to the export factor (E):

• Once the goods are shipped, the exporter sends the invoice to the export factor for processing.
• This step ensures that the export factor has all the necessary documentation to proceed with the factoring process.

The export factor pays cash in advance to the exporter against receivables until the payment is received from the importer (B):

• The export factor provides the exporter with an advance payment, improving the exporter's cash flow.
• This arrangement helps exporters manage their working capital more efficiently by converting receivables into immediate cash.

The export factor transfers the invoice to the import factor, who, in return, assumes credit risk and undertakes administration of receivable (A):

• The export factor forwards the invoice to the import factor, transferring the responsibility and risk associated with the receivable.
• This step is crucial as it mitigates the exporter's risk and ensures that the receivables are managed effectively.

The import factor presents the invoice to the importer, takes payment, and pays to the export factor (D):

• The import factor collects payment from the importer and then transfers the funds to the export factor.
• This final step completes the transaction, ensuring that the export factor is reimbursed for the advance payment made to the exporter.

Other Related Points

• Factoring: Factoring is a financial transaction in which a business sells its accounts receivable (invoices) to a third party (called a factor) at a discount in exchange for immediate cash.
• Export Factoring: It is a specific type of factoring used in international trade to help exporters receive immediate payment for their invoices, thus improving their cash flow.
• Credit Risk Management: One of the significant benefits of factoring is that it helps businesses manage credit risk by transferring the risk of non-payment to the factor.
• Improved Cash Flow: By receiving immediate payment from the factor, exporters can manage their working capital more effectively, ensuring they have the funds needed to continue operations without delays.
• Administrative Support: Factors often provide additional services such as managing collections and handling credit checks, which can be beneficial for small and medium-sized businesses.

Q58: Which of the following are primary functions of Commercial Banks? 

A. Accepting Deposits

B. Agency Service

C. Discounting Trade Bills

D. Financing Foreign Trade

E. General Utility Service

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C & E only

(b) A, B & D only

(c) B, C & E only

(d) A, C & D only

Ans: D

Sol:  The correct answer is A, C & D only.

  Accepting Deposits (A):

• This is one of the primary functions of commercial banks, where they accept money from the public as deposits and provide a safe place for saving.
• These deposits can be in the form of savings accounts, current accounts, or fixed deposits.
• Importance: This function provides the banks with the necessary funds to lend, ensures the safekeeping of public money, and helps maintain the financial stability of the community.

Discounting Trade Bills (C):

• Commercial banks discount trade bills to provide immediate funds to businesses. It involves purchasing the bill before its due date and deducting interest.
• This helps in maintaining liquidity for businesses and encourages smooth trade operations.
• Importance: This service provides liquidity to businesses, allowing them to maintain cash flow and continue operations smoothly without waiting for the bill's maturity.

Financing Foreign Trade (D):

• Banks provide various financial services to support foreign trade, including issuing letters of credit and offering foreign exchange services.
• They help in mitigating risks associated with international trade by providing guarantees and facilitating transactions.
• Importance: These services reduce the risk of international trade and provide assurance and security to the trading parties, thus promoting global commerce.

Other Related Points  

Agency Service (B):

• While important, agency services like managing portfolios, paying bills, and collecting cheques are not considered primary functions of commercial banks.
• Services Included: Portfolio Management, Paying Bills, Collecting Cheques.
• Importance: While significant for customer convenience, these services are more about enhancing the overall service portfolio of the bank rather than its core banking activities.

General Utility Service (E):

• These services include providing lockers, issuing traveler’s cheques, and offering credit cards, which are also not primary functions but are significant in enhancing customer convenience.
• Services Included: Lockers, Traveler’s Cheques, Credit Cards.
• Importance: These utilities improve customer experiences and can boost the bank's competitiveness, but they are supplemental to the core banking functions.

Q59: Arrange the following steps of decision making process in application of Economics in Business decision making from starting to end- 

A. Selection and Implementation of the Decision

B. Inventing, developing possible Course of Action

C. Collection and Analysis of Relevant Data

D. Identifying Business Related Issues

E. Determining and defining objective

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) D, C, E, B, A

(b) C, D, B, E, A

(c) B, C, D, E, A

(d) E, D, C, B, A

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is E, D, C, B, A.

Determining and defining objective (E):

• This initial step involves setting clear objectives and goals for the decision-making process.
• It ensures that all subsequent actions are aligned with the desired outcomes.

Identifying Business Related Issues (D):

• After defining the objectives, the next step is to identify the specific business issues or problems that need to be addressed.
• This helps in focusing on relevant areas that require decision-making.

Collection and Analysis of Relevant Data (C):

• Once the issues are identified, relevant data is collected and analyzed to understand the situation better.
• This step is crucial for making informed decisions based on evidence and facts.

Inventing, developing possible Course of Action (B):

• After analyzing the data, various possible courses of action are developed.
• This involves brainstorming and creating multiple solutions to address the identified issues.

Selection and Implementation of the Decision (A):

• The final step is to select the best possible course of action and implement the decision.
• This includes putting the chosen solution into practice and monitoring its effectiveness.

Other Related Points

Option 1 (D, C, E, B, A):

• Incorrect because defining the objective (E) should be the first step, not after identifying issues (D) and collecting data (C).
• Skipping the objective-setting stage initially could lead to a lack of direction.

Option 2 (C, D, B, E, A):

• Incorrect because collection and analysis of data (C) should come after identifying business issues (D), not before.
• Defining objectives (E) should be the first step to ensure all actions are goal-oriented.

Option 3 (B, C, D, E, A):

• Incorrect because developing possible courses of action (B) should come after collecting and analyzing data (C), which in turn comes after identifying issues (D).
• Defining the objective (E) should be the first step.

Q60: Match the List - I with List - II

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(c) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

(d) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

Specific Goods (A) matches with The goods, which are identified and agreed upon at the time of making the contract of sale (IV).

•  Specific goods refer to items that are precisely identified and agreed upon by the buyer and seller at the time the sale contract is formed.
• The goods are well-defined and distinct from any others.
• For example, purchasing a specific piece of artwork or a particular car in a showroom would fall under specific goods, as they are already identified and selected at the point of sale.

Ascertained Goods (B) matches with The goods, which are identified and agreed upon subsequent to the formation of contract of sale (III).

•  Ascertained goods refer to goods that become identified or designated only after the sale contract is made.
• These goods are selected or set aside from a larger group.
• For instance, if a buyer purchases 100 bags of rice from a larger stock, the specific bags are not selected until after the contract, making them ascertained goods.

Unascertained Goods (C) matches with The goods, which are not identified and agreed upon at the time of formation of contract of sale (II).

•  Unascertained goods are generic or fungible items that are not specifically identified at the time the sale contract is made.
• They are typically part of a larger quantity and not individually distinguished.
• An example would be a contract for a delivery of “200 units of a product” without specifying which exact units. These goods become specific only upon separation.

Future Goods (D) matches with The goods which are to be manufactured or produced or acquired by the seller after making the contract of sale (I).

•  Future goods are items that do not exist at the time the contract is made but will be created or acquired by the seller in the future.
• They are promised for delivery at a later date.
• Examples include crops to be harvested next season or products to be manufactured as per the buyer's order.

Q61: Match the List-I with List-II

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

(b) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

(c) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

(d) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I.

Administrative Policies and Strategies (A) matches with Merit Pay Plans (II).

• Administrative policies and strategies often include merit pay plans, which are designed to reward employees based on their performance. These policies are intended to motivate employees but can also be a source of stress if perceived as unfair or if the criteria for rewards are not clear.

Organizational Structure and Design (B) matches with No opportunity for advancement (III).

• The structure and design of an organization can significantly affect employees' career progression. A rigid organizational structure with limited roles and hierarchical barriers can lead to a lack of opportunities for advancement, causing stress among employees who seek growth and development.

Organizational Processes (C) matches with Lack of participation in decisions (IV).

• Organizational processes refer to the methods and practices through which work is carried out within the organization. A lack of employee participation in decision-making processes can lead to feelings of disenfranchisement and stress, as employees may feel undervalued and powerless.

Working Conditions (D) matches with Crowded work area (I).

• Working conditions encompass the physical environment in which employees perform their job duties. A crowded work area can lead to discomfort, distractions, and increased stress levels, affecting overall productivity and job satisfaction.

Understanding these macro-level organizational stressors is crucial for employers to create a more supportive and productive work environment. By addressing these issues, organizations can improve employee well-being and performance.

Q62: A company forfeits 100 shares of ₹10 each on which ₹300 had been received. 60 shares are reissued at ₹9 per share. Which one of the following amount is to be transferred to Capital Reserve Account?

(a) ₹200

(b) ₹180

(c) ₹120

(d) ₹60

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is ₹120.

• The shares were originally forfeited with ₹300 received for 100 shares, meaning ₹3 per share was received.

• When 60 shares are reissued at ₹9 per share, the company receives ₹540 (60 shares * ₹9).

• The original amount received for these 60 shares was ₹180 (60 shares * ₹3).

• The total amount received on these 60 shares now is ₹720 (₹540 + ₹180).

• The face value of 60 shares is ₹600 (60 shares * ₹10).

• The capital reserve is the excess received over the face value, which is ₹120 (₹720 - ₹600).

Q63: Match the List - I with List - Il

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

(b) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

(c) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

(d) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is 'A- IV, B- III, C- I, D- II'.

Inchoate Instrument (A) matches with An incomplete instrument in some respect, where a person signs & delivers to another a blank or incomplete paper (IV).

• An Inchoate Instrument is one that is incomplete but still legally valid once completed. It might be missing key details, such as the amount or the name of the payee, which can be filled in later.
• This type of instrument allows for flexibility and can be used in various financial transactions where some details are not immediately available.

Ambiguous Instrument (B) matches with When the instrument owing to its faulty drafting may be interpreted either as a promissory note or bill of exchange (III).

• An Ambiguous Instrument can cause confusion because it is not clear whether it is a promissory note or a bill of exchange due to its improper drafting.
• This ambiguity can lead to legal disputes over the instrument's interpretation and enforceability.

Escrow (C) matches with When negotiable instrument is delivered conditionally or for a specific purpose as a collateral security or for safe custody only (I).

• Escrow refers to the conditional delivery of a negotiable instrument for a specific purpose, such as collateral security or safe custody.
• The instrument becomes effective only when the specified conditions are met, providing a layer of security for the involved parties.

Fictitious Bill (D) matches with When the name of the drawer, or the payee, or both are fake in a bill (II).

• A Fictitious Bill involves false names for the drawer or payee, making it fraudulent. Such instruments are created with the intent to deceive and are illegal.
• Detection and prevention of fictitious bills are crucial to maintaining the integrity of financial transactions.

Q64: Match the List-I with List-Il

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(b) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

(c) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

(d) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is 'A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II'.

Contribution to Agnipath Scheme (A) matches with Section 80CCH (III).

• Section 80CCH of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides for deductions related to contributions made towards the Agnipath Scheme.
• This deduction aims to encourage contributions to the scheme and thus support the welfare of the armed forces.

Profits and gains from business of collecting and processing of bio-degradable waste (B) matches with Section 80JJA (IV).

• Section 80JJA provides deductions on profits and gains derived from the business of collecting and processing or treating bio-degradable waste.
• This deduction encourages businesses to engage in environmentally sustainable practices by providing tax benefits.

Interest on deposits in case of senior citizens (C) matches with Section 80TTB (I).

• Section 80TTB allows for deductions on interest income earned by senior citizens from deposits with banks, post offices, or cooperative societies.
• This provision is designed to provide financial relief to senior citizens by reducing their taxable income from interest.

Contributions given by companies to political parties (D) matches with Section 80GGB (II).

• Section 80GGB allows for deductions on contributions made by companies to political parties or electoral trusts.
• This deduction promotes transparency in political funding and encourages corporate participation in the democratic process.

Q65: Arrange the given Prefatory Information sub - modules into a sequence to form a Long Management Report - 

A. Title Page

B. Executive Summary

C. Table of contents

D. Letter of transmittal

E. Authorization statement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, C, D, A, E

(b) E, D, B, C, A

(c) D, A, E, B, C

(d) C, A, D, E, B

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is D, A, E, B, C.

Letter of transmittal (D):

• This document officially forwards the report to the recipient, providing a brief overview and stating the purpose of the report.
• It is the first point of contact and sets the tone for the document.

Title Page (A):

• The title page provides the report's title, the author's name, and the date of submission.
• It ensures that the report is properly identified and attributed to its author.

Authorization statement (E):

• This section includes any formal permissions or endorsements from relevant authorities.
• It validates the report's findings and conclusions.

Executive Summary (B):

• The executive summary provides a concise overview of the entire report, highlighting key points and findings.
• It allows readers to quickly grasp the main insights without reading the entire document.

Table of contents (C):

• The table of contents lists all the sections and sub-sections of the report, with page numbers for easy navigation.
• It helps readers find specific information quickly and efficiently.

Q66: Arrange the following content theories of work motivation in the increasing order of their development - 

A. Herzberg-motivation and hygiene factors

B. Alderfer ERG Needs

C. Maslow-Hierarchy of Needs

D. Scientific Management

E. Human Relations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) D, C, E, A, B

(b) D, E, C, A, B

(c) B, C, A, D, E

(d) D, E, A, C, B

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is D, E, C, A, B.

Scientific Management (D):

• Developed by Frederick Taylor in the early 20th century.
• Focuses on improving economic efficiency and labor productivity through scientific methods.
• One of the earliest theories of work motivation, emphasizing task optimization and standardization.
• Introduced concepts like time studies, work studies, and piece-rate pay.

Human Relations (E):

• Emerged in the 1930s, largely influenced by the Hawthorne Studies.
• Emphasizes the importance of social factors in the workplace, such as worker satisfaction and group dynamics.
• Contrasts with Scientific Management by focusing on human elements rather than just efficiency.
• Pioneered by Elton Mayo and his colleagues.

Maslow-Hierarchy of Needs (C):

• Proposed by Abraham Maslow in 1943.
• Introduces a five-tier model of human needs, ranging from physiological needs to self-actualization.
• Suggests that higher-level needs become motivational only after lower-level needs are satisfied.
• Widely applied in various fields, including psychology, business, and education.

Herzberg-Motivation and Hygiene Factors (A):

• Introduced by Frederick Herzberg in the late 1950s.
• Distinguishes between 'hygiene factors' (which can cause dissatisfaction if missing) and 'motivators' (which can encourage higher performance).
• Hygiene factors include salary, work conditions, and company policies.
• Motivators include achievement, recognition, and the work itself.

Alderfer ERG Needs (B):

• Developed by Clayton Alderfer in 1969.
• Condenses Maslow's five levels into three: Existence, Relatedness, and Growth (ERG).
• Allows for more flexibility in movement between different levels of needs.
• Addresses the limitations of Maslow's theory by allowing regression if higher-level needs are unfulfilled.

Q67: Where there is an unconditional contract for the sale of specific goods in a deliverable state, the property (ownership) in goods passes to the buyer when

(a) the contract is made

(b) the payment is made

(c) the goods are delivered

(d) the goods are dispatched

Ans: A

Sol:  The correct answer is the contract is made.  

The property in goods passes to the buyer when the contract is made:

• In the context of a financial enterprise, an unconditional contract for the sale of specific goods means that once the contract is signed, the ownership of the goods is transferred to the buyer immediately.
• This is crucial for accounting and financial reporting, as it determines when the buyer can recognize the goods as assets in their books and when the seller can recognize the sale revenue.
• It also impacts the risk management and insurance coverage since the buyer assumes the risk of loss or damage to the goods from the moment the contract is made.

 Additional Information

Payment is made:

• This is incorrect because the transfer of ownership is not dependent on the payment being made.
• The property in goods can pass to the buyer even if payment is to be made at a later date.

The goods are delivered:

• This option is incorrect as the transfer of ownership occurs when the contract is made, not when the goods are physically delivered.
• Delivery is a separate aspect of the sales process.

The goods are dispatched:

• This is also incorrect. Dispatching goods refers to the act of sending them out for delivery, which does not affect the transfer of ownership as per the contract terms.

Q68: In which of the following cases, undue influence is presumed :

(a) Creditor and debtor

(b) Landlord and tenant

(c) Husband and Wife

(d) Parent and Child

Ans: D

Sol:  The answer is Parent and Child.

  Parent and Child:

• In the context of financial enterprises, undue influence is presumed in the relationship between parent and child due to the inherent trust, dependency, and authority the parent holds over the child.
• This presumption is based on the natural dominance a parent has, which could potentially be misused to influence the child's financial decisions and actions.
• The law often protects children in these scenarios to ensure that any financial decisions made are genuinely in their best interest and free from undue pressure.

 Additional Information

Creditor and Debtor:

• This relationship typically involves a financial transaction based on mutually agreed terms.
• While there can be a power imbalance, it is not generally presumed to involve undue influence.
• Both parties usually have clear contractual terms to refer to, which helps to protect against potential undue influence.
• Any claims of undue influence would require specific evidence of coercion or abuse of power, as it is not inherently assumed.

Landlord and Tenant:

• Though there is an element of authority, this relationship is usually governed by contractual obligations and does not inherently involve undue influence.
• The landlord-tenant relationship is typically transactional, with both parties having clear legal rights and responsibilities outlined in a lease agreement.
• The potential for undue influence exists, but it is not presumed by law and would need to be proven with specific evidence.
• Tenants have legal protections against exploitative practices, which help mitigate the risk of undue influence.

Husband and Wife:

• While a close relationship, undue influence is not automatically presumed in financial matters unless specific evidence suggests it.
• Spouses often make joint financial decisions, and the law does not automatically assume undue influence in these cases.
• However, if one spouse is in a significantly dominant position, it can lead to situations where undue influence might be claimed.
• To prove undue influence between spouses, clear evidence of pressure or manipulation beyond normal marital dynamics would be needed.
• The protection in these cases is ensuring informed consent and voluntary agreement from both parties in financial decisions.

Q69: Which of the following condition is NOT required to be satisfied by an individual for the purpose of claiming unilateral relief under section 91(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, in a previous year?

(a) He must be resident in India in that previous year

(b) His total income exceeds 10,00,000 during that previous year

(c) He has earned an income during that previous year from another country and that income has accrued or arose outside India

(d) He has paid income-tax in that country on the income earned in that country and no Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) exists between India and that country

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is His total income exceeds 10,00,000 during that previous year.

His total income exceeds 10,00,000 during that previous year:

• This condition is not required for claiming unilateral relief under section 91(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The total income threshold of 10,00,000 is not a criterion for eligibility.
• Unilateral relief is granted to avoid double taxation on the same income, but it does not specify any minimum income threshold for this purpose.

Other Related Points

He must be resident in India in that previous year:

• This condition is required. Only residents of India are eligible to claim unilateral relief under section 91(1) to avoid double taxation on income earned abroad.

He has earned an income during that previous year from another country and that income has accrued or arose outside India:

• This condition is essential. The individual must have income that accrued or arose outside India to claim relief for taxes paid in the foreign country.

He has paid income-tax in that country on the income earned in that country and no Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) exists between India and that country:

• This is also a necessary condition. Unilateral relief is provided in cases where there is no DTAA between India and the foreign country, and the individual has paid tax on the foreign income in that country.

Q70: Which one of the following is NOT true about the relationship between Average Cost (AC) and Marginal Cost (MC)?

(a) When MC is falling, the rate of fall in MC is greater than that of AC

(b) When MC increases, AC also increase but at a lower rate. However, there is a range of output where MC begins to increase while AC continue to decrease

(c) When AC is constant, AC < MC

(d) MC curve intersects AC curve at its minimum

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is When AC is constant, AC < MC.

When AC is constant, AC < MC:

• This statement is incorrect. When the Average Cost (AC) is constant, it means that the Marginal Cost (MC) is equal to the Average Cost (AC). In other words, MC must equal AC for the AC to remain unchanged.
• If MC were greater than AC, then AC would be rising, not constant.
• Conversely, if MC were less than AC, AC would be falling. Therefore, this statement does not hold true in the context of cost relationships.

Other Related Points

When MC is falling, the rate of fall in MC is greater than that of AC:

• This is generally true. When MC is falling, it often decreases more rapidly than AC because AC is an average of all marginal costs up to that point, and thus changes more slowly.

When MC increases, AC also increases but at a lower rate. However, there is a range of output where MC begins to increase while AC continues to decrease:

• This is true. There is a range where MC can increase while AC continues to decrease, as long as the MC is still below the AC. This is the point where AC is falling but at a decreasing rate.

MC curve intersects AC curve at its minimum:

• This is true. The MC curve intersects the AC curve at its minimum point. This is because when MC is less than AC, AC is falling, and when MC is greater than AC, AC is rising. Thus, MC equals AC at the minimum point of AC.

Q71: Match the List-I with List-II

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(c) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

(d) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

Early Harvest Scheme (A) matches with A Precursor of CECA, thus a step towards enhanced engagement and confidence building (III).

• Early Harvest Scheme (EHS) is often considered a stepping stone towards a more comprehensive trade agreement like the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA).
• It aims to build trust and engagement between the trading partners by providing early benefits and reducing tariffs on a limited number of products.
• EHS helps in creating a favorable environment for negotiating a broader trade agreement.

Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (B) matches with Looks into the regulatory aspect of trade and encompasses an agreement on customs, competition & IPR (IV).

• A Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is broader than a traditional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) as it includes not just the reduction of tariffs but also regulatory aspects like customs procedures, competition policies, and intellectual property rights (IPR).
• CEPA aims at a deeper integration of the economies involved by addressing non-tariff barriers and promoting cooperation in various sectors.

Preferential Trade Agreement (C) matches with In which two or more countries agree to provide trade terms, tariff concession to partner country/ies (II).

• A Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) is an agreement between two or more countries to provide preferential access to certain products from the participating countries by reducing tariffs.
• PTAs are less comprehensive than FTAs and typically cover fewer products but still aim to promote trade by offering better terms than those available under standard World Trade Organization (WTO) rules.

Free Trade Agreement (D) matches with Two or more parties give right of entry to certain products by reducing duties on an agreed number in tariff lines (I).

• A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is an arrangement where two or more countries agree to reduce or eliminate tariffs, quotas, and preferences on most (if not all) goods traded between them.
• The primary objective of an FTA is to boost trade and economic integration by making it easier and cheaper for goods to flow across borders.
• FTAs can also include provisions on services, investment, and other areas to further enhance economic cooperation.

Q72: Match the List-I with List-Il 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

(b) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

(c) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

(d) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II.

Profitability Index (A) matches with Ratio of the present value of cash inflows, at the required rate of return, to the initial cash outflow of the investment (IV).

• The Profitability Index (PI) is a measure that calculates the ratio of the present value of future cash flows generated by an investment to the initial investment cost.
• It helps in determining the attractiveness of an investment; a PI greater than 1 indicates that the net present value (NPV) is positive and the investment is likely to be profitable.
• PI is particularly useful for comparing projects of different sizes and for making capital budgeting decisions.

Accounting Rate of Return (ARR) (B) matches with Rate that is computed by dividing the average profit after tax with the average investment (III).

• The Accounting Rate of Return (ARR) is a financial metric used to assess the expected profitability of an investment.
• It is calculated by dividing the average annual accounting profit by the average investment in the project.
• ARR is simple to compute and understand, but it doesn't take into account the time value of money or cash flows.

Internal Rate of Return (IRR) (C) matches with Rate that equates the investment outlay with the present value of cash inflow received after one period (I).

• The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that makes the net present value (NPV) of all cash flows from a particular project equal to zero.
• IRR is used in capital budgeting to evaluate the profitability of potential investments.
• Projects with an IRR greater than the cost of capital are considered good investments.

Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) (D) matches with Compound average annual rate that is calculated with a reinvestment rate different than the project's IRR (II).

• The Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR) is an improvement over the traditional IRR, addressing some of its limitations by incorporating a more realistic assumption about the reinvestment rate of intermediate cash flows.
• MIRR assumes that positive cash flows are reinvested at the firm's cost of capital rather than the IRR itself.
• It provides a better measure of an investment's attractiveness by considering the cost of capital and the final value of cash flows.

Q73: RBI permitted the issue of commercial papers within the framework of its guidelines. Which one of the following committee recommended these guidelines?

(a) Verma Committee

(b) Padmanabhan Committee

(c) Kalia Committee

(d) Vaghul Committee

Ans: D

Sol:  The correct answer is Vaghul Committee

  Vaghul Committee:

• The Vaghul Committee was established to review the working of the money market in India and to suggest measures for its development.
• One of the key recommendations of the Vaghul Committee was the introduction of commercial papers in the Indian money market.
• Commercial papers are unsecured, short-term debt instruments issued by companies to meet their working capital requirements.
• The guidelines set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for the issuance of commercial papers were framed based on the recommendations of the Vaghul Committee.

 Additional Information

Verma Committee:

• The Verma Committee, officially known as the Committee on Banking Sector Reforms, was established in 1998 under the chairmanship of M. Narasimham for overall banking sector reforms in India.
• The primary focus was to address the issues and challenges faced by public sector banks, including operational efficiency, non-performing assets, and capital adequacy.
• This committee provided recommendations to improve the functioning and competitiveness of weak public sector banks.
• It did not deal with the money market or the introduction and regulation of commercial papers.

Padmanabhan Committee:

• The Padmanabhan Committee, also known as the Committee on Information Technology for the Indian Banking Sector, was set up in 1994 under the chairmanship of Dr. A. Padmanabhan.
• The committee's main objective was to examine and recommend technological improvements in the banking sector to enhance efficiency, customer service, and competitiveness.
• It focused on the adoption of information technology, computerization, and networking in banking operations.
• This committee did not recommend guidelines for the issuance or regulation of commercial papers.

Kalia Committee:

• The Kalia Committee, formed under the chairmanship of Mahesh Kumar Kalia in 1991, concentrated on strategies to deal with the problem of non-performing assets (NPAs) in the banking sector.
• This committee aimed to address and reduce bad loans and improve the recovery process of banks' loans and advances.
• It provided recommendations to enhance the credit management practices of banks and the regulatory framework to manage NPAs effectively.
• The committee had no direct role in framing guidelines for the issuance or regulation of commercial papers.

Q74: Arrange the following theories of Profit in order of time when these were propounded from oldest to latest - 

A. Hawley's Risk Theory of profit

B. Walker's Theory of Profit: Profit as Rent of Ability

C. Clerk's Dynamic Theory of Profit

D. Schumpeter's Innovation Theory of Profit

E. Knight's Theory of Profit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C, D, B, E

(b) B, C, A, D, E

(c) E, B, C, D, A

(d) B, C, A, E, D

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is B, C, A, D, E.

Walker's Theory of Profit: Profit as Rent of Ability (B):

• Propounded in the late 19th century by Francis A. Walker.
• Views profit as a reward for the entrepreneur's exceptional abilities.
• Considers profit similar to rent earned on land due to its fertility.
• Oldest among the listed theories, reflecting classical economic thought.

Clark's Dynamic Theory of Profit (C):

• Introduced by John Bates Clark in the early 20th century.
• Emphasizes the role of dynamic changes and innovations in generating profit.
• Highlights the entrepreneur's role in creating new opportunities and efficiencies.
• Second in chronological order, building on earlier economic concepts.

Hawley's Risk Theory of Profit (A):

• Developed by Frederick Barnard Hawley in the early 20th century.
• Asserts that profit compensates entrepreneurs for taking business risks.
• Considers risk-taking as a central function of entrepreneurship.
• Third in sequence, introducing the notion of risk into profit theory.

Schumpeter's Innovation Theory of Profit (D):

• Formulated by Joseph Schumpeter in the mid-20th century.
• Focuses on innovation as the primary driver of profit.
• Entrepreneurs earn profits by introducing new products, processes, or markets.
• Fourth in order, highlighting the transformative role of innovation.

Knight's Theory of Profit (E):

• Proposed by Frank H. Knight in the mid-20th century.
• Distinguishes between measurable risk and unmeasurable uncertainty.
• Attributes profit to the latter, where entrepreneurs face unpredictable outcomes.
• Latest theory, refining the understanding of risk and uncertainty in profit generation.

Q75: In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are identified by "boxes". Domestic support measure considered to distort production and trade, which is defined in Article 6 of the Agriculture Agreement falls into which box?

(a) Amber Box

(b) Jumbo Box

(c) Greenfield Box

(d) Black Box

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is Amber Box.

Amber Box:

• In WTO terminology, the Amber Box contains all domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade.
• These subsidies are subject to reduction commitments under the WTO agreements.
• The measures in the Amber Box are defined in Article 6 of the Agriculture Agreement.
• Examples include price support measures and subsidies directly related to production quantities.

Other Related Points

Jumbo Box:

• This term is not recognized in WTO terminology.
• Therefore, it does not relate to any category of subsidies under WTO rules.

Greenfield Box:

• This term is also not recognized in WTO terminology.
• It does not pertain to any specific category of subsidies in the context of WTO agreements.

Black Box:

• This is another term not used in WTO terminology.
• It does not relate to the classification of subsidies under WTO rules.

Q76: A person applies for a loan of ₹1,00,000. The bank informed him that over the years, it had received 2920 loan applications per year and the probability of approval was, on an average 0.85. The applicant wants to know the average number of loans approved per year by the bank. What can be that number?

(a) 1920

(b) 3250

(c) 1000

(d) 2482

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is 2482

 of Correct and Incorrect Options:

Option 1 (1920):

• This option is incorrect.
• The average number of loans approved per year is calculated by multiplying the total number of loan applications by the probability of approval.
• 1920 is much lower than the expected value calculated by using the given data.
• The correct calculation should be 2920 * 0.85 = 2482.

Option 2 (3250):

• This option is incorrect.
• The number 3250 is higher than the total number of applications received per year (2920).
• It is impossible to approve more loans than the number of applications received.
• The correct value is 2920 * 0.85 = 2482.

Option 3 (1000):

• This option is incorrect.
• The number 1000 is much lower than the expected value.
• Using the given data, the average number of loans approved should be 2920 * 0.85 = 2482.
• 1000 does not match with this calculation.

Option 4 (2482):

• This option is correct.
• The average number of loans approved per year is found by multiplying the number of applications (2920) by the probability of approval (0.85).
• 2920 * 0.85 = 2482.
• This matches the given data and calculation perfectly.

Q77: Which one of the following sources of power of the supervisor is NOT true for the subordinates to comply?

(a) Reward

(b) Coercive

(c) Expert

(d) Means-ends-control

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Expert.

Reward (Incorrect):

• This source of power involves the ability of the supervisor to provide rewards to the subordinates.
• Rewards can include salary increases, promotions, bonuses, and other forms of recognition.
• Subordinates are likely to comply because they desire the positive incentives offered by the supervisor.
• Hence, reward power is a true source of compliance.

Coercive (Incorrect):

• This source of power is based on the ability of the supervisor to administer punishments or negative consequences.
• Coercive power can include threats of job loss, demotion, or other penalties.
• Subordinates comply out of fear of the negative consequences that the supervisor can impose.
• Therefore, coercive power is also a true source of compliance.

Expert (Correct):

• This source of power comes from the supervisor's expertise, skills, and knowledge.
• While subordinates may respect and value the supervisor's expertise, it does not necessarily compel compliance.
• Expert power relies more on influence rather than direct control over rewards or punishments.
• Therefore, expert power is not a true source of compliance in the same way as reward or coercive power.

Means-ends-control (Incorrect):

• This source of power involves the supervisor's control over the means to achieve desired ends, such as resources, information, or support.
• Subordinates comply because the supervisor controls the tools and resources necessary for them to achieve their goals.
• Having control over these means directly influences the subordinates' ability to perform their tasks.
• Thus, means-ends-control is a true source of compliance.

Q78: The rate of diffusion of any innovation depends upon the following factors: 

A. The relative advantage of the innovation over previous solutions

B. The compatibility of the innovation with existing values and norms

C. A lack of complexity in using the innovation

D. The divisibility of the innovation facilitating low-risk trial

E. The communicability of the advantages of the innovation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C & E Only

(b) A, B, C & E only

(c) A, B, C, D & E

(d) B & D Only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A, B, C, D & E.

The relative advantage of the innovation over previous solutions (A):

• This refers to the degree to which an innovation is perceived as better than the idea it supersedes.
• High relative advantage can accelerate the rate of adoption among potential users.
• Factors such as improved performance, cost savings, and convenience can contribute to perceived relative advantage.
• Relative advantage is often the strongest predictor of an innovation’s rate of adoption.

The compatibility of the innovation with existing values and norms (B):

• Compatibility measures how consistent the innovation is with the values, past experiences, and needs of potential adopters.
• An innovation that aligns well with the existing values and practices is more likely to be adopted quickly.
• Compatibility also reduces the perceived risk and uncertainty associated with the adoption of the new innovation.
• High compatibility can lead to a smoother and faster diffusion process.

A lack of complexity in using the innovation (C):

• The simplicity or complexity of the innovation affects how easily it can be understood and used by potential adopters.
• Innovations perceived as less complex and easier to use are generally adopted more rapidly.
• Reducing complexity can involve user-friendly design, comprehensive instructions, and support services.
• Addressing complexity is crucial for encouraging widespread adoption.

The divisibility of the innovation facilitating low-risk trial (D):

• Divisibility, or trialability, refers to the extent to which an innovation can be experimented with on a limited basis.
• Innovations that can be tried and tested before a full commitment are adopted more quickly.
• This feature helps potential users to reduce uncertainty and evaluate the innovation’s benefits firsthand.
• High divisibility can significantly lower the perceived risks associated with adoption.

The communicability of the advantages of the innovation (E):

• Communicability, or observability, is the degree to which the results of an innovation are visible and communicable to others.
• Innovations with clear and communicable benefits tend to diffuse more rapidly.
• Effective communication strategies can highlight the advantages and increase the rate of adoption.
• Observability helps potential adopters to learn from others’ experiences, thereby reducing uncertainty.

Q79: Under the Income-Tax-Act, 1961, the value of perquisite in respect of movable assets (other than the assets already specified in Rule 3 of the Income tax Rules, 1962) owned by the employer is calculated at the rate of:

(a) 10% per annum of the actual cost

(b) 20% per annum of the actual cost

(c) 10% per month of the actual cost

(d) 20% per month of the actual cost

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is 10% per annum of the actual cost.

The value of perquisites for movable assets owned by the employer is calculated at 10% per annum of the actual cost:

• This rate of 10% per annum is applied to the actual cost of movable assets, such as furniture, electronics, or vehicles, provided by an employer to an employee.
• The perquisite valuation allows tax authorities to assess the additional benefit an employee receives for using assets owned by the employer.
• Such a calculation is essential in determining the taxable income from employment, as the asset usage constitutes a non-cash benefit subject to taxation.
• This 10% annual rate ensures a standardized calculation, simplifying both compliance for employees and enforcement for tax authorities.

Other Related Points

Purpose of Perquisite Valuation:

• Perquisites represent non-monetary benefits provided by employers, such as housing, company vehicles, or club memberships, which are valued for tax purposes.
• The Income-Tax Act, 1961, specifies various rates for different types of perquisites, including the 10% per annum rate for movable assets, ensuring fair taxation of these non-cash benefits.
• Tax regulations set forth by the Income-Tax Act, 1961, help maintain transparency and uniformity in the valuation of employee benefits, supporting equitable tax collection across income groups.

Q80: Which of the following are cases of Funds Flow? 

A. Payment of trade creditors by sale of Land

B. Cash collection from debtors

C. Purchase of Furniture by issue of bills payable

D. Payment of long term loan by cash

E. Payment of bills payable by cash

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, D & E only

(b) B, C & D only

(c) A, C & D only

(d) B & E only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A, C & D only.

A. Payment of trade creditors by sale of Land

• This statement represents a case of funds flow. The sale of land is a non-current asset being converted into cash, which is then used to settle current liabilities (trade creditors). This transaction affects both the non-current assets and current liabilities on the balance sheet, indicating a flow of funds. Therefore, this is a correct option for funds flow.

B. Cash collection from debtors

• This statement does not represent a funds flow but a simple conversion within current assets. Collecting cash from debtors changes the composition of current assets, increasing cash while decreasing accounts receivable. There is no flow of funds between different categories (non-current to current, etc.), just a movement within the same category of current assets. Hence, this is not considered a funds flow and is incorrect in this context.

C. Purchase of Furniture by issue of bills payable

• This statement represents a case of funds flow. The purchase of furniture, which is a non-current asset, by issuing bills payable (a liability) indicates a flow of funds. The transaction affects the non-current assets (increase in furniture) and the liabilities (increase in bills payable), showing a change in different parts of the financial statement. Therefore, this is a correct example of funds flow.

D. Payment of long term loan by cash

• This statement represents a case of funds flow. The payment of a long-term loan involves the use of cash (a current asset) to settle a long-term liability. This affects both the current assets section and the long-term liabilities section of the balance sheet, indicating a transfer of funds between different categories. Thus, this is a correct example of funds flow.

E. Payment of bills payable by cash

• This statement represents a simple settlement of a current liability using a current asset (cash). Though it involves the use of funds, it remains within the realm of current liabilities and current assets, without affecting other sections of the balance sheet. Therefore, it does not meet the criteria of funds flow, which involves a transfer affecting different categories like non-current to current or vice versa. Hence, this is not correct in the context of funds flow.

To summarize, funds flow refers to transactions that cause a transfer of funds between different parts of the balance sheet, indicating a movement of funds rather than just a conversion within the same category. Options A, C, and D meet this criterion as they demonstrate movements between different sections (current assets to non-current assets, or liabilities, etc.), which is why option 3 (A, C & D only) is the correct choice.

Q81: Which one of the following is standard deviation of first 7 (1 to 7) natural numbers?

(a) 4

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 6

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is standard deviation of the first 7 natural numbers is 2.

The standard deviation provides insight into the volatility or risk associated with a set of numbers, which can be applied to understanding financial data:

• In finance, standard deviation is used to measure the risk associated with an investment's return. A higher standard deviation indicates a higher risk, as the returns are more spread out from the expected value.
• For the first 7 natural numbers (1 to 7), the calculation of standard deviation provides a basic statistical insight, useful for understanding larger financial datasets.
• The mean (average) of the first 7 natural numbers is 4. Thus, each number’s deviation from the mean is considered to calculate the standard deviation.
• Considering standard deviation helps financial analysts to forecast future performance and assess the historical volatility of financial instruments.

Other Related Points

Steps to calculate the standard deviation of the first 7 natural numbers (1 to 7):

• Calculate the mean (average): (1+2+3+4+5+6+7)/7 = 4.
• Find the deviations from the mean for each number: (-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3).
• Square each deviation: (9, 4, 1, 0, 1, 4, 9).
• Calculate the average of these squared deviations: (9+4+1+0+1+4+9)/7 = 4.
• The square root of this average gives the standard deviation: sqrt(4) = 2.

Applications in Financial Enterprise:

• In the financial enterprise, standard deviation is extensively used to measure the risk associated with stock prices, portfolio returns, and investment performance.
• Risk management relies on understanding the standard deviation of returns to gauge the potential volatility and make informed decisions.
• Financial models and tools like the Sharpe ratio use standard deviation to adjust the average return for the risk taken, enhancing investment strategy assessments.

Q82: Match the List-I with List-Il

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

(b) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

(c) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

(d) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III.

Conscientiousness (A) matches with Dependable (IV).

• Conscientiousness is a personality trait characterized by being diligent, careful, and reliable. People who score high in conscientiousness tend to be well-organized, dependable, and mindful of details.
• This trait is often associated with strong work ethic and responsible behavior, making these individuals reliable in both personal and professional settings.

Agreeableness (B) matches with Caring (II).

• Agreeableness is a personality trait that reflects a person's tendency to be compassionate, cooperative, and empathetic towards others. Individuals who are high in agreeableness are often seen as kind-hearted, altruistic, and eager to help others.
• This trait is crucial for building and maintaining social harmony and positive relationships.

Extraversion (C) matches with Outgoing (I).

• Extraversion is a trait associated with sociability, talkativeness, and assertiveness. Extraverted individuals are energetic, enthusiastic, and enjoy being in social settings.
• They are typically outgoing and draw energy from interacting with others, making them the life of the party or group events.

Openness to experience (D) matches with Creative (III).

• Openness to experience is a trait characterized by a willingness to try new things, embrace novel ideas, and engage in creative pursuits. People who are high in this trait are imaginative, curious, and open-minded.
• This trait is often linked to creativity, intellectual curiosity, and a preference for variety and innovation.

Other Related Points

• The Big Five personality traits, also known as the Five Factor Model (FFM), include Conscientiousness, Agreeableness, Extraversion, Openness to Experience, and Neuroticism. These traits provide a comprehensive framework for understanding human personality.
• Each trait represents a continuum, with individuals varying in the degree to which they exhibit each characteristic. This model is widely used in psychology to study and assess personality.

Q83: Arrange the following steps for the Incorporation of a new LLP (Limited Liability Partnership) in the correct order - 

A. Drafting of LLP Agreement

B. Deciding the partners and designated partners

C. Electronic filing of documents with ROC & issuing of Certificate of Incorporation by ROC (Registrar of Companies)

D. Checking the availability of Name

E. Obtaining DPIN & Digital Signature Certificate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, E, D, A, C

(b) C, A, B, D, E

(c) A, B, C, D, E

(d) E, A, C, D, B

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is B, E, D, A, C.

Deciding the partners and designated partners (B):

• This is the initial step where the partners and designated partners of the LLP are decided.
• It is crucial because the roles and responsibilities need to be clear before proceeding with the incorporation process.

Obtaining DPIN & Digital Signature Certificate (E):

• After deciding on partners, the next step is to obtain the Designated Partner Identification Number (DPIN) and Digital Signature Certificate (DSC).
• These are necessary for the electronic submission of documents and for the identification of designated partners.

Checking the availability of Name (D):

• Once the DPIN and DSC are obtained, the availability of the desired name for the LLP needs to be checked.
• This ensures that the chosen name is unique and not already registered.

Drafting of LLP Agreement (A):

• After confirming the name, the LLP Agreement is drafted, detailing the rights, duties, and obligations of the partners.
• This agreement forms the basis of the LLP's internal management.

Electronic filing of documents with ROC & issuing of Certificate of Incorporation by ROC (C):

• The final step involves electronically filing all necessary documents with the Registrar of Companies (ROC).
• Upon verification, the ROC issues the Certificate of Incorporation, officially forming the LLP.

Q84: Match the List-I with List-Il

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

(b) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

(c) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

(d) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is  A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II.

Ind AS-12 (A) matches with Income Taxes (IV).

• Ind AS-12 deals with accounting for income taxes, including how to account for current and deferred tax liabilities and assets.
• The standard ensures that financial statements reflect the current and future tax consequences of transactions and other events.
• It aims to provide a clear understanding of the tax implications on financial performance and position.

Ind AS-17 (B) matches with Leases (I).

• Ind AS-17 provides guidelines on how to account for leases, both for lessees and lessors.
• This standard helps in identifying lease arrangements and distinguishing between finance and operating leases.
• It ensures that lease-related transactions are accurately reflected in the financial statements.

Ind AS-19 (C) matches with Employee Benefits (III).

• Ind AS-19 addresses the accounting for employee benefits, including short-term benefits, post-employment benefits, and other long-term benefits.
• The standard aims to provide a clear and consistent method for measuring and recognizing employee benefits in financial statements.
• It ensures that the costs and obligations associated with employee benefits are transparently reported.

Ind AS-23 (D) matches with Borrowing Costs (II).

• Ind AS-23 deals with the accounting for borrowing costs, which are interest and other costs that an entity incurs in connection with borrowing funds.
• The standard provides guidance on when and how to capitalize borrowing costs as part of the cost of a qualifying asset.
• It ensures that the financial statements reflect the true cost of borrowing and the impact on asset valuation.

Q85: Which one of the following is a correct assumption of Law of Diminishing Returns to a variable Input?

(a) Labour and Capital are the only variable inputs

(b) The units of Labour and Capital are homogeneous

(c) The state and technology is not given

(d) Input prices are given

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Input prices are given.

Input prices are given:

• The Law of Diminishing Returns states that if one input in the production of a commodity is increased while all other inputs are held fixed, there will come a point where additions of the input yield progressively smaller, or diminishing, increases in output.
• The assumption that input prices are given is crucial because it allows us to isolate the effect of changing one input while keeping the cost of other inputs constant. This helps in accurately measuring the diminishing returns from the variable input.
• In a financial enterprise, this assumption is essential for budgeting and cost analysis. If input prices were not given, it would be difficult to determine whether changes in output were due to changes in input quantity or changes in input costs.

Other Related Points

Labour and Capital are the only variable inputs:

• This statement is incorrect. The Law of Diminishing Returns can apply to any variable input, not just labor and capital. It could be raw materials, energy, or any other input that can be varied.

The units of Labour and Capital are homogeneous:

• While homogeneity of units can simplify analysis, it is not a necessary assumption for the Law of Diminishing Returns. The law can still hold even if the units of inputs are not homogeneous.

The state and technology is not given:

• This is incorrect because the Law of Diminishing Returns generally assumes that technology and the state of production remain constant. Changes in technology can shift the production function and invalidate the law in its basic form.

Q86: Match the List-I with List-II

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(b) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

(c) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

(d) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV.

Platykurtic Distribution (A) matches with Flatter peak than the normal distribution (III).

• A Platykurtic distribution is characterized by having a flatter peak compared to the normal distribution.
• This type of distribution indicates fewer extreme values (outliers) and a more uniform spread of values.
• Examples include certain types of uniform distributions where data points are spread more evenly across the range.

Positively Skewed (B) matches with Long tail on the right side (II).

• A positively skewed distribution has a longer tail on the right side, indicating more extreme high values.
• Commonly seen in income distributions where most people earn less but a few earn significantly more.
• This type of skewness suggests that the mean is greater than the median.

Negatively Skewed (C) matches with Long tail on the left side (I).

• A negatively skewed distribution has a longer tail on the left side, indicating more extreme low values.
• Seen in distributions such as test scores where a majority perform well but a few perform poorly.
• This type of skewness suggests that the mean is less than the median.

Leptokurtic Distribution (D) matches with Sharper peak than the normal distribution (IV).

• A Leptokurtic distribution is characterized by a sharper peak compared to the normal distribution.
• This type of distribution indicates more extreme values (outliers) and a higher likelihood of values being close to the mean.
• Examples include certain types of distributions where data points are clustered tightly around the mean.

Other Related Points

• Understanding the shape and type of distribution is crucial in statistical analysis as it affects the choice of statistical tests and interpretations of results.
• Skewness and kurtosis are measures used to describe the shape of the distribution of data points in a dataset.
• Skewness measures the asymmetry of the distribution, while kurtosis measures the "tailedness" or the sharpness of the distribution's peak.
• These concepts are fundamental in fields such as economics, psychology, and various branches of science where data distribution plays a key role in analysis.

Q87: Match the List-I with List-II

​

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(c) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

(d) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.

Historical Cost approach (A) matches with Brummet Flamholtz and Pyle (IV).

• The Historical Cost approach is a method of valuing human resources by recording the actual cost incurred on the employees, including recruitment, training, and development costs.
• It was developed by Brummet, Flamholtz, and Pyle, who emphasized the importance of accounting for human resources in financial statements.

Replacement Cost approach (B) matches with Rensis Likert and Eric G Flamholtz (I).

• The Replacement Cost approach involves estimating the cost that would be incurred to replace the current workforce with new employees of equivalent capabilities.
• This approach was developed by Rensis Likert and Eric G Flamholtz, who highlighted the necessity of considering the costs associated with replacing employees.

Opportunity Cost approach (C) matches with Hekimian and Jones (II).

• The Opportunity Cost approach values human resources based on the potential benefits lost when one alternative is chosen over another.
• Hekimian and Jones developed this approach, focusing on the cost of opportunities forgone due to the current use of human resources.

Standard Cost approach (D) matches with David Watson (III).

• The Standard Cost approach involves using predetermined costs for valuing human resources, which helps in budgeting and controlling human resource costs.
• David Watson developed this method, which is often used for its simplicity and ease in comparing actual costs against standard costs.

Other Related Points

• Valuing human resources is crucial for organizations as it provides insights into the contribution of employees to the overall value of the company.
• Different approaches to valuing human resources reflect various perspectives on how employees' contributions can be quantified and reported.
• These valuation methods help in strategic decision-making, better human resource management, and enhancing organizational effectiveness.

Q88: The maximum number of Partners in a Limited Liability Partnership can be :

(a) Seven

(b) Fifty

(c) Hundred

(d) No Limit

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is No Limit.

No limit on the number of partners:

• An LLP offers flexibility as there is no maximum cap on the number of partners. This feature makes it particularly attractive for professional services, such as law and accounting firms, that may need many partners to handle various clients and cases.
• The absence of a cap supports businesses in expanding operations without the constraint of a partner limit, enabling growth and specialization within the LLP structure.
• In contrast to traditional partnerships, where partner caps might exist, LLPs cater to large business ventures needing multiple stakeholders while still offering limited liability.
• This unlimited partner structure encourages a diverse range of skills, expertise, and capital, enhancing the LLP’s resilience and resource pool in competitive markets.

Other Related Points

Liability in LLPs:

• One of the defining features of an LLP is that partners have limited liability, meaning they are protected from personal liability for the business’s debts beyond their contributions. This feature makes LLPs a preferred structure for professionals looking to safeguard personal assets.

Separate Legal Entity:

• An LLP is a separate legal entity, capable of owning assets, incurring debts, and suing or being sued independently of its partners. This distinction further protects individual partners’ interests, offering business continuity despite changes in the partnership structure.

Compliance Requirements:

• Although LLPs offer flexibility, they are subject to certain compliance requirements, including annual filings and financial disclosures, which vary by jurisdiction. This ensures transparency and accountability in financial practices within the LLP.

Q89: Which one of the following selection tests answers the question "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure"?

(a) Content validity

(b) Criterion validity

(c) Construct validity

(d) Test validity

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Test validity.

Test validity:

• Test validity refers to the degree to which a test accurately measures what it is intended to measure.
• In the context of a financial enterprise, ensuring test validity is crucial as it determines the effectiveness of tools such as risk assessment models, financial forecasting methods, and employee selection tests.
• A valid test ensures that the data collected is relevant and can be used to make informed business decisions.

Other Related Points

Content validity:

• This type of validity assesses whether a test comprehensively covers the domain of the content it's supposed to measure.
• In a financial enterprise, an example would be ensuring that a financial analyst's test covers all relevant areas such as market analysis, risk management, and financial reporting.

Criterion validity:

• Criterion validity evaluates how well one measure predicts an outcome based on another measure.
• For instance, a financial enterprise might use criterion validity to see if an aptitude test can predict future job performance.

Construct validity:

• Construct validity examines whether a test truly measures the theoretical construct it claims to measure.
• In the financial sector, this could involve validating whether a financial well-being survey accurately assesses an individual's overall financial health.

Q90: Which of the following are social factors influencing consumer buying behavior? 

A. Culture

B. Reference groups

C. Social Class

D. Roles assumed

E. Sub-culture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & C Only

(b) B & D Only

(c) A, C & D Only

(d) B, D & E Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is B & D Only.

Let's analyze each factor:

Culture

• Culture encompasses the shared values, beliefs, customs, and behaviors of a group.
• While culture influences consumer buying behavior broadly, it is often considered at a macro level, which includes societal norms and practices.
• Reason for exclusion: Although influential, in the strict context of social factors, "Culture" is more overarching and not purely social but also encompasses other dimensions like historical, geographical, and economic aspects.

Reference groups

• Reference groups are individuals or collectives that a person looks to for guidance, validation, and benchmarks for behavior and attitudes.
• These groups directly impact buying decisions by setting trends, norms, and opinions that individuals often follow. Examples include friends, family, colleagues, and influencers.
• Reason for inclusion: This factor is purely social as it revolves around interactions and relationships that directly influence consumer behavior.

Social Class

• Social class divides society into different strata based on socioeconomic status, including factors like income, education, and occupation.
• Reason for exclusion: Although it plays a role in consumer behavior, social class is often considered an economic factor because it is closely linked to financial capabilities and consumer purchasing power, rather than just social interactions.

Roles assumed

• Individuals play various roles in different social contexts, such as being a parent, employee, student, or community member.
• These roles come with expectations and norms that can significantly shape purchase decisions based on the responsibilities and activities associated with each role.
• Reason for inclusion: This is a social factor as it specifically involves the social positions and responsibilities that influence consumer behavior.

Sub-culture

• A sub-culture is a subset of the larger culture, and it includes groups that differentiate themselves through distinct values, beliefs, and behaviors.
• While sub-cultures like ethnicity, religion, and regional differences influence consumer behavior, they are extensions of the broader concept of culture.
• Reason for exclusion: Similar to culture, sub-culture straddles multiple dimensions and is not purely a social factor in the narrow sense required here.

Therefore, the factors that fit strictly as social influences on consumer buying behavior in this context are B: Reference Groups and D: Roles Assumed. This makes option 2: "B & D Only" the correct choice.

Q91: Read the passage and answer the questions given below. 

The export hubs are expected to act as a center for favourable business infrastructure and facilities for cross-border e-commerce, including facilitating faster customs clearance of cargo and also addressing the problem of reimportation because about 25 per cent of goods in e- commerce are reimported. Additionally, the hubs will offer warehousing facilities, processing returns, labelling, product, testing, repackaging items and dedicated logistics infrastructure for connecting to and leveraging the services of nearby logistics hubs, thereby achieving agglomeration benefits for exporters.

In an attempt to leverage e-commerce platforms to support local exporters, manufacturers and MSMEs in reaching potential international buyers, the DGFT signed a memorandum of understanding with global e-commerce firm Amazon last year to offer capacity-building sessions, training and workshops for MSMEs across districts identified by the DGFT as part of the "District as Exports Hub" initiative. Amazon surpassed $8 billion in cumulative exports from India in 2023 and aims to achieve its ambitious target of $20 billion by next year.

India's exports through online platforms stood at $8-10 billion in 2022-23 compared to China's staggering figure of more than $300 billion. A key reason for this gap is the cumbersome compliance process associated with exports, especially when it comes to payment reconciliation, which is particularly challenging for new or small exporters. At the same time, global cross- border e-commerce trade was $800 billion. With India's cross-border e-commerce exports likely to increase to $200 billion over the next six to seven years, it can become a key strategy in achieving the S2 trillion overall exports target by 2030.

India's services export increased by only $15.8 billion in 2023-24 over 2022-23, while merchandise export declined $14 billion in the same period. Overall, India's combined value of exported goods and services registered a marginal increase of around $2 billion in 2023-24. At a time when export growth remains tepid and the overall trade deficit is around $78 billion, establishing a supportive e-commerce ecosystem can truly give a fillip to India's export performance. Given the patchwork of rules and export provisions framed for exporters, there is an urgent need for a separate e-commerce export policy, which can ease the compliance burden on exporters.

E-commerce export hub can offer which of the following agglomeration benefits for exporters?

A. Repacking and labelling of products

B. Substantial decrease in upfront cost incurred in export

C. Interconnection of Logistics Custom clearance exemption

D. Custom clearance exemption

E. Assured export orders

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & C Only

(b) B, C & D Only

(c) A, B & E Only

(d) C, D & E Only

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is A, B & C Only.

Repacking and labelling of products

• This relates to the additional services provided by export hubs which are aimed at making products ready for international markets.
• Such facilities help exporters to streamline their processes, thus reducing time and logistical challenges.
• Supported by passage: The passage mentions that export hubs will offer "repacking, labelling, product testing, and processing returns services."

Substantial decrease in upfront cost incurred in export

• By providing shared infrastructure and services like warehousing and logistics, export hubs can help reduce the initial costs for exporters.
• Reduced costs make it easier for small businesses and new exporters to enter and compete in international markets.
• Supported by passage: Although not explicitly stated, the reduction in upfront costs can be inferred from the "favorable business infrastructure and facilities" provided by the hubs.

Interconnection of Logistics Custom clearance exemption

• Efficient logistics management and faster customs clearance are critical for timely delivery of goods and improving the overall export process efficiency.
• Providing dedicated logistics infrastructure helps connect exporters to services aimed at sped-up customs processes.
• Supported by passage: The passage specifies that the hubs will facilitate "faster customs clearance of cargo," indicating the role of interconnected logistics.

Custom clearance exemption

• Exemption from customs clearance requirements would significantly simplify the export process.
• However, the passage discusses facilitating faster customs clearance rather than an outright exemption.
• Not supported by passage: The text does not mention customs clearance exemptions, only faster processing.

Assured export orders

• This implies guaranteed orders for exporters, which would provide stability and predictability.
• While beneficial, there is no mention in the passage of export hubs guaranteeing or assuring export orders to businesses.
• Not supported by passage: The passage focuses on infrastructure and facilities, not on guaranteeing export orders.

Based on the passage, the correct option is A, B & C Only. These benefits are closely supported by the text, emphasizing infrastructure, reduced costs, and enhanced logistics for exporters.

Q92: Read the passage and answer the questions given below. 

The export hubs are expected to act as a center for favourable business infrastructure and facilities for cross-border e-commerce, including facilitating faster customs clearance of cargo and also addressing the problem of reimportation because about 25 per cent of goods in e- commerce are reimported. Additionally, the hubs will offer warehousing facilities, processing returns, labelling, product, testing, repackaging items and dedicated logistics infrastructure for connecting to and leveraging the services of nearby logistics hubs, thereby achieving agglomeration benefits for exporters.

In an attempt to leverage e-commerce platforms to support local exporters, manufacturers and MSMEs in reaching potential international buyers, the DGFT signed a memorandum of understanding with global e-commerce firm Amazon last year to offer capacity-building sessions, training and workshops for MSMEs across districts identified by the DGFT as part of the "District as Exports Hub" initiative. Amazon surpassed $8 billion in cumulative exports from India in 2023 and aims to achieve its ambitious target of $20 billion by next year.

India's exports through online platforms stood at $8-10 billion in 2022-23 compared to China's staggering figure of more than $300 billion. A key reason for this gap is the cumbersome compliance process associated with exports, especially when it comes to payment reconciliation, which is particularly challenging for new or small exporters. At the same time, global cross- border e-commerce trade was $800 billion. With India's cross-border e-commerce exports likely to increase to $200 billion over the next six to seven years, it can become a key strategy in achieving the S2 trillion overall exports target by 2030.

India's services export increased by only $15.8 billion in 2023-24 over 2022-23, while merchandise export declined $14 billion in the same period. Overall, India's combined value of exported goods and services registered a marginal increase of around $2 billion in 2023-24. At a time when export growth remains tepid and the overall trade deficit is around $78 billion, establishing a supportive e-commerce ecosystem can truly give a fillip to India's export performance. Given the patchwork of rules and export provisions framed for exporters, there is an urgent need for a separate e-commerce export policy, which can ease the compliance burden on exporters.

Why there is an urgent need for a separate e-commerce export policy?

A. Reimport issues are being addressed by existing export policies

B. Cross-border e-commerce has gained significantly in last few years

C. Existing export centers have favorable business infrastructure

D. E-commerce export can be managed with existing logistic hubs

E. E-commerce exports need a combination of facilities including warehousing, processing returns, repacking

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A & C Only

(b) B, C & D Only

(c) B & E Only

(d) C, D & E Only

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is B & E Only.

Reimport issues are being addressed by existing export policies

• This statement is incorrect because, while the passage mentions reimportation issues and the role of export hubs in addressing them, it does not suggest that existing export policies are sufficient in dealing with these issues. Instead, the need for a separate e-commerce export policy indicates current policies are inadequate.

Cross-border e-commerce has gained significantly in the last few years

• This statement is correct. The passage states that India’s cross-border e-commerce exports are likely to increase significantly over the next six to seven years, indicating substantial recent and projected growth. This underlines the need for a dedicated e-commerce export policy.

Existing export centers have favorable business infrastructure

• This statement is incorrect. The passage does highlight that export hubs are expected to provide favorable business infrastructure. However, it does not say that existing export centers already offer all necessary facilities for e-commerce. Thus, a dedicated e-commerce export policy is still needed.

E-commerce export can be managed with existing logistic hubs

• This statement is incorrect. The passage implies that existing logistics hubs might not be sufficient alone as it emphasizes the establishment of dedicated logistics infrastructure in the new export hubs for managing e-commerce exports effectively.

E-commerce exports need a combination of facilities including warehousing, processing returns, repacking

• This statement is correct. The passage explicitly states that export hubs will offer various facilities such as warehousing, processing returns, repacking, and more. This diverse combination of facilities underscores the necessity of a specialized policy to streamline and support these functions.

Based on the evaluation above, the correct answer is option 3: B & E Only, as these statements accurately reflect the reasons why there is an urgent need for a separate e-commerce export policy. Statements A, C, and D do not correctly capture the need as described in the passage.

Q93: Read the passage and answer the questions given below. 

The export hubs are expected to act as a center for favourable business infrastructure and facilities for cross-border e-commerce, including facilitating faster customs clearance of cargo and also addressing the problem of reimportation because about 25 per cent of goods in e- commerce are reimported. Additionally, the hubs will offer warehousing facilities, processing returns, labelling, product, testing, repackaging items and dedicated logistics infrastructure for connecting to and leveraging the services of nearby logistics hubs, thereby achieving agglomeration benefits for exporters.

In an attempt to leverage e-commerce platforms to support local exporters, manufacturers and MSMEs in reaching potential international buyers, the DGFT signed a memorandum of understanding with global e-commerce firm Amazon last year to offer capacity-building sessions, training and workshops for MSMEs across districts identified by the DGFT as part of the "District as Exports Hub" initiative. Amazon surpassed $8 billion in cumulative exports from India in 2023 and aims to achieve its ambitious target of $20 billion by next year.

India's exports through online platforms stood at $8-10 billion in 2022-23 compared to China's staggering figure of more than $300 billion. A key reason for this gap is the cumbersome compliance process associated with exports, especially when it comes to payment reconciliation, which is particularly challenging for new or small exporters. At the same time, global cross- border e-commerce trade was $800 billion. With India's cross-border e-commerce exports likely to increase to $200 billion over the next six to seven years, it can become a key strategy in achieving the S2 trillion overall exports target by 2030.

India's services export increased by only $15.8 billion in 2023-24 over 2022-23, while merchandise export declined $14 billion in the same period. Overall, India's combined value of exported goods and services registered a marginal increase of around $2 billion in 2023-24. At a time when export growth remains tepid and the overall trade deficit is around $78 billion, establishing a supportive e-commerce ecosystem can truly give a fillip to India's export performance. Given the patchwork of rules and export provisions framed for exporters, there is an urgent need for a separate e-commerce export policy, which can ease the compliance burden on exporters.

Which enterprise has been identified to mentor the MSMEs for boosting 

merchandize

e-commerce exports?

(a) DGFT

(b) Walmart

(c) Amazon

(d) DGCA

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is Amazon.

DGFT

• This statement is incorrect. While the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is involved in signing the memorandum of understanding to support e-commerce exports, it is not the enterprise identified for mentoring MSMEs.
• Walmart
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage does not mention Walmart playing any role in mentoring MSMEs for boosting e-commerce exports.
• Amazon
  • This statement is correct. The passage specifically states that DGFT signed a memorandum of understanding with Amazon to offer capacity-building sessions, training, and workshops for MSMEs. Therefore, Amazon is the enterprise identified to mentor MSMEs for boosting e-commerce exports.

DGCA

• This statement is incorrect. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is unrelated to the context of e-commerce export mentoring as described in the passage.

Based on the evaluation above, the correct answer is option 3: Amazon, as it is the enterprise identified in the passage to mentor MSMEs for boosting e-commerce exports. Statements involving DGFT, Walmart, and DGCA do not align with the passage’s details regarding mentoring enterprises.

Q94: Read the passage and answer the questions given below. 

The export hubs are expected to act as a center for favourable business infrastructure and facilities for cross-border e-commerce, including facilitating faster customs clearance of cargo and also addressing the problem of reimportation because about 25 per cent of goods in e- commerce are reimported. Additionally, the hubs will offer warehousing facilities, processing returns, labelling, product, testing, repackaging items and dedicated logistics infrastructure for connecting to and leveraging the services of nearby logistics hubs, thereby achieving agglomeration benefits for exporters.

In an attempt to leverage e-commerce platforms to support local exporters, manufacturers and MSMEs in reaching potential international buyers, the DGFT signed a memorandum of understanding with global e-commerce firm Amazon last year to offer capacity-building sessions, training and workshops for MSMEs across districts identified by the DGFT as part of the "District as Exports Hub" initiative. Amazon surpassed $8 billion in cumulative exports from India in 2023 and aims to achieve its ambitious target of $20 billion by next year.

India's exports through online platforms stood at $8-10 billion in 2022-23 compared to China's staggering figure of more than $300 billion. A key reason for this gap is the cumbersome compliance process associated with exports, especially when it comes to payment reconciliation, which is particularly challenging for new or small exporters. At the same time, global cross- border e-commerce trade was $800 billion. With India's cross-border e-commerce exports likely to increase to $200 billion over the next six to seven years, it can become a key strategy in achieving the S2 trillion overall exports target by 2030.

India's services export increased by only $15.8 billion in 2023-24 over 2022-23, while merchandise export declined $14 billion in the same period. Overall, India's combined value of exported goods and services registered a marginal increase of around $2 billion in 2023-24. At a time when export growth remains tepid and the overall trade deficit is around $78 billion, establishing a supportive e-commerce ecosystem can truly give a fillip to India's export performance. Given the patchwork of rules and export provisions framed for exporters, there is an urgent need for a separate e-commerce export policy, which can ease the compliance burden on exporters.

Which of the following statements are correct based on export related details given in the passage?

A. India's services export declined in 2023-24 over 2022-23

B. India's export through online platform is less than China in 2022-23

C. Amazon targets to double or more than double its exports from India in 2024-25

D. More than 20% of goods in e-commerce are reimported

E. India's merchandise exports increased in 2023-24 over 2022-23

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B & C Only

(b) B, C & D only

(c) C, D & E Only

(d) A, B & E Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is B, C & D only.

• India's services export declined in 2023-24 over 2022-23
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage states that India's services export increased by $15.8 billion in 2023-24 over 2022-23. Therefore, it is not correct to say that services export declined during that period.
• India's export through online platform is less than China in 2022-23
  • This statement is correct. The passage clearly mentions that India’s exports through online platforms stood at $8-10 billion in 2022-23, compared to China’s figure of more than $300 billion. This significant difference supports the statement that India’s online export is less than China’s in that period.
• Amazon targets to double or more than double its exports from India in 2024-25
  • This statement is correct. The passage mentions that Amazon aims to achieve its ambitious target of $20 billion in exports by next year (2024-25), with its cumulative exports from India already surpassing $8 billion in 2023. This indicates a goal to more than double its export figures.
• More than 20% of goods in e-commerce are reimported
  • This statement is correct. The passage specifically states that about 25% of goods in e-commerce are reimported. Thus, it is accurate to say that more than 20% of goods are reimported.
• India's merchandise exports increased in 2023-24 over 2022-23
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage indicates that India's merchandise export actually declined by $14 billion in the period from 2022-23 to 2023-24.

Based on the evaluation above, the correct answer is option 2: B, C & D only, as these statements correctly reflect the details regarding export mentioned in the passage, while statements A and E are not accurate based on the given information.

Q95: Read the passage and answer the questions given below. 

The export hubs are expected to act as a center for favourable business infrastructure and facilities for cross-border e-commerce, including facilitating faster customs clearance of cargo and also addressing the problem of reimportation because about 25 per cent of goods in e- commerce are reimported. Additionally, the hubs will offer warehousing facilities, processing returns, labelling, product, testing, repackaging items and dedicated logistics infrastructure for connecting to and leveraging the services of nearby logistics hubs, thereby achieving agglomeration benefits for exporters.

In an attempt to leverage e-commerce platforms to support local exporters, manufacturers and MSMEs in reaching potential international buyers, the DGFT signed a memorandum of understanding with global e-commerce firm Amazon last year to offer capacity-building sessions, training and workshops for MSMEs across districts identified by the DGFT as part of the "District as Exports Hub" initiative. Amazon surpassed $8 billion in cumulative exports from India in 2023 and aims to achieve its ambitious target of $20 billion by next year.

India's exports through online platforms stood at $8-10 billion in 2022-23 compared to China's staggering figure of more than $300 billion. A key reason for this gap is the cumbersome compliance process associated with exports, especially when it comes to payment reconciliation, which is particularly challenging for new or small exporters. At the same time, global cross- border e-commerce trade was $800 billion. With India's cross-border e-commerce exports likely to increase to $200 billion over the next six to seven years, it can become a key strategy in achieving the S2 trillion overall exports target by 2030.

India's services export increased by only $15.8 billion in 2023-24 over 2022-23, while merchandise export declined $14 billion in the same period. Overall, India's combined value of exported goods and services registered a marginal increase of around $2 billion in 2023-24. At a time when export growth remains tepid and the overall trade deficit is around $78 billion, establishing a supportive e-commerce ecosystem can truly give a fillip to India's export performance. Given the patchwork of rules and export provisions framed for exporters, there is an urgent need for a separate e-commerce export policy, which can ease the compliance burden on exporters.

India's export through online platforms in comparison to China in 2022-23 was-

(a) 9%

(b) 6%

(c) 12%

(d) 3%

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is 3%.

Let's analyze the given data:

• India's exports through online platforms in 2022-23:
  • The passage states that India's exports through online platforms were $8-10 billion in 2022-23.
• China's exports through online platforms in 2022-23:
  • The passage indicates that China’s exports through online platforms were more than $300 billion in 2022-23.

To find India's export through online platforms in comparison to China:

• Let's take the midpoint for India’s exports figures: (8 + 10) / 2 = $9 billion.
• China's exports are $300 billion.
• Now, we calculate the percentage: (India's $9 billion / China's $300 billion) * 100.
• Percentage calculation: (9 / 300) * 100 = 3%.

Based on this calculation, India's export through online platforms in comparison to China's in 2022-23 is indeed 3%. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4: 3%.

Q96: Read the passage and answer the question given below: 

National power demand in India has hit 250 Gw, 25 per cent more than last year and 71 per cent more than in 2022. The power ministry has rightly taken pride in ensuring that thermal power stations have adequate stocks of coal to keep the lights, fans and air-conditioning on. This has been a chronic problem in previous summers, leading to prolonged outages. This year, coal stocks have reached plants well on time. As on June 23, 2024 thermal power plants had 16 days of stocks as against 9.4 days on June 23, 2022 and 12.7 days on the same day in 2023.

The Government expects to add 15.4 Gw of coal-fired capacity in 2024-25, the highest in 9 years and 90 Gw by 2032. A programme of "Coal Reforms 3.0" is on the agenda to increase the availability of coal for industrial sectors, especially steel units, with the broad objective of reducing imports to zero in the next two financial years.

India has set a target to achieve 50 per cent cumulative installed capacity from non-fossil fuel- based energy resources by 2030 and has pledged to reduce the emission intensity of its gross domestic product by 45 per cent by 2030, based on 2005 levels. The installed capacity of non- fossil power in India is now 45.3 per cent of the total capacity, putting India on track to exceed its climate-change commitments. But this is illusory progress. The absence of viable storage technologies has limited grid offtake from renewable sources.

Encouraging industry to continue its dependence on coal is unhelpful. In this respect Coal Reforms 3.0 appears to be at odds with a scheme announced earlier this year for a pilot project for given hydrogen to replace coal both as a fuel and as feedstock (which is possible even in steel produced through the blast furnace route). Given that coal-based thermal plants are responsible for a disproportionately higher share of emission than the industrial sector, the government may do well to power India's economy in the immediate future.

How much (approximately) was the national power demand in 2022?

(a) 200 GW

(b) 175 GW

(c) 62.5 GW

(d) 146 GW

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is 146 GW.

Given the national power demand in India, let's analyze the information provided to determine the demand in 2022:

• From the passage:
  • The current power demand in India is 250 Gw, which is 25 per cent more than last year's demand.
  • It is also mentioned that the demand is 71 per cent more than the demand in 2022.
• Determining the demand in 2022:
  • Let's denote the power demand in 2022 as D (in Gw).
  • According to the passage, the current demand is 71 per cent more than the demand in 2022.
  • Hence, we can write the relationship as: 250 Gw = D + 0.71D
  • This simplifies to: 250 Gw = 1.71D
  • Solving for D gives: D = 250 Gw / 1.71 ≈ 146 Gw

Therefore, based on the calculations above, the national power demand in 2022 was approximately 146 Gw. This makes option 4 the correct choice.

Q97: Read the passage and answer the question given below: 

National power demand in India has hit 250 Gw, 25 per cent more than last year and 71 per cent more than in 2022. The power ministry has rightly taken pride in ensuring that thermal power stations have adequate stocks of coal to keep the lights, fans and air-conditioning on. This has been a chronic problem in previous summers, leading to prolonged outages. This year, coal stocks have reached plants well on time. As on June 23, 2024 thermal power plants had 16 days of stocks as against 9.4 days on June 23, 2022 and 12.7 days on the same day in 2023.

The Government expects to add 15.4 Gw of coal-fired capacity in 2024-25, the highest in 9 years and 90 Gw by 2032. A programme of "Coal Reforms 3.0" is on the agenda to increase the availability of coal for industrial sectors, especially steel units, with the broad objective of reducing imports to zero in the next two financial years.

India has set a target to achieve 50 per cent cumulative installed capacity from non-fossil fuel- based energy resources by 2030 and has pledged to reduce the emission intensity of its gross domestic product by 45 per cent by 2030, based on 2005 levels. The installed capacity of non- fossil power in India is now 45.3 per cent of the total capacity, putting India on track to exceed its climate-change commitments. But this is illusory progress. The absence of viable storage technologies has limited grid offtake from renewable sources.

Encouraging industry to continue its dependence on coal is unhelpful. In this respect Coal Reforms 3.0 appears to be at odds with a scheme announced earlier this year for a pilot project for given hydrogen to replace coal both as a fuel and as feedstock (which is possible even in steel produced through the blast furnace route). Given that coal-based thermal plants are responsible for a disproportionately higher share of emission than the industrial sector, the government may do well to power India's economy in the immediate future.

Which of the following power sources have limitation of storage capacity?

A. Wind

B. Solar

C. Thermal

D. Nuclear

E. Hydro

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, C & D Only

(b) A, B & E Only

(c) B, C & D Only

(d) A, B, D & E Only

Ans: B

Sol: The correct answer is A, B & E Only.

Let's analyze each power source concerning its storage limitations:

• Wind Power (A):
  • The passage mentions that the absence of viable storage technologies has limited grid offtake from renewable sources.
  • This includes wind power, as it is an intermittent energy source and the generated power needs to be stored effectively for balanced supply.
• Solar Power (B):
  • Similar to wind power, solar power is also affected by the lack of viable storage technologies.
  • Energy generated from solar panels needs to be stored during the daytime to be used when there is no sunlight.
• Thermal Power (C):
  • Thermal power does not suffer from storage limitations as it can provide continuous power generation.
  • The power generated from thermal plants can be controlled and adjusted according to demand.
• Nuclear Power (D):
  • Nuclear power plants are capable of continuous and steady power generation without the need for storage.
  • The power generated from nuclear plants can be fed directly into the grid as per demand.
• Hydroelectric Power (E):
  • While hydroelectric power is a renewable source, its power generation can be dependent on water availability, which fluctuates seasonally.
  • Effective storage solutions are required to harness the energy generated during high water flow periods for use during dry seasons.

Based on the above analysis, wind (A), solar (B), and hydroelectric (E) power sources have limitations related to storage capacity. Thus, the correct answer is option 2: A, B & E Only.

Q98: Read the passage and answer the question given below: 

National power demand in India has hit 250 Gw, 25 per cent more than last year and 71 per cent more than in 2022. The power ministry has rightly taken pride in ensuring that thermal power stations have adequate stocks of coal to keep the lights, fans and air-conditioning on. This has been a chronic problem in previous summers, leading to prolonged outages. This year, coal stocks have reached plants well on time. As on June 23, 2024 thermal power plants had 16 days of stocks as against 9.4 days on June 23, 2022 and 12.7 days on the same day in 2023.

The Government expects to add 15.4 Gw of coal-fired capacity in 2024-25, the highest in 9 years and 90 Gw by 2032. A programme of "Coal Reforms 3.0" is on the agenda to increase the availability of coal for industrial sectors, especially steel units, with the broad objective of reducing imports to zero in the next two financial years.

India has set a target to achieve 50 per cent cumulative installed capacity from non-fossil fuel- based energy resources by 2030 and has pledged to reduce the emission intensity of its gross domestic product by 45 per cent by 2030, based on 2005 levels. The installed capacity of non- fossil power in India is now 45.3 per cent of the total capacity, putting India on track to exceed its climate-change commitments. But this is illusory progress. The absence of viable storage technologies has limited grid offtake from renewable sources.

Encouraging industry to continue its dependence on coal is unhelpful. In this respect Coal Reforms 3.0 appears to be at odds with a scheme announced earlier this year for a pilot project for given hydrogen to replace coal both as a fuel and as feedstock (which is possible even in steel produced through the blast furnace route). Given that coal-based thermal plants are responsible for a disproportionately higher share of emission than the industrial sector, the government may do well to power India's economy in the immediate future.

Out of the total installed Power capacity, the installed capacity of fossil power is:

(a) 45.3%

(b) 50%

(c) 54.7%

(d) 45%

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is 54.7%.

Let's analyze the information provided in the passage to determine the installed capacity of fossil power:

• Installed capacity of non-fossil power:
  • The passage states that the installed capacity of non-fossil power in India is now 45.3% of the total capacity.
• Calculating the installed capacity of fossil power:
  • The total installed capacity of power can be divided into fossil and non-fossil power sources.
  • If non-fossil power accounts for 45.3% of the total capacity, then the remaining percentage will account for fossil power.
  • This means fossil power accounts for: 100% - 45.3% = 54.7%

Therefore, based on the information provided in the passage, the installed capacity of fossil power is 54.7% of the total installed capacity. This makes option 3 the correct choice.

Q99: Read the passage and answer the question given below: 

National power demand in India has hit 250 Gw, 25 per cent more than last year and 71 per cent more than in 2022. The power ministry has rightly taken pride in ensuring that thermal power stations have adequate stocks of coal to keep the lights, fans and air-conditioning on. This has been a chronic problem in previous summers, leading to prolonged outages. This year, coal stocks have reached plants well on time. As on June 23, 2024 thermal power plants had 16 days of stocks as against 9.4 days on June 23, 2022 and 12.7 days on the same day in 2023.

The Government expects to add 15.4 Gw of coal-fired capacity in 2024-25, the highest in 9 years and 90 Gw by 2032. A programme of "Coal Reforms 3.0" is on the agenda to increase the availability of coal for industrial sectors, especially steel units, with the broad objective of reducing imports to zero in the next two financial years.

India has set a target to achieve 50 per cent cumulative installed capacity from non-fossil fuel- based energy resources by 2030 and has pledged to reduce the emission intensity of its gross domestic product by 45 per cent by 2030, based on 2005 levels. The installed capacity of non- fossil power in India is now 45.3 per cent of the total capacity, putting India on track to exceed its climate-change commitments. But this is illusory progress. The absence of viable storage technologies has limited grid offtake from renewable sources.

Encouraging industry to continue its dependence on coal is unhelpful. In this respect Coal Reforms 3.0 appears to be at odds with a scheme announced earlier this year for a pilot project for given hydrogen to replace coal both as a fuel and as feedstock (which is possible even in steel produced through the blast furnace route). Given that coal-based thermal plants are responsible for a disproportionately higher share of emission than the industrial sector, the government may do well to power India's economy in the immediate future.

Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Industrial sector pollute more than coal based thermal power plants

(b) The Chronic problem of coal shortage is likely to continue

(c) Coal Reforms 3.0 is in synergy with green hydrogen pilot project

(d) Coal Reforms 3.0 will bring down coal imports to zero in the coming two years

Ans: D

Sol: The correct answer is Coal Reforms 3.0 will bring down coal imports to zero in the coming two years.

Let's analyze each statement based on the information provided in the passage:

• Industrial sector pollute more than coal based thermal power plants:
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage explicitly states that coal-based thermal plants are responsible for a disproportionately higher share of emission than the industrial sector.
• The chronic problem of coal shortage is likely to continue:
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage mentions that this year, coal stocks have reached plants well on time and highlights the improvement in stock levels at thermal power plants.
• Coal Reforms 3.0 is in synergy with green hydrogen pilot project:
  • This statement is incorrect. The passage suggests that Coal Reforms 3.0 appears to be at odds with the green hydrogen pilot project, as it encourages continued dependence on coal.
• Coal Reforms 3.0 will bring down coal imports to zero in the coming two years:
  • This statement is correct. The passage states that a programme of "Coal Reforms 3.0" is on the agenda to increase the availability of coal for industrial sectors, especially steel units, with the broad objective of reducing imports to zero in the next two financial years.

Therefore, based on the evaluation above, the correct answer is option 4: Coal Reforms 3.0 will bring down coal imports to zero in the coming two years.

Q100: Read the passage and answer the question given below: 

National power demand in India has hit 250 Gw, 25 per cent more than last year and 71 per cent more than in 2022. The power ministry has rightly taken pride in ensuring that thermal power stations have adequate stocks of coal to keep the lights, fans and air-conditioning on. This has been a chronic problem in previous summers, leading to prolonged outages. This year, coal stocks have reached plants well on time. As on June 23, 2024 thermal power plants had 16 days of stocks as against 9.4 days on June 23, 2022 and 12.7 days on the same day in 2023.

The Government expects to add 15.4 Gw of coal-fired capacity in 2024-25, the highest in 9 years and 90 Gw by 2032. A programme of "Coal Reforms 3.0" is on the agenda to increase the availability of coal for industrial sectors, especially steel units, with the broad objective of reducing imports to zero in the next two financial years.

India has set a target to achieve 50 per cent cumulative installed capacity from non-fossil fuel- based energy resources by 2030 and has pledged to reduce the emission intensity of its gross domestic product by 45 per cent by 2030, based on 2005 levels. The installed capacity of non- fossil power in India is now 45.3 per cent of the total capacity, putting India on track to exceed its climate-change commitments. But this is illusory progress. The absence of viable storage technologies has limited grid offtake from renewable sources.

Encouraging industry to continue its dependence on coal is unhelpful. In this respect Coal Reforms 3.0 appears to be at odds with a scheme announced earlier this year for a pilot project for given hydrogen to replace coal both as a fuel and as feedstock (which is possible even in steel produced through the blast furnace route). Given that coal-based thermal plants are responsible for a disproportionately higher share of emission than the industrial sector, the government may do well to power India's economy in the immediate future.

The availability of coal stock with power plants this year is approximately _________ more than it was 2 years ago.

(a) 26%

(b) 52%

(c) 70%

(d) 100%

Ans: C

Sol: The correct answer is 70%.

Let's analyze the information given in the passage to determine the percentage increase in coal stock with power plants:

• Coal stock on June 23, 2024:
  • The passage mentions that as of June 23, 2024, thermal power plants had 16 days of stocks.
• Coal stock on June 23, 2022:
  • The passage states that on June 23, 2022, thermal power plants had 9.4 days of stocks.
• Calculating the percentage increase:
  • The increase in coal stock from June 23, 2022, to June 23, 2024, is (16 days - 9.4 days) = 6.6 days.
  • The percentage increase is calculated as: (Increase / Initial value) * 100
  • Using the initial stock value of 9.4 days: Percentage increase = (6.6 / 9.4) * 100 ≈ 70.21%
  • Therefore, the approximate increase is 70%.

Based on the analysis, the availability of coal stock with power plants this year is approximately 70% more than it was 2 years ago. Hence, option 3 is the correct choice.