UGC NET Paper 2: Education 8th Dec 2023 Shift 1 | UGC NET Past Year Papers PDF Download

Q1: 'Students with high intelligence will perform well in their academic achievements. What kind of hypothesis is this? 

(a) vector hypothesis

(b) scalar hypothesis

(c) null hypothesis

(d) concurrent hypothesis

Ans: a

Sol: Academic achievements are successes in school or college, like getting good grades, completing projects, and mastering subjects. They show how well a student is doing in their studies. These accomplishments often reflect a student's hard work, understanding, and dedication to learning.

The statement "Students with high intelligence will perform well in their academic achievements" reflects what is commonly known as a vector hypothesis. The vector hypothesis suggests a positive correlation or relationship between intelligence (the independent variable) and academic achievement (the dependent variable).

• Independent Variable (Intelligence): Intelligence is considered the independent variable in this hypothesis. Intelligence refers to cognitive abilities, problem-solving skills, and overall intellectual capacity
• Dependent Variable (Academic Achievement): Academic achievement is the dependent variable. It is the outcome or result that is hypothesized to be influenced by the level of intelligence. Academic achievement typically includes grades, test scores, and overall performance in educational settings.
• Positive Correlation: The hypothesis suggests a positive correlation, meaning that as the level of intelligence increases, academic achievement is expected to increase as well. In other words, higher intelligence is hypothesized to be associated with better academic performance.
• Commonly Accepted Belief: The vector hypothesis aligns with the belief that students with higher intellectual abilities tend to excel in academic tasks. However, it's essential to recognize that individual differences, motivation, and other factors also affect academic success.
• Implications for Education: If the vector hypothesis holds, educators may consider adapting teaching methods to accommodate different classroom learning styles and intellectual levels. Recognizing and nurturing the potential of students with high intelligence could lead to more effective educational outcomes.

Thus, it is concluded that Students with high intelligence will perform well in their academic achievements. This kind of hypothesis is a vector hypothesis.

Other Related Points

Q2: The correct sequence of stages of curriculum evaluation is: 

(A) Planning

(B) Regular monitoring

C) Goal Specialization

(D) Validation

(E) Field test

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(b) (E), (D), (A), (C), (B)

(c) (C), (D), (A), (B), (E)

(d) (C), (A), (D), (E), (B)

Ans: d

Sol: Curriculum evaluation is a systematic process of assessing the effectiveness and relevance of an educational program. It involves setting clear goals, validating content, field testing, and continuous monitoring to ensure alignment with educational standards and the fulfillment of intended outcomes. The aim is to refine and optimize the curriculum for ongoing improvement and adaptation to changing educational needs.

Starting with goal specialization ensures a clear direction, followed by detailed planning, validation, practical field testing, and ongoing monitoring to ensure continuous improvement and responsiveness to the evolving needs of education. The correct sequence of stages of curriculum evaluation:

• Goal Specialization: In this initial stage, curriculum developers and educators identify and specify the specific goals and objectives of the curriculum. This involves determining what knowledge, skills, and attitudes students are expected to acquire upon completion.
• Planning: Following goal specialization, the planning stage involves designing the curriculum in detail. This includes selecting appropriate content, determining the sequence of topics, and outlining the instructional methods and assessment strategies that align with the established goals.
• Validation: Validation is a critical step where experts, educators, and stakeholders review the curriculum to ensure its alignment with educational standards, relevance to the goals, and theoretical soundness. This stage often involves seeking feedback and input from diverse perspectives to validate the curriculum's overall effectiveness.
• Field Test: Once the curriculum is planned and validated, it undergoes a field test or a pilot implementation. This involves introducing the curriculum to a smaller group of students or in a specific educational setting to assess its practicality, identify any unforeseen challenges, and gather feedback for further refinement.
• Regular Monitoring: The regular monitoring stage occurs throughout the implementation phase and involves continuous assessment of how well the curriculum is working. This includes gathering feedback from teachers, students, and other stakeholders, monitoring student progress, and making adjustments as needed to enhance the curriculum's effectiveness.

Thus, it is concluded that the Goal Specialization, Planning, Validation, Field test, and Regular monitoring is the correct sequence of stages of curriculum evaluation.

Q3: According to Thorndike, which of the following is the secondary law of learning? 

(a) Law of Readiness

(b) Law of Exercise

(c) Law of partial activity

(d) Law of Effect

Ans: c

Sol: Edward L. Thorndike (1874–1949) was an influential American psychologist and education theorist. He is best known for his pioneering work in the fields of behavioral psychology and educational psychology.

• Thorndike's research laid the foundation for the laws of learning, including the Law of Effect and the Law of Exercise, and he emphasized the importance of observable behaviors and reinforcement in shaping human learning.
• His work significantly contributed to the development of behaviorism and educational psychology.

The Law of Partial Activity underscores the importance of recognizing and reinforcing partial responses in the learning process, providing learners with opportunities for incremental progress and promoting a more dynamic and flexible approach to skill acquisition and problem-solving. 

• Law of Effect: The Law of Partial Activity is an extension of Thorndike's primary Law of Effect, which states that responses followed by satisfying consequences are more likely to be repeated, while those followed by discomforting consequences are less likely to be repeated.
• Partial Response: According to the Law of Partial Activity, a learner doesn't have to complete a full set of actions to experience the positive consequences. Even a partial or incomplete response can lead to a satisfying outcome, reinforcing the learning process.
• Incremental Learning: Thorndike's theory emphasizes that learning is an incremental process, and individuals can make progress by building on partial successes. Partial activities contribute to the overall learning experience, promoting a sense of accomplishment and motivation.
• Transfer of Training: The Law of Partial Activity aligns with Thorndike's concept of transfer of training, suggesting that skills learned in one context or through partial activities can be applied or transferred to similar situations, fostering more generalized learning.
• Problem Solving: Partial responses often play a significant role in problem-solving scenarios. Learners may apply incomplete solutions, gradually refining their approaches based on feedback and outcomes, leading to improved problem-solving skills.
• Real-World Application: This law has practical implications in education and instructional design. Teachers can structure learning experiences that allow students to make partial attempts, receive feedback, and progressively refine their understanding and skills.
• Trial-and-Error Learning: The Law of Partial Activity is closely linked to Thorndike's emphasis on trial-and-error learning, where learners explore various responses, even incomplete ones, to discover effective solutions and associations.

Thus, it is concluded that according to Thorndike, the Law of partial activity is the secondary law of learning.

Q4: If a phenomenon changes over time, what kind of research should be undertaken to study it? 

(a) Experimental Research

(b) Longitudinal Research

(c) Ex-post facto Research

(d) Ethnographic Research

Ans: b

Sol: Research refers to a systematic and structured inquiry aimed at gaining new knowledge, understanding, or insights into educational phenomena. It involves the collection, analysis, and interpretation of data to address specific questions, inform decision-making, and contribute to the advancement of educational practices and policies. Educational research plays a crucial role in improving teaching methods, student outcomes, and the overall effectiveness of educational systems.

Longitudinal research is a robust method for studying phenomena that change over time, providing a comprehensive and nuanced understanding of how variables evolve, interact, and impact each other across different temporal points.

• Temporal Dynamics: Longitudinal research is designed to track changes in a phenomenon over an extended period. It allows researchers to observe how variables evolve and identify patterns or trends.
• Multiple Data Collection Points: This method involves collecting data from the same subjects or groups at multiple points in time. It provides a comprehensive view of how the phenomenon unfolds and allows for the examination of trends, developments, or changes.
• Causality and Relationships: Longitudinal studies enable researchers to explore causal relationships between variables by observing changes over time. This helps in establishing whether changes in one variable lead to changes in another.
• Developmental Changes: Particularly useful in developmental psychology, education, and health sciences, longitudinal research is essential for understanding how individuals change, grow, or decline over time.
• Identification of Trajectories: It allows the identification of individual trajectories, patterns, or life course outcomes. Researchers can observe how individuals or groups progress or deviate from expected paths.
• Data Accuracy and Reliability: Longitudinal studies enhance data accuracy by capturing the variability inherent in a dynamic phenomenon. Researchers can account for individual differences and contextual influences.
• Understanding Stability and Change: Valuable for understanding both stability and change within a phenomenon, longitudinal research allows for the exploration of patterns of constancy and moments of transformation.

Thus, it is concluded that if a phenomenon changes over time, Longitudinal Research should be undertaken to study it.

Other Related Points

Q5: Arrange the following in chronological order: 

(A) University Education Commission

(B) Secondary Education Commission

(C) Acharya Rammurti Committee

(D) National Education Commission

(E) Birla Ambani Report

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

(b) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)

(c) (A), (D), (B), (E), (C)

(d) (B), (E), (C), (D), (A)

Ans: a

Sol: Education Commission refers to a governmental or non-governmental body established to assess, review, and recommend reforms in the education system. It plays a vital role in shaping policies, curriculum development, and institutional improvements. These commissions are often tasked with identifying challenges, providing solutions, and enhancing the overall quality and accessibility of education. The recommendations made by education commissions contribute significantly to the development and evolution of educational systems at various levels.

Educational commissions are crucial for evaluating and recommending reforms in the education system. They provide valuable insights into challenges, propose effective solutions, and shape policies to enhance the quality and accessibility of education. The correct sequence is: 

Thus, it is concluded that the correct chronological order is (A), (B), (D), (C), (E).

Q6: Which of the following is not an advantage of using the reflective journal as an assessment tool in pedagogy of education? 

(a) Reflective writing can enable students to demonstrate complex learning outcomes, including critical thinking.

(b) Students can demonstrate analysis, creativity and originality.

(c) In reflective writing, it is possible that students may not fully understand what is expected of them.

(d) Meditation in and on oneself is a powerful learning process.

Ans: c

Sol: A reflective journal is a personal record where individuals express thoughts, feelings, and insights about their experiences. It encourages self-awareness, critical thinking, and continuous learning by prompting individuals to examine and analyze their thoughts and actions. Often used in educational settings, reflective journals facilitate personal and professional development.

The use of reflective journals as an assessment tool may face challenges when students do not fully comprehend expectations. Clear communication, well-defined criteria, and opportunities for feedback are crucial to address these potential issues and enhance the effectiveness of reflective writing in education.

• Subjectivity and Interpretation: Reflective writing is inherently subjective, and students may interpret expectations differently. This subjectivity can lead to varied responses, making it challenging for educators to assess consistently.
• Unclear Guidelines: Students may face challenges if the guidelines for reflective writing are unclear or not well-communicated. Ambiguous expectations can result in students struggling to meet assessment criteria.
• Lack of Clarity in Assessment Criteria: If assessment criteria for reflective journals are not clearly defined, students may find it difficult to align their responses with the expected standards, leading to potential misunderstandings and inconsistent evaluations.
• Varying Levels of Writing Proficiency: Students have diverse levels of writing proficiency. If expectations are not explicitly communicated, students with varying writing abilities may struggle to express their reflections coherently, affecting the assessment's reliability.
• Diverse Learning Styles: Students have different learning styles and preferences. Some may thrive in expressing themselves through reflective writing, while others might struggle. The lack of understanding of expectations can disproportionately affect those less inclined towards written reflection.
• Limited Feedback Opportunities: Reflective writing may limit opportunities for immediate feedback and clarification. If students misunderstand expectations, they might persist in their approach throughout the assessment, hindering their learning and the effectiveness of the assessment tool.
• Potential for Superficial Responses: Without a clear understanding of expectations, students may provide superficial or generic responses in an attempt to meet assessment requirements. This can compromise the depth and authenticity of reflections, diminishing the value of the assessment tool.

Thus, it is concluded that in reflective writing, it is possible that students may not fully understand what is expected of them not an advantage of using the reflective journal as an assessment tool in the pedagogy of education.

Q7: The University Education Commission is also known as: 

(a) Mudaliar Commission

(b) Radhakrishnan Commission

(c) Kothari Commission

(d) Secondary Education Commission

Ans: b

Sol: An education commission typically refers to a government-appointed body or committee tasked with evaluating, advising, and making recommendations on various aspects of the education system. These commissions aim to assess the current state of education, identify areas for improvement, and propose reforms to enhance the overall quality and effectiveness of the educational system.

The University Education Commission, commonly known as the Radhakrishnan Commission, played a pivotal role in shaping the educational landscape in India. The Radhakrishnan Commission's insights continue to shape discussions on education in India, and its recommendations have had a lasting impact on the development of higher education institutions in the country.

• Formation and Chairmanship: The University Education Commission, chaired by Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, was established in 1948 by the Government of India to assess the state of university education and recommend improvements.
• Scope of Examination: The commission was tasked with examining various aspects of university education, including curriculum, methods of teaching, examination systems, and the overall organization of universities in India.
• Comprehensive Recommendations: The Radhakrishnan Commission submitted its report in 1949, providing a comprehensive set of recommendations for the development and enhancement of higher education in the country.
• Emphasis on Educational Philosophy: Dr. Radhakrishnan, being a philosopher himself, emphasized the importance of infusing educational practices with a sound philosophical foundation. The commission stressed the need to integrate philosophy into the educational framework.
• Curriculum Reforms: The commission advocated for significant reforms in university curricula to make them more dynamic, relevant, and aligned with the changing societal needs. It emphasized the integration of professional and vocational education with academic studies.
• Focus on Teacher Training: Recognizing the crucial role of teachers, the Radhakrishnan Commission recommended improvements in teacher training programs to enhance the quality of education. It emphasized the importance of recruiting and retaining qualified faculty.
• Implementation Challenges: While the Radhakrishnan Commission's recommendations were influential, their full implementation faced challenges due to various factors, including financial constraints and bureaucratic hurdles. However, the report laid the groundwork for subsequent educational reforms in India.

Thus, it is concluded that the University Education Commission is also known as the Radhakrishnan Commission.

Other Related Points

Q8: Order the sequence of steps followed in educational research:
 (A) Selection of research problem
 (B) Selection of research method=
 (C) Formulation of research question
 (D) Data collection and analysis
 (E) Reporting the results
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(b) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

(c) (A), (D), (B), (C), (E)

(d) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)

Ans: b

Sol: Educational research is a systematic investigation into educational issues, practices, and phenomena, aiming to contribute knowledge, inform decision-making, and improve educational outcomes. It involves the application of research methodologies to explore, understand, and enhance various aspects of the educational process.
Educational research is essential for informed decision-making in the field of education, providing insights, evidence, and solutions to improve teaching, learning, and educational policies. It contributes to the enhancement of educational practices, outcomes, and overall system effectiveness. The sequence of steps followed in educational research:

Thus it is concluded that the correct answer is (A), (C), (B), (D), (E).

Q9: Which of the following are associated with Rousseau?
 (A) Emile
 (B) Social contract
 (C) Return to nature
 (D) Man is born as a slave.
 (E) Knowledge is based only on reasoning.
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Only (A), (B) and (C)

(b) Only (D)

(c) Only (A) and (D)

(d) Only (E)

Ans: a

Sol: Jean-Jacques Rousseau (1712-1778) was an influential Genevan philosopher of the Enlightenment.

• Known for his works like "Emile" and "The Social Contract," he championed natural education, and the social contract theory, and advocated for a return to nature, emphasizing individual freedom and the importance of the general will in just governance.
• His ideas had a profound impact on political philosophy and educational theory.

The associations of Jean-Jacques Rousseau with the given options:

Emile:

• Rousseau's work "Emile, or On Education" is a philosophical treatise on education. 
• In "Emile," Rousseau presents his views on the natural development of a child, arguing against traditional methods of education.
• He advocates for allowing a child to learn through experience and discovery, emphasizing the importance of nurturing instincts.

Social contract:

• Rousseau's concept of the social contract is a cornerstone of his political philosophy, particularly outlined in his work "The Social Contract." 
• He proposes that individuals enter into a social contract to form a just society.
• In this contract, individuals willingly give up some of their natural freedom for the common good, establishing the general will as the basis for legitimate government.

Return to nature:

• Rousseau is often associated with the idea of a "return to nature."
• In works like "Discourse on the Origin and Basis of Inequality Among Men," he criticizes the effects of civilization on human nature. 
• Rousseau believes that in a state of nature, humans are free and virtuous, but societal structures and inequalities corrupt their innate goodness.
• The call to return to nature is a call for a simpler, more egalitarian way of life.

Man is born as a slave:

• This statement is not reflective of Rousseau's views.
• Rousseau argued that humans are born free but become enslaved by societal structures and conventions.
• He criticizes the idea of private property and the inequalities that arise from it.

Knowledge is based only on reasoning:

• Rousseau acknowledged the importance of reason, but he did not limit knowledge solely to reasoning. 
• In his work "Discourse on the Arts and Sciences," he critiqued the Enlightenment's excessive reliance on reason.
• Rousseau valued sentiment, intuition, and the instincts of humans as crucial components of understanding.

Thus, it is concluded that Emile, Social contract, and Return to Nature are associated with Rousseau.

Q10: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The entire process of teacher education lies in its curriculum, designs, and transaction modes as well as the extent and appropriateness
Statement II: The curriculum is an essential component of every stream
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Ans: a

Sol: Curriculum refers to the set of planned educational experiences, encompassing content, activities, and assessments, designed to achieve specific learning objectives within a formal educational setting. It serves as a comprehensive roadmap for teaching and learning in a structured academic program.
Statement I: The entire process of teacher education lies in its curriculum, designs, and transaction modes as well as the extent and appropriateness:

• Curriculum Importance: The statement emphasizes the crucial role of the curriculum in teacher education. The curriculum outlines the content, pedagogy, and methods essential for preparing future educators.
• Design and Transaction Modes: Refers to how the curriculum is structured (design) and how it is implemented in teaching and learning (transaction modes). This underscores the holistic approach needed for effective teacher education.
• Extent and Appropriateness: Highlights that the curriculum should cover a comprehensive range of topics and be suitable for the educational context, ensuring it meets the needs and standards of teacher preparation.

Statement II: The curriculum is an essential component of every stream:

• Universal Significance: Affirms that the curriculum is a fundamental element in all fields of study or "streams." This implies that a well-designed curriculum is crucial not only for teacher education but for education in general across diverse disciplines.
• Guiding Structure: Recognizes that a structured and well-thought-out curriculum provides the necessary framework for organizing and delivering educational content in any domain.
• Standardization: Implies that irrespective of the academic stream or field, having a defined curriculum helps in maintaining standards, consistency, and quality in education.

Conclusion: Both statements are correct. Statement I underscores the significance of the curriculum, designs, and transaction modes in teacher education, while Statement II emphasizes the universal importance of the curriculum across various academic streams, reinforcing its foundational role in education.

Thus, it is concluded that both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Q11: Match List I with List - II. 

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Ans: b

Sol: Learning is a cognitive process involving the acquisition of knowledge, skills, or understanding through study, experience, or teaching. It often results in a change in behavior, knowledge, or perspective. Effective learning requires engagement, practice, and the ability to apply acquired information in relevant contexts.

Learning is crucial for personal and professional development, fostering adaptability, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills. It empowers individuals to stay relevant in a rapidly changing world, enhances job performance, and contributes to innovation and societal progress. The correct answer is:

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Q12: Teaching-learning process and learning matrix in Andragogical education should be based on which of the following?
 (A) Experience-based learning
 (B) Self-directed learning
 (C) Readiness to learn
 (D) According to the formal education system
 (E) Inflexible learning environment
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Only (A), (B), (C)

(b) Only (A), (B), (C) and (E)

(c) Only (B), (C), (D) and (E)

(d) Only (C) and (D)

Ans: a

Sol: Andragogical education is an approach to adult learning that recognizes the distinct characteristics and needs of adult learners. Unlike pedagogy, which is teacher-centered, andragogy emphasizes self-directed learning, leveraging adults' life experiences, and aligning educational content with their immediate needs.
Andragogical education is characterized by its focus on leveraging adult learners' experiences, encouraging self-directed learning, and tailoring content to learners' readiness and immediate needs.

Experience-based learning:

• Key Principle: Andragogical education emphasizes that adults bring rich life experiences into the learning environment, and these experiences should be utilized as valuable resources.
• Teaching-Learning Process: In an andragogical approach, the teaching-learning process is designed to draw upon and integrate the diverse experiences of adult learners. Activities, discussions, and reflections often revolve around real-life situations, promoting meaningful engagement.
• Learning Matrix: Experience becomes a foundational element in the learning matrix, with the understanding that adults learn best when they can connect new information to their existing knowledge and experiences.

Self-directed learning:

• Key Principle: Andragogy posits that adults are inherently self-directed learners who are motivated by internal factors. They desire autonomy and control over their learning process.
• Teaching-Learning Process: The andragogical approach encourages self-directed learning by providing opportunities for adults to set their own learning goals, make choices about the learning content, and take responsibility for their progress.
• Learning Matrix: Self-directed learning is a fundamental element of the learning matrix, reflecting the belief that adults learn more effectively when they have a degree of control and ownership over their learning journey.

Readiness to learn:

• Key Principle: Andragogy recognizes that adults are more receptive to learning when they perceive it as relevant and aligned with their immediate needs and interests.
• Teaching-Learning Process: The andragogical approach acknowledges and capitalizes on the readiness of adult learners by making the curriculum contextually relevant, addressing current challenges, and providing practical applications.
• Learning Matrix: Readiness to learn is integrated into the learning matrix, shaping the curriculum to meet the specific needs and interests of adult learners.

Thus, it is concluded that the teaching-learning process and learning matrix in Andragogical education should be based on Experience-based learning, Self-directed learning, and Readiness to learn.

Other Related Points

Q13: Important approaches of cost analysis in education are:
 (A) Cost Benefit
 (B) Cost Feasibility
 (C) Cost Utility
 (D) Cost Empire
 (E) Cost Counting
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (C), (D) & (E) Only

(b) (A), (B) & (C) Only

(c) (A) & (C) Only

(d) (B), (C), (D) & (E) Only

Ans: b

Sol: Cost analysis in education involves evaluating the financial aspects of educational programs, projects, or initiatives. It encompasses methodologies such as Cost-Benefit analysis, examining economic efficiency, Cost Feasibility analysis, assessing financial viability, and Cost Utility analysis, evaluating overall utility beyond monetary considerations. These approaches aid decision-makers in making informed choices, optimizing resource allocation, and ensuring the effectiveness of educational investments.
Cost Benefit, Cost Feasibility, and Cost-Utility are important approaches in education cost analysis, each providing unique perspectives on the economic efficiency, feasibility, and overall utility of educational initiatives.

Cost Benefit:

• Methodology: Cost-benefit analysis assesses the financial investment in educational programs by quantifying both the costs incurred and the benefits generated. It involves assigning monetary values to outcomes, enabling a comparison to determine the overall economic efficiency of the program.
• Purpose: The primary goal of Cost-Benefit analysis is to inform decision-makers about the economic viability of educational initiatives. By weighing costs against benefits, it helps in making informed choices about resource allocation and program effectiveness.

Cost Feasibility:

• Analysis Process: Cost Feasibility involves a detailed examination of the financial aspects of an educational project, considering factors such as budget constraints, resource availability, and estimated costs. It aims to determine the feasibility and sustainability of the project within specified financial parameters.
• Decision Support: Cost Feasibility analysis provides decision-makers with critical insights into whether an educational project or program aligns with the available financial resources. It guides decisions on project initiation or modification based on financial feasibility.

Cost-Utility:

• Evaluation Focus: Cost Utility analysis evaluates the overall utility or value derived from educational expenditures. It goes beyond monetary considerations and assesses the impact and effectiveness of spending, aiming to maximize educational outcomes relative to the resources invested.
• Outcome Assessment: This approach helps decision-makers understand the broader societal or educational impact of investments, emphasizing the importance of achieving meaningful results and utility beyond just financial considerations.

Important Points

• Cost Empire: There is no recognized concept of "Cost Empire" in the context of cost analysis in education. This option is not applicable.
• Cost Counting:  While counting costs is a fundamental aspect of cost analysis, the term "Cost Counting" is not a specific approach. It lacks the depth of analysis found in approaches like Cost-Benefit, Cost Feasibility, or Cost Utility.

Thus, it is concluded that the important approaches of cost analysis in education are Cost Benefit, Cost Feasibility, and Cost Utility.

Q14: Reactive change: 

(a) is a change brought about by a sudden or unplanned event

(b) involves reimplementation of a change in the same organisational unit

(c) involves changes that are generally new and familiar

(d) is a systematic deliberate change in the way part or all of an organization functions

Ans: a

Sol: Relative change refers to the percentage difference between the initial and final values of a quantity, providing a context-independent measure of change. It is important as it allows for the comparison of changes across different scales, facilitating a standardized assessment of variations in diverse contexts.

Reactive change refers to organizational changes that are prompted by unexpected or unplanned events rather than being proactively initiated by the organization. It is a dynamic response to unforeseen events, marked by urgency, adaptability, and a focus on immediate challenges. While it lacks the strategic planning associated with proactive change, it provides valuable learning experiences and opportunities for organizational improvement.

• Nature of Change: Reactive change is characterized by its responsive nature. It is initiated in reaction to external forces or unexpected events, such as economic shifts, technological disruptions, or crises, rather than being driven by a deliberate, planned strategy.
• Triggering Events: The catalysts for reactive change can be diverse, ranging from sudden market shifts and competitor actions to natural disasters or unexpected financial challenges. Organizations respond to these events by implementing changes to adapt, survive, or recover.
• Lack of Planning: Unlike proactive change, which is strategically planned and implemented to achieve specific goals, reactive change often lacks premeditated planning. Organizations respond swiftly to address the immediate challenges posed by the triggering events.
• Urgency and Pressure: Reactive changes are typically marked by a sense of urgency and pressure. The organization must act promptly to mitigate negative consequences, exploit emerging opportunities, or navigate through unexpected challenges.
• Adaptation and Survival: Reactive change is often driven by a survival instinct. Organizations adapt their structures, processes, or strategies to navigate turbulent times, capitalize on unforeseen opportunities, or minimize the impact of sudden threats.
• Risk and Uncertainty: Reactive change introduces a level of risk and uncertainty, as organizations respond to events without the benefit of thorough planning. Decision-makers must navigate ambiguity and make choices to address the immediate situation.
• Learning and Improvement: While reactive change may be prompted by crisis, it also offers opportunities for organizational learning. Through the experience of responding to unexpected events, organizations can gain insights that inform future planning and build resilience.

Thus, it is concluded that the Reactive change is a change brought about by a sudden or unplanned event.

Q15: Match List - I with List - II.

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

(c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(d) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Ans: a

Sol: Special education is a tailored approach to instruction and support designed for students with disabilities, addressing their unique learning needs and ensuring equal access to education. It involves personalized strategies, accommodations, and services to help individuals with diverse abilities thrive academically and socially.

Special education aims to address a wide range of learning, behavioral, and developmental challenges, fostering an inclusive learning environment. The goal is to empower individuals with disabilities to achieve academic success and participate fully in society. Some definitions of special educaion are:

Mainstreaming: Placing students with disabilities in regular education classes for a portion of the day

• Explanation: Mainstreaming is a concept rooted in the legal mandate that emphasizes integrating students with disabilities into regular or mainstream classrooms whenever feasible. It supports the idea that students with special needs should be educated in typical classrooms to the greatest extent possible, fostering inclusion and reducing segregation.
• Implementation: Mainstreaming often involves providing support services and accommodations to ensure that students with disabilities can participate and learn effectively alongside their non-disabled peers.
• Objective: The goal of mainstreaming is to promote a more inclusive educational environment, allowing students with disabilities to benefit from exposure to diverse learning experiences and interactions.

Full Inclusion: Inclusive education model where students with disabilities are fully integrated into regular classrooms

• Explanation: Full inclusion goes a step further than mainstreaming, advocating for a comprehensive model where students with disabilities are fully integrated into regular classrooms without any separation or segregation. It emphasizes creating an inclusive and supportive learning environment for all students.
• Implementation: In a fully inclusive setting, students with disabilities participate in all classroom activities, and educators adapt teaching methods to accommodate diverse learning needs.

Least Restrictive Environment (LRE): A legal requirement specifying that students with disabilities should be educated in typical classrooms to the maximum extent possible

• Explanation: The concept of the Least Restrictive Environment (LRE) emphasizes placing students with disabilities in an educational setting that imposes the least amount of restriction while still meeting their unique needs. This may involve placing students with disabilities in regular education classes for part of the day.
• Principle: LRE is based on the principle that students with disabilities should have the opportunity to interact with their non-disabled peers and access the general curriculum to the maximum extent appropriate.

Individualized Education Program (IEP): A document outlining educational goals and services for a student with a disability

• Explanation: An Individualized Education Program (IEP) is a personalized document developed for each student with a disability, outlining their specific educational goals, services, and accommodations needed to support their learning.
• Components: The IEP includes information about the student's current performance, annual educational goals, special education services, related services, and any necessary accommodations or modifications.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Q16: ___________ is the stable body of information that we know about ourselves and other people as thinkers 

(a) Self Regulations

(b) Meta Cognitive Knowledge

(c) Knowledge about Self

(d) Self Cognition

Ans: b

Sol: Meta-cognitive knowledge refers to an individual's awareness and understanding of their cognitive processes and strategies. It involves knowledge about how one learns, remembers, and problem-solves. This self-awareness enhances one's ability to regulate and optimize their cognitive functions.
Metacognitive knowledge plays a pivotal role in promoting effective learning, problem-solving, and decision-making by fostering a deep understanding of cognitive processes and enhancing the ability to regulate and optimize thinking activities.

• Definition: Metacognitive knowledge refers to a person's awareness and understanding of their cognitive processes and those of others. It involves recognizing and comprehending how one thinks, learns, solves problems, and makes decisions.
• Knowledge of Person: This type of knowledge includes self-awareness about one's cognitive strengths, weaknesses, preferences, and strategies. It involves understanding one's learning style, memory capabilities, and the factors influencing individual thinking processes.
• Knowledge of Task: Metacognitive knowledge extends to understanding the nature of different tasks, recognizing the demands they place on cognitive resources, and choosing appropriate strategies for specific challenges.
• Knowledge of Strategy: Individuals with strong metacognitive knowledge are aware of various cognitive strategies available for problem-solving, decision-making, and learning. This includes knowing when and how to employ specific techniques for optimal results.
• Knowledge of Purpose: Metacognitive knowledge involves understanding the purpose of thinking and learning activities. Individuals are aware of the goals they aim to achieve through cognitive processes and can align their efforts accordingly.
• Knowledge of Context: Recognizing the context in which thinking occurs is crucial. Metacognitive knowledge includes understanding how the environment, social factors, and situational cues impact cognitive processes.
• Adaptability: Individuals with well-developed metacognitive knowledge demonstrate adaptability. They can adjust their cognitive strategies based on the specific demands of a task, changing conditions, and feedback received during the learning or problem-solving process.

Thus, it is concluded that Meta Cognitive Knowledge is the stable body of information that we know about ourselves and other people as thinkers.

Q17: What is not related to education?
 (A) Direct benefit
 (B) Indirect benefit
 (C) Investment in people
 (D) Human Resource development
 (E) Public funding
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) Only

(b) (B) and (C) Only

(c) (C) and (D) Only

(d) (B) and (E) Only

Ans: a

Sol: Education is a systematic process of acquiring knowledge, skills, values, and attitudes through various formal and informal means. It involves teaching, training, and learning to foster intellectual, social, and personal development. The goal of education is to empower individuals with the tools needed to lead fulfilling lives and contribute positively to society.
Education is crucial for personal growth, societal progress, and economic development. It equips individuals with knowledge and skills necessary for critical thinking, problem-solving, and decision-making. A well-educated population fosters innovation, social cohesion, and overall well-being.

Direct Benefit:

• Direct benefit in the context of education refers to the immediate and tangible advantages gained by individuals, such as acquiring specific knowledge and skills.
• It is more focused on individual development and the immediate outcomes of the educational process.

Indirect Benefit:

• Indirect benefit involves the broader and long-term impacts of education on society, the economy, and community well-being.
• It considers the societal advantages that arise from having an educated and skilled population, contributing to overall progress.

Investment in People:

• Education is often considered an investment in people as it contributes to the development of human capital.
• This investment enhances the skills, knowledge, and capabilities of individuals, leading to increased productivity and economic growth.

Human Resource Development:

• Human resource development is a broader concept that includes education and training as essential components.
• It focuses on maximizing the potential of individuals within a society, contributing to overall economic and social progress.

Public Funding:

• Public funding is related to the financial support provided by the government for educational initiatives.
• It plays a critical role in ensuring equitable access to education and fostering the development of human capital for the benefit of society as a whole.

Thus, it is concluded that the Direct benefit is not related to education.

Q18: The Virtual University for Small States of Commonwealth (VUSSC) in 2000 was initiated by : 

(a) Inflibnet

(b) Commonwealth of Learning

(c) Delnet

(d) IGNOU

Ans: b

Sol: The Commonwealth of Learning (COL) is an intergovernmental organization founded by Commonwealth Heads of Government. It focuses on promoting and developing open learning and distance education, leveraging technology to expand access to education. COL collaborates with governments, institutions, and organizations to enhance learning opportunities, particularly in Commonwealth member countries.
The Virtual University for Small States of the Commonwealth (VUSSC) is an initiative aimed at providing educational opportunities through the use of technology. It was established in 2000 by the Commonwealth of Learning to cater to the specific needs of smaller countries within the Commonwealth. VUSSC focuses on leveraging virtual learning platforms to enhance education accessibility and quality in these small states.

• Initiation: The Virtual University for Small States of the Commonwealth (VUSSC) was initiated in the year 2000.
• Founder: The initiative was spearheaded by the Commonwealth of Learning (COL), an intergovernmental organization created by Commonwealth Heads of Government.
• Objective: VUSSC aimed to address the educational needs and challenges faced by small states within the Commonwealth, leveraging the potential of information and communication technologies (ICTs).
• Focus on Small States: The focus on small states recognized the unique challenges these nations face in providing quality education due to factors such as size, population, and resource constraints.
• Collaborative Framework: VUSSC operated on a collaborative framework, encouraging member states to share resources, expertise, and educational content through virtual means.
• ICT Integration: The initiative emphasized the integration of ICTs into education, aligning with the broader goals of enhancing accessibility, flexibility, and the quality of learning experiences.
• Capacity Building: VUSSC aimed to build the capacity of educators and institutions in small states, equipping them with the necessary tools and knowledge to leverage virtual learning environments effectively.

Thus, it is concluded that the Virtual University for Small States of Commonwealth (VUSSC) in 2000 was initiated by the Commonwealth of Learning.

Q19: Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Counselling is a face-to-face relationship between the guidance worker and the person who seeks a special kind of guidance.
Reason (R): Counselling is an intimate interpersonal relationship in which one person by virtue of his special training and skills is recognized as the helper while the other person is recognized as an individual or group with a problem who can benefit from the former.
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Ans: a

Sol: Counseling is a supportive and therapeutic process involving a trained professional (counselor) assisting individuals or groups in addressing personal, emotional, or psychological challenges. It aims to promote self-awareness, enhance coping mechanisms, and facilitate positive changes in thoughts, behaviors, and emotions. The process typically occurs through open and confidential communication, fostering a trusting relationship between the counselor and the individual seeking guidance.
Assertion (A): Counselling is a face-to-face relationship between the guidance worker and the person who seeks a special kind of guidance.

• Face-to-Face Interaction: Counselling is asserted to be a face-to-face relationship, emphasizing the direct, personal engagement between a guidance worker and an individual seeking specialized guidance.
• Guidance Worker and Seeker: The assertion underscores the specific nature of the relationship, specifying the participants as the guidance worker and the person seeking guidance.
• Importance of Personal Connection: The assertion implies that the face-to-face nature of counseling is crucial for establishing a personal connection that enhances the effectiveness of the guidance process.
• Tailored Support: The face-to-face dynamic suggests a more personalized and tailored approach to addressing the unique needs and concerns of the individual or group seeking guidance.

Reason (R): Counselling is an intimate interpersonal relationship in which by virtue of his special training and skills is recognized as the helper while the other person is recognized as an individual or group with a problem who can benefit from the former.

• Intimate Interpersonal Relationship: Counselling is described as an intimate interpersonal relationship, emphasizing the depth and closeness inherent in the interaction.
• Specialized Helper-Recipient Dynamic: The reason clarifies that one person, through specialized training and skills, assumes the role of the helper, while the other is recognized as an individual or group with a problem.
• Benefit from Helper's Expertise: The reason suggests that counselling involves leveraging the skills of the trained helper for the well-being of the individual or group facing a problem.
• Recognition of Roles: It underscores the recognition of distinct roles—the helper offering assistance and the individual or group benefiting from the helper's expertise.

Important Points Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

• The assertion accurately characterizes counselling as a face-to-face relationship, highlighting the significance of personal interaction.
• The reason provides a detailed explanation, elucidating the intimate nature of this relationship and emphasizing the roles of the helper and the individual seeking guidance.
• The reason further clarifies that counselling involves a dynamic where the trained helper's skills are employed for the benefit of the individual or group facing a problem, providing a comprehensive and accurate explanation for the assertion.
• The face-to-face dynamic is not only practical but essential for the establishment of a meaningful and effective counselling relationship.

Thus, it is concluded that the both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q20: Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Buddhism is a nastika school of philosophy
Reason (R): Astik-nastik in Indian philosophy is about faith in vedas
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Ans: a

Sol: Buddhism is a spiritual tradition founded by Siddhartha Gautama, known as the Buddha, around the 5th century BCE in ancient India. The central teachings revolve around the Four Noble Truths, addressing the nature of suffering and the path to liberation from it. The Eightfold Path outlines ethical and mental guidelines for leading a mindful and compassionate life. Buddhism encompasses various schools and practices, emphasizing meditation, ethical conduct, and the pursuit of enlightenment or Nirvana.
Assertion (A): Buddhism is a nastik school of philosophy.

• Definition of Nastik: The term "nastik" in Indian philosophy refers to schools of thought that do not adhere strictly to the authority of the Vedas.
• Buddhism's Position: Buddhism is considered a nastik school because it does not recognize the Vedas as the ultimate source of authority and does not rely on Vedic scriptures for its philosophical foundation.
• Rejection of Vedic Concepts: Nastik schools, including Buddhism, reject certain key Vedic concepts such as the caste system and rituals.

Reason (R): Astik-nastika in Indian philosophy is about faith in Vedas.

• Astik vs. Nastik Classification: In Indian philosophy, the classification of schools as "astik" or "nastik" is based on their stance regarding the authority of the Vedas.
• Astik Schools: Astik schools are those that recognize the Vedas as authoritative and consider them as the source of knowledge and guidance.
• Nastik Schools: Nastik schools, on the other hand, reject the Vedas as the ultimate authority and may derive their principles from alternative sources.

Connection:

• Buddhism's Non-Astik Stand: Buddhism's classification as nastik is primarily due to its rejection of the Vedas, placing it outside the category of astik schools.
• Nastik as Non-Believer in Vedas: The designation "nastik" indicates a philosophical stance of non-belief in the Vedas, aligning with Buddhism's rejection of Vedic authority.

Conclusion:

• Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) provides a valid explanation for (A). Buddhism's classification as a nastik school is justified by its rejection of the Vedas, consistent with the astik-nastik classification based on faith in Vedic scriptures.

Thus, it is concluded that the Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q21: According to Krathwohl and others, what are the components of the emotional aspect?
 (A) understanding
 (B) Emotions
 (C) Feeling
 (D) Attitude
 (E) Value
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Only (A), (B) and (C)

(b) Only (B), (C), (D) and (E)

(c) Only (B) and (C)

(d) Only (D) and (E)

Ans: b

Sol: The emotional aspect of education involves recognizing and understanding emotions, experiencing subjective feelings, and cultivating positive attitudes for a holistic approach to learning and personal development.

Krathwohl and others emphasize the emotional aspect with the following components:

Emotions:

• Recognition: Understanding and identifying one's emotions and the emotions of others.
• Regulation: Managing and controlling emotions for effective decision-making and problem-solving.
• Expression: Communicating emotions appropriately, and fostering healthy interpersonal relationships.

Feeling:

• Subjective Experience: Involves the internal and personal responses to various stimuli.
• Sensitivity: Heightened awareness of one's feelings and the feelings of others.
• Evaluation: Assessing the emotional impact of experiences on personal well-being.

Attitude:

• Disposition: Reflects an individual's mindset or outlook toward a particular subject or situation.
• Beliefs: Shaping attitudes through personal convictions and values.
• Approach: Influencing behavior and responses based on one's attitude.

Value:

• The typical component associated with the emotional aspect is "Appreciation," not "Value."
• It involves recognizing the intrinsic value and significance of emotions, attitudes, and feelings in the learning process.

These components collectively contribute to the emotional domain, emphasizing the complex interplay of emotions, attitudes, and subjective experiences in the educational context.

Thus, it is concluded that according to Krathwohl and others, Emotions, Feeling, Attitude, and value are the components of the emotional aspect.

Q22: Which of the following are post independence commissions on education?
 (A) Kothari Commission
 (B) Hunter Commission
 (C) Calcutta University Commission
 (D) Nai Talim
 (E) National Knowledge Commission
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (B) and (C) Only

(b) (A) and (E) Only

(c) (A), (C) and (E) Only

(d) (B), (C) and (D) Only

Ans: b

Sol: Commissions on education refer to official bodies or committees appointed to investigate, assess, and provide recommendations for the improvement and development of the education system. These commissions aim to address challenges, propose reforms, and contribute to the enhancement of educational policies and practices. They play a crucial role in shaping the direction and quality of education in a given region or country.

Post-independence commissions on education refer to governmental bodies established in India after gaining independence to assess, reform, and enhance the education system. These commissions, such as the Kothari Commission, focused on addressing the evolving needs of the nation's education, proposing structural changes, and recommending strategies for improvement. They played a crucial role in shaping the educational landscape by offering insights and guidelines for educational development in the post-independence era.

Thus, it is concluded that the Kothari Commission and National Knowledge Commission are post independence commissions on education.

Other Related Points

Q23: Types of planning techniques are:
 (A) Critical path method
 (B) Cost-benefit analysis
 (C) Planning, programming and budget making system
 (D) Managerial quality
 (E) Program evaluation review technique
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Only (A) and (D)

(b) Only (C), (D) and (E)

(c) Only (B), (D) and (E)

(d) Only (A), (B), (C) and (E)

Ans: d

Sol: Planning techniques refer to systematic methods and tools employed to organize, analyze, and optimize various aspects of decision-making and goal-setting within an organization.
These methods, such as Critical Path Method (CPM), Cost-Benefit Analysis (CBA), and others, help in efficient resource allocation, scheduling, and strategic alignment, enhancing the overall effectiveness of plans and projects. Successful implementation of planning techniques contributes to achieving objectives, managing uncertainties, and ensuring optimal use of resources.

Critical Path Method:

• Overview: CPM is a project management technique used for planning and scheduling tasks within a project.
• How it Works: CPM identifies the critical path, a sequence of tasks that determines the minimum time needed for project completion. It helps in optimizing resources, minimizing delays, and ensuring timely project delivery.
• Application: Commonly used in construction, engineering, and other project-based industries.

Cost-Benefit Analysis:

• Overview: CBA is an economic evaluation technique used to assess the benefits and costs of a proposed project or decision.
• How it Works: CBA quantifies and compares positive and negative consequences to determine the overall feasibility and profitability of a project. It aids in making informed investment decisions.
• Application: Widely used in business and public policy decision-making.

Planning, Programming, and Budget Making System:

• Overview: PPBS is a comprehensive planning and decision-making process often used in government and public administration.
• How it Works: PPBS integrates planning, programming, and budgeting to align organizational goals and resources. It emphasizes systematic analysis, prioritization of programs, and resource allocation.
• Application: Commonly utilized in the public sector to allocate resources effectively and achieve strategic goals.

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

• Yes – A project management tool used to plan and control complex tasks, similar to CPM.

Thus, it is concluded that the types of planning techniques are Critical path method, Cost-benefit analysis, Planning, programming and budget making system, and Managerial quality.

Q24: What is the nature of Educational Research?
 (A) Educational research is empirical
 (B) Educational research should be systematic
 (C) Educational and Physical science research findings are measured in the same scale
 (D) Educational research should be valid
 (E) Educational research should be reliable
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) and (B) Only

(b) (A), (B) and (C) Only

(c) (D) and (E) Only

(d) (A), (B), (D) and (E) Only

Ans: d

Sol: Educational research is a systematic and empirical inquiry conducted to enhance understanding and knowledge about various aspects of education. It involves the application of rigorous methodologies to investigate educational phenomena, inform practice, and contribute to the advancement of educational theory. The goal is to generate evidence-based insights that can improve educational processes, outcomes, and policies.

Educational research is empirical, relying on evidence and observation. It is systematic, following a structured approach throughout the research process. Additionally, it emphasizes validity and reliability to ensure accurate and consistent findings, contributing to informed educational practices and policies.

• Educational research is empirical in nature: Empirical nature implies that educational research relies on evidence and observable phenomena. Researchers gather data through systematic observation or experimentation, emphasizing the importance of empirical evidence in validating educational findings.
• Educational research should be systematic: Systematic research involves a structured and organized approach to inquiry. In educational research, this means following a well-defined process in formulating research questions, designing studies, collecting data, and analyzing results. Systematicity enhances the rigor and validity of the research.
• Educational research should be valid: Validity in educational research ensures that the study measures what it intends to measure. A valid research design aligns with the research objectives, and valid instruments accurately assess the targeted variables, enhancing the credibility of the findings.
• Educational research should be reliable: Reliability refers to the consistency and repeatability of research results. In educational research, reliability is crucial for ensuring that similar outcomes would be obtained if the study were conducted under comparable conditions. Reliability enhances the trustworthiness of research findings.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A), (B), (D), and (E) Only.

Q25: Creativity emphasizes more on testing of: 

(a) Similar Thinking

(b) Progressive Thinking

(c) Convergent Thinking

(d) Divergent Thinking

Ans: d

Sol: Thinking refers to the cognitive process of mental activity that involves the generation, processing, and manipulation of information. It encompasses various mental activities, including reasoning, problem-solving, decision-making, and contemplation. Thinking is fundamental to human cognition and plays a central role in how individuals perceive, understand, and interact with the world around them.

Creativity assessments, by emphasizing divergent thinking, aim to evaluate an individual's capacity to think broadly, generate numerous ideas, and approach challenges with originality and flexibility.

• Definition of Creativity: Creativity involves the generation of novel and valuable ideas, solutions, or products. It goes beyond conventional thinking, fostering innovation and originality.
• Divergent Thinking Defined: Divergent thinking is a cognitive process that involves the exploration of multiple possible solutions or ideas. It diverges from a single starting point into various possibilities.
• Focus on Fluency: Creativity, particularly in the testing context, emphasizes the fluency of generating a multitude of diverse ideas. It's not about a singular correct answer but the ability to produce numerous alternatives.
• Flexibility in Thinking: Creativity often requires thinking flexibly, and divergent thinking assesses an individual's ability to adapt their thinking to explore different perspectives and approaches.
• Originality and Uniqueness: Divergent thinking aims at producing original and unique ideas. Creativity assessments often prioritize solutions that deviate from the norm and showcase individuality.
• Creativity Assessments and Brainstorming: Creativity tests often involve exercises akin to brainstorming sessions, where individuals are encouraged to generate a large quantity of ideas without immediate evaluation.
• Assessment Tools: Various tools, such as the Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking, are designed to measure divergent thinking skills. These tools present open-ended prompts to evaluate an individual's ability to produce diverse and imaginative responses.
• Real-world Application: Divergent thinking is crucial in real-world problem-solving and creative endeavors. Individuals who excel in divergent thinking are often better equipped to navigate uncertainty, devise innovative solutions, and contribute to creative processes in fields like arts, sciences, and business.

Thus, it is concluded that the Creativity emphasizes more on testing of Divergent Thinking.

Other Related Points

Q26: Types of cerebral palsy are:
 (A) Diplegia
 (B) Rickets
 (C) Orthotics
 (D) Hemiplegia
 (E) Ataxia
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Only (A), (D) and (E)

(b) Only (D) and (E)

(c) Only (C) and (D)

(d) Only (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Ans: a

Sol: Cerebral palsy is a neurological condition affecting movement and posture that arises in early childhood due to damage or abnormalities in the developing brain.

• It leads to difficulties in muscle control, coordination, and balance, impacting a person's ability to move and perform daily activities.
• The severity and symptoms vary widely among individuals, and treatments often involve a multidisciplinary approach to address physical, developmental, and functional challenges.

Cerebral palsy is a group of disorders that affect movement, posture, and muscle coordination. The types mentioned in the given options are:

• Diplegia: This refers to a form of cerebral palsy where the lower extremities (legs) are more affected than the upper extremities (arms). It may result in muscle stiffness and difficulty in walking.
• Hemiplegia: This type involves paralysis on one side of the body. It affects either the right or left side and can lead to challenges in movement and coordination on the affected side.
• Ataxia: Ataxia is a condition characterized by problems with balance and coordination. In the context of cerebral palsy, it may affect voluntary movements and result in shaky or unsteady motions.

Important Points

• Diplegia: Primarily affecting the lower limbs, individuals with diplegia often experience challenges related to walking and maintaining balance. The upper limbs are usually less affected.
• Hemiplegia: This type involves paralysis on one side of the body. It can impact both the arm and leg on one side, causing difficulties in coordinated movements.
• Ataxia: Ataxia is associated with problems in coordination and balance. It can affect both the arms and legs, leading to unsteady movements.

Thus, it is concluded that the types of cerebral palsy are Diplegia, Hemiplegia, and Ataxia.

Other Related Points

• Rickets is not a type of cerebral palsy. Rickets is a condition related to vitamin D deficiency affecting bone development.
• Orthotics is not a type of cerebral palsy either. Orthotics refers to the use of external devices to support or correct musculoskeletal disorders, which may be used in managing cerebral palsy but is not a specific type of cerebral palsy.

Q27: If a teacher through her teaching enables the students to learn, comprehend, understand the related concepts and perform behavioral actions based on learning, the teaching level is __________. 

(a) Memory Level Teaching

(b) Understanding Level Teaching

(c) Application Level Teaching

(d) Reflective Level Teaching

Ans: d

Sol: Teaching levels refer to the depth of understanding and application achieved through instruction. These levels progress from basic knowledge acquisition to higher-order thinking skills. They include stages like recall, understanding, application, analysis, synthesis, and evaluation.

Reflective Level Teaching goes beyond the transmission of information and aims to cultivate a deep understanding, critical thinking skills, and the ability to apply knowledge in real-world contexts, fostering a lifelong love for learning. If a teacher, through her teaching, enables students to learn, comprehend, understand related concepts, and perform behavioral actions based on learning, the teaching level is Reflective Level. This level of teaching is characterized by deep engagement and thoughtful pedagogy.

Promotes Critical Thinking:

• Reflective Level Teaching encourages students to think critically and engage in deep cognitive processes.
• Students are not just memorizing information but are encouraged to analyze, synthesize, and apply their understanding to real-world situations.

Fosters Understanding and Comprehension:

• The emphasis is on ensuring that students truly understand the concepts rather than rote memorization.
• The teacher employs various instructional strategies to facilitate comprehension, such as discussions, hands-on activities, and real-life examples.

Encourages Application of Knowledge:

• Reflective teaching goes beyond theoretical knowledge and encourages students to apply what they've learned in practical situations.
• This application could involve solving problems, conducting experiments, or demonstrating a skill, fostering a deeper level of learning.

Connects Learning to Real-Life Contexts:

• Teachers at the Reflective Level strive to make connections between classroom learning and real-life contexts.
• This helps students see the relevance of what they are learning, enhancing their motivation and understanding.

Addresses Diverse Learning Styles:

• Recognizing that students have diverse learning styles, a reflective teacher employs a variety of instructional methods to cater to different preferences.
• This could include visual aids, group activities, discussions, and hands-on experiences.

Promotes Self-Reflection:

• Reflective-level teaching also extends to the teacher's practices.
• Teachers engage in self-reflection, continually evaluating and adjusting their instructional methods to enhance effectiveness.

Assessment Emphasizes Understanding:

• Assessment methods focus on evaluating not just memorization but the depth of understanding and the ability to apply knowledge.
• This could involve project-based assessments, open-ended questions, and performance assessments.

Thus, it is concluded that if a teacher through her teaching enables the students to learn, comprehend, understand the related concepts, and perform behavioral actions based on learning, the teaching level is Reflective Level Teaching.
Other Related Points

Q28: Which are correct facts relating to the reliability and validity of the research tool?
 (A) Consistency is necessary for reliability
 (B) Validity is the precondition for reliability
 (C) A reliable test is always valid
 (D) A valid test is always reliable
 (E) There is no relationship between the reliability and validity of a test
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) and (B) Only

(b) (A) and (C) Only

(c) (A) and (D) Only

(d) (A) and (E) Only

Ans: c

Sol: A research tool is a device, instrument, or method employed by researchers to collect data, gather information, or measure variables in a systematic manner. These tools can include surveys, questionnaires, experiments, observations, and various technologies, depending on the research objectives.

• The selection and design of an appropriate research tool are crucial for obtaining accurate and reliable data in scientific investigations.

Reliability refers to the consistency and stability of a research tool's measurements, ensuring that it produces consistent results under similar conditions. Validity pertains to the accuracy and appropriateness of the tool in measuring the intended construct, ensuring it captures the concept it is designed to assess. Both reliability and validity are essential attributes for ensuring the trustworthiness and effectiveness of a research tool in obtaining meaningful and accurate data.

Consistency is necessary for reliability:

• Explanation: Consistency is a key requirement for reliability. A research tool must produce consistent results when administered under the same conditions. If measurements are not consistent, the tool lacks reliability. Inconsistent results suggest variability and unreliability in the measurement process.
• Illustration: If a survey designed to measure stress levels provides significantly different scores for the same individual on repeated administrations, it lacks consistency and, therefore, reliability.

A valid test is always reliable:

• Explanation: Validity addresses the accuracy of a research tool in measuring the intended construct. For a test to be valid, it must also be reliable, as reliability ensures consistent measurement. However, while reliability is necessary for validity, a test can be reliable without being valid. Reliability is a precondition for the accuracy required by validity.
• Illustration: If an intelligence test consistently measures IQ scores for individuals (reliable) and, at the same time, accurately reflects their cognitive abilities (valid), it is both reliable and valid.
• Clarification: While reliability is necessary for validity, it does not guarantee validity. A test can be consistent in measuring something but may not accurately measure the intended construct (lacking validity). Validity encompasses both reliability and accuracy.

Thus, it is concluded that Consistency is necessary for reliability, and a valid test is always reliable are correct facts relating to the reliability and validity of the research tool.

Q29: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: All valid tests are reliable but all reliable tests are not valid
Statement II: Split-half method is used to determine the reliability of a test
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Ans: a

Sol: Test validity refers to the extent to which a test accurately measures the specific construct or trait it is designed to assess, ensuring that the test results provide a valid representation of the intended measurement. It encompasses various types, including content validity, criterion-related validity, and construct validity, each addressing different aspects of the test's effectiveness in measuring what it purports to measure.

Statement I: All valid tests are reliable but all reliable tests are not valid.

• Explanation: This statement reflects a fundamental principle in psychometrics. Validity refers to the extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure, while reliability pertains to the consistency or stability of the test results. A valid test must be reliable, meaning that it consistently produces accurate and stable measurements. However, a reliable test may not necessarily be valid if it does not measure the intended construct.
• Example: Suppose a thermometer consistently reads the temperature accurately (reliable), but if it is measuring the wrong thing, like atmospheric pressure, it lacks validity. Validity is a prerequisite for reliability, but reliability alone does not guarantee validity.

Statement II: Split-half method is used to determine the reliability of a test

• Explanation: The split-half method is a technique used to assess the internal consistency reliability of a test. In this method, the test is divided into two halves, and the scores on each half are compared. If the test is internally consistent, the scores on the two halves should be highly correlated, indicating reliability.
• Procedure: The split-half method involves randomly dividing the test items into two sets and then correlating the scores on one half with the scores on the other half. The Spearman-Brown formula is often applied to correct the correlation coefficient for the shortened length of each half.

Important Points

• Statement I emphasizes the relationship between validity and reliability, highlighting the necessary connection between the two concepts.
• Statement II correctly identifies the split-half method as a technique for assessing the internal consistency reliability of a test.

Thus, it is concluded that Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Q30: Which is a correct statement relating to the types of assessment?
 (A) Criterion Referenced Test is related to Formative Assessment
 (B) Criterion Referenced Test is related to Summative Assessment
 (C) Norm Referenced Test is related to Formative Assessment
 (D) Norm Referenced Test is related to Summative Assessment
 (E) Summative assessment is terminal
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (B) and (E) Only

(b) (B) and (C) Only

(c) (A) and (D) Only

(d) (A), (D) and (E) Only

Ans: d

Sol: Assessment is the process of gathering, analyzing, and interpreting evidence of an individual's learning or performance. It involves various methods, such as tests, quizzes, projects, or observations, to measure knowledge, skills, and abilities. The goal of assessment is to provide insights into a person's achievements, guide instructional decisions, and contribute to overall educational improvement.
Criterion Referenced Tests (CRT) are associated with Formative Assessment, providing ongoing feedback during the learning process. Norm-referenced tests (NRT) are linked to Summative Assessments, often conducted at the end of a learning period, while Summative assessments are terminal, offering a comprehensive summary of the learning experience.

 Thus, it is concluded that the Criterion-Referenced Test is related to Formative Assessment, the Norm-Referenced Test is related to Summative Assessment, and the Summative Assessment is terminal and is a correct statement relating to the types of assessment.

Q31: Match List - I with List - II.

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

(c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Ans: c

Sol: Temperament refers to an individual's innate and enduring emotional and behavioral tendencies, influencing their characteristic responses to stimuli and situations. It is an inherent aspect of personality that remains relatively stable over time.

Understanding temperament is crucial for tailoring effective educational and behavioral strategies, fostering positive relationships, and promoting personal development, as it influences an individual's inherent emotional and behavioral tendencies. Acknowledging diverse temperaments aids in creating supportive environments that cater to the unique needs and strengths of individuals. Four temperaments are:

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).

Q32: The advantage of digital libraries as compared to traditional libraries is :
 (A) Effective use of technology
 (B) Difficult cataloging
 (C) Accessible anytime anywhere
 (D) Easily linked to other resources
 (E) A resource can be simultaneously used by multiple users
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A), (B), (C), (D) Only

(b) (A), (C), (D), (E) Only

(c) (A), (B), (D), (E) Only

(d) (C), (E), (B), (A) Only

Ans: b

Sol: Digital libraries are online repositories of digital resources, including books, articles, multimedia content, and more, accessible via the Internet. They leverage technology for organization, storage, and retrieval of information. Traditional libraries are physical establishments that house collections of printed materials, such as books, journals, and newspapers. Users visit these libraries to access and borrow physical copies of resources.

Traditional libraries involve physical spaces and printed materials, while digital libraries are virtual, offering electronic access to a wide range of resources, promoting remote accessibility and efficient information retrieval.

Effective use of technology:

• Automation and Efficiency: Digital libraries employ technology for automated cataloging, sorting, and indexing of resources, making these processes more efficient and accurate than traditional manual methods.
• Advanced Search Capabilities: Technology allows for sophisticated search algorithms, enabling users to find and retrieve specific information quickly and precisely.
• Data Preservation: Digital formats facilitate the preservation of materials over time, reducing the risk of wear, tear, or loss compared to physical counterparts.

Accessible anytime anywhere:

• Remote Access: Digital libraries break down geographical barriers, allowing users to access resources remotely from any location with an internet connection.
• 24/7 Availability: Unlike traditional libraries with set operating hours, digital libraries provide 24/7 access, accommodating users in different time zones or with varied schedules.
• Global Reach: Users around the world can benefit from the accessibility of digital libraries, promoting a broader and more diverse user community.

Easily linked to other resources:

• Interconnected Information: Digital libraries facilitate seamless integration with other digital resources, enabling users to navigate through a network of interconnected information.
• Hyperlinking and Cross-Referencing: Resources can be easily linked through hyperlinks, cross-referencing related materials and enhancing the depth and breadth of available information.
• Multimedia Integration: Digital libraries can include various media formats, linking text-based resources to multimedia content for a richer and more comprehensive learning experience.

A resource can be simultaneously used by multiple users:

• Concurrent Access: Digital libraries allow multiple users to access the same resource simultaneously, promoting collaborative learning and research.
• No Physical Constraints: Unlike physical resources that are limited by the number of available copies, digital resources can be accessed by numerous users simultaneously without concerns about availability.
• Enhanced Collaboration: Simultaneous access facilitates real-time collaboration among users, supporting interactive discussions, joint research efforts, and shared access to educational materials.

Thus, it is concluded that the advantage of digital libraries as compared to traditional libraries is an effective use of technology, accessible anytime anywhere, and easily linked to other resources, and a resource can be simultaneously used by multiple users.

Q33: Which of the following intelligence theories has a passive intelligence repository, which is considered universal for all the activities of a person? 

(a) Anarchist theory

(b) Monarchical theory

(c) Sampling theory

(d) Sequential theory

Ans: b

Sol: Intelligence, in a psychological context, refers to the ability to learn, understand, adapt, and apply knowledge effectively. It involves problem-solving, reasoning, learning from experiences, and the capacity to navigate complex situations.
The monarchical intelligence theory posits that intelligence is a universal and passive repository, contributing consistently across diverse activities without the need for active reconfiguration or specialization. This conceptualization emphasizes the continuous and pervasive nature of cognitive capabilities.

• Universal Nature: The monarchical intelligence theory posits that intelligence is akin to a passive repository, universally applicable to all activities of an individual. This suggests that intelligence is a general and pervasive quality rather than domain-specific.
• Passive Accumulation: In this theory, intelligence is seen as accumulating passively over time, acting as a reservoir of cognitive resources that individuals draw upon across various domains and activities. It implies a continuous and involuntary acquisition of intellectual capabilities.
• Cognitive Consistency: The theory suggests a cognitive consistency across different tasks and domains. The intelligence repository, being passive, is assumed to contribute consistently to a person's performance in diverse activities without the need for active reconfiguration.
• Cross-Domain Applicability: According to the monarchical intelligence theory, the intelligence repository is not compartmentalized. Instead, it is considered universally applicable, allowing individuals to utilize their cognitive abilities seamlessly across different areas of life.
• Non-Specialization: Unlike theories that emphasize specialized forms of intelligence for specific tasks, the monarchical intelligence theory suggests a lack of specialization. Intelligence, in this view, is a more generalized capacity that is not finely tuned to specific domains.
• Implicit Influence: The passive intelligence repository implicitly influences an individual's performance without requiring conscious awareness or deliberate activation. It operates beneath the surface, contributing to cognitive functioning across a range of activities.
• Continuous Development: The theory implies that intelligence is not fixed but continuously develops over time. The passive accumulation of cognitive resources suggests that individuals may experience a gradual enhancement of their intellectual capabilities through life experiences.

Thus, it is concluded that the Monarchical intelligence theory has a passive intelligence repository, which is considered universal for all the activities of a person.

Q34: Arrange the following steps of the ADDIE model framework in the correct sequence :
 (A) Design
 (B) Analysis
 (C) Implementation
 (D) Evaluation
 (E) Development
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (C), (B), (A), (E) and (D)

(b) (B), (A), (E), (C) and (D)

(c) (B), (C), (E), (A) and (D)

(d) (B), (D), (E), (A), and (C)

Ans: b

Sol: The ADDIE model provides a structured approach to ensure that the learning experience is well-planned meets the needs of the learners, and is continuously improved.

The ADDIE model is a systematic instructional design framework used for developing effective education and training programs. The acronym ADDIE stands for Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and Evaluation. This sequence ensures a systematic and iterative approach to instructional design, promoting effective learning outcomes.

Analysis:

• Identifying Learning Needs: Analysis involves a thorough examination of the learning needs and requirements of the target audience.
• Understanding Constraints: This phase includes identifying any constraints, such as time, budget, or technological limitations, that might affect the instructional design.
• Defining Objectives: Clearly defining instructional objectives is a key component of the analysis phase.

Design:

• Translating Objectives: Designing involves translating the identified objectives into an instructional strategy.
• Selecting Methods and Media: This phase includes choosing appropriate instructional methods, media, and materials to achieve the learning goals.
• Planning Assessment: Designing also involves planning the assessment methods to measure the achievement of learning objectives.

Development: 

• Creating Content: The development phase focuses on creating or assembling instructional content and materials.
• Prototyping: It may involve creating prototypes or drafts to test and refine the instructional materials.
• Ensuring Quality: The development phase ensures the quality and appropriateness of the instructional content.

Implementation: 

• Delivering Training: Implementation involves delivering the training to the target audience using the selected methods.
• Instructor Training: It includes training instructors, if applicable, to ensure they effectively deliver the content.
• Preparing Learners: This phase also involves preparing the learners for the learning experience, creating a conducive environment for effective learning.

Evaluation:

• Assessing Effectiveness: Evaluation assesses the effectiveness of the instructional program in meeting the defined objectives.
• Gathering Feedback: It involves gathering feedback from learners, instructors, and other stakeholders to identify areas for improvement.
• Continuous Improvement: The evaluation phase is essential for continuous improvement, informing revisions and updates to the instructional design.

Thus, it is concluded that the Analysis, Design, Development, Implementation, and Development is the correct sequence of steps of the ADDIE model framework.

Q35: What type of research is educational research in which the variables under study are being influenced and controlled? 

(a) Quasi experimental

(b) Experimental research

(c) Ex-post facto research

(d) Mixed research

Ans: a

Sol: Research is a systematic and organized process of inquiry aimed at discovering new knowledge, solving problems, or validating existing theories. It involves a structured investigation into a specific topic, utilizing various methods to gather, analyze, and interpret data, with the ultimate goal of contributing to the understanding of a particular phenomenon.
Quasi-experimental research in education involves investigating the impact of interventions or treatments on educational variables without the full control typical in true experiments. It acknowledges practical constraints and ethical considerations that limit the researcher's ability to randomly assign participants.

• Variable Control and Influence: Quasi-experimental research aims to control and influence variables under study, typically in real-world educational settings. While researchers cannot exert complete control, they implement strategies to minimize biases and confounding factors.
• Educational Setting Focus: This type of research is particularly relevant to educational settings, where researchers explore the effects of teaching methods, interventions, or policies. It addresses complex, contextual factors influencing educational outcomes.
• Lack of Random Assignment: Unlike true experiments, quasi-experimental studies lack random assignment of participants to groups, making it challenging to establish causal relationships. Instead, researchers rely on naturally occurring groups or pre-existing conditions.
• Examples of Quasi-Experimental Studies:
  • Observational Studies: Researchers observe and analyze naturally occurring variations in educational settings without manipulating variables.
  • Pre-Post Designs: Assessing the impact of an educational intervention by comparing measurements before and after its implementation.
  • Non-Equivalent Control Group Designs: Comparing outcomes between groups that were not randomly assigned but are assumed to be comparable.
• Practical Application: Quasi-experimental research is often chosen when it is impractical or unethical to implement a true experiment in educational settings. It allows researchers to explore real-world complexities and better informs educational practices.
• Considerations for Validity: Researchers must be mindful of threats to internal and external validity in quasi-experimental designs. Careful design and statistical techniques are employed to strengthen the validity of findings.
• Contribution to Educational Practice: Findings from quasi-experimental research contribute valuable insights into the effectiveness of educational interventions, policies, and practices. This information helps educators make informed decisions to improve teaching and learning outcomes.

Thus, it is concluded that the Quasi-experimental type of research is educational research in which the variables under study are being influenced and controlled.

Other Related Points

• Experimental Research: A methodical investigation involving controlled experiments to establish cause-and-effect relationships between variables in a highly structured environment.
• Ex-post Facto Research: Research conducted after the fact, examining the effects of naturally occurring conditions or events without manipulation, commonly used in social sciences.
• Mixed Research: An integrated approach combining both quantitative and qualitative research methods to gain a comprehensive understanding of a research problem or question.

Q36: Which apex body is regulating integrated teacher education programs in the country? 

(a) NCERT

(b) NCTE

(c) NIEPA

(d) UGC

Ans: b

Sol: Teacher education programs are structured initiatives designed to equip individuals with the knowledge, skills, and pedagogical strategies required for effective teaching. These programs, often conducted in colleges or universities, prepare aspiring educators to meet the challenges of the classroom, covering subjects such as curriculum development, instructional methods, and classroom management.
Teacher education programs refer to structured initiatives preparing individuals for teaching roles, and NCTE, as the apex regulatory body, plays a crucial role in overseeing, regulating, and continuously improving these programs to meet the evolving needs of the education system in India.

Regulatory Authority:

• Role of NCTE: The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) serves as the apex regulatory body overseeing teacher education programs across India.
• Mandate: NCTE is entrusted with formulating and ensuring the implementation of guidelines and standards for teacher education institutions.

Integrated Teacher Education Programs:

• Definition: Integrated teacher education programs refer to comprehensive courses that blend various facets of teacher preparation into a unified curriculum.
• Components: These programs typically cover both foundational academic knowledge and practical teaching skills, ensuring a well-rounded preparation for future educators.

Regulation by NCTE:

• Approval and Recognition: NCTE plays a pivotal role in approving and recognizing teacher education institutions and programs, ensuring they adhere to established standards.
• Quality Assurance: By regulating these programs, NCTE aims to maintain and enhance the quality of teacher education to produce competent and skilled educators.

Policy Formulation:

• Guidelines and Policies: NCTE formulates guidelines, policies, and frameworks that influence the structure and content of teacher education programs.
• Adaptability: These policies are designed to be adaptable to the evolving needs of the education system, ensuring relevance and effectiveness.

Continuous Monitoring:

• Inspections and Evaluations: NCTE conducts regular inspections and evaluations to monitor the functioning of teacher education institutions, fostering accountability and improvement.
• Feedback and Recommendations: Feedback provided by NCTE often leads to recommendations for enhancements and adjustments in teacher education programs.

Professional Development:

• Continual Learning: NCTE contributes to the ongoing professional development of educators by setting standards that encourage continuous learning and improvement.
• Alignment with National Goals: Teacher education programs regulated by NCTE are expected to align with national educational goals and priorities.

Thus, it is concluded that the NCTE apex body is regulating integrated teacher education programs in the country.

Other Related Points

Q37: When judgements are based on the information present in our memories, we are using the : 

(a) Heuristic

(b) Confirmation Bias

(c) Representative Heuristic

(d) Availability Heuristic

Ans: d

Sol: A heuristic is a mental shortcut or rule of thumb used for problem-solving or decision-making. It's a practical strategy that is not guaranteed to be optimal but is efficient for quick judgments. Heuristics help in simplifying complex tasks by focusing on the most relevant aspects of information.
The Availability Heuristic is a cognitive bias where judgments are influenced by the ease with which information comes to mind or how readily available it is in our memories. 

• Definition: The Availability Heuristic is a mental shortcut that relies on immediate examples that come to mind when evaluating a specific topic, concept, method, or decision.
• Ease of Recall: People tend to rely on information that is more easily recalled or readily available, assuming that if something comes to mind quickly, it must be more common or important.
• Memory Influence: It's rooted in the idea that our judgments and decisions are often shaped by the information stored in our memory, and our memory is not always an accurate reflection of reality.
• Media Influence: The media plays a significant role in shaping the availability of information. Events that receive extensive media coverage may be perceived as more prevalent or important.
• Vividness Effect: Vivid or emotionally charged events are more memorable and, consequently, more likely to be used in the decision-making process.
• Limited Information: The Availability Heuristic can lead to biased decisions as it relies on a limited set of information, often overlooking more comprehensive or accurate data.
• Impacts Decision Making: It affects various aspects of decision-making, from everyday judgments to more complex choices, and can lead to suboptimal decisions when critical information is not readily available.
• Overcoming Bias: Recognizing the influence of the Availability Heuristic is crucial for making more informed decisions. Actively seeking diverse sources of information and considering a broader range of possibilities can help mitigate the effects of this cognitive bias.

Thus, it is concluded that When judgements are based on the information present in our memories, we are using the Availability Heuristic.

Q38: Taylor Postcard Frame is used for: 

(a) Writing large character Braille on one side of the paper

(b) Writing large character Braille on both side of the paper

(c) Writing small character Braille on one side of the paper

(d) Writing small character Braille on both side of the paper

Ans: c

Sol: The Taylor Postcard Frame is a specialized tool for writing small character Braille on one side of a postcard-sized paper. It serves as a guide, ensuring precise placement of Braille dots, and enhancing consistency and accessibility for individuals with visual impairments. The focus on small characters makes it suitable for applications where limited space is a consideration.
The Taylor Postcard Frame is significant for Braille users as it provides a structured template for writing small character Braille on one side of postcard-sized paper. This tool ensures precision and consistency in dot placement, facilitating the creation of accessible and standardized Braille messages. Its importance lies in promoting inclusivity by enabling individuals with visual impairments to produce clear and readable Braille on compact surfaces.

• Introduction to Braille: Braille is a tactile writing system used by individuals who are blind or visually impaired. It consists of raised dots arranged in a grid of six positions, with each cell representing a letter, number, or punctuation mark.
• Braille Writing Tools: Traditional Braille is often written using tools like a slate and stylus or a Braille writer. These tools allow individuals to create raised dots on paper by pressing through the perforations of the slate or using the keys of the Braille writer.
• Small Character Braille: Some applications may require smaller characters and specialized tools like a Taylor Postcard Frame might be designed for this purpose.
• Taylor Postcard Frame Overview: If the Taylor Postcard Frame is a specific tool, it would likely be a device or frame designed for creating Braille on postcard-sized paper, providing a structured template for precise dot placement.
• Usage for Small Character Braille: The Taylor Postcard Frame may be utilized to write smaller characters, possibly for applications where space is limited, such as on postcards or other small surfaces.
• Precision and Consistency: Such frames aim to ensure the precision and consistency of Braille characters, allowing users to maintain the standard dot configurations required for accurate reading.
• Accessibility and Inclusion: Tools like the Taylor Postcard Frame contribute to making information more accessible, promoting inclusion for individuals with visual impairments by enabling them to produce and share Braille messages.
• Adaptability: Braille writing tools come in various forms to accommodate different needs and preferences. The Taylor Postcard Frame, if it exists, would represent one such adaptation tailored for smaller character Braille writing.

Thus, it is concluded that the Taylor Postcard Frame is used for writing small characters Braille on one side of the paper.

Q39: Screening measures that can assist in the diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) include:
 (A) Autism Behaviour Checklist (ABC)
 (B) Development Behaviour Checklist (DBC)
 (C) Self Confidence Checklist
 (D) Psycho Educational Profile Revised (PEP - R)
 (E) Hand Flapping
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A), (B), & (D) Only

(b) (A) Only

(c) (B), (C) & (D) Only

(d) (B), (C), (D) & (E) Only

Ans: c

Sol: Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition characterized by challenges in social interaction, communication, and repetitive behaviors. It encompasses a spectrum of severity, with individuals experiencing a wide range of symptoms and abilities. ASD is typically diagnosed in early childhood, and early intervention and support are crucial for individuals with ASD to thrive.
The diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) involves a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's behavior, communication, and social interactions. Clinicians use standardized assessments, observation, and parent interviews to assess the presence and severity of ASD symptoms. A formal diagnosis helps guide appropriate interventions and support tailored to the individual's unique needs.

• Development Behaviour Checklist (DBC): The Development Behaviour Checklist (DBC) is a screening measure used in the diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD). It assesses a range of behaviors related to development and can help identify signs and symptoms associated with ASD. The checklist is designed to be completed by parents, caregivers, or professionals who observe the individual's behavior.
• Self-Confidence Checklist: While the "Self Confidence Checklist" is not a specific and widely recognized tool for diagnosing ASD, aspects related to self-confidence and social behavior are often considered in the broader evaluation of individuals with autism. Social difficulties and challenges with self-confidence can be indicative of ASD. However, it's crucial to note that this checklist may not be a standardized diagnostic tool on its own.
• Psycho-Educational Profile Revised (PEP - R): The Psycho-Educational Profile Revised (PEP - R) is a comprehensive assessment tool often used in the diagnosis and evaluation of individuals with ASD. It covers various developmental areas, including cognitive, communication, and social skills. The PEP-R assists professionals in gaining a holistic understanding of an individual's strengths and challenges, aiding in the diagnosis and formulation of appropriate intervention strategies.

Important Points It's important to note that "Hand Flapping" (option E) is a behavior commonly associated with autism but is not a standardized screening measure. The Autism Behavior Checklist (ABC) is another option that wasn't included in the correct answer, but it is a well-known tool used for assessing behaviors associated with autism.

Thus, it is concluded that the Screening measures that can assist in the diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) include the Development Behaviour Checklist (DBC), Self Confidence Checklist, and Psycho-Educational Profile Revised (PEP - R).

Q40: Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): The concept of quality in education is determined only by the availability of modern technology and resources.
Statement (II): Quality in education includes a wide range of factors including curriculum, teaching methods, assessment and learning environment, including technology and resources.
 In the light of the above statement, select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both statement I and statement II are true

(b) Both statement I and statement II are false

(c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

Ans: d

Sol: Quality in education refers to the effectiveness and excellence of the learning experience provided to students. It encompasses various factors, including curriculum design, teaching methods, assessment strategies, and the overall learning environment. Achieving educational quality aims to ensure meaningful and impactful learning outcomes for students.
Statement I: The concept of quality in education is determined only by the availability of modern technology and resources.

• Oversimplification: Statement I oversimplifies the concept of educational quality by suggesting that it is solely dependent on modern technology and resources. Quality in education is a multifaceted concept that involves a more comprehensive set of factors.
• Exclusion of Other Factors: By focusing exclusively on technology and resources, Statement I neglects the importance of other critical elements such as curriculum design, teaching methods, assessment strategies, and the overall learning environment.

Statement II: Quality in education includes a wide range of factors including curriculum, teaching methods, assessment, and learning environment, including technology and resources.

• Comprehensive Understanding: Statement II accurately captures the complexity of educational quality by acknowledging that it involves a wide range of factors. It recognizes the significance of curriculum, teaching methods, assessment practices, and the learning environment in shaping the overall quality of education.
• Inclusive Approach: By including technology and resources within a broader context, Statement II takes an inclusive approach, understanding that educational quality is influenced by various interconnected elements, not limited to technological advancements or resource availability alone.

Important Points In conclusion, Statement I is false as it oversimplifies the determinants of educational quality, while Statement II is true as it provides a more comprehensive and inclusive perspective on the factors contributing to quality in education.

Thus, it is concluded that Statement I is false, but statement II is true.

Q41: Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ethical leadership is not relevant in education as ethical standards do not apply to administrative roles.
Reason (R): Ethical leadership in educational administration is essential because it emphasizes making morally sound decisions and serving as a role model for ethical behaviour.
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Ans: d

Sol: Ethical leadership involves guiding individuals or organizations with a strong emphasis on moral principles, integrity, and fairness. Leaders practicing ethical leadership prioritize values, transparency, and accountability, fostering a positive and responsible organizational culture. This approach aims to make decisions that consider the well-being of stakeholders and contribute to long-term ethical and sustainable practices.

Explanation for Assertion (A): Ethical leadership is not relevant in education as ethical standards do not apply to administrative roles.

• Misunderstanding of Ethical Relevance: The assertion is not correct as ethical leadership is highly relevant in education. Educational institutions play a crucial role in shaping the values and character of students, and ethical standards are applicable not only to teaching roles but also to administrative positions within these institutions.
• Holistic Ethical Environment: Educational administrators set the tone for the entire institution. By embodying ethical leadership, administrators contribute to the creation of a holistic ethical environment, impacting the overall culture and behavior of the academic community.
• Role Modeling Ethical Behavior: Ethical leadership in education involves administrators serving as role models for ethical behavior. This is crucial for students, faculty, and staff who look up to leaders for guidance. It fosters a culture of integrity and responsibility within the educational community.
• Decision-Making with Moral Soundness: Ethical leadership emphasizes making morally sound decisions. In an educational context, administrators often face decisions that have ethical implications, such as resource allocation, policy formulation, and student disciplinary matters. Ethical leadership ensures these decisions align with moral principles.

Explanation for Reason (R): Ethical leadership in educational administration is essential because it emphasizes making morally sound decisions and serving as a role model for ethical behavior.

• Moral Decision-Making: Reason (R) is correct as ethical leadership in education indeed underscores the importance of making decisions based on moral principles. Educational administrators often encounter complex situations where ethical considerations play a vital role in determining the appropriate course of action.
• Role Modeling for the Educational Community: Ethical leadership involves administrators leading by example, and showcasing ethical behavior for the educational community. This is particularly crucial in educational settings, where the behavior of leaders has a profound impact on students, influencing their ethical development.
• Building Trust and Integrity: Ethical leadership is essential for building trust and integrity within educational institutions. When administrators prioritize ethical considerations in their actions, it enhances credibility and fosters an environment of trust, crucial for effective leadership and the overall well-being of the educational community.
• Long-Term Positive Impact: By embracing ethical leadership, administrators contribute to the long-term positive impact on the institution and its members. The emphasis on ethical behavior creates a foundation for a thriving academic community that values integrity, responsibility, and ethical decision-making.

Thus, it is concluded that (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Q42: We are trapped in narratives and epics, and they influence our decisions. We should be skeptical of epics.The above sentence is related to which of the following? 

(a) idealism

(b) structuralism

(c) postmodernism

(d) realism

Ans: c

Sol: Postmodernism is a cultural, intellectual, and artistic movement that emerged in the mid-20th century. It rejects traditional structures, embraces skepticism toward grand narratives, and emphasizes subjectivity, diversity, and the fluidity of meaning in a fragmented world. Postmodernism spans various disciplines, challenging established norms and promoting a more inclusive, decentralized perspective.

The statement aligns with postmodernist perspectives, emphasizing skepticism towards grand narratives and epics that shape societal beliefs.

• Postmodernist Critique: Postmodernism questions the validity of overarching narratives, suggesting that they might not accurately represent diverse experiences and perspectives.
• Rejection of Metanarratives: Postmodernists argue against metanarratives or grand, universal stories that claim to explain the entire human experience. They believe such narratives oversimplify reality.
• Fragmentation of Truth: Postmodernism asserts that truth is subjective and fragmented, varying from individual to individual. Rejecting a singular truth, embraces multiple perspectives.
• Influence on Decisions: The statement suggests that narratives and epics have a significant influence on decision-making, reflecting postmodernist concerns about the power structures embedded in these stories.
• Skepticism as a Virtue: Postmodernism encourages skepticism, urging individuals to question dominant narratives and recognize the biases and power dynamics inherent in storytelling.
• Cultural Relativism: Postmodernism often advocates for cultural relativism, acknowledging that different cultures may have diverse narratives and truths that should be respected.
• Power Dynamics: Postmodernists examine how narratives contribute to power structures, shaping societal norms, and influencing who gets to tell the stories and whose voices are marginalized.
• Individual Agency: By urging skepticism, the statement aligns with postmodernist ideas of empowering individuals to critically assess narratives, fostering a sense of agency in interpreting and challenging dominant stories.

Thus, it is concluded that We are trapped in narratives and epics, and they influence our decisions. We should be skeptical of epics. The above sentence is related to postmodernism.

Other Related Points

Q43: Match the following with List - I and List - II

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Ans: d

Sol: Measurement is assigning numerical values for precise comparison, e.g., measuring height in inches. Assessment is gathering data to judge performance, like grading a student's test. Evaluation is making value judgments on worth or quality, influencing decisions. Norm is a benchmark derived from group performance for standardized comparisons.

The correct answer is:

Measurement aligns with Quantitative description:

• Objective Quantification: Measurement involves the objective assignment of numerical values to objects or events, enabling quantitative description.
• Precision and Comparisons: The primary focus is on obtaining precise and standardized numerical data, facilitating meaningful comparisons.
• Standard Units: Measurement often employs standard units, ensuring consistency and allowing for universal interpretation of the quantitative information.

Assessment aligns with Qualitative description:

• Judgment and Understanding: Assessment entails making judgments about an individual's performance or qualities, often requiring qualitative descriptions.
• Comprehensive Insight: While assessments may include quantitative data, qualitative descriptions provide a more comprehensive understanding of the subject being assessed.
• Subjective Elements: Assessment can involve subjective elements, capturing aspects that are not easily quantifiable but contribute to a holistic evaluation.

Evaluation signs with Value Judgment:

• Value Determination: Evaluation involves making value judgments about the worth, significance, or quality of a particular object, action, or performance.
• Subjective Perspective: The process inherently involves a subjective perspective, as it seeks to assess the overall merit or value of the subject under consideration.
• Decision-Making Basis: The outcome of an evaluation often serves as a basis for decision-making, whether in educational settings, performance appraisals, or other contexts.

Norm aligns with Standardized tests:

• Benchmarking: A norm in the context of assessments refers to a standard or benchmark derived from the performance of a group or population.
• Comparative Analysis: Standardized tests are assessments administered and scored consistently, allowing for a systematic comparison of individual performance against established norms.
• Uniform Administration: The uniform administration of standardized tests ensures fairness and reliability in comparing individuals' performance on a standardized scale.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Q44: Which of the following can be associated with Gandhi?
 (A) Sabarmati Ashram
 (B) Nai Talim
 (C) Geetanjali
 (D) Santiniketan
 (E) Craft based education
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A), (B) and (E) Only

(b) (C) and (D) Only

(c) (A) and (E) Only

(d) (B) and (D) Only

Ans: a

Sol: Mahatma Gandhi, a pivotal leader in India's independence, advocated nonviolent resistance, introduced holistic education through "Nai Talim," established the influential Sabarmati Ashram, and emphasized economic self-sufficiency with a focus on traditional handicrafts.

Gandhi associated with:

Sabarmati Ashram:

• Foundation and Purpose: Gandhi established Sabarmati Ashram in 1915 on the banks of the Sabarmati River in Ahmedabad. The ashram served as a communal living space for Gandhi and his followers, symbolizing simplicity and a commitment to nonviolent resistance during the Indian independence movement.
• Activities and Ideas: At Sabarmati Ashram, Gandhi focused on activities such as spinning, weaving, and agriculture. The ashram became a platform for discussions on self-sufficiency, communal living, and the promotion of handcrafts as a means of economic independence.
• Role in Independence Movement: Sabarmati Ashram played a crucial role in the planning and execution of various civil disobedience campaigns, including the famous Salt March of 1930.

Nai Talim:

• Concept and Philosophy: Nai Talim, or Basic Education, was Gandhi's educational philosophy that emphasized a holistic approach to learning. It aimed to integrate education with practical skills and vocational training, aligning it with the needs of the community and promoting self-reliance.
• Principles of Nai Talim: The principles of Nai Talim included learning through manual labor, promoting the dignity of labor, and instilling a sense of social responsibility. It sought to break down the traditional division between intellectual and manual work in education.
• Implementation: Nai Talim was put into practice in several ashrams and educational institutions, where students engaged in productive work alongside academic learning.

Craft-Based Education:

• Philosophy of Craft-Based Education: Gandhi believed that education should be closely linked to practical skills, and he advocated for craft-based education as a fundamental aspect of Nai Talim. Crafts such as spinning and weaving were seen as essential for economic self-sufficiency and personal development.
• Empowerment through Crafts: Gandhi saw spinning and weaving as not only economic activities but also as tools for empowering individuals and communities. By engaging in handcrafts, individuals could contribute to their sustenance and promote economic independence.
• Legacy: The emphasis on craft-based education has left a lasting legacy, influencing educational philosophies and movements promoting practical, skill-based learning. Gandhi's views on education continue to inspire discussions on holistic and experiential learning.

Thus, it is concluded that the Sabarmati Ashram, Nai Talim, and Craft based education can be associated with Gandhi.

Other Related Points

Q45: Which of the following is correct?
 (A) Intellectual Academic Approach to curriculum propagates for curriculum areas in arts, music, literature, etc
 (B) The Behavioural-Rational Approach to the curriculum is also known as the logical positivist, conceptual, rational-scientific, and technocratic approach
 (C) Humanistic Aesthetic Approach to curriculum also refers to a traditional encyclopedic or knowledge-oriented approach
 (D) Systems Managerial Approach to curriculum focuses on programs, schedules, materials, personnel, and resource
 (E) The Reconceptionalist Approach to curriculum looks at schooling and education from a broader perspective and discusses education from a historical and philosophical angle
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) and (B) Only

(b) (E) Only

(c) (B) and (D) Only

(d) (B) and (C) Only

Ans: c

Sol: The curriculum encompasses the structured framework of educational experiences designed to facilitate learning and achieve specific goals within an academic program. It includes a comprehensive plan outlining content, instructional methods, assessments, and learning objectives. The curriculum serves as a guiding roadmap for educators, ensuring coherence and purpose in the educational process.

Behavioral-rational Approach, emphasizing logical positivism and a technocratic stance, while the Systems Managerial Approach, focuses on programmatic organization, scheduling, and resource management in curriculum development.

The Behavioural-Rational Approach to the curriculum is also known as the logical positivist, conceptual, rational-scientific, and technocratic approach:

• Logical Positivist Orientation: This approach is grounded in logical positivism, emphasizing empirical observation, measurement, and the scientific method as the basis for curriculum design.
• Conceptual and Rational Elements: It relies on conceptual and rational elements to formulate clear objectives and logical sequences of learning experiences.
• Technocratic Emphasis: The term "technocratic" indicates a focus on efficient, systematic, and technologically driven curriculum planning and implementation.
• Scientific Orientation: The emphasis on the scientific method aligns with a rigorous, evidence-based approach to curriculum development.

Systems Managerial Approach to curriculum focuses on programs, schedules, materials, personnel, and resources:

• Programmatic Focus: This approach directs attention to the systematic development and organization of educational programs, ensuring a structured and purposeful curriculum.
• Scheduling Considerations: Involves planning and arranging the timing and sequencing of educational content and experiences.
• Resource Allocation: Encompasses decisions related to materials, personnel, and other resources necessary for effective curriculum delivery.
• Management Perspective: The term "systems managerial" indicates a systemic and managerial view, emphasizing organization, coordination, and efficiency in curriculum development and implementation.

Thus, it is concluded that the Behavioural-Rational Approach to the curriculum is also known as the logical positivist, conceptual, rational-scientific, and technocratic approach, and the Systems Managerial Approach to curriculum focuses on programs, schedules, materials, personnel, and resources is the correct answer.

Other Related Points

Q46: Which of the following is correct?
 (A) The CIPP model for curriculum evaluation was developed by Daniel Mento in 1949
 (B) Tyler's curriculum model is a four-part linear model
 (C) The CIPP model for curriculum evaluation is based on "how can we determine whether the purposes are being attained ?"
 (D) The CIPP model for curriculum evaluation involves the steps and resources needed to meet the new goals and objectives and might include identifying successful external programs and materials as well as gathering information
 (E) Tyler's model for curriculum evaluation provides decision-makers with information about how well the program is being implemented
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (B) and (E) Only

(b) (A) Only

(c) (E) Only

(d) (B) and (D) Only

Ans: d

Sol: Curriculum evaluation is the systematic assessment of an educational curriculum to determine its effectiveness, relevance, and overall impact on student learning outcomes. It involves gathering and analyzing data to make informed decisions for curriculum improvement.

Tyler's model is a four-step linear approach to curriculum development introduced by Ralph W. Tyler, and the CIPP model, developed by Daniel Stufflebeam, encompasses four dimensions, including evaluating goals and objectives while considering external influences. Therefore, the correct answers are (B) and (D).

Thus, it is concluded that Tyler's curriculum model is a four-part linear model and the CIPP model for curriculum evaluation involves the steps and resources needed to meet the new goals and objectives and might include identifying successful external programs and materials as well as gathering correct information.

Q47: Mention the correct sequence of the following education commissions in post-independent India
 (A) The Secondary Education Commission
 (B) National Commission on Teachers
 (C) Acharya Rammurti Committee
 (D) The University Education Commission
 (E) The Kothari Commission
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (D), (A), (E), (B) and (C)

(b) (A), (C), (D), (E) and (B)

(c) (D), (B), (A), (C) and (E)

(d) (A), (C), (D), (B), and (E)

Ans: a

Sol: The correct order of these important education commissions in post-independent India is:

• The University Education Commission (1948-49)
• The Secondary Education Commission (1952-53)
• The Kothari Commission (1964-66)
• National Commission on Teachers (1983-85)
• Acharya Rammurti Committee (1990)

This sequence reflects how educational reforms progressed in India after independence, from university and secondary education to broader policy and teacher-related reforms.

Education commissions are government-appointed bodies tasked with evaluating and recommending reforms in the educational system. They aim to address specific challenges and contribute to the development and improvement of education policies and practices.

Education commissions in post-independent India refer to government-formed committees that assess and recommend reforms in the country's educational system, addressing challenges and shaping policies to enhance the quality and accessibility of education.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (D), (A), (E), (B), and (C).

Q48: Carl Rogers has proposed the following types of counseling?
 (A) Rehabilitation Counseling
 (B) Drug addiction counseling
 (C) Non-directive Counseling
 (D) Education counseling
 (E) Directional counseling
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Only (A) and (B)

(b) Only (C) and (E)

(c) Only (C)

(d) Only (D)

Ans: c

Sol: Counseling is a therapeutic process aimed at helping individuals explore and understand their emotions, thoughts, and behaviors. It involves a professional counselor providing support, guidance, and strategies to address personal challenges, enhance well-being, and foster personal growth.

Carl Rogers, a pioneer in humanistic psychology, is renowned for developing person-centered therapy, which is often characterized as non-directive counseling. The key principles of this approach include:

• Person-Centered Philosophy: Carl Rogers advocated for a person-centered approach in counseling, emphasizing the importance of creating a therapeutic environment that is non-judgmental, empathetic, and genuine.
• Unconditional Positive Regard: Non-directive Counseling  counseling incorporates the concept of unconditional positive regard, where the counselor provides acceptance and support to the client without imposing judgment.
• Empathetic Understanding: Central to this approach is the counselor's ability to empathize with the client, actively listening and understanding the client's perspective without injecting personal biases.
• Avoidance of Direct Advice: In non-directive counseling, the counselor refrains from giving direct advice or solutions. Instead, the focus is on facilitating the client's self-exploration and decision-making.
• Client-Centered Exploration: The counseling process revolves around the client's experiences and feelings. The client takes an active role in exploring and understanding their thoughts and emotions.
• Holistic Approach to Well-being: Non-directive Counseling counseling considers the client as a whole, addressing emotional, cognitive, and behavioral aspects to promote holistic well-being.
• Facilitation of Self-Discovery: The primary goal is to facilitate the client's self-discovery and personal growth by providing a safe and supportive space for exploration, without imposing external directives.

Important Points Carl Rogers' major contribution lies in person-centered therapy, emphasizing empathy, unconditional positive regard, and genuineness. While he did not explicitly delineate specific counseling types, his principles have been applied in various contexts, including those mentioned, adapting to the needs of individuals and diverse counseling situations.

Thus, it is concluded that Carl Rogers has proposed Non-directive advice counseling.

Other Related Points

• Rehabilitation Counseling: While Rogers emphasized person-centered therapy, which is non-directive, he did not explicitly propose a distinct category for rehabilitation counseling. This type of counseling generally focuses on helping individuals with disabilities or impairments to achieve personal, social, and vocational independence.
• Drug Addiction Counseling: Rogers' person-centered approach is adaptable to various counseling contexts, including drug addiction counseling. The emphasis is on creating a non-judgmental and empathetic therapeutic relationship to facilitate personal growth and recovery.
• Education Counseling: While Rogers did not explicitly categorize a form of counseling as "education counseling," his person-centered approach could be applied to educational settings. This might involve helping individuals navigate academic challenges, career choices, and personal development within an educational context.
• Directional Counseling: Directional counseling, as a term, is not explicitly associated with Carl Rogers' work. However, if interpreted as a counseling approach with a clear directive or advice-giving stance, it would be inconsistent with Rogers' non-directive, person-centered philosophy.

Q49: The difference between the values of "Parameter" and "Statistics" is called as : 

(a) Type - I Error

(b) Type - II Error

(c) Sampling Error

(d) Error in Calculation

Ans: c

Sol: Parameters are fixed numerical characteristics of an entire population, while statistics are calculated values derived from sample data to estimate these population parameters. Parameters represent true population values, but they are often unknown and need to be inferred from sample statistics.

The difference between a population parameter and its corresponding sample statistic is known as sampling error. Understanding this distinction is crucial in statistical analysis for making accurate inferences about a population based on limited sample data.

• Definition of Parameter and Statistics:
  • Parameter: A parameter is a numerical characteristic of a population, such as the mean or standard deviation. It represents a fixed value but is usually unknown and estimated.
  • Statistics: Statistics are numerical values calculated from sample data, providing estimates of the corresponding parameters in the population.
• Sampling Error Concept: Sampling error refers to the discrepancy between a sample statistic and the population parameter it estimates. It arises because we are estimating rather than measuring the parameter directly.
• Random Sampling Influence: Sampling error occurs due to the inherent variability introduced by random sampling. Different samples from the same population will likely yield different sample statistics.
• Estimation Limitations: As sample statistics are used to estimate population parameters, they inherently carry a level of uncertainty. The sampling error quantifies this uncertainty in the estimation process.
• Magnitude Determinants: The magnitude of the sampling error is influenced by factors such as sample size and variability within the population. Larger sample sizes tend to reduce sampling error.
• Relation to Precision and Accuracy: A smaller sampling error indicates a more precise estimate, while a larger sampling error suggests less precision. Achieving accuracy in estimation involves minimizing sampling error.
• Impact on Inference: Recognizing and understanding sampling error is crucial for making valid inferences about a population based on sample data. It underscores the idea that sample statistics are approximations of true population parameters, and the degree of approximation is affected by sampling error.

Thus, it is concluded that the difference between the values of "Parameter" and "Statistics" is called as Sampling Error.

Q50: A zero-rejection policy was adopted under: 

(a) National Policy of Education, 1986

(b) Persons with Disability Act, 1995

(c) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, 2001

(d) National Curriculum Framework, 2005

Ans: c

Sol: Educational policies encompass guidelines and frameworks set by governing bodies to shape the structure and practices of the education system. These policies address aspects such as curriculum development, teacher training, student assessment, and overall system improvement. They aim to enhance the quality, accessibility, and effectiveness of education on a national scale.

Zero Rejection Policy aimed to transform the educational landscape by embracing diversity and ensuring that no child, regardless of their abilities or disabilities, was left behind in the pursuit of education. The Zero Rejection Policy under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, 2001, was a significant initiative aimed at promoting inclusive education.

• Inclusive Education Focus: The Zero Rejection Policy was a fundamental component of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), India's flagship program for achieving universal elementary education. It underscored the importance of inclusive education, aiming to provide equal educational opportunities to all children, including those with disabilities.
• Preventing Exclusion: The policy aimed to prevent the exclusion of any child from the educational system. It recognized the diverse needs of children, including those with physical or cognitive disabilities, and stressed the need for accommodating these differences within mainstream schools.
• Barrier-Free Learning Environment: The policy envisioned creating a barrier-free and conducive learning environment within regular schools. This involved implementing measures to make schools accessible to children with disabilities, both physically and in terms of the curriculum.
• Individualized Support: The Zero Rejection Policy advocated for individualized support mechanisms to address the specific needs of children with diverse abilities. This might include special teaching methods, assistive devices, or additional resources to ensure that every child can participate effectively in the learning process.
• Teacher Training and Sensitization: To implement inclusive education successfully, the policy emphasized the need for teacher training programs. Teachers were expected to be sensitized to the diverse needs of students and equipped with the skills to adapt their teaching methods accordingly.
• Community Participation: The policy recognized the crucial role of communities in fostering inclusivity. It encouraged community involvement in supporting the education of all children, fostering a sense of belonging, and dispelling stereotypes and prejudices related to disabilities.
• Monitoring and Evaluation: To ensure the effective implementation of the Zero Rejection Policy, the SSA included provisions for monitoring and evaluating its progress. Regular assessments and reviews were conducted to measure the inclusivity of schools and identify areas for improvement.

Thus, it is concluded that the zero rejection policy was adopted under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, in 2001.

Other Related Points

Q51: Professional norms of teacher education are developed by: 

(a) NCTE

(b) IGNOU

(c) UGC

(d) NCERT

Ans: a

Sol: NCTE's role in developing professional norms for teacher education is multifaceted, encompassing accreditation, curriculum development, ethical guidelines, research promotion, and a continuous commitment to quality improvement. These norms play a pivotal role in shaping the landscape of teacher education in India.

The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) in India is responsible for formulating and implementing professional norms for teacher education programs. The development and significance of these professional norms:

Accreditation and Recognition:

• NCTE establishes criteria for accrediting and recognizing teacher education institutions across the country.
• It sets standards related to infrastructure, faculty qualifications, and overall institutional quality.

Curriculum Development:

• NCTE plays a crucial role in the development of curricula for teacher education programs.
• It specifies the content, pedagogical approaches, and practical components necessary for effective teacher training.

Quality Assurance and Monitoring:

• NCTE is involved in continuous monitoring and quality assurance of teacher education institutions.
• It conducts periodic reviews to assess compliance with established norms and standards.

Code of Ethics:

• The council sets ethical guidelines and a code of conduct for teachers in training.
• It emphasizes professional behavior, integrity, and commitment to the values of education.

Research in Teacher Education:

• NCTE encourages research activities in the field of teacher education.
• It provides guidelines for conducting research studies and integrating research findings into teacher training practices.

In-Service Training and Continuous Professional Development:

• NCTE establishes norms for in-service training programs for teachers already in the profession.
• It emphasizes the importance of continuous professional development to keep educators updated with evolving educational practices.

Alignment with National Education Policies:

• The professional norms developed by NCTE align with national education policies and goals.
• This alignment ensures that teacher education contributes to broader national objectives, such as inclusive education and skill development.

Legal Framework Compliance:

• NCTE ensures that the professional norms align with the existing legal framework for education in the country.
• It facilitates legal compliance by institutions offering teacher education programs.

Thus, it is concluded that the Professional norms of teacher education are developed by NCTE.
Other Related Points

Q52: Under the heuristics, which of the following is a strategy for the solution of the problems stands for the identification of the difference between the current state and the one that is desired in relation to the nature and solution of the problems and then taking action to reduce this difference for solving the problem : 

(a) Means-end Analysis

(b) Using an Analogy

(c) Sub-goal Analysis

(d) Working Backward

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is Means-end Analysis.

Heuristics are mental shortcuts or rules of thumb that simplify decision-making and problem-solving. These cognitive strategies allow individuals to make quick judgments or estimates based on limited information. While heuristics can expedite decision-making, they may also lead to systematic biases and errors.

Means-end analysis is a systematic and goal-oriented problem-solving approach within heuristics, involving the identification of differences between the current and desired states, decomposition of the problem into manageable parts, generation of sub-goals, and strategic actions to overcome obstacles iteratively.

• Definition of Means-End Analysis: Means-end analysis is a problem-solving strategy within heuristics, focusing on identifying the difference between the current state and the desired goal state in problem-solving.
• Goal-Oriented Nature: It involves setting a clear goal or desired outcome that represents the solution to the problem. The problem solver envisions the ideal end state.
• Identification of Obstacles: The means-end analysis then identifies the obstacles or differences between the current state and the desired goal. This could include challenges, missing elements, or discrepancies.
• Decomposition of the Problem: The problem is broken down into smaller, more manageable sub-problems or steps. This decomposition simplifies the complexity of the overall problem.
• Generation of Sub-Goals: Sub-goals are intermediate steps that, when achieved, contribute to moving from the current state toward the goal state. These sub-goals serve as checkpoints in the problem-solving process.
• Strategic Action: The problem solver takes strategic actions to overcome each sub-problem or reduce the differences identified. This may involve selecting appropriate methods, applying specific knowledge, or utilizing resources effectively.
• Iterative Process: Means-end analysis is an iterative process. As sub-goals are achieved, the problem solver continually reassesses the current state and identifies new differences, further refining the problem-solving strategy until the ultimate goal is reached.

Thus, it is concluded that Under the heuristics, which of the following is a strategy for the solution of the problems stands for the identification of the difference between the current state and the one that is desired with the nature and solution of the problems and then taking action to reduce this difference for solving the problem Means-end Analysis.

Q53: Match List-I with List-II:

 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(c) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Ans: b

Sol: Leadership is the ability to guide, inspire, and influence others toward a common goal. It involves effective communication, decision-making, and the capacity to motivate individuals or a team. A true leader fosters collaboration, sets a vision, and empowers others to achieve collective success.

The key characteristics of each leadership style:

Autocratic Leadership:

• Centralized Decision-Making: Autocratic leaders make decisions independently without soliciting input from subordinates.
• Authoritarian Control: This style is characterized by a leader who holds significant authority and control over the decision-making process.
• Quick Decision Implementation: Autocratic leadership is efficient for swift decision implementation but may lead to reduced employee morale due to limited collaboration.

Democratic Leadership:

• Participative Decision-Making: Democratic leaders encourage active participation and input from team members in the decision-making process.
• Inclusive Leadership: This style fosters a collaborative environment where diverse perspectives are valued, promoting a sense of shared responsibility.
• Time-Consuming but Engaging: Decision-making may take longer, but democratic leadership often results in higher satisfaction and engagement among team members.

Non-Interventional Leadership:

• Guidance and Autonomy: Non-interventional leaders provide guidance or structure, allowing subordinates to make most decisions independently.
• Trust in Team: This style emphasizes trust in the capabilities of team members, promoting a sense of autonomy and self-sufficiency.
• Situational Suitability: Effective in situations where team members are experienced and require minimal direction, but may pose challenges in crises requiring immediate guidance.

Transformational Leadership:

• Inspiration and Motivation: Transformational leaders focus on inspiring and motivating followers to achieve common goals.
• Charismatic Leadership: Leaders exhibit charisma, vision, and a commitment to personal and organizational development.
• Innovation and Positive Change: Transformational leadership fosters innovation and positive organizational change, relying on effective communication and inspiration.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).

Q54: Which of the following statements are correct regarding levels of measurement?
 (A) There is a real zero in the ratio scale.
 (B) There is a real zero in the interval scale.
 (C) Ratio scale is used in mental measurement.
 (D) Interval scale is used in mental measurement.
 (E) All the features of the ratio scale are included in the interval scale.
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Only (A) and (C)

(b) Only (B) and (D)

(c) Only (A) and (D)

(d) Only (D) and (E)

Ans: c

Sol: Levels of measurement refer to the categorization of data based on the nature of the underlying scale. There are four levels: nominal (categories with no inherent order), ordinal (ordered categories with unknown intervals), interval (ordered categories with consistent intervals but no true zero), and ratio (ordered categories with consistent intervals and a true zero point). Each level has distinct properties and implications for statistical analysis.

Levels of measurement refer to the mathematical properties of the numbers assigned to objects or events being measured.

There is a real zero in the ratio scale:

• In a ratio scale, the zero point represents a complete absence of the measured attribute. For example, if a variable is height, a value of zero indicates the absence of height, making it a true zero point.
• The ratio scale allows for meaningful ratios, such as one value being twice or three times another. This property is crucial in quantitative analysis.

The interval scale is used in mental measurement:

• Interval scales measure the distance between attributes, but they lack a true zero point. Mental measurements often involve characteristics where the intervals between attributes are assumed to be equal, making the interval scale suitable.
• Examples of interval scales in mental measurement include temperature scales like Celsius or Fahrenheit, where the intervals between degrees are consistent but there is no absolute zero.

Important Points

• Ratio Scale: In a ratio scale, measurements have a true zero point, meaning that zero indicates the absence of the measured attribute. This allows for meaningful ratios and proportions to be calculated. Common examples of ratio scales include measurements like height, weight, and income.
• Interval Scale in Mental Measurement: Interval scales are used in mental measurements where the intervals between values are consistent, but the zero point does not represent an absolute absence of the attribute being measured. Psychological constructs like IQ scores are often measured on an interval scale. While the intervals between IQ scores are consistent, a score of zero does not imply the absence of intelligence.

Thus, it is concluded that Only (A) and (D) are correct answers.

Q55: Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): According to realists, a hierarchical order is followed in the curriculum in which abstract subjects are at the top and short-term subjects are at the bottom.
Statement (II): In pragmatist curriculum, emphasis will be given to those experiences and subjects which will lead to philosophical dialogue and option selection.
 In the light of the above statement, select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both statement I and statement II are true

(b) Both statement I and statement II are false

(c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

(d) Statement I is true, but statement II is false

Ans: a

Sol: 

• Statement I: "According to realists, a hierarchical order is followed in the curriculum in which abstract subjects are at the top and short-term subjects are at the bottom." - True.
  Realism in education emphasizes objective knowledge and disciplinary hierarchy. Abstract or theoretical subjects like mathematics, philosophy, and sciences are considered more intellectually rigorous and are placed at the top. More practical or vocational subjects are seen as less intellectually demanding and placed lower in the hierarchy.
• Statement II: "In pragmatist curriculum, emphasis will be given to those experiences and subjects which will lead to philosophical dialogue and option selection."  True.
  Pragmatism focuses on experience-based learning, problem-solving, and critical thinking. It encourages students to engage in real-life experiences, make choices, and reflect through dialogue. So, this statement is aligned with pragmatist educational thought.

Correct Answer: (a) Both statement I and statement II are true

Q56: Light, sound, love, truth are all examples of the following: 

(a) concrete

(b) abstract

(c) innovation

(d) goal orientation

Ans: b

Sol: These concepts of light, sound, love, and truth exemplify the abstract nature of phenomena that extend beyond simple, tangible definitions and find expression in various forms of human understanding and creativity.

The abstract nature of "light," "sound," "love," and "truth" in detail:

Light:

• Wave-Particle Duality: Light exhibits both wave and particle properties, existing as photons.
• Invisible Spectrum: Beyond visible light, there are other spectrums like infrared and ultraviolet, making light a diverse and abstract phenomenon.
• Metaphorical Significance: Symbolically, light often represents knowledge, enlightenment, and understanding.

Sound:

• Wave Nature: Sound travels in waves through a medium, and its perception varies based on frequency and amplitude.
• Subjectivity: The emotional impact of sound is subjective, making it an abstract experience.
• Artistic Expression: In music and art, sound serves as a powerful abstract tool for conveying emotions and ideas.

Love:

• Emotional Complexity: Love is a complex and multi-faceted emotion that defies precise definition.
• Subjective Experience: Its meaning varies individually, making it an abstract concept.
• Expressive Arts: Love often serves as inspiration for literature, music, and art, transcending concrete boundaries.

Truth:

• Philosophical Concept: Truth is a philosophical abstraction, often debated in epistemology and metaphysics.
• Subjectivity: Different perspectives can shape what individuals perceive as truth.
• Cultural and Moral Context: Truth can be influenced by cultural and moral frameworks, adding layers of abstraction.

Thus, it is concluded that light, sound, love, and truth are all examples of the abstract.

Q57: Arrange the steps involved in the scientific procedure of problem-solving behavior in the correct order:
 (A) Collection of relevant information about the problem
 (B) Problem understanding
 (C) Problem Awareness
 (D) Verification of the concluded solution
 (E) Hunch for a possible solution
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(b) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)

(c) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)

(d) (B), (E), (C), (A), (D)

Ans: c

Sol: Problem-solving is a cognitive process aimed at finding effective solutions to challenging issues or obstacles. It involves analyzing the problem, generating potential solutions, and implementing the best course of action to achieve a desired outcome. Effective problem-solving often requires critical thinking, creativity, and a systematic approach to address complex situations.

Problem-solving behavior refers to the cognitive and behavioral processes individuals employ to address challenges or obstacles. It involves recognizing a problem, understanding its intricacies, and systematically working toward a solution. Effective problem-solving behavior often requires critical thinking, creativity, and the ability to implement and evaluate potential solutions. The correct order for the scientific procedure of problem-solving behavior is:

Problem Awareness:

• Recognizing the Existence: This step involves acknowledging that a problem exists, prompting the need for attention or resolution.
• Identifying Challenges: It encompasses recognizing specific challenges or obstacles that need to be addressed.
• Initial Observation: The individual becomes aware of a situation that triggers the problem-solving process.

Problem Understanding:

• Analyzing Components: Understanding the nature of the problem involves breaking it down into its components, and identifying key elements.
• Comprehending Factors: This step requires comprehending the factors contributing to the problem, and gaining insights into its complexity.
• Clarity in Description: Achieving a clear and comprehensive description of the problem is essential during this phase.

Collection of Relevant Information:

• Research and Data Gathering: Gathering relevant information about the problem is crucial, involving research, data collection, and obtaining necessary facts.
• Informed Decision-Making: This step ensures that decision-making is informed by a comprehensive understanding of the problem.
• Enhancing Understanding: The collected information enriches the understanding of the problem, providing a foundation for further steps.

Hunch for a Possible Solution:

• Creative Thinking: Generating a hunch involves thinking creatively, and exploring various potential solutions or hypotheses.
• Brainstorming Ideas: This phase encourages brainstorming sessions to generate a variety of ideas for addressing the identified issue.
• Initial Solution Proposals: Individuals develop preliminary solutions or hypotheses based on their insights and creative thinking.

Verification of the Concluded Solution:

• Testing Against Criteria: The final step involves testing the proposed solution against predefined criteria or standards.
• Assessing Feasibility: Verification includes assessing the feasibility of the solution and considering practicality and resources.
• Ensuring Effectiveness: The verification process ensures that the concluded solution is effective in addressing the identified problem and meeting the desired goals.

Thus, it is concluded that Problem Awareness, Problem understanding, Collection of relevant information about the problem, Hunch for a possible solution, and Verification of the concluded solution is the correct order of steps involved in the scientific procedure of problem-solving behavior.

Q58: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Collection of learner's work on a variety of tasks is meant for keeping a record of their performance and is known as portfolio.
Statement II: Portfolio is an essential part of learner's performance.
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Ans: c

Sol: A portfolio in education refers to a purposeful collection of a learner's work and achievements over time. It includes a diverse range of tasks, projects, and reflections that showcase the learner's skills, progress, and abilities.
Statement I: A collection of learner's work on a variety of tasks is meant to keep a record of their performance and is known as a portfolio.

Purpose of Portfolio:

• Recording Performance: The primary purpose of a portfolio is to document and showcase a learner's performance, capturing their growth and achievements across different tasks and activities.

Comprehensive Representation:

• Diverse Tasks: Portfolios encompass a variety of tasks, providing a comprehensive representation of a learner's abilities, skills, and progress over time.
• Holistic View: They go beyond traditional assessments, offering a holistic view of the learner's capabilities beyond exam scores.

Reflective Tool:

• Self-Reflection: Portfolios often include reflective components where learners can analyze their work, identifying strengths, areas for improvement, and personal growth.
• Metacognition: Encourages metacognition, helping learners become more aware of their learning processes and strategies.

Assessment and Growth:

• Ongoing Assessment: Portfolios serve as an ongoing assessment tool, allowing educators to monitor progress continually.
• Individualized Feedback: They enable individualized feedback, fostering a personalized approach to instruction and supporting the learner's development.

Statement II: A portfolio is an essential part of the learner's performance.

Integral to Assessment:

• Assessment Component: Portfolios are integral components of assessment strategies, providing a more authentic and multifaceted evaluation of a learner's performance.

Showcasing Achievements:

• Highlighting Success: Portfolios act as a dynamic showcase of a learner's achievements, going beyond numerical grades to illustrate the depth and breadth of their accomplishments.

Personalized Learning:

• Tailored Feedback: The use of portfolios facilitates personalized and tailored feedback, addressing individual learning needs and promoting continuous improvement.

Life-Long Learning Skills:

• Skill Development: By encouraging learners to curate and reflect on their work, portfolios contribute to the development of essential life-long learning skills such as critical thinking, self-evaluation, and goal-setting.

Important Points

• Statement I is correct as it accurately defines a portfolio, emphasizing its role in recording learner performance through a diverse collection of tasks.
• Statement II is not correct, a portfolio can be a valuable tool for assessing performance, but it's not necessarily essential in every situation. There might be other forms of assessment that work better depending on the learning context.

Thus, it is concluded that Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q59: A six Sigma process is one in which too much percentage of the products manufactured are statistically expected to be free of defects. 

(a) 95.99966 %

(b) 99.99966 %

(c) 98.99966 %

(d) 96.99966 %

Ans: b

Sol: The Six Sigma process is a quality management methodology aimed at achieving extremely low levels of defects or errors in manufacturing or business processes. The term "Six Sigma" refers to a statistical measure representing a high level of process capability and the goal of producing products with minimal defects.

Sigma as a Measure:

• Definition: Sigma (σ) is a statistical term that represents the standard deviation from the mean in a set of data.
• Six Sigma Standard: In the Six Sigma methodology, the goal is to achieve a process capability where the standard deviation is minimal, leading to high-quality outcomes.

Six Sigma Percentage:

• Statistical Expectation: The statement mentions a Six Sigma process where 99.99966% of the products are statistically expected to be free of defects.
• Precision: This level of precision indicates a high degree of quality control, with an extremely low probability of defects.

Defects Per Million Opportunities (DPMO):

• Calculation: Six Sigma equates to 3.4 defects per million opportunities (DPMO).
• Stringent Standards: This reflects a stringent standard for process excellence, aiming for near-perfection.

Process Improvement Goal:

• Reduction of Variation: The Six Sigma process focuses on reducing process variation to minimize defects and enhance overall efficiency.
• Continuous Improvement: It promotes a culture of continuous improvement to achieve and maintain high-quality standards.

Methodology Implementation:

• DMAIC Approach: Six Sigma typically follows the DMAIC approach – Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control – to systematically improve processes.
• Data-Driven Decision Making: Utilizes statistical tools and data-driven decision-making to identify and rectify defects.

Customer-Centric Approach:

• Customer Satisfaction: Six Sigma places a strong emphasis on meeting and exceeding customer expectations.
• Critical to Quality (CTQ): Identifying and addressing aspects critical to quality ensures customer satisfaction.

Organizational Impact:

• Strategic Alignment: Organizations implement Six Sigma to align operational processes with strategic goals.
• Cost Reduction and Efficiency: Achieving Six Sigma levels can lead to cost reduction, increased efficiency, and enhanced competitiveness.

Thus, it is concluded that the six Sigma process is one in which too much percentage of the products manufactured are statistically expected to be free of defects is 99.99966%.

Q60: Match List - I with List - II.
 Match the following books with their authors.

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(b) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

(c) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Ans: d

Sol: Education is a systematic process of acquiring knowledge, skills, values, and understanding. It involves the transmission of information from teachers to learners, fostering intellectual, social, and personal development. The goal of education is to empower individuals for a meaningful and productive engagement with society.

The listed books are significant contributions to the field of education, authored by prominent figures. Let's explore the match between the books and their respective authors.

Shaikshik Gyan Aur Varchasva (Krishna Kumar):

• Book Significance: "Shaikshik Gyan Aur Varchasva" is authored by Krishna Kumar, a distinguished educationist.
• Author Significance: Krishna Kumar's work often delves into educational philosophy, policy, and the social dimensions of education.
• Educational Influence: The book likely explores the interplay between educational knowledge and authority.

Shiksha Mein Badlav Ke Sawal (Anil Sadgopal):

• Book Significance: "Shiksha Mein Badlav Ke Sawal" is authored by Anil Sadgopal.
• Author Significance: Anil Sadgopal is known for his contributions to education, particularly advocating for democratic and equitable educational practices.
• Reform and Change: The book may address questions related to changes and reforms in the education system.

Shiksha Aur Jan Andolan (Sadhna Saxena):

• Book Significance: "Shiksha Aur Jan Andolan" is written by Sadhna Saxena.
• Author Significance: Sadhna Saxena is recognized for her work in educational sociology and the role of social movements in education.
• Social Movements in Education: The book may focus on the relationship between education and social movements.

Divaswapn (Gijubhai Badheka):

• Book Significance: "Divaswapn" is a notable work by Gijubhai Badheka.
• Author Significance: Gijubhai Badheka was an influential educator, known for his contributions to child-centered education.
• Child-Centered Education: The book likely explores Gijubhai's ideas and practices related to child-centric teaching and learning.

Thus, it is concluded that the (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) is the correct answer.

Q61: Arrange the following in chronological order:
 (A) Postmodernism
 (B) Transcendentalism
 (C) Empiricism
 (D) Analytical philosophy
 (E) Rationalism
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (E), (B), (C), (A), (D)

(b) (B), (D), (A), (C), (E)

(c) (B), (C), (E), (A), (D)

(d) (E), (C), (B), (D), (A)

Ans: d

Sol: Philosophical movements refer to collective shifts in thought and ideology within the realm of philosophy. These movements often involve shared perspectives, beliefs, or methodologies that shape the discourse and address fundamental questions about existence, knowledge, and values. They represent dynamic intellectual currents that influence and guide philosophical inquiry during specific periods.

Rationalism and Empiricism characterize the early modern period, followed by Transcendentalism in the 19th century, Analytical Philosophy in the early 20th century, and finally, Postmodernism in the mid-20th century.

Rationalism:

• Definition: Emphasizes the role of reason and innate ideas in acquiring knowledge. Emerged in the 17th century, with notable figures like René Descartes and Baruch Spinoza.

Empiricism:

• Definition: Stresses the importance of sensory experience and observation as the foundation of knowledge. Gained prominence in the 17th and 18th centuries, with influential thinkers such as John Locke and David Hume.

Transcendentalism:

• Definition: A philosophical and literary movement emphasizing the inherent goodness of people and nature. Flourished in the early to mid-19th century in the United States, with figures like Ralph Waldo Emerson and Henry David Thoreau.

Analytical Philosophy:

• Definition: Analyzes language and logical structure to understand philosophical problems. Developed in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, with notable figures like Bertrand Russell and Ludwig Wittgenstein.

Postmodernism:

• Definition: Challenges traditional notions of truth, identity, and authority, emphasizing cultural relativism. Emerged in the mid-20th century as a reaction to modernism, with influences in various disciplines.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (E), (C), (B), (D), (A).

Q62: Arrange the following in the traditional method of writing a lesson plan:
 (A) Prior knowledge
 (B) Specific objectives
 (C) Homework
 (D) Subject matter presentation
 (E) Repetition
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (B), (A), (D), (E), (C)

(b) (A), (C), (E), (D), (B)

(c) (C), (A), (D), (B), (E)

(d) (D), (E), (A), (B), (C)

Ans: a

Sol: A lesson plan is a detailed guide that outlines the structure and content of a teaching session. It includes objectives, instructional methods, and assessment strategies to facilitate effective learning.

The traditional method of writing a lesson plan follows a systematic and pedagogically sound approach to facilitate optimal learning outcomes. The traditional method typically follows a structured sequence:

Objectives:

• Definition: Specific learning outcomes to be achieved by the end of the lesson.
• Importance: Sets clear expectations for both the teacher and students.

Prior Knowledge:

• Definition: Assessing and activating students' existing knowledge related to the lesson topic.
• Importance: Establishes a connection between new information and what students already know.

Subject Matter Presentation:

• Definition: The main teaching phase where new content is introduced.
• Importance: Provides the core information and concepts of the lesson.

Repetition:

• Definition: Reinforcing key concepts through various activities to enhance retention.
• Importance: Strengthens learning by revisiting and practicing information.

Homework:

• Definition: Assigning tasks or exercises to be completed outside the classroom.
• Importance: Reinforces learning, encourages independent study, and extends the lesson beyond the class.

Important PointsLogical Sequence: The correct arrangement is (B), (A), (D), (E), (C), representing a logical flow in traditional lesson planning.

• Objectives First: Starting with specific objectives ensures clarity on what students are expected to achieve.
• Building on Prior Knowledge: Assessing prior knowledge helps tailor the lesson to students' understanding.
• Presentation and Repetition: Introducing new material, reinforcing through repetition, and extending learning with homework create a comprehensive and effective lesson plan.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (B), (A), (D), (E), (C).

Q63: What is the correct order of classification of cognitive organ according to the classification of Anderson and Krathwohl (2001)?
 (A) Remembering
 (B) Understanding
 (C) Analyzing
 (D) Application
 (E) Evaluation
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

(b) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

(c) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

(d) (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)

Ans: c

Sol: Cognition refers to mental processes involved in acquiring knowledge and understanding. Cognitive taxonomy classifies these processes into hierarchical levels, indicating the complexity of mental activities.

Anderson and Krathwohl expanded Bloom's Taxonomy, introducing a revised version in 2001. They organized cognitive processes into four dimensions: Remembering, Understanding, Applying, and Analyzing. 

Remembering:

• Definition: Involves recalling information without necessarily understanding it.
• Position in Hierarchy: Represents the foundational level of cognitive processes.

Understanding:

• Definition: Comprehending and interpreting information.
• Hierarchy Placement: Follows remembering, requiring a deeper level of mental engagement.

Application:

• Definition: Using acquired knowledge in practical situations.
• Hierarchy Placement: Positioned after understanding, indicating a higher level of cognitive processing.

Analyzing:

• Definition: Breaking down information into components for examination.
• Hierarchy Placement: Follows application, signifying a more advanced cognitive activity.

Evaluation:

• Definition: Making judgments and assessments based on criteria.
• Hierarchy Placement: Represents the highest level, indicating complex cognitive processes.

Important Points Conclusion: The correct order is (A), (B), (D), (C), (E), reflecting the hierarchical progression of cognitive processes according to Anderson and Krathwohl's taxonomy. Remembering and understanding form the foundation, followed by applying, analyzing, and culminating in the highest level of evaluation.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A), (B), (D), (C), (E).

Q64: The International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health (ICF) conceptualise a persons level of functioning as a dynamic interaction between his or her :
 (A) Health Conditions
 (B) Environmental Factors
 (C) Personal Factors
 (D) Economic Factors
 (E) Innovative Factors
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) & (B) Only

(b) (A), (B) & (C) Only

(c) (C), (D) & (E) Only

(d) (D) & (E) Only

Ans: b

Sol: Disability refers to limitations in a person's ability to perform activities or participate in society, often influenced by health conditions.
International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF) is a framework developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) that provides a comprehensive understanding of health and functioning. It considers health as a dynamic interaction between an individual's health conditions, environmental factors, and personal factors.

Health Conditions:

• Definition: Refers to the individual's state of health, encompassing physical, mental, and social well-being.
• ICF Role: ICF recognizes the impact of health conditions on a person's functioning and participation in daily life.

Environmental Factors:

• Definition: External elements in a person's surroundings, including physical, social, and attitudinal factors.
• ICF Role: Acknowledges that the environment can facilitate or hinder a person's functioning and participation.

Personal Factors:

• Definition: Individual characteristics such as age, gender, coping styles, and life experiences.
• ICF Role: Recognizes the influence of personal factors on an individual's level of functioning and disability.

Economic Factors:

• Definition: Relates to financial aspects and resources.
• Not Explicit in ICF: While economic factors may indirectly influence health and functioning, they are not explicitly included in the ICF framework.

Innovative Factors:

• Not Part of ICF: The concept of "Innovative Factors" is not recognized or included in the ICF framework.

Conclusion: The correct answer is (A), (B), and (C), as the ICF conceptualizes an individual's level of functioning as a dynamic interaction between their health conditions, environmental factors, and personal factors. Economic factors and innovative factors are not explicitly considered within the ICF framework.

Thus, it is concluded that the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF) conceptualizes a persons level of functioning as a dynamic interaction between his or her Health Conditions, Environmental Factors, and Personal Factors.

Q65: Which is not true in case of Flander's Interaction analysis? 

(a) Interaction means participation of teacher and students in the process of teaching

(b) Teacher evaluates the students through assignment

(c) It helps to know whether the teacher is effective or not

(d) Teacher influences students through lecture, asking questions, criticizing giving directions etc.

Ans: b

Sol: Interaction analysis in education is a systematic method of examining and categorizing communication patterns between teachers and students during the teaching and learning process. It aims to understand and evaluate observable behaviors, offering insights into the effectiveness of instructional interactions.

Flanders' Interaction Analysis was developed by Robert F. Flanders, this method categorizes specific behaviors during classroom interactions. It focuses on assessing teacher-student communication and instructional strategies through predefined categories, providing a nuanced understanding of teaching dynamics.

Interaction's Meaning:

• Active Participation: Interaction, as per Flanders' analysis, involves the active participation of both teachers and students.
• Behavioral Dynamics: It encompasses specific behaviors beyond mere presence, emphasizing the dynamic nature of engagement.

Teacher Evaluating Students:

• Focus on Instruction: Flanders' Interaction Analysis does not involve teachers evaluating students through assignments.
• Instructional Interaction: It primarily centers on understanding and categorizing instructional interactions, not assessing individual student performance.

Effectiveness Assessment:

• Observation and Categorization: Flanders' method helps assess whether a teacher is effective by observing and categorizing interactions.
• Insights into Teaching Dynamics: It provides valuable insights into how teachers influence students through various means like lectures, questioning, criticism, and directions.

Teacher Influencing Students:

• Diverse Methods: Flanders' analysis acknowledges that teachers influence students through various instructional methods.
• Holistic Effectiveness: This contributes to the overall effectiveness of teaching, including methods like lectures, questioning, criticism, and giving directions.

Thus, it is concluded that the teacher evaluates the students through assignments is not true in the case of Flander's Interaction analysis.

Q66: The foundational principles of cost benefit analysis in education includes:
 (A) Explicit Valuation
 (B) Intrinsic Value of Freedom
 (C) Consequential Evaluation
 (D) Pricing the Intangible
 (E) Additive Accounting
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (C) Only

(b) (A) & (B) Only

(c) (A), (C) & (E) Only

(d) (B), (C) & (D) Only

Ans: c

Sol: Education is a systematic process of acquiring knowledge, skills, values, and attitudes that contribute to the intellectual, social, and emotional development of individuals. It plays a vital role in personal growth, societal progress, and the cultivation of critical thinking.
Cost-benefit analysis in education is an evaluative framework used to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of educational programs, policies, or investments. It involves weighing the costs incurred against the benefits gained to determine whether a particular educational initiative is worthwhile. This analysis aids decision-makers in optimizing resource allocation and ensuring that investments in education yield positive outcomes.

Foundational Principles: The foundational principles of cost-benefit analysis in education are:

Explicit Valuation:

• Meaning: Explicit valuation involves assigning a measurable value to both the costs and benefits associated with an educational intervention. This includes quantifying financial investments, time commitments, and the various outcomes or improvements expected from the intervention.
• Significance: By assigning explicit values, decision-makers can conduct a quantitative analysis, facilitating an objective comparison between different educational programs. This clarity aids in making informed decisions about resource allocation, enabling prioritization based on cost-effectiveness.

Consequential Evaluation:

• Meaning: Consequential evaluation entails assessing the direct and indirect consequences of an educational program or policy. It involves a thorough examination of both the intended outcomes and any unintended effects that may arise from the intervention.
• Significance: This principle ensures a comprehensive understanding of the broader impact of an educational initiative. Decision-makers can anticipate potential consequences, fostering a proactive approach to addressing both positive and negative outcomes, thus enhancing the overall effectiveness of educational interventions.

Additive Accounting:

• Meaning: Additive accounting involves summing up all relevant costs and benefits associated with an educational intervention to arrive at a net value. This includes not only the financial aspects but also non-monetary factors contributing to the overall value
• Significance: By employing additive accounting, decision-makers can conduct a holistic evaluation. This method facilitates a clear and concise assessment, allowing for straightforward comparisons between different educational options. It helps in prioritizing initiatives that offer the most significant overall value and impact.

Thus, it is concluded that the oundational principles of cost benefit analysis in education includes Explicit Valuation, Consequential Evaluation,and Additive Accounting.

Other Related Points

• Intrinsic Value of Freedom: Refers to the inherent worth of freedom within education, recognizing it as a fundamental and invaluable aspect that goes beyond measurable metrics.
• Pricing the Intangible: Involves assigning a value to intangible factors in education, such as creativity or critical thinking, enabling a more comprehensive cost-benefit analysis.

Q67: Which of the following is most important for inclusive teaching-learning? 

(a) educational Technology

(b) instructional Technology

(c) collaborative technology

(d) communication technology

Ans: c

Sol: Inclusive teaching-learning refers to an educational approach that embraces diversity and accommodates the needs of all learners, irrespective of their abilities, backgrounds, or differences. It aims to provide equitable opportunities and access to education, fostering a supportive and accepting learning environment.

Collaborative technology plays a pivotal role in creating an inclusive teaching-learning environment by providing tools and resources that cater to the diverse needs of learners and foster a sense of belonging and engagement.

Accessibility and Flexibility:

• Collaborative technology ensures accessibility for diverse learners, allowing them to engage with content in various ways based on their needs.
• It provides flexibility, enabling students to access resources and collaborate in a manner that suits their learning preferences.

Enhanced Engagement:

• Technology facilitates interactive and engaging learning experiences, catering to different learning styles and preferences.
• Collaborative tools promote active participation, discussion, and knowledge-sharing among students.

Personalized Learning:

• Adaptive technology allows for personalized learning experiences, adjusting content and pacing to meet individual learner needs.
• It supports differentiated instruction, addressing diverse abilities within the same learning environment.

Global Connection:

• Collaborative technology breaks down geographical barriers, connecting learners globally and exposing them to diverse perspectives.
• It promotes cultural awareness and inclusivity by facilitating interactions among students from various backgrounds.

Inclusive Assessments:

• Technology enables the creation of inclusive assessments, accommodating different learning styles and providing varied formats for evaluations.
• Collaborative assessment tools promote teamwork and peer learning, fostering a supportive assessment environment.

Professional Development:

• Collaborative technology supports teacher collaboration and professional development, enhancing their capacity to create inclusive learning experiences.
• Educators can share resources, strategies, and best practices for inclusive teaching through online platforms.

Thus, it is concluded that the collaborative technology is most important for inclusive teaching-learning.

Other Related Points

Educational Technology:

• Broadly applies technology to enhance the overall learning experience.
• Incorporates various tools and resources to support educational objectives.

Instructional Technology:

• Focuses on designing and implementing effective teaching methods.
• Utilizes technology to enhance instructional materials and strategies.

Communication Technology:

• Facilitates information exchange in educational settings.
• Includes tools like video conferencing and messaging platforms.
• Enhances communication and collaboration among educators and learners.

Q68: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Psychomotor domain of learning helps the children to acquire skills on certain aspects to create something by their own.
Reason (R): Psychomotor domain of learning is very much linked with cognitive and affective domains as it helps the children to understand the concept and to develop a right attitude for working on that concept for developing skills.
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Ans: a

Sol: The psychomotor domain of learning refers to the development of physical skills and coordination. It involves the acquisition of motor skills, including both fine and gross motor skills, as well as the ability to manipulate and control objects. This domain is essential for children to engage in activities that require physical dexterity and coordination.

• Assertion (A) states that the psychomotor domain of learning helps children acquire skills in certain aspects to create something on their own. This refers to the psychomotor domain, one of the three domains in Bloom's Taxonomy of Learning, which focuses on physical and motor skills development.
• Reason (R) asserts that the psychomotor domain of learning is closely linked with the cognitive and affective domains. It suggests that this learning domain not only involves the development of physical skills but is also connected to cognitive understanding and affective aspects like attitudes and values.

Assertion (A): The psychomotor domain of learning helps children acquire skills in certain aspects to create something on their own.

• In educational psychology, the psychomotor domain is associated with the development of physical skills and coordination. This domain is about the ability to physically manipulate objects and perform motor skills. When children engage in activities that involve the psychomotor domain, they are likely to acquire skills related to physical movements, coordination, and the ability to create tangible things. For example, activities like drawing, crafting, playing musical instruments, or participating in sports all involve the psychomotor domain.

Reason (R): Psychomotor domain of learning is very much linked with cognitive and affective domains as it helps children understand the concept and develop the right attitude for working on that concept for developing skills.

• The Reason suggests that the psychomotor domain is not isolated but interconnected with the cognitive and affective domains. While the psychomotor domain primarily deals with physical skills, its effective development often requires cognitive understanding and the right attitude. For instance, in learning to play a musical instrument, a child not only needs to physically manipulate the instrument (psychomotor) but also understand musical concepts (cognitive) and develop a positive attitude towards practice and improvement (affective).

Thus, it is concluded that Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q69: Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The teacher should use a wide variety of online assessment tools and techniques to assess children
Reason (R): No single online tool is capable of providing information about a child's progress and learning in different areas of development
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Ans: a

Sol: Assessment tools in education are instruments or methods used to gather information about a student's knowledge, skills, and abilities. In the context of online education, these tools can include quizzes, tests, surveys, interactive assignments, and various digital platforms designed to evaluate students' understanding and progress.

Assertion (A): Teachers should use a wide variety of online assessment tools and techniques to assess children.

• This assertion highlights the importance of employing diverse online assessment tools and techniques.
• It recognizes that a range of digital instruments allows teachers to gain a comprehensive understanding of students' learning styles, strengths, and areas that may need improvement.
• The use of various tools enhances the accuracy and richness of assessment data.

Reason (R): No single online tool is capable of providing information about a child's progress and learning in different areas of development.

• The reason justifies the assertion by emphasizing that no single online tool can comprehensively capture a child's progress across various domains of development.
• Students possess diverse skills and learning needs, and using a variety of assessment tools ensures a more holistic evaluation, considering different facets of their cognitive, emotional, and social development.

In summary, both the assertion and reason are correct. The assertion underscores the need for a diverse set of online assessment tools, and the reason logically explains this by highlighting the limitations of relying on a single tool to capture the multifaceted nature of a child's progress and learning across different developmental areas.

Thus, it is concluded that Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q70: Match List - I with List - II. Match the following:

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

(b) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

(c) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Ans: c

Sol: Addressing unique aspects of individual well-being, from anxiety reduction and assertive expression to managing social behavior and stress reduction. These models offer comprehensive approaches to enhance mental and social functioning, contributing to overall personal development.

Anxiety Reduction aligns with the substitution of relaxation for anxiety in social situations.

• Anxiety Reduction models are tailored to address the challenges individuals face in managing and mitigating anxiety, particularly in social contexts.
• The primary goal of this model is to facilitate the substitution of relaxation for anxiety. Individuals are equipped with various techniques and strategies to replace anxious responses with a more relaxed state, promoting a sense of calmness and ease in social situations.
• By fostering a shift in emotional and physiological reactions, these models aim to empower individuals to navigate social interactions with increased confidence and reduced anxiety.

Assertive Training aligns with Direct, spontaneous expression of feeling in social situations.

• Assertive Training models focus on enhancing individuals' communication skills, specifically emphasizing the direct and spontaneous expression of feelings in social situations.
• The goal is to empower individuals to express themselves assertively, allowing them to communicate their thoughts, needs, and emotions openly and effectively.
• Through structured training programs, individuals learn to navigate social interactions with confidence, assertiveness, and clarity, contributing to improved interpersonal relationships and self-advocacy.

Managing Behavior aligns with Social behavior skills.

• Managing Behavior models aim to improve an individual's overall social competence by targeting social behaviors and skills.
• The emphasis is on developing effective interpersonal communication, understanding social cues, and mastering appropriate social behaviors.
• These models provide individuals with tools and strategies to navigate diverse social scenarios, fostering positive interactions and relationships in various contexts.

Relaxation aligns with the Reduction of stress.

• Relaxation models are designed to address the pervasive issue of stress by equipping individuals with techniques to induce a state of relaxation.
• The primary goal is the reduction of stress through practices such as deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, or mindfulness.
• By incorporating these relaxation techniques into daily routines, individuals can effectively manage stress levels, promoting a sense of well-being and mental calmness.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV).

Q71: Erotetic teaching depends on the following form of central educational technique. 

(a) Questioning

(b) Home Work

(c) Activity

(d) Lecture

Ans: a

Sol: An educational technique refers to a specific approach or method employed in the process of teaching and learning. It encompasses the strategies, tools, and practices used by educators to impart knowledge, foster understanding, and promote the development of skills in students. These techniques are designed to create effective and engaging learning experiences, considering the diverse needs and learning styles of students.

Erotetic teaching is centered around the art of effective speaking and persuasive communication. The central educational technique that underlies Erotetic teaching is questioning. This means that rather than relying solely on traditional lecture-based methods, the instructor employs a series of well-crafted questions to engage students in active thinking and participation.

• Promotion of Critical Thinking: Erotetic teaching emphasizes the development of critical thinking skills. Through thought-provoking questions, students are encouraged to analyze information, evaluate arguments, and form their own opinions.
• Engagement and Interaction: Questions serve as a tool to actively involve students in the learning process. Instead of passively receiving information, students participate in discussions, express their thoughts, and engage with the subject matter.
• Effective Communication Skills: Erotetic teaching aims to enhance students' communication skills. By responding to questions, students practice articulating their ideas clearly and persuasively, preparing them for effective public speaking.
• Adaptation to Audience: Questions allow the instructor to gauge the understanding of the audience and adapt the teaching approach accordingly. This dynamic interaction ensures that the material is tailored to the student's needs and level of comprehension.
• Fostering a Socratic Dialogue: Erotetic teaching often incorporates elements of the Socratic method, where questions are used to guide students through a process of inquiry and self-discovery. This method encourages deeper understanding and critical reflection.
• Building Confidence: Through answering questions and participating in discussions, students develop confidence in expressing their ideas. This confidence is vital for effective oratory skills, as it translates into the ability to speak convincingly in various contexts.
• Active Learning Environment: The use of questioning transforms the classroom into an active learning environment. Students become active contributors to the learning process, creating a more engaging and participatory educational experience.
• Encouragement of Curiosity: Questions stimulate curiosity and a desire to explore topics further. This helps cultivate a love for learning and encourages students to inquire beyond the surface level of information.
• Real-world Application:  Erotetic teaching with a focus on questioning prepares students for real-world scenarios where effective communication and critical thinking are essential skills.

Thus, it is concluded that the Erotetic teaching depends on the Questioning form of central educational technique.

Q72: Which of the following is not considered a social function of schooling by the De-schooling movement? 

(a) custody

(b) social role selection

(c) heresy

(d) social change

Ans: d

Sol: De-schooling, as conceptualized by Ivan Illich in his book "Deschooling Society," challenges the traditional structures and functions of formal education. It proposes a radical rethinking of how society approaches learning, advocating for learner-centered, decentralized, and community-based alternatives to institutionalized schooling.

The De-schooling movement's importance lies in challenging traditional education models, advocating for learner-centered alternatives, and promoting decentralized, community-based learning. It sparks critical discussions on the limitations of institutionalized schooling, fostering a reevaluation of educational paradigms. The movement encourages a shift towards more flexible, personalized, and empowering approaches to education.

Custody:

• De-schooling Perspective: Acknowledges that traditional schooling often serves a custodial function, providing a supervised environment for children while parents work.
• Critique: Questions whether the custodial role should be a primary focus of education and advocates for alternative arrangements that separate education from mere childcare.

Social Role Selection:

• De-schooling Perspective: Recognizes that traditional schooling plays a role in socializing individuals and preparing them for specific societal roles and professions.
• Critique: Challenges the rigid nature of these roles, suggesting that individuals should have more autonomy in determining their paths and not be confined to predefined societal expectations.

Heresy:

• De-schooling Perspective: Embraces unconventional and non-conformist ideas, rejecting the orthodoxy of traditional education.
• Critique: Encourages the exploration of alternative educational approaches that challenge established norms, fostering creativity and diverse ways of thinking.

Social Change:

• De-schooling Perspective: Advocates for education to go beyond socialization and actively contribute to meaningful social change.
• Critique: While traditional schooling may have a socialization function, the De-schooling movement questions the effectiveness of formal education in fostering substantial social transformation. It encourages a shift from a focus on conformity to a focus on fostering critical thinking and empowering individuals to contribute to positive societal changes.

Thus, it is concluded that the social change is not considered a social function of schooling by the De-schooling movement.

Q73: Which of the following are 'Astik' schools of Indian philosophy?
 (A) Buddhism
 (B) Jainism
 (C) Samkhya
 (D) Nyaya
 (E) Charvak
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) and (B) Only

(b) (A), (B) and (E) Only

(c) (C) and (A) Only

(d) (C) and (D) Only

Ans: d

Sol: Philosophy, in a broad sense, refers to the systematic study of fundamental questions regarding existence, knowledge, values, reason, mind, and language. In the context of Indian philosophy, it encompasses diverse schools of thought with unique perspectives on these fundamental aspects.

Understanding the classification of Indian philosophies into Astik and Nastik schools provides insights into the diverse perspectives on metaphysics, epistemology, and the nature of reality in the Indian philosophical tradition. Samkhya and Nyayaa are considered 'Astik' schools of Indian philosophy:

Samkhya:

• Cosmology: Samkhya is a dualistic philosophy that posits the existence of two fundamental principles - purusha (consciousness) and Prakriti (matter).
• Eternal Principles: It acknowledges the eternal nature of Purusha and Prakriti, which are considered independent and coexisting entities.
• Lack of Personal God: While Samkhya doesn't necessarily posit a personal god, it recognizes a cosmic order governed by the interplay of purusha and Prakriti.
• Astik Status: Samkhya is considered 'Astik' because it accepts the authority of the Vedas, one of the defining characteristics of Astika philosophies.

Nyayaa:

• Logical and Epistemological Focus: Nyayaa is a school of logic and epistemology that emphasizes reasoning and systematic thinking.
• Recognition of Ishvara: Nyayaa acknowledges the existence of a supreme soul or Ishvara, providing a theistic foundation to its philosophy.
• Authority of Vedas: Like other 'Astik' schools, Nyayaa recognizes and accepts the authority of the Vedas.
• Ethical and Juridical Aspect: Nyayaa also provides a framework for ethical conduct and has a juridical aspect, contributing to the understanding of dharma (duty) and justice.

Other Options:

• Buddhism: Buddhism is 'Nastik' as it rejects the authority of the Vedas and denies the existence of an eternal self (anatta).
• Jainism: Jainism is 'Nastik' because it doesn't accept the Vedas as authoritative and rejects the idea of a creator God.
• Charvak: Charvaka is a materialistic and atheistic philosophy, denying the existence of gods and the supernatural. It rejects the Vedas and is therefore 'Nastik.'

Thus, it is concluded that the 'Astik' schools of Indian philosophy are Samkhya and Nyaya.

Q74: According to WHO statistics (2011) arrange the following from most prevalent to least prevalent communication related disabilities:
 (A) Communication related Disabilities
 (B) Mobility related Disabilities
 (C) Hearing related Disabilities
 (D) Vision related Disabilities
 (E) Cognition related Disabilities
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (E), (A), (C), (D), (B)

(b) (B), (D), (C), (A), (E)

(c) (A), (C), (E), (B), (D)

(d) (C), (A), (B), (E), (D)

Ans: b

Sol: Disabilities refer to impairments, limitations, or restrictions in the ability to perform activities resulting from a combination of physical, sensory, cognitive, and environmental factors.

Individuals with disabilities often face societal prejudice, leading to exclusion and discrimination. Physical and attitudinal barriers limit access to education, employment, and public spaces. Many with disabilities encounter difficulties in securing employment, facing financial constraints.The correct arrangement is (B), (D), (C), (A), (E), reflecting the order of prevalence for different types of disabilities according to WHO statistics (2011).

Mobility-related Disabilities:

• Prevalence: Mobility-related disabilities, affecting movement and physical functioning, are considered more prevalent.
• Global Impact: Issues such as paralysis, and musculoskeletal disorders contribute significantly to the overall prevalence.

Vision-related Disabilities:

• Prevalence: Vision-related disabilities, encompassing visual impairments or blindness, are slightly less prevalent than mobility-related disabilities.
• Impact on Individuals: Conditions like blindness have significant individual implications but are slightly less common at a global level.

Hearing-related Disabilities:

• Prevalence: Hearing-related disabilities, including deafness or hearing impairments, follow in prevalence.
• Global Significance: While impactful, the global prevalence is lower compared to mobility and vision-related disabilities.

Communication-related Disabilities:

• Prevalence: Communication-related disabilities, affecting speech, language, and communication, are considered less prevalent globally.
• Diverse Conditions: Encompasses various conditions impacting communication abilities, but overall prevalence is lower.

Cognition-related Disabilities:

• Prevalence: Cognition-related disabilities, affecting intellectual functioning and mental processes, are considered the least prevalent globally.
• Diverse Spectrum: Conditions such as intellectual disabilities contribute to this category, but they are relatively less widespread.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (B), (D), (C), (A), (E).

Q75: According to Thurston, the primary factor of intelligence is:
(A) Spatial ability
 (B) Associative memory
 (C) Problem solving
 (D) Perception speed
 (E) Reasoning
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Only (B)

(b) Only (A) and (C)

(c) Only (A) and (E)

(d) Only (E)

Ans: d

Sol: Intelligence refers to the ability to learn, reason, solve problems, comprehend complex ideas, and adapt effectively to the environment. It encompasses a range of cognitive functions and skills.

Louis Leon Thurstone was a prominent psychologist known for his work in psychometrics. He proposed a multifactor theory of intelligence, suggesting that intelligence comprises multiple distinct factors rather than being a single, unitary trait.

Primary Factor of Intelligence (Thurstone):

• Thurstone's Theory: Thurstone identified several primary mental abilities or factors contributing to intelligence.
• Reasoning as Primary: Among these factors, reasoning is considered a primary factor in Thurstone's model.

Thurstone's Multifactor Model:

• Seven Primary Factors: Thurstone proposed seven primary mental abilities, including verbal comprehension, word fluency, and perceptual speed.
• Interconnected Factors: Each factor contributes to overall intelligence, emphasizing a broader understanding of cognitive abilities.

Importance of Reasoning:

• Central Role: Reasoning involves the ability to think logically, make connections, and draw conclusions, making it a central aspect of intelligence.
• Problem-Solving Component: Thurstone's model recognizes problem-solving as part of reasoning but extends beyond it.

Holistic View of Intelligence:

• Contrast to Unitary Models: Thurstone's theory contrasts with unitary models of intelligence, highlighting the multidimensional nature of cognitive abilities.
• Influence: His work has influenced subsequent theories and assessments of intelligence.

Important Points

Options Analysis:

• Spatial Ability (Not Primary): While important, spatial ability is not the primary factor in Thurstone's theory.
• Associative Memory (Not Primary): Thurstone's factors go beyond memory to encompass diverse cognitive abilities.
• Problem-Solving (Not Solely Primary): Problem-solving is a component, but Thurstone's model highlights multiple factors.
• Perception Speed (Not Primary): Speed is a factor, but it is not Thurstone's primary focus.
• Reasoning (Primary Factor): Thurstone emphasized reasoning as a foundational element of intelligence.

Thus, it is concluded that the According to Thurston, the primary factor of intelligence is Reasoning.

Q76: Which one is an example of learning management systems:
 (A) Moodle
 (B) Canvas
 (C) Edupuzzle
 (D) Schoology
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A), (C), (B) Only

(b) (A), (B), (D) Only

(c) (C), (A), (D) Only

(d) (B), (C), (D) Only

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is (A), (B), (D) Only

Note:- There was a mistake in the question in the official paper, The question was 'Which one is not an example of learning management systems' as per the official answer key it is updated to 'Which one is an example of learning management systems'.

Learning Management Systems (LMS) are digital platforms designed to manage and deliver educational content. They facilitate online learning, course administration, and assessment.

Moodle:

• Definition: Moodle is an open-source learning platform, widely used for creating online courses and managing educational content.
• LMS Feature: Offers a comprehensive set of tools for course management, collaboration, and assessment.

Canvas:

• Definition: Canvas is a cloud-based LMS known for its user-friendly interface and comprehensive tools for course delivery and assessment.
• LMS Feature: Provides a platform for creating, delivering, and managing online courses.

Schoology:

• Definition: Schoology is an LMS that provides tools for course management, collaboration, and assessment.
• LMS Feature: Supports the creation and delivery of online courses, along with features for communication and evaluation.

Thus, it is concluded that Moodle, Canvas, and Schoology is an example of learning management systems.

Other Related Points

Edupuzzle: Not an Example of Learning Management Systems

• Specialized Focus: Edupuzzle specializes in interactive video lessons, offering a more targeted educational tool.
• Video-Centric Functionality: Edupuzzle is tailored specifically for enhancing video-based educational content. Its functionalities cater to interactive engagement within video lessons.
• Limited Comprehensive Features: Edupuzzle's features are more limited in scope, focusing primarily on video-related interactions.
• Distinct Educational Purpose: Edupuzzle's role is more specialized, serving educators who prioritize interactive video content, making it a unique tool that deviates from the broader functionalities associated with traditional LMS platforms.

Q77: Which of the following cannot be associated with 'discipline' 

(a) authority

(b) punishment

(c) reward

(d) child centredness

Ans: d

Sol: Discipline refers to a set of rules, behaviors, and expectations designed to promote order, control, and proper conduct within a group, organization, or individual.

Authority, punishment, and reward are aspects often associated with discipline, child-centeredness is distinct as it leans more toward individualization and tailoring approaches to the unique needs and interests of each child. Balancing these elements is crucial for creating an effective and inclusive disciplinary environment.

Authority (Can be Associated with Discipline):

• Explanation: Authority is often linked to discipline as it involves the power to enforce rules and ensure compliance.
• Role in Discipline: In disciplinary contexts, authority figures establish and enforce rules to maintain order.

Punishment (Can be Associated with Discipline):

• Explanation: Punishment is a disciplinary measure used to deter undesirable behavior by imposing negative consequences.
• Disciplinary Tool: In many disciplinary systems, punishments serve as a deterrent and corrective measure.

Reward (Can be Associated with Discipline):

• Explanation: Rewards are positive reinforcements used to encourage desired behavior.
• Disciplinary Strategy: Discipline can involve a combination of positive reinforcement, such as rewards, to shape behavior.

Child-Centeredness (Cannot be Directly Associated with Discipline):

• Explanation: Child-centeredness emphasizes catering to the individual needs and interests of the child.
• Discipline vs. Individualization: While discipline involves setting consistent rules, child-centeredness may focus more on tailoring approaches to each child's unique characteristics.

Important Points Points of Consideration:

Balancing Discipline and Individualization:

• Discipline: Involves establishing rules and expectations for behavior.
• Child-Centeredness: Focuses on adapting teaching methods to meet individual needs.

Discipline as a Framework:

• Authority, Punishment, Reward: These elements are part of the disciplinary framework that maintains order and guides behavior.

Holistic Approach:

• Effective Discipline: Effective discipline considers both the need for structure and the recognition of individual differences.

Thus, it is concluded that the child-centredness cannot be associated with 'discipline'.

Q78: In Blake and Manton's managerial grid, arrange the following styles of leadership from least to greatest importance in concern for people:
 (A) Country Club Management
 (B) Power and obedience management
 (C) Poor management
 (D) Team management
 (E) Middle way management=
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (C), (D), (B), (A), (E)

(b) (D), (A), (B), (C), (E)

(c) (B), (E), (C), (A), (D)

(d) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)

Ans: c

Sol: Leadership is the process of influencing and guiding individuals or a group toward achieving common goals. Different leadership styles emphasize varying approaches to tasks and relationships with team members.

The managerial grid, developed by Robert R. Blake and Jane S. Mouton, is a framework that evaluates leadership styles based on two behavioral dimensions: concern for people and concern for production. The grid consists of five leadership styles located at different points on a graph.

Leadership Styles:

• Country Club Management: This style places high importance on people and low on production.
• Power and Obedience Management: Emphasizes high production with low concern for people.
• Poor Management: Reflects low concern for both people and production.
• Team Management: Balances high concern for both people and production.
• Middle Way Management: This represents a moderate concern for both dimensions.

Concern for People:

• Power and Obedience: This style prioritizes tasks and authority over the well-being of individuals.
• Middle Way Management: Represents a balanced approach, demonstrating moderate concern for both tasks and people.
• Poor Management: Displays low concern for people and tasks, indicating a lack of attention to both.

Arrangement from Least to Greatest Importance:

• Power and Obedience: This style is positioned as least concerned for people, focusing more on tasks.
• Middle Way Management: This represents a balanced approach, placing it in the middle of the concern for people spectrum.
• Poor Management: Reflects low concern for both people and tasks.
• Country Club Management: Emphasizes people over tasks, placing it higher in concern for people.
• Team Management: This style is positioned as having the greatest concern for people while maintaining a focus on tasks.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (B), (E), (C), (A), (D).

Q79: Match List - I with List - II.

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(c) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(d) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Ans: b

Sol: Emotional Intelligence refers to the ability to recognize, understand, manage, a nd effectively use one's own emotions and navigate social interactions empathetically. It encompasses self-awareness, self-regulation, motivation, empathy, and social skills. Emotions are complex psychological states that involve subjective experiences, physiological responses, and expressive behaviors. They play a crucial role in human behavior, influencing decision-making, interpersonal relationships, and overall well-being.

Emotional Intelligence: Why It Can Matter More Than IQ (Goleman, D.):

• Book Significance: Daniel Goleman's book explores the significance of emotional intelligence and argues that it can be more crucial than traditional intelligence (IQ) in personal and professional success.
• Author Significance: Daniel Goleman is a psychologist and science journalist, known for popularizing the concept of emotional intelligence.

Emotion, Obesity, and Crime (Schachter, S.):

• Book Significance: Schachter's work likely delves into the connections between emotions, obesity, and crime, exploring the psychological aspects of these phenomena.
• Author Significance: Stanley Schachter, a prominent social psychologist, made significant contributions to the understanding of emotions and social behavior

Emotion In Man and Animal (Young, P.T.):

• Book Significance: Young's book likely examines the similarities and differences in the expression of emotions between humans and animals.
• Author Significance: Paul Thomas Young was a psychologist and ethologist known for his research on the physiology and expression of emotions in humans and animals.
• The Expression of the Emotions in Man and Animals (Darwin C):

Book Significance: Charles Darwin's seminal work explores the expression and evolution of emotions in both humans and animals.

• Author Significance: Charles Darwin, a renowned naturalist, made groundbreaking contributions to evolutionary theory and the understanding of emotions.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).

Q80: Match the following with List - I and List - II

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(b) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(c) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Ans: c

Sol: Sampling is the process of selecting a subset, or sample, from a larger population to represent and draw inferences about the entire population. It is a practical approach used in research to study the characteristics of a group when studying the entire population is impractical.

The correct matching is (A - IV), (B - III), (C - II), (D - I), aligning the concepts of different sampling methods, purposes, and the fundamental difference between population parameters and sample statistics.

Stratified Random Sampling:

• Meaning: Involves dividing the population into distinct strata and then randomly selecting samples from each stratum.
• Significance: Enhances representativeness by ensuring proportional representation from different subgroups, minimizing variability.
• Application: Useful when there is heterogeneity within the population, allowing for a more nuanced analysis.

Purposive Sampling:

• Meaning: Deliberately selecting specific participants based on predefined criteria relevant to the research objectives.
• Significance: Enables researchers to target participants with specific characteristics or experiences crucial to the study.
• Application: Commonly used in qualitative research or when studying unique or specific populations.

A Representative Proportion of the Population:

• Meaning: Ensuring the sample accurately mirrors the key characteristics and proportions of the larger population.
• Significance: Enhances the generalizability of research findings to the entire population.
• Application: Essential in quantitative research to draw meaningful conclusions about the broader population.

Difference Between the Estimate of Parameter and Statistics:

• Meaning: The disparity between the numerical values calculated from a sample (statistics) and the corresponding values in the entire population (parameter).
• Significance: Reflects the potential margin of error, crucial in understanding the accuracy of research findings.
• Application: Central to inferential statistics, guiding researchers in making predictions about the larger population based on sample data.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).

Q81: Identify situations involving synchronous and asynchronous communication:
 (A) Talking to someone in room
 (B) Viewing e-mail
 (C) Reading e-mail
 (D) Participating in web conferencing
 Select the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) Synchronous (A), (D) Non-synchronous (B), (C)

(b) Synchronous (A), (B) Non-synchronous (D), (C)

(c) Synchronous (C), (A) Non-synchronous (D), (B)

(d) Synchronous (B), (C) Non-synchronous (A), (D)

Ans: a

Sol: Communication is the exchange of information, ideas, or messages between individuals or groups. It can occur through various channels, including verbal, written, or visual means, and can be synchronous or asynchronous.

Synchronous Communication:

Meaning: Synchronous communication happens in real-time, where participants interact simultaneously.

Examples: Conversations, phone calls, video conferencing, and instant messaging.

Characteristics:

• Immediate Interaction: Participants engage in direct and immediate conversation.
• Real-Time Feedback: Feedback is received instantly, allowing for quick responses.
• Coordination: Well-suited for collaborative and coordinated efforts.

Asynchronous Communication:

Meaning: Asynchronous communication involves a time delay between the sending and receiving of messages.

Examples: Emails, forums, and social media posts.

Characteristics:

• Time Delay: Participants do not communicate in real-time; there is a delay in responses.
• Flexibility: Allows individuals to respond at their convenience, accommodating different schedules.
• Documented Communication: Messages are often documented, facilitating reference and reflection.

Important Points

Talking to someone in a room (Synchronous):

• Synchronous Nature: In-person conversations occur in real-time, making them synchronous.
• Immediate Interaction: Participants can respond immediately to each other.
• Coordination: Suited for direct and coordinated communication.

Viewing email (Asynchronous):

• Asynchronous Nature: Emails are asynchronous as there is a time delay between sending and receiving.
• Flexibility: Recipients can view emails at their convenience.
• Documented Communication: Emails provide a documented record of communication.

Reading email (Asynchronous):

• Asynchronous Nature: Reading emails involves a time-delayed interaction.
• Flexibility: Allows recipients to read and respond at their own pace.

Participating in web conferencing (Synchronous):

• Synchronous Nature: Web conferencing occurs in real time.
• Immediate Interaction: Participants can engage and interact simultaneously.
• Coordination: Well-suited for collaborative and coordinated efforts.

Thus, it is concluded that the Synchronous (A), (D) Non-synchronous (B), (C) is the correct answer.

Q82: Which policy suggested conferring autonomous status to SCERT, and NCTE and setting up a State Board of Teacher Education? 

(a) Programme of Action on NPE 1986

(b) National Policy on Education 1986

(c) National Education Policy 2020

(d) National Commission on Teacher 1983

Ans: a

Sol: Teacher education refers to the process of preparing individuals to become effective educators, providing them with the necessary knowledge, skills, and pedagogical insights to teach effectively. It involves formal training programs, often conducted in colleges, universities, or specialized institutions, to equip prospective teachers with the tools required for successful classroom instruction.

The Programme of Action (POA) was introduced as part of the National Policy on Education (NPE) in 1986, outlining strategies and measures for the effective implementation of educational reforms. As per the POA, conferring autonomous status to State Councils of Educational Research and Training (SCERT), National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), and establishing State Boards of Teacher Education were key recommendations.

Autonomous Status to SCERT:

• Empowerment: Granting autonomy to SCERT aimed at empowering these institutions to independently design, implement, and oversee teacher education programs.
• Flexibility: Autonomy allowed SCERT to adapt and modify curriculum, pedagogy, and assessment methods according to evolving educational needs.
• Quality Enhancement: The move was intended to enhance the quality of teacher education by fostering innovation and responsiveness to local educational challenges.

Autonomous Status to NCTE:

• Regulatory Authority: NCTE, as an autonomous body, gained increased regulatory authority over teacher education programs across the country.
• Standardization: Autonomy enabled NCTE to establish and enforce standards for teacher education institutions, ensuring a consistent and high-quality training experience.
• Accreditation: The NCTE could more effectively accredit teacher education institutions, contributing to the overall improvement of teacher training programs.

Setting up the State Board of Teacher Education:

• Localized Governance: State Boards of Teacher Education were established to facilitate localized governance and oversight of teacher education programs.
• Customization: These boards could tailor teacher education initiatives to the specific needs and context of each state, promoting contextual relevance.
• Quality Assurance: The establishment of state-level boards aimed at ensuring adherence to national standards while addressing state-specific educational challenges, thus contributing to overall quality assurance.

Thus, it is concluded that the Programme of Action on NPE 1986 suggested conferring autonomous status to SCERT, and NCTE and setting up a State Board of Teacher Education.

Other Related Points

• National Policy on Education 1986 (NPE 1986): Introduced comprehensive reforms in India's education system, emphasizing universalization of elementary education, adult literacy, and scientific and technological education.
• National Education Policy 2020 (NEP 2020): A transformative policy aiming at holistic development, flexibility in education, multidisciplinary approach, and global competitiveness through changes in curriculum, pedagogy, and assessment.
• National Commission on Teachers 1983 (NCT 1983): Formulated recommendations to address issues in teacher education, recruitment, and service conditions, emphasizing the role of teachers in shaping the education system.

Q83: Which of the following are methods of knowing according to Nyaya's philosophy?
 (A) Perception
 (B) Inference
 (C) Arthapatti
 (D) Smriti
 (E) Abhava
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (C) and (E) Only

(b) (C) and (D) Only

(c) (A) and (B) Only

(d) (B) and (E) Only

Ans: c

Sol: Philosophy is the systematic study of fundamental questions related to existence, knowledge, values, reason, mind, and language. It involves critical thinking, analysis, and reflection on these fundamental aspects of human experience.

Nyayaa is one of the six classical schools of Indian philosophy and is known for its systematic approach to logic and epistemology. It seeks to establish a methodical way of reasoning and gaining valid knowledge. Nyayaa addresses various aspects of life, knowledge, and reality, providing a structured framework for understanding the world.

Epistemology and Pramanas: 
Nyayaa places significant emphasis on epistemology, the study of knowledge. It recognizes various means of gaining knowledge known as "Pramanas."

Pramanas are methods of acquiring valid knowledge, and Nyayaa acknowledges several, including perception, inference, analogy, postulation, and non-apprehension.

Perception (Pratyaksha) - Method of Knowing:

• Perception, according to Nyayaa, is a direct and immediate means of knowledge. It involves the direct apprehension of objects through the senses.
• The Nyayaa school argues that perception provides trustworthy information about the external world, forming a foundation for other forms of knowledge.

Inference (Anumana) - Method of Knowing:

• Inference in Nyayaa involves a logical process where one derives new knowledge based on existing information and observable facts.
• Nyayaa philosophers have detailed discussions on the types of inferences, conditions for valid inference, and the importance of logical reasoning in acquiring knowledge.

Important Points The methods of knowing according to Nyayaa philosophy:

• Perception: Yes, perception is a fundamental method of knowing in Nyayaa philosophy. It is considered a direct and immediate means of acquiring knowledge about the external world.
• Inference: Yes, inference is another crucial method of knowing in Nyayaa philosophy. It involves logical reasoning and conclusions based on observed facts.
• Arthapatti: Arthapatti is also recognized in Nyayaa philosophy. It is a method involving postulation or presumption to reconcile contradictions when other means of knowledge are insufficient.
• Smriti: Smriti, or memory, is acknowledged in Nyayaa as a source of knowledge, allowing individuals to recollect past experiences and information stored in memory.
• Abhava: Abhava, or knowledge about non-existence, is also considered a valid means of knowing in Nyayaa philosophy.

Thus, it is concluded that Perception and Inference are methods of knowing according to Nyaya's philosophy

Other Related Point

Q84: The following is not a category of learning as per Gagne's classification of learning: 

(a) Stimulus Response Learning

(b) Chain Learning

(c) Ideational Learning

(d) Verbal Associate Learning

Ans: c

Sol: Learning is a complex and multifaceted process involving the acquisition of knowledge, skills, behaviors, or attitudes. It encompasses various cognitive, emotional, and behavioral changes resulting from experiences or interactions.
Robert Gagne, a psychologist and educational theorist, proposed a classification of learning outcomes, often referred to as the "Gagne's Hierarchy of Learning." The categories include:

• Stimulus-Response Learning: In this category, learning is associated with a direct response to external stimuli. It involves the acquisition of simple associations between stimuli and responses.
• Chain Learning: It involves the mastery of a series of discrete steps or components, where each step is dependent on the successful completion of the previous one. It is often associated with procedural or motor skills.
• Ideational Learning: It involves the understanding of concepts, principles, or theories. It focuses on the comprehension and application of abstract ideas and is typically associated with higher-order cognitive processes.
• Verbal Associate Learning: It revolves around the association of words or symbols with concepts. It includes tasks such as vocabulary acquisition, memorization, and the ability to recall information verbally.

Ideational Learning: It is not explicitly identified as a category in Gagne's hierarchy. However, the principles of ideational learning can be considered encompassed within Gagne's higher-order cognitive domains, such as intellectual skills and verbal information.

• Hierarchical Structure: Gagne's classification reflects a hierarchical structure, with each category building upon the previous one.
• Cognitive Complexity: As one progresses up the hierarchy, the cognitive complexity of the learning tasks increases, from simple stimulus-response associations to more complex ideational understanding.
• Application in Education: Gagne's model is often applied in educational settings to design instructional strategies tailored to the specific learning outcomes desired.
• Adaptability: The model allows educators to adapt teaching methods based on the nature of the learning objectives, promoting a more effective and targeted instructional approach.

Thus, it is concluded that Ideational Learning is not a category of learning as per Gagne's classification of learning.

Q85: “Assessment for learning” emphasizes which of the following? 

(a) assessment to enhance learning

(b) Assessment to determine mastery of subject matter

(c) Assessment for certification of learners

(d) Assessment to grade learners

Ans: a

Sol: Assessment is a systematic process of gathering, interpreting, and evaluating information or evidence about an individual's performance, knowledge, or skills. It is used to make informed judgments, support decision-making, and improve the learning or performance of the assessed entity.

Assessment for Learning is a dynamic, student-centric approach that prioritizes ongoing feedback, individualized support, and the cultivation of a positive learning environment. It positions assessment as a powerful tool for enhancing the learning process rather than merely measuring outcomes.

• Formative Nature: Assessment for learning is primarily formative, meaning it occurs during the learning process. It is designed to provide ongoing feedback and insights to both educators and learners, allowing for adjustments and improvements.
• Diagnostic Insights: It involves a diagnostic approach, aiming to understand individual learners' strengths, weaknesses, and areas that require further development. This diagnostic information informs instructional strategies.
• Continuous Feedback: Assessment for learning emphasizes the continuous provision of feedback to students, offering specific insights into their progress, areas of excellence, and areas needing improvement. This feedback is intended to guide future learning activities.
• Tailored Instruction: The information gathered through assessments helps educators tailor their instruction to meet the specific needs of each student. It allows for differentiated teaching strategies that cater to diverse learning styles and abilities.
• Student Involvement: Learners are actively involved in the assessment process, encouraged to self-reflect, and set goals for their improvement. This fosters a sense of ownership and responsibility for one's learning journey.
• Identifying Learning Gaps: Through ongoing assessments, educators can identify learning gaps or misconceptions early on, enabling timely interventions. This proactive approach ensures that learners receive the necessary support to overcome challenges.
• Adaptive Teaching Methods: Assessment for learning promotes adaptive teaching methods, where educators adjust their instructional strategies based on real-time feedback. This responsiveness ensures that teaching aligns with the evolving needs of the learners.
• Cultivating a Growth Mindset: By emphasizing improvement and progress over fixed outcomes, assessment for learning contributes to the cultivation of a growth mindset. Students are encouraged to view challenges as opportunities for growth and learning.

Thus, it is concluded that the “Assessment for learning” emphasizes assessment to enhance learning.

Q86: Disability refers to which of the following? 

(a) interference in perception

(b) interference at individual level

(c) interference in social functions

(d) interference medical conditions

Ans: b

Sol: Disability encompasses diverse conditions that may impair physical, cognitive, sensory, or mental functions, posing challenges to individuals' daily activities and participation in society. It is a multidimensional concept influenced by social, environmental, and individual factors.

Recognizing the multifaceted nature of disabilities at an individual level is crucial for developing inclusive policies, accommodations, and societal attitudes that promote equal opportunities and participation for everyone. Disability Refers to Interference at an Individual Level:

• Physical Impairments: Disabilities at an individual level can manifest as physical impairments, hindering mobility or affecting bodily functions.
• Cognitive Challenges: Interference may occur in cognitive abilities, impacting memory, learning, or problem-solving skills for individuals facing cognitive disabilities.
• Sensory Limitations: Disabilities may involve sensory limitations, affecting sight, hearing, or other sensory functions, and influencing how individuals interact with their environment.
• Mental Health Barriers: Mental health disabilities can lead to interference in emotional well-being, affecting mood, behavior, and overall mental health, impacting an individual's daily life.
• Barriers to Social Participation: Disabilities at an individual level can create barriers to social participation, limiting individuals' engagement in various activities, employment, or community interactions.
• Impact on Quality of Life: The interference associated with individual-level disability underscores the impact on an individual's overall quality of life, emphasizing the importance of inclusive practices and supportive environments.

Thus, it is concluded that the disability refers to interference at an individual level.

Q87: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Nai Talim was suggested by the Zakir Hussain Committee at Wardha
Statement II: Nai Talim suggested that all education must be in English to make independent citizens
 In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Ans: c

Sol: Nai Talim, also known as Basic Education, was a concept proposed by Mahatma Gandhi. It emphasized a holistic and experiential approach to education, integrating learning with productive work to cultivate not only intellectual but also moral and vocational skills. The goal was to create well-rounded individuals capable of contributing meaningfully to society.
Statement I: Nai Talim was suggested by the Zakir Hussain Committee at Wardha

• Origins in the Zakir Hussain Committee: Zakir Hussain was part of the Basic Education Committee in 1937, known as the Zakir Hussain Committee. This committee recommended the implementation of Nai Talim, aligning with Gandhi's vision.
• Foundation at Wardha: The Wardha Scheme of Education, developed during the Indian National Congress session in 1937, embraced Nai Talim's principles, advocating for a system that harmonized intellectual and practical education.
• Holistic Educational Approach: Nai Talim aimed to break down the traditional barriers between education and productive work, emphasizing a balanced development of cognitive, moral, and vocational skills.
• Focus on Indigenous Crafts: The Wardha Scheme stressed the importance of indigenous crafts as a means of fostering self-reliance and preserving cultural skills, aligning with Gandhi's vision of education.

Statement II: Nai Talim suggested that all education must be in English to make independent citizens

• Incorrect Assertion: The statement is incorrect. Nai Talim, as envisioned by Gandhi, did not advocate for exclusive English education. Instead, it promoted vernacular languages and a connection with local culture and traditions.
• Emphasis on Vernacular Languages: Nai Talim emphasized the use of vernacular languages to make education more accessible and relevant to the masses, fostering a sense of cultural identity.
• Inclusivity and Community Participation: The philosophy of Nai Talim focused on inclusivity and community participation, aiming to create independent citizens with a strong connection to their roots.
• Experiential Learning and Self-Reliance: Gandhi's vision encouraged experiential learning and self-reliance, valuing practical skills alongside academic knowledge, but the language of instruction was not specified as exclusively English.

Important Points Conclusion: While Statement I accurately associates Nai Talim with the recommendations of the Zakir Hussain Committee at Wardha, Statement II is incorrect, as Nai Talim did not propose exclusive English education but rather a holistic and culturally rooted educational system.

Thus, it is concluded that Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Q88: Which of the following is not an aspect of the 4P model of creativity as given by Rhodes? 

(a) Person

(b) Peers

(c) Process

(d) Press

Ans: b

Sol: J.M. Rhodes, a psychologist, and scholar, made significant contributions to the understanding of creativity. In the context of creativity, it refers to the ability to produce novel and valuable ideas or solutions. Rhodes developed the 4P model to provide a framework for comprehensively understanding the various dimensions of creativity.

The 4P Model of Creativity, developed by James M. Rhodes, encompasses Person, Process, Product, and Press as key dimensions. It examines individual traits (Person), the steps and stages of creative thinking (Process), tangible outcomes (Product), and external environmental influences (Press). The person delves into the individual's characteristics, the Process explores the creative stages, the Product evaluates the creative outcomes, and the Press considers external factors shaping creativity. This model provides a comprehensive framework for understanding and fostering creativity by acknowledging the multifaceted aspects involved in the creative process.

Person (Individual):

• This aspect focuses on the characteristics, traits, and skills of the individual. It considers personal qualities such as openness, curiosity, and expertise as contributors to creative thinking.
• Example: A person's knowledge, experiences, and mindset influence their ability to generate creative ideas.

Process:

• The process dimension refers to the specific steps and stages involved in creative thinking and problem-solving. It examines how individuals approach and navigate the creative process.
• Example: Brainstorming, divergent thinking, and convergent thinking are processes integral to creative problem-solving.

Product:

• The product dimension concerns the tangible outcomes of the creative process, such as innovative ideas, inventions, or artistic expressions. It assesses the novelty and usefulness of the created work.
• Example: A groundbreaking invention, a unique piece of art, or an innovative solution to a problem.

Press (Environment):

• Press, or environment, explores the external factors that influence creativity. It considers the impact of social, cultural, and organizational contexts on an individual's creative abilities.
• Example: Supportive work environments, diverse cultural influences, and collaborative settings can enhance or hinder creative expression.

Important Points

• Unlike the other 4Ps, "Place" is not a distinct aspect in Rhodes' 4P model of creativity. However, it is worth noting that the environmental factor, under "Press," encompasses the broader concept of the physical and social context where creativity occurs.
• Rhodes' 4P model provides a comprehensive framework for understanding creativity by examining individual attributes, the creative process, the outcomes, and the external influences that shape creative endeavors.

Thus, it is concluded that the Peers is not an aspect of the 4P model of creativity as given by Rhodes.

Q89: Match List - I with List - II.
 Match the following books with their authors:

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

(b) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(c) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(d) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Ans: a

Sol: 

• John Dewey: An influential American philosopher and educator, John Dewey pioneered progressive education, emphasizing learning through experience and the integration of theory and practice.
• Paulo Freire: A Brazilian educator, Paulo Freire, is renowned for his critical pedagogy, advocating for transformative education that empowers learners and challenges oppressive systems.
• Bertrand Russell: The British philosopher Bertrand Russell made significant contributions to various fields, including philosophy, logic, and education. His work often explored the relationship between education and societal structures.
• Ivan Illich: A critical thinker and social philosopher, Ivan Illich questioned traditional educational systems in works like "Deschooling Society," proposing decentralized and self-directed learning alternatives.

The accurate pairing of books with their respective authors is (A) - (II) Paulo Freire, (B) - (IV) Ivan Illich, (C) - (I) John Dewey, and (D) - (III) Bertrand Russell. These works collectively contribute to the discourse on education, presenting diverse perspectives on its purpose, methods, and societal impact.

Pedagogy of the Oppressed:

• Authored by Paulo Freire, "Pedagogy of the Oppressed" is a groundbreaking work in the realm of education.
• Freire, a Brazilian educator, advocates for a transformative approach to education that empowers learners and challenges oppressive systems.
• The book explores the dynamics of power in educational settings and promotes a dialogical, participatory model of teaching and learning.

Deschooling Society:

• "Deschooling Society" is a thought-provoking book written by Ivan Illich.
• In this work, Illich challenges traditional notions of formal education and argues for the deinstitutionalization of learning.
• He critiques the inherent bureaucratization and dependency associated with formal schooling, proposing alternative models that prioritize individualized and community-based learning.

Education and Social Order:

• Bertrand Russell, the renowned British philosopher, penned "Education and Social Order." 
• Russell's work delves into the broader societal implications of education.
• He examines the interplay between education and social structures, offering insights into how educational systems influence the order and values of a society.

Democracy and Education:

• John Dewey, a prominent American philosopher and educational theorist, authored "Democracy and Education."
• In this influential work, Dewey explores the symbiotic relationship between education and democracy.
• He emphasizes the role of education in fostering active citizenship and shaping individuals capable of contributing to a democratic society.

Thus, it is concluded that the correct answer is (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).

Q90: Which of the following affects curriculum change?
 (A) Placement in Jobs
 (B) Religious Sentiments
 (C) Availability of Competent Teachers
 (D) Important to Nation
 (E) Socio Cultural Context
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 

(a) (A) and (D) Only

(b) (B) and (C) Only

(c) (D) and (E) Only

(d) (C) and (E) Only

Ans: c

Sol: Curriculum refers to a structured plan outlining the content, objectives, and methods of instruction in an educational program. It encompasses the subjects, learning experiences, and assessments designed to achieve specific educational goals. The curriculum serves as a roadmap for teaching and learning within a formal educational setting.
Curriculum change is a dynamic interplay between national priorities, economic considerations, cultural identity, and the socio-cultural context, reflecting a commitment to shaping education in alignment with broader societal goals. Curriculum change is a dynamic process influenced by various factors that shape the educational landscape.

Importance to Nation:

• National Development Goals: Curriculum changes are often aligned with a nation's development goals. Educational content is tailored to meet the evolving needs of the country, emphasizing areas crucial for economic growth and societal progress.
• Economic Relevance: The curriculum is responsive to economic shifts, ensuring that educational programs equip individuals with skills and knowledge deemed vital for the nation's economic well-being. This adaptability enhances workforce capabilities.
• Global Competitiveness: Nations strategically adjust curricula to enhance global competitiveness. This involves prioritizing subjects that foster innovation, technological advancements, and a workforce capable of contributing on the international stage.
• Cultural Identity: Curriculum modifications may reflect a commitment to preserving and promoting cultural identity. Education becomes a tool for transmitting national values, history, and heritage, fostering a sense of belonging among citizens.

Socio-Cultural Context:

• Cultural Sensitivity: The socio-cultural context plays a crucial role in curriculum changes by emphasizing cultural sensitivity. Educational content is designed to respect and incorporate diverse cultural perspectives, promoting inclusivity.
• Social Equity: Curriculum changes often address issues of social equity, aiming to provide an inclusive and equitable education. Modifications may focus on reducing disparities and ensuring that education caters to the diverse needs of the population.
• Social Expectations: The curriculum is influenced by societal expectations regarding the knowledge and skills individuals should possess. Evolving social norms and expectations impact the emphasis placed on various subjects, reflecting changing societal needs.
• Community Involvement: Curriculum development frequently involves input from the community. Considering the values, traditions, and expectations of local communities ensures that education aligns with their needs and aspirations, fostering community engagement.

Thus, it is concluded that the importance of Nation, and socio Cultural Context affects curriculum change.

Q91: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
What passes for knowledge is of two kinds : first knowledge of facts; second, knowledge of the general connection between facts very closely connected with this distinction is another: there is knowledge which may be described as "mirroring", and knowledge which consists in capacity to handle Leibinitz's monads 'mirror' the universe, and in this sense know it; but since monads never interact they cannot handle any thing external to themselves. This is the logical extreme of one conception of "knowledge". The logical extreme of the other conception is pragmatism which was first promulgated by Marx in his Thesis on Feuerbach (1845) the question whether objective truth belongs to human thinking is not a question of theory, but a practical question, the truth, i.e. the reality and power of thought must be demonstrated in practice ___________ philosophers have only interpreted the world in various ways, but the real task is to alter it. 

Philosophers have only interpreted the world in various forms: This sentence sounds similar to which of the following? 

(a) Truth alone prevails

(b) The truth is one, but the wise call it by many names

(c) Lead me from untruth to truth

(d) Knowledge is the ultimate power

Ans: b

Sol: The sentence "Philosophers have only interpreted the world in various forms" shares conceptual similarities with the philosophical idea encapsulated in option 2: "The truth is one, but the wise call it by many names." Both expressions convey the notion that while philosophers may offer diverse interpretations or perspectives on the world, there is an underlying, singular truth that is perceived and articulated in different ways.

• Philosophers' Interpretation: The original statement suggests that philosophers, despite their various interpretations, do not fundamentally alter the objective reality of the world. They provide diverse perspectives on truth.
• Option 2 is "The truth is one, but the wise call it by many names": This saying encapsulates a similar idea that there exists a singular truth, but wise individuals or philosophers may articulate or interpret it in diverse ways.
• Both the original statement and option 2 underscore the idea of a shared truth or reality that exists independently of individual interpretations.
• The emphasis is on the diversity of perspectives and interpretations offered by wise individuals, acknowledging that different people may articulate the same fundamental truth using various expressions or descriptions.

Thus, it is concluded that the Philosophers have only interpreted the world in various forms: This sentence sounds similar to truth is one, but the wise call it by many names.

Q92: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
What passes for knowledge is of two kinds : first knowledge of facts; second, knowledge of the general connection between facts very closely connected with this distinction is another: there is knowledge which may be described as "mirroring", and knowledge which consists in capacity to handle Leibinitz's monads 'mirror' the universe, and in this sense know it; but since monads never interact they cannot handle any thing external to themselves. This is the logical extreme of one conception of "knowledge". The logical extreme of the other conception is pragmatism which was first promulgated by Marx in his Thesis on Feuerbach (1845) the question whether objective truth belongs to human thinking is not a question of theory, but a practical question, the truth, i.e. the reality and power of thought must be demonstrated in practice ___________ philosophers have only interpreted the world in various ways, but the real task is to alter it. 

Leibniz's particles contain information about the universe because they represent it in __________ 

(a) mirroring

(b) imaged

(c) mirror form

(d) analysed

Ans: a

Sol: The sentence in question is:

"Leibniz's particles contain information about the universe because they represent it in ________."

• The passage clearly states they represent it by mirroring.
• The word "mirroring" is used literally in the passage.
• Other options like "imaged," "mirror form," or "analysed" may sound related but are not what Leibniz specifically meant.

Final Answer: (a) mirroring : because it directly reflects the original concept used by Leibniz and repeated in the passage.

Let me know if you’d like the philosophical difference between mirroring and pragmatism clarified too!

Q93: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
What passes for knowledge is of two kinds : first knowledge of facts; second, knowledge of the general connection between facts very closely connected with this distinction is another: there is knowledge which may be described as "mirroring", and knowledge which consists in capacity to handle Leibinitz's monads 'mirror' the universe, and in this sense know it; but since monads never interact they cannot handle any thing external to themselves. This is the logical extreme of one conception of "knowledge". The logical extreme of the other conception is pragmatism which was first promulgated by Marx in his Thesis on Feuerbach (1845) the question whether objective truth belongs to human thinking is not a question of theory, but a practical question, the truth, i.e. the reality and power of thought must be demonstrated in practice ___________ philosophers have only interpreted the world in various ways, but the real task is to alter it. 

If there is smoke rising in the hill then there must be fire there. This knowledge is known as the___________. 

(a) Knowledge of facts

(b) Knowledge of reality

(c) Knowledge of Truth

(d) Knowledge of general Equivalents

Ans: d

Sol: The knowledge that if there is smoke rising on a hill, there must be fire is a fundamental principle based on observable cause-and-effect relationships. This type of knowledge is categorized within a broader framework that addresses the logical connections between events and phenomena.

Knowledge of Facts:

• Meaning: The statement involves knowledge derived from observed facts, linking the presence of smoke to the fact that there is likely a fire.
• Significance: While the statement involves factual observation, it goes beyond mere facts by establishing a logical connection.

Knowledge of Reality:

• Meaning: The statement pertains to an understanding of reality, recognizing the inherent connection between smoke and fire.
• Significance: This term emphasizes the practical and real-world implications of the observed relationship.

Knowledge of Truth:

• Meaning: The statement conveys a truth based on the observed reality, implying a consistent and reliable relationship between smoke and fire.
• Significance: "Knowledge of Truth" encapsulates the certainty and reliability associated with the observed cause-and-effect relationship.

Knowledge of General Equivalents:

• Meaning: This term suggests a broader understanding of equivalent relationships, which might encompass various cause-and-effect scenarios.
• Significance: While related, the statement specifically addresses the smoke-fire relationship, making "Knowledge of General Equivalents" less precise in this context.

Thus, it is concluded that If there is smoke rising in the hill then there must be fire there. This knowledge is known as the Knowledge of general Equivalents.

Q94: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
What passes for knowledge is of two kinds : first knowledge of facts; second, knowledge of the general connection between facts very closely connected with this distinction is another: there is knowledge which may be described as "mirroring", and knowledge which consists in capacity to handle Leibinitz's monads 'mirror' the universe, and in this sense know it; but since monads never interact they cannot handle any thing external to themselves. This is the logical extreme of one conception of "knowledge". The logical extreme of the other conception is pragmatism which was first promulgated by Marx in his Thesis on Feuerbach (1845) the question whether objective truth belongs to human thinking is not a question of theory, but a practical question, the truth, i.e. the reality and power of thought must be demonstrated in practice ___________ philosophers have only interpreted the world in various ways, but the real task is to alter it. 

In Philosophy of education, who is considered as the father of pragmatism: 

(a) Betrand Russell

(b) Leibinitz

(c) Karl Marx

(d) John Dewey

Ans: d

Sol: Pragmatism, as promoted by Dewey, emphasizes the practical consequences of ideas and the experiential aspects of learning.

• In the field of philosophy of education, John Dewey is widely recognized as the father of pragmatism. 
• Dewey's influential contributions to educational theory align with pragmatic principles, emphasizing the practical consequences and experiences of ideas.
• His philosophy emphasized learning through experience and the integration of theory and practice in education.
• While the passage itself doesn't delve into Dewey's role in pragmatism, it is a well-established fact in the philosophy of education that John Dewey is considered a central figure in the development of pragmatism within the educational context.
• Dewey's educational philosophy has had a lasting impact, influencing modern educational practices.

Important Points

Bertrand Russell:

• Contribution: Russell was a prominent philosopher but is not considered the father of pragmatism.
• Philosophical Emphasis: Russell's work spans various areas of philosophy, including logic, but pragmatism is not a central aspect of his philosophy.

Leibnitz:

• Contribution: Leibnitz was a significant philosopher, but he is not associated with the development of pragmatism.
• Philosophical Emphasis: Leibnitz's contributions include his monadology and work in mathematics and metaphysics, distinct from the pragmatist tradition.

Karl Marx:

• Contribution: Marx was a philosopher, economist, and sociologist, but he did not contribute to the development of pragmatism.
• Philosophical Emphasis: Marx's focus was on political economy, historical materialism, and critiques of capitalism, divergent from the pragmatist perspective.

Thus, it is concluded that the In Philosophy of education, who is considered as the father of pragmatism is John Dewey.

Q95: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
What passes for knowledge is of two kinds : first knowledge of facts; second, knowledge of the general connection between facts very closely connected with this distinction is another: there is knowledge which may be described as "mirroring", and knowledge which consists in capacity to handle Leibinitz's monads 'mirror' the universe, and in this sense know it; but since monads never interact they cannot handle any thing external to themselves. This is the logical extreme of one conception of "knowledge". The logical extreme of the other conception is pragmatism which was first promulgated by Marx in his Thesis on Feuerbach (1845) the question whether objective truth belongs to human thinking is not a question of theory, but a practical question, the truth, i.e. the reality and power of thought must be demonstrated in practice ___________ philosophers have only interpreted the world in various ways, but the real task is to alter it. 

According to the paragraph, the real aim for knowledge is to: 

(a) Interpret the world

(b) Alter the world

(c) Practice the power in world

(d) Know facts and general connections

Ans: b

Sol: The paragraph suggests that the true purpose of knowledge goes beyond mere interpretation and involves a transformative goal. It highlights a specific aim for knowledge that is integral to a broader philosophical perspective.

Explanation

Interpret the World:

• Interpretation: While interpretation is acknowledged as one aspect of knowledge, the paragraph implies a more active and transformative role.
• Limitation: Pure interpretation might not fully capture the depth of the intended purpose.

Alter the World:

• Transformation: The primary emphasis is on the transformative aspect of knowledge, suggesting an active role in altering the world.
• Significance: This aligns with the paragraph's assertion that the real aim of knowledge is not passive but involves practical change.

Practice the Power in the World:

• Power Dynamics: While knowledge can empower, the paragraph's focus is on the broader transformative role of knowledge rather than a specific exercise of power.
• Scope: The practice of power is a subset of the more comprehensive goal outlined in the paragraph.

Know Facts and General Connections:

• Factual Understanding: The paragraph suggests that the real aim surpasses mere knowledge of facts and general connections.
• Transformation: While facts are acknowledged, the ultimate aim involves utilizing knowledge for practical and transformative purposes.

In conclusion, the real aim of knowledge, according to the paragraph, is to Alter the World. This aligns with the emphasis on the transformative and practical role of knowledge, going beyond interpretation or the passive acquisition of facts

Thus, it is concluded that according to the paragraph, the real aim of knowledge is to alter the world.

Q96: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
The Education Commission (1964 - 66) reviewed Indian education in its totality and gave special attention to women's education. It said, "The problem of women's education has been examined by a number of committees - the National Committee on Education of Women 1959, the committee on differentiation of curricula between boys and girls 1961, the Bhaktvatsalam Committee 1963 which studied the problem in six states where the education of girls is less developed We fully endorse the recommendations of these committees". Inspite of this it made following recommendations (i) education of women should be regarded as a major programme for some years to come to close the existing gap between men and women in this regard (ii) special schemes should be prepared for this purpose and funds should be provided on priority basis and (iii) both the centre and in the states there should be special machinery to look after the education of girls and women. 

The biggest obstacle to women and girls' education is 

(a) Lack of interest in women's education

(b) domestic work

(c) financial loss

(d) Patriarchy and its implications

Ans: d

Sol: The passage discusses the Education Commission's comprehensive review of Indian education from 1964 to 1966, with a specific focus on women's education. Despite endorsing the recommendations of prior committees addressing women's education issues, the commission introduces new recommendations to further enhance women's educational opportunities. The passage emphasizes the need for major programs, special schemes, and dedicated machinery to bridge the existing gender gap in education.

Patriarchy and its Implications:

• Significance: The biggest obstacle to women's and girls' education, according to the passage, is identified as patriarchy and its implications.
• Explanation: Patriarchy encompasses societal structures and norms that favor men, leading to unequal opportunities and challenges for women in education.

Lack of Interest in Women's Education:

• Context: The passage does not explicitly mention lack of interest as the primary obstacle.
• Consideration: Lack of interest is not identified as the main hindrance, as the focus is more on systemic issues.

Domestic Work:

• Context: Domestic work is not specifically highlighted as the primary obstacle.
• Consideration: While domestic responsibilities may impact women's education, the passage emphasizes broader societal challenges.

Financial Loss:

• Context: Financial loss is not directly identified as the primary obstacle.
• Consideration: The passage primarily emphasizes structural barriers and the need for specific programs rather than financial concerns.

Thus, it is concluded that the biggest obstacle to women's and girls' education is Patriarchy and its implications.

Q97: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
The Education Commission (1964 - 66) reviewed Indian education in its totality and gave special attention to women's education. It said, "The problem of women's education has been examined by a number of committees - the National Committee on Education of Women 1959, the committee on differentiation of curricula between boys and girls 1961, the Bhaktvatsalam Committee 1963 which studied the problem in six states where the education of girls is less developed We fully endorse the recommendations of these committees". Inspite of this it made following recommendations (i) education of women should be regarded as a major programme for some years to come to close the existing gap between men and women in this regard (ii) special schemes should be prepared for this purpose and funds should be provided on priority basis and (iii) both the centre and in the states there should be special machinery to look after the education of girls and women. 

Under whose chairmanship was the National Committee for Education for Women 1959 formed? 

(a) Indira Gandhi

(b) Durgabai Deshmukh

(c) Hansa Mehta

(d) Sarojini Naidu

Ans: b

Sol: The passage highlights the Education Commission's review of Indian education, with a particular focus on women's education. It acknowledges the examinations conducted by various committees, including the National Committee on Education of Women in 1959. Understanding the leadership behind the National Committee is essential for appreciating the comprehensive efforts to address women's education.

Durgabai Deshmukh:

• Leadership: The National Committee on Education of Women in 1959 was formed under the chairmanship of Durgabai Deshmukh.
• Significance: Durgabai Deshmukh, a prominent social activist and politician, played a crucial role in shaping the committee's initiatives.

Indira Gandhi:

• Context: Indira Gandhi was not mentioned as the chairperson of the National Committee on Education of Women in 1959.
• Consideration: The passage does not attribute the leadership of this committee to Indira Gandhi.

Hansa Mehta:

• Context: The passage doesn't specify Hansa Mehta as the chairperson of the National Committee on Education of Women in 1959.
• Consideration: While Hansa Mehta was involved in women's education, the passage doesn't link her to the committee's chairmanship.

Sarojini Naidu:

• Context: Sarojini Naidu was not mentioned as the chairperson of the National Committee on Education of Women in 1959.
• Consideration: The passage does not attribute the leadership of this committee to Sarojini Naidu.

Thus, it is concluded that under Durgabai Deshmukh's chairmanship, the National Committee for Education for Women in 1959 was formed.

Q98: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
The Education Commission (1964 - 66) reviewed Indian education in its totality and gave special attention to women's education. It said, "The problem of women's education has been examined by a number of committees - the National Committee on Education of Women 1959, the committee on differentiation of curricula between boys and girls 1961, the Bhaktvatsalam Committee 1963 which studied the problem in six states where the education of girls is less developed We fully endorse the recommendations of these committees". Inspite of this it made following recommendations (i) education of women should be regarded as a major programme for some years to come to close the existing gap between men and women in this regard (ii) special schemes should be prepared for this purpose and funds should be provided on priority basis and (iii) both the centre and in the states there should be special machinery to look after the education of girls and women. 

Why Priority should be given to girls and women education. 

(a) to increase companionship

(b) For Women Empowerment

(c) For teaching everyday household economics

(d) To teach their children

Ans: b

Sol: The Education Commission of 1964-66 recognized the need for a comprehensive review of Indian education, particularly focusing on women's education.

For Women Empowerment:

• Significance: The passage emphasizes the importance of prioritizing girls' and women's education to empower them.
• Explanation: Education is seen as a tool for women's empowerment, enabling them to participate more actively in various spheres of life, and fostering social and economic equality.

To Increase Companionship:

• Context: The passage does not suggest that prioritizing girls' and women's education aims to increase companionship.
• Consideration: The primary focus is on empowerment and bridging educational disparities.

For Teaching Everyday Household Economics:

• Context: While household economics may be a part of education, the passage doesn't specifically highlight it as a primary reason.
• Consideration: The broader goal is to address gender gaps and empower women, encompassing various aspects beyond household economics.

To Teach Their Children:

• Context: The passage does not explicitly state that the priority for girls' and women's education is to teach their children.
• Consideration: The focus is on empowering women themselves, and contributing to broader societal progress.

Thus, it is concluded that Women's Empowerment Priority should be given to girls and women's education.

Q99: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
The Education Commission (1964 - 66) reviewed Indian education in its totality and gave special attention to women's education. It said, "The problem of women's education has been examined by a number of committees - the National Committee on Education of Women 1959, the committee on differentiation of curricula between boys and girls 1961, the Bhaktvatsalam Committee 1963 which studied the problem in six states where the education of girls is less developed We fully endorse the recommendations of these committees". Inspite of this it made following recommendations (i) education of women should be regarded as a major programme for some years to come to close the existing gap between men and women in this regard (ii) special schemes should be prepared for this purpose and funds should be provided on priority basis and (iii) both the centre and in the states there should be special machinery to look after the education of girls and women. 

The paragraph mentions a committee on the differentiation of curricula between boys and girls (1961) this committee was headed by: 

(a) Durgabai Deshmukh

(b) Vijay Laxami Pandit

(c) Hansa Mehta

(d) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

Ans: c

Sol: The passage discusses the Education Commission of 1964-66, which gave special attention to women's education in India. While acknowledging the work of previous committees, such as the National Committee on Education of Women in 1959 and the Bhaktvatsalam Committee in 1963, the Commission proposed specific recommendations to address the existing gender gap in education.

The passage mentions a committee on the differentiation of curricula between boys and girls in 1961. Here are the detailed points based on the passage:

• Committee's Focus: The committee's primary focus was on studying and addressing the disparities in educational curricula between boys and girls in the context of Indian education.
• Chairperson: According to the information provided in the passage, the committee was headed by Hansa Mehta.
• Endorsement by the Education Commission: The Education Commission of 1964-66 fully endorsed the recommendations of this committee. The passage acknowledges the importance of the committee's work in understanding and tackling gender-based educational discrepancies.

In summary, the committee on the differentiation of curricula between boys and girls in 1961, as stated in the passage, was chaired by Hansa Mehta, and its recommendations were supported by the Education Commission.

Thus, it is concluded that the paragraph mentions a committee on the differentiation of curricula between boys and girls (1961) this committee was headed by Hansa Mehta.

Q100: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
The Education Commission (1964 - 66) reviewed Indian education in its totality and gave special attention to women's education. It said, "The problem of women's education has been examined by a number of committees - the National Committee on Education of Women 1959, the committee on differentiation of curricula between boys and girls 1961, the Bhaktvatsalam Committee 1963 which studied the problem in six states where the education of girls is less developed We fully endorse the recommendations of these committees". Inspite of this it made following recommendations (i) education of women should be regarded as a major programme for some years to come to close the existing gap between men and women in this regard (ii) special schemes should be prepared for this purpose and funds should be provided on priority basis and (iii) both the centre and in the states there should be special machinery to look after the education of girls and women. 

The Education commission (1964-66) was headed by: 

(a) S. Radhakrishnan

(b) Prof Yashpal

(c) UKRV Rao

(d) Daulat Singh Kothari

Ans: d

Sol: The Education Commission of 1964-66 played a pivotal role in shaping the trajectory of Indian education. It was a comprehensive review undertaken to address various facets of the education system.

Based on historical information, the Education Commission (1964-66) was indeed headed by Daulat Singh Kothari.

• Leadership: The commission was under the leadership of Daulat Singh Kothari, who assumed a central role in steering the efforts to evaluate and reform the Indian education system.
• Scope of Review: The commission conducted a thorough review of Indian education, examining it in its entirety. Special attention was given to women's education, as mentioned in the passage.
• Acknowledgment of Previous Committees: The passage indicates that the commission recognized the efforts of earlier committees, such as the National Committee on Education of Women in 1959 and the Bhaktvatsalam Committee in 1963, in addressing the challenges in women's education.

Thus, it is concluded that the Education Commission (1964-66) was headed by Daulat Singh Kothari.