Q1: Choose the correct statements from the following.
(A) India has signed RCEP (Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership)
(B) India has refused to sign NPT because it is a discriminatory treaty
(C) India has signed CTBT (Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty)
(D) India has signed PTBT (Partial Test Ban Treaty)
(E) India Supports CBDR (Common But Differentiated Responsibilities) in climate change negotiations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(c) (B), (D) and (E) Only
(d) (A), (B) and (D) Only
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is (B), (D) and (E) Only
India has refused to sign NPT because it is a discriminatory treaty:
- India has consistently refused to sign the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) on the grounds that it is discriminatory. The treaty identifies nuclear-weapon and non-nuclear-weapon states, and India, which conducted a nuclear test in 1974, was not recognized as a nuclear-weapon state.
India has signed PTBT (Partial Test Ban Treaty):
- India is a signatory to the Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT), which was signed in 1963. This treaty prohibits nuclear tests in the atmosphere, in outer space, and under water, but not underground.
India Supports CBDR (Common But Differentiated Responsibilities) in climate change negotiations:
- India supports the principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) in international climate change negotiations. This principle acknowledges that while all countries are responsible for addressing global environmental degradation, they are not equally responsible, and the developed countries have a greater historical responsibility.
Other Related Points
India has not signed RCEP (Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership):
- India opted out of the RCEP negotiations in November 2019. The decision was based on concerns that the agreement did not address India's key issues, including trade deficits and protection for domestic industries.
India has not signed CTBT (Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty):
- India has not signed the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT). The treaty, which bans all nuclear explosions for both civilian and military purposes, has not been ratified by India due to concerns over its discriminatory nature and the lack of a clear disarmament timeline.
Q2: Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) China has blocked India's membership to NSG (Nuclear Suppliers Group)
(B) India has refused to be part of China promoted BRI (Belt and Road Initiative)
(C) Gujral doctrine believes in reciprocity
(D) India and China cooperate with each other in climate change talks
(E) Sino-Indian trade is an example of balanced trade
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(d) (B), (C), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B) and (D) Only.'
China has blocked India's membership to NSG (Nuclear Suppliers Group):
- China has repeatedly blocked India's entry into the NSG, arguing that India is not a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
- This has been a significant point of contention in Sino-Indian relations.
India has refused to be part of China promoted BRI (Belt and Road Initiative):
- India has consistently opposed the BRI, citing sovereignty concerns, particularly with the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) passing through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
- India also expresses concerns over debt-trap diplomacy and lack of transparency in the BRI projects.
India and China cooperate with each other in climate change talks:
- Despite other differences, India and China have found common ground in climate change negotiations, advocating for the interests of developing countries.
- Both countries are part of the BASIC group (Brazil, South Africa, India, China) that seeks to influence global climate policies.
Other Related Points
Gujral doctrine believes in reciprocity:
- The Gujral Doctrine, named after former Indian Prime Minister I.K. Gujral, emphasizes non-reciprocal accommodation of India’s smaller neighbors to foster better relations.
- This doctrine aims at creating a peaceful neighborhood without expecting reciprocal gestures.
Sino-Indian trade is an example of balanced trade:
- Contrary to the statement, Sino-Indian trade is highly imbalanced, with India facing a significant trade deficit with China.
- India has been trying to address this trade imbalance through various measures and negotiations.
Q3: When the Reserve Bank of India was established?
(a) 1951
(b) 1971
(c) 1935
(d) 1947
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '1935'.
Establishment of Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on April 1, 1935.
- It was set up based on the recommendations of the Hilton Young Commission.
- The RBI was initially set up as a privately owned institution but was nationalized in 1949.
- As the central bank of India, RBI plays a crucial role in the development strategy of the government and the economic stability of the country.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
- 1951: This year is significant in Indian economic history as it marks the beginning of the First Five-Year Plan, aimed at economic development, but it is not related to the establishment of the RBI.
- 1971: This year saw significant events like the Indo-Pakistani War and the establishment of Bangladesh, but it is not related to the establishment of the RBI.
- 1947: This year marks India’s independence from British rule, a pivotal moment in Indian history, but it is not related to the establishment of the RBI
Q4: Which among the following statements related to CBDR (Common But Differentiated Responsibilities) is not correct :
(a) It is an important global environmental norms developed by the international community
(b) It favours Developing Countries
(c) It grants certain trade concessions to Developing Countries
(d) Developed Countries are opposed to it
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'It grants certain trade concessions to Developing Countries'
The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) is a cornerstone of international environmental law, particularly in the context of climate change, as outlined in instruments like the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It acknowledges that:
- Option 1: CBDR is indeed an important global environmental norm developed by the international community to balance environmental protection and development needs.
- Option 2: It favors developing countries by recognizing their lesser historical contribution to global environmental problems like climate change.
- Option 3: CBDR is not related to trade concessions; it pertains to differentiated obligations for environmental protection, not economic trade benefits.
- Option 4: Developed countries have shown opposition to CBDR in some contexts due to perceived unfairness in burden-sharing.
Thus, the statement that CBDR "grants certain trade concessions to Developing Countries" is incorrect.
Q5: Which among the following is a justiciable right?
(a) Directive principles of the state policy
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Preamble
(d) Fundamental Rights
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'Fundamental Rights'
Fundamental Rights:
- Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution of India to all citizens. They are enforceable by the courts, meaning any violation of these rights can be challenged in a court of law.
- These rights are considered essential for the holistic development of individuals and include rights such as the right to equality, freedom, against exploitation, freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights, and the right to constitutional remedies.
- Part III of the Indian Constitution elaborates on these rights and provides mechanisms for their protection.
Other Related Points
Directive Principles of State Policy:
- These principles are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. They are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court, but they aim to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life.
- They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution and include provisions for securing a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people, equitable distribution of wealth, and provisions for health and education.
Fundamental Duties:
- Fundamental Duties are moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These are not enforceable by law.
- They are specified in Article 51A of the Constitution and include duties such as respecting the national symbols, cherishing the heritage of the country, and promoting harmony.
Preamble:
- The Preamble is an introductory statement that outlines the guiding principles and philosophy of the Constitution. It is not enforceable in a court of law.
- It declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic Republic and aims to secure justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity for its citizens.
Q6: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(1), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(1)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)'
Theory of Motivation - Douglas McGregor:
- Douglas McGregor is known for his Theory X and Theory Y, which are theories of human work motivation and management.
- Theory X assumes employees are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they can, requiring control and coercion.
- Theory Y assumes employees are self-motivated, seek responsibility, and can be creative in solving problems.
Psychologically oriented imprint on research into industrial relations - Elton Mayo:
- Elton Mayo conducted the famous Hawthorne Studies which highlighted the importance of social relations and employee satisfaction in the workplace.
- His work laid the foundation for the Human Relations Movement in management.
Administrative processes are more important than hierarchy and authority - Mary Parker Follett:
- Mary Parker Follett emphasized the importance of administrative processes, conflict resolution, and the role of managers in creating a productive work environment.
- She advocated for a more democratic and participatory approach to management.
Focus on values like citizen responsiveness, worker and citizen participation in decision making - H.G. Frederickson:
- H.G. Frederickson is known for his contributions to the field of public administration, particularly his advocacy for social equity and public participation in governance.
- He emphasized the importance of values such as citizen responsiveness and participation in public decision-making processes.
Other Related Points
Option 1 Explanation:
- Option 1 incorrectly matches (A) with (I) and (C) with (II).
- Mary Parker Follett is not associated with the Theory of Motivation and administrative processes being more important than hierarchy is her focus not Douglas McGregor's.
Option 2 Explanation:
- Option 2 incorrectly matches (B) with (I) and (C) with (III).
- Mary Parker Follett is not known for research into industrial relations and administrative processes being more important than hierarchy is her focus not Elton Mayo's.
Option 4 Explanation:
- Option 4 incorrectly matches (A) with (IV) and (D) with (I).
- H.G. Frederickson is not associated with the Theory of Motivation and values like citizen responsiveness are his focus not Mary Parker Follett's.
Q7: Among the following challenges to Indian Democracy, which one is not related to Globalization:
(A) De-politicisation
(B) Roll back of welfare state
(C) Politics of defection
(D) Decay of nation-state
(E) Crony capitalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B) Only
(b) (C) Only
(c) (A) and (E) Only
(d) (A), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(C) Only'.
Politics of defection:
- Politics of defection refers to the practice where legislators switch parties, often for personal or political gain.
- This challenge is more related to the internal political dynamics and electoral strategies within India rather than the global influence of globalization.
- It undermines political stability and the integrity of the democratic process, but it is not directly linked to globalization.
Other Related Points
De-politicisation:
- This refers to the reduction of political influence in various sectors, often as a result of global economic policies and neoliberal ideologies.
- Globalization encourages a focus on economic efficiency over political considerations, leading to a depoliticized approach in governance.
Roll back of welfare state:
- Globalization often leads to the reduction of state intervention in social welfare, as economic policies favor market-driven solutions.
- This can result in decreased public spending on social services and a shift towards privatization.
Decay of nation-state:
- Globalization challenges the sovereignty of nation-states by increasing the influence of multinational corporations and international institutions.
- This can lead to a perceived or actual weakening of national governance structures.
Crony capitalism:
- Globalization can exacerbate crony capitalism, where business success is dependent on close relationships with government officials.
- This leads to an unfair economic environment where political connections outweigh merit and competition.
Q8: Who founded the All India Harijan Sangh?
(a) Narayan Guru
(b) M. Gandhi
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) Aurobindo Ghosh
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is 'M.Gandhi'
M.Gandhi:
- Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India Harijan Sangh in 1932.
- The organization was established to eradicate untouchability and uplift the Harijan community, who were considered the lower caste in the Indian society.
- Gandhi's efforts were focused on promoting social equality and integrating the Harijan community into mainstream society.
Other Related Points
- Narayan Guru:
- Narayan Guru was a social reformer from Kerala who worked towards the upliftment of the Ezhava community.
- He promoted social equality and spiritual awakening but did not found the All India Harijan Sangh.
- Jyotiba Phule:
- Jyotiba Phule was a social reformer and activist from Maharashtra who worked for the upliftment of the Dalits and women.
- He established the Satyashodhak Samaj to promote social reform but was not associated with the founding of the All India Harijan Sangh.
- Aurobindo Ghosh:
- Aurobindo Ghosh was an Indian philosopher, yogi, and nationalist. He was involved in the Indian independence movement but did not have any direct connection with the All India Harijan Sangh.
Q9: Which organisation provides a robust communication system and effective support for e-governance in India?
(a) Information Technology Organisation
(b) Electronic-Seva
(c) egovIndia
(d) The National Informatics Centre
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'The National Informatics Centre'.
The National Informatics Centre (NIC):
- The NIC is a premier science and technology organisation under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), Government of India.
- It provides infrastructure to help support the delivery of government IT services and the delivery of some of the initiatives of Digital India.
- The NIC has been instrumental in steering e-governance applications in government departments at the Centre, States, and Districts, facilitating improvement in government services, wider transparency, promoting decentralised planning and management, and improving government accountability to the citizens.
Other Related Points
- Information Technology Organisation:
- This is a generic term and does not refer to a specific entity in India that is responsible for e-governance infrastructure.
- Electronic-Seva:
- Electronic-Seva is a term that could be used to describe electronic services in general, but it is not the name of an organisation responsible for e-governance support in India.
- egovIndia:
- This appears to be a generic or fictional name and is not associated with any official organisation responsible for e-governance in India.
Q10: The cornerstone of the ECI's mandate derives from Article 324 of the Constitution.
(A) Article 324 mandated that the commission is to be led by a Single Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
(B) The president can appoint additional commissioners
(C) Judiciary is barred from interference in the election process
(D) Election Commission also conducts the elections of Panchayats
(E) During the Election Period CEC acts as Chief Executive Officer of Government of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(b) (A), (B), (C)
(c) (B), (C), (D), (E)
(d) (A), (C), (D), (E)
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B), (C)'.
Article 324 of the Constitution:
- Article 324 provides for the establishment of an independent Election Commission of India (ECI) to supervise, direct, and control the conduct of elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President of India.
- The ECI is to be led by a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and, if necessary, such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may fix.
- This Article ensures the autonomy of the ECI, making it a crucial pillar for maintaining the democratic process in India.
Other Related Points
Mandate of the ECI:
- The Election Commission is empowered to conduct free and fair elections, ensuring that the electoral process is transparent and that the rules and guidelines are strictly followed.
- Article 324 also ensures that the ECI has the authority to take necessary actions to conduct elections effectively.
Incorrect Options:
- Election Commission also conducts the elections of Panchayats:
- Incorrect because the conduct of Panchayat elections falls under the purview of the State Election Commissions, not the ECI.
- During the Election Period CEC acts as Chief Executive Officer of Government of India:
- Incorrect because the CEC does not act as the CEO of the Government of India. The CEC's role is limited to the administration of elections.
Q11: Arrange the Commissions or Committees for improving Centre State relations in India in ascending order.
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Punchhi Commission
(D) Bhore Committee
(E) Rajmannar Committee
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(b) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
(c) (D), (A), (E), (B), (C)
(d) (A), (D), (E), (B), (C)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(D), (A), (E), (B), (C)'
Bhore Committee:
- Formed in 1946, the Bhore Committee was primarily focused on health sector reforms in India. It laid the foundation for the establishment of a comprehensive healthcare system in independent India.
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee:
- Established in 1957, this committee recommended the establishment of the Panchayati Raj system, thus improving the decentralization of power and enhancing centre-state relations.
Rajmannar Committee:
- Formed in 1969 by the Tamil Nadu Government, it examined Centre-State relations and advocated for greater autonomy for states.
Sarkaria Commission:
- Established in 1983, this commission reviewed the working of existing arrangements between the Centre and the States and recommended changes to improve their relationship.
Punchhi Commission:
- Formed in 2007, this commission was set up to look into new issues related to Centre-State relations in the changing socio-economic scenario and global context.
Other Related Points
- Incorrect options:
- Options 1 and 2 have incorrect sequences that do not follow the chronological order of the commissions and committees.
- Option 4 incorrectly places the Bhore Committee after the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
- Relevance of these Committees and Commissions:
- Each of these committees and commissions has contributed significantly to improving Centre-State relations in India through various reforms and recommendations.
- Understanding their chronological order helps grasp the historical development of Centre-State relations in India.
Q12: Arrange the following events/incidents related to India-Pakistan Relations chronologically.
(A) Kargil War
(B) Shimla Agreement
(C) Pulwama Incident
(D) Indus Water Treaty
(E) Uri Incident
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (D), (B), (C), (A), (E)
(b) (D), (B), (E), (A), (C)
(c) (B), (D), (A), (E), (C)
(d) (D), (B), (A), (E), (C)
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is '(D), (B), (A), (E), (C)'
Indus Water Treaty (1960):
- The Indus Water Treaty was signed between India and Pakistan in 1960, mediated by the World Bank. It regulates the water distribution and management of the Indus River and its tributaries.
Shimla Agreement (1972):
- The Shimla Agreement was signed in 1972 following the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971. It aimed to restore peace and normalize relations between the two countries.
Kargil War (1999):
- The Kargil War took place between May and July 1999, when Pakistani soldiers and militants infiltrated positions on the Indian side of the Line of Control (LoC) in the Kargil district.
Uri Incident (2016):
- The Uri attack occurred in September 2016 when four heavily armed militants attacked an Indian Army brigade headquarters in Uri, Jammu and Kashmir.
Kargil War
- The Kargil War was a conflict between India and Pakistan that took place between May and July 1999 in the Kargil district of Jammu and Kashmir (now part of Ladakh), along the Line of Control (LoC), which is the de facto border between the two countries in that region.
Q13: Who propounded the concept of 'Total Revolution'?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'Jaya Prakash Narayan'
Total Revolution:
- The concept of 'Total Revolution' was propounded by Jaya Prakash Narayan, a prominent Indian independence activist and political leader.
- Jaya Prakash Narayan, also known as JP, introduced the idea during the 1970s in response to widespread social, economic, and political issues in India.
- Total Revolution aimed at transforming society through a comprehensive overhaul of existing systems, encompassing political, social, economic, and cultural dimensions.
- JP called for a peaceful and non-violent movement to bring about this transformation, emphasizing the need for moral and ethical rejuvenation of society.
Other Related Points
- J. L. Nehru:
- Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India and a central figure in Indian politics before and after independence.
- Nehru was instrumental in shaping India's political and economic policies but did not propound the concept of 'Total Revolution'.
- Aurobindo Ghosh:
- Aurobindo Ghosh was an Indian philosopher, yogi, guru, poet, and nationalist.
- He was involved in the early stages of the Indian independence movement but later focused on spiritual and philosophical pursuits.
- He did not advocate for 'Total Revolution'.
- Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
- Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent Indian nationalist, teacher, and independence activist.
- He was known for his assertive approach to Swaraj (self-rule) and his famous slogan "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it."
- Tilak did not propose the idea of 'Total Revolution'.
Q14: Who wrote "Hindu Theory of International Relations" ?
(a) Swami Vivekanand
(b) William Jones
(c) Benoy Kumar Sarkar
(d) Aurobindo Ghosh
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is Benoy Kumar Sarkar
Hindu Theory of International Relations:
- The book "Hindu Theory of International Relations" was written by Benoy Kumar Sarkar.
- Benoy Kumar Sarkar was a prominent Indian scholar and a pioneer in the field of political science and international relations.
- The work is significant for providing an indigenous perspective on international relations, drawing on ancient Hindu texts and philosophies.
Other Related Points
Swami Vivekanand:
- Swami Vivekanand was an Indian Hindu monk and philosopher, renowned for his teachings on Vedanta and Yoga.
- While he made significant contributions to Indian thought and spirituality, he did not write on international relations.
William Jones:
- William Jones was a British philologist and scholar known for his work on ancient Indian texts and languages.
- His contributions were primarily in the field of linguistics and oriental studies, not international relations.
Aurobindo Ghosh:
- Aurobindo Ghosh was an Indian philosopher, yogi, and nationalist leader.
- He wrote extensively on spirituality, politics, and culture, but did not focus on international relations in his works.
Q15: Arrange John Rawls writings in chronological order which indicates his evolution as a philosopher of eminence ?
(A) Political Liberalism
(B) A Theory of Justice
(C) Justice as Fairness
(D) The Law of Peoples
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (C), (A), (B), (D)
(b) (D), (B), (C), (A)
(c) (B), (C), (A), (D)
(d) (B), (D), (C), (A)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(B), (C), (A), (D)'
John Rawls' writings in chronological order:
- A Theory of Justice (1971): This book is considered Rawls' magnum opus. It elaborates on his earlier ideas and introduces his two principles of justice, focusing on the original position and the veil of ignorance as tools for determining justice.
- Justice as Fairness (1985): This was Rawls' first major work, published as an article. It laid the groundwork for his later work, introducing his ideas about a fair system of cooperation over time among citizens regarded as free and equal.
- Political Liberalism (1993): In this work, Rawls addresses the question of how a stable and just society of free and equal citizens can live in harmony despite having diverse and often conflicting comprehensive doctrines. It builds on his earlier theories and adapts them to the context of pluralism.
- The Law of Peoples (1999): This book extends Rawls' theory to the international sphere, proposing principles for a just and stable international order based on the idea of a society of peoples, each with its own internal conception of justice.
- Justice as Fairness: A Restatement (2001): A later refinement of his earlier ideas.
Other Related Points
Significance of Rawls' Work:
- John Rawls' contributions have had a profound impact on modern political and moral philosophy, particularly in discussions of justice, fairness, and political legitimacy.
- His theories continue to influence a wide range of disciplines, including law, political science, economics, and public policy.
Q16: With the reference to Indian Political System, consider the following statements.
(A) One salient feature of Indian Political System is the combination of centralisation and decentralisation
(B) Indian political system throughout the British period was very much dominated by religion
(C) In Indian Political System the real executive power is with the President
(D) The Government System is based on three organs, Legislative, Executive and Judiciary
(E) The Bureaucracy plays a minimalistic role in Government System
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (D) Only
(d) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'A), (B) and (D) Only'
Combination of centralisation and decentralisation:
- India's political system is a federal structure with a strong central authority and significant powers delegated to state governments. This blend allows for a balance between national unity and regional autonomy.
Dominance of religion during British period:
- During the British colonial period, Indian politics were heavily influenced by religious divisions, which were often exacerbated by colonial policies of 'divide and rule.' This has left a lasting impact on the political landscape of the country.
Government System based on three organs:
- The Indian political system operates on the principle of separation of powers among three branches: the Legislature, the Executive, and the Judiciary. This structure is designed to ensure checks and balances within the government.
Other Related Points
Real executive power is with the President:
- This statement is incorrect. In the Indian political system, the real executive power lies with the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, not the President. The President is the ceremonial head of state.
Bureaucracy plays a minimalistic role:
- This statement is also incorrect. The bureaucracy in India plays a significant role in the administration and implementation of government policies and schemes. It acts as the backbone of the executive branch.
Q17: Choose the correct statements given below:
(A) NATO is a security pact created for the defence of US led Western Countries
(B) Warsaw pact was created by Soviet Union and its allies in response to NATO
(C) SAARC was created for the security of South Asia
(D) ASEAN is a Security Organisation
(E) European Union was created for the security of Europe
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(d) (C), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A) and (B) Only'
NATO:
- The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) was established in 1949 as a collective defense mechanism among Western countries, led by the United States, to counter the threat posed by the Soviet Union during the Cold War.
- NATO's primary purpose is to ensure the security of its member states through political and military means.
Warsaw Pact:
- The Warsaw Pact was established in 1955 by the Soviet Union and its Eastern European allies as a collective defense treaty in response to the formation of NATO.
- The pact aimed to consolidate the military forces of the member states under Soviet leadership.
Other Related Points
SAARC:
- The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was founded in 1985 to promote economic and regional integration among South Asian countries, not for security purposes.
- SAARC focuses on areas such as agriculture, rural development, science and technology, and culture.
ASEAN:
- The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was established in 1967 to promote political and economic cooperation and regional stability, not specifically as a security organization.
- ASEAN engages in various areas including economic, social, cultural, and technical cooperation.
European Union (EU):
- The European Union was established to promote economic integration and political cooperation among European countries, not solely for security purposes.
- While the EU has developed a Common Security and Defence Policy (CSDP), its primary focus remains on economic and political union.
Q18: Peaceful rise of China is a myth rather than a reality.
(A) China's nibbling of neighbours territory through "Slami Slicing" strategy is against its claim of peaceful rise
(B) China's massive aid to Asian and African Countries undermines its claim to peaceful rise
(C) China's support to non-democratic and authoritarian countries violates its claim to peaceful rise
(D) China's assertion of 9 dash-lines is against its claim of peaceful rise
(E) China's pursuit of "Wolf-Warrior Diplomacy" contradicts its claim to peaceful rise
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) and (E) Only
(b) (A), (C), (D) and (E) Only
(c) (A), (D) and (E) Only
(d) (A) and (B) Only
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (D) and (E) Only'
8China's peaceful rise:
- The concept of China's peaceful rise was introduced to assure the world that China's growing power would not pose a threat to international peace and stability.
- However, several actions by China contradict this claim and suggest that the peaceful rise is more myth than reality.
China's nibbling of neighbours' territory through "Salami Slicing" strategy:
- This strategy involves gradually encroaching on the territories of neighboring countries to gain strategic advantages without provoking a full-scale conflict.
- Examples include territorial disputes in the South China Sea and the Sino-Indian border regions.
China's assertion of 9-dash lines:
- The 9-dash line is a demarcation line used by China to claim large areas of the South China Sea, conflicting with claims by other countries like Vietnam, the Philippines, and Malaysia.
- This assertion has led to significant tensions and conflicts in the region, undermining the notion of a peaceful rise.
China's pursuit of "Wolf-Warrior Diplomacy":
- This aggressive and confrontational style of diplomacy involves Chinese diplomats adopting a more assertive and nationalistic approach in defending China's interests.
- This approach has strained China's relationships with various countries and is at odds with the idea of a peaceful rise.
Other Related Points
China's massive aid to Asian and African countries:
- While China provides significant aid to many countries, this is often seen as part of its strategy to expand its influence and secure access to resources, rather than a purely altruistic act.
- This aid can create dependency and leverage for China, which may not align with the concept of a peaceful rise.
China's support to non-democratic and authoritarian countries:
- China's alliances with authoritarian regimes can be viewed as a means to counterbalance Western influence rather than a commitment to peaceful coexistence.
- Such support can destabilize regions and contribute to international tensions.
Q19: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)'
Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty:
- Signed in 1971 between India and the Soviet Union.
- It was a 20-year treaty of peace, friendship, and cooperation.
- This treaty was signed during the tenure of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
Pokhran II:
- Refers to the series of five nuclear bomb test explosions conducted by India in May 1998.
- These tests were carried out under the leadership of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Look East Policy:
- An initiative by India to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the nations of Southeast Asia.
- Introduced by Prime Minister Narasimha Rao in the early 1990s.
Panchamrit:
- Refers to a five-point formula put forth by Prime Minister Narendra Modi for advancing India's foreign policy.
- The five elements include Samman (respect), Samvad (dialogue), Samriddhi (prosperity), Suraksha (security), and Sanskriti evam Sabhyata (culture and civilization).
Other Related Points
Option Analysis:
- Option 1: (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) - Incorrect because Indo-Soviet Friendship Treaty was signed under Indira Gandhi, not Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
- Option 2: (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) - Incorrect because Look East Policy was introduced by Narsimha Rao, not Narendra Modi.
- Option 3: (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) - Incorrect because Pokhran II was conducted under Atal Bihari Vajpayee, not Indira Gandhi.
- Option 4: (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) - Correct as it accurately matches historical events with the respective leaders.
Q20: Arrange the following international events in ascending order:
(A) Demise of Communism in East Europe
(B) Unification of Germany
(C) Disintegration of Soviet Union
(D) Assumption of Presidency by Mikhail Gorbachev
(E) INF Treaty
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (C), (D), (B), (A), (E)
(b) (D), (E), (B), (A), (C)
(c) (D), (E), (A), (B), (C)
(d) (D), (E), (C), (A), (B)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(D), (E), (A), (B), (C)'
Demise of Communism in East Europe:
- The fall of Communism in Eastern Europe began in the late 1980s, most notably in 1989, with the collapse of the Berlin Wall and the subsequent end of Communist regimes in countries like Poland, Hungary, and Czechoslovakia.
Unification of Germany:
- Germany was officially reunified on October 3, 1990, following the fall of the Berlin Wall and the collapse of the East German government.
Disintegration of Soviet Union:
- The Soviet Union officially dissolved on December 26, 1991, marking the end of the Cold War and the emergence of 15 independent republics.
Assumption of Presidency by Mikhail Gorbachev:
- Mikhail Gorbachev became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union on March 11, 1985, introducing key reforms such as glasnost (openness) and perestroika (restructuring).
- INF Treaty:
- The Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty was signed on December 8, 1987, by the United States and the Soviet Union, marking a significant step in nuclear disarmament.
Other Related Points
- Option 1:
- This option incorrectly lists the events in an order that does not match their actual chronological occurrence.
- Option 2:
- This option incorrectly places the disintegration of the Soviet Union before the demise of Communism in East Europe and the unification of Germany.
- Option 4:
- This option incorrectly lists the events in an order that places the unification of Germany after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Q21: System Theory focuses on the study of organization as a :
(a) Continuous system
(b) Cooperative or Collaborative system
(c) Disorganised system
(d) Constrained mechanism
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is 'Cooperative or Collaborative system'
System Theory:
- System Theory is an interdisciplinary study of systems, where a system is defined as a cohesive conglomeration of interrelated and interdependent parts that can be natural or human-made.
- The theory is used to understand and model complex interactions within organizational structures, considering the organization as a whole rather than in isolated parts.
- In the context of organizations, System Theory emphasizes the importance of understanding the relationships and interdependencies within the organization.
Cooperative or Collaborative system:
- Organizations are viewed as cooperative or collaborative systems where different parts work together towards common goals.
- This approach focuses on the synergy created through collaboration among various components of the organization.
- It highlights the importance of teamwork, communication, and joint problem-solving in achieving organizational objectives.
Other Related Points
- Continuous system:
- This implies an ongoing, unbroken process without distinct phases or breaks, which is not a typical way to describe organizational structures or behaviors within System Theory.
- Disorganised system:
- A disorganized system lacks structure and order, which is contrary to the principles of System Theory that emphasize interconnected and structured components.
- Constrained mechanism:
- This term suggests a rigid, inflexible system bound by constraints, which does not align with the dynamic and adaptive nature emphasized in System Theory.
Q22: India's diaspora is a strategic asset for the country.
(A) India receives largest volume of remittances
(B) Illegal Indian migrants have given a bad name to India
(C) Indian Americans played key role in the passing of Indo-US nuclear deal
(D) India trained Engineers were instrumental in ushering in IT revolution in the US and then bringing it to India
(E) Indian Diaspora is a source of soft power for India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (C), (D) and (E) Only
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(c) (A) and (B) Only
(d) (A), (B) and (C) Only
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (C), (D) and (E) Only'
India receives the largest volume of remittances:
- India's diaspora contributes significantly to the country's economy through remittances.
- These remittances help in improving the living standards of families in India and contribute to the nation's GDP.
Indian Americans played a key role in the passing of the Indo-US nuclear deal:
- The Indian diaspora in the US actively lobbied and supported the Indo-US nuclear deal, which was a landmark in Indo-US relations.
- This demonstrates the political influence and strategic importance of the Indian diaspora in international diplomacy.
India trained Engineers were instrumental in ushering in IT revolution in the US and then bringing it to India:
- Indian engineers played a crucial role in the technology sector in the US, contributing to the IT revolution.
- Many of these professionals later brought their skills and knowledge back to India, boosting the country's IT industry.
Indian Diaspora is a source of soft power for India:
- The Indian diaspora enhances India's global image and cultural influence.
- Through cultural, educational, and professional achievements, the diaspora helps in building a positive perception of India worldwide.
Other Related Points
Illegal Indian migrants have given a bad name to India:
- While illegal migration can have negative implications, it does not negate the overall strategic value of the Indian diaspora.
- Instances of illegal migration are isolated and do not represent the majority of the Indian diaspora, which is known for its contributions globally.
Q23: "Basic Structure" is outcome of :
(a) Original Constitution of India
(b) Constitutional Amendment
(c) Executive Order
(d) Judicial Interpretation
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'Judicial Interpretation'
Basic Structure Doctrine:
- The Basic Structure Doctrine is a judicial principle established by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973.
- This doctrine holds that while the Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its "basic structure" or essential features.
- The doctrine aims to ensure the preservation of fundamental aspects of the Constitution, such as democracy, rule of law, and the rights of individuals.
Other Related Points
Original Constitution of India:
- The original Constitution of India, adopted in 1950, did not explicitly mention the Basic Structure Doctrine.
- It provided the framework for governance and detailed the powers of various branches of government but did not limit constitutional amendments in the same way the Basic Structure Doctrine does.
Constitutional Amendment:
- Constitutional amendments are changes made to the Constitution by the Parliament under Article 368.
- While amendments can modify many parts of the Constitution, they are subject to the Basic Structure Doctrine, meaning they cannot alter its fundamental aspects.
Executive Order:
- An executive order is a directive issued by the executive branch of government, typically the President or a state governor.
- Executive orders cannot alter the Constitution or its basic structure; they are limited to administrative matters and implementation of laws.
Q24: Arrange the following states with respect of their year of formation in ascending order.(Dropped Question)
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Nagaland
(D) Gujarat
(E) Himachal Pradesh
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(b) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
(c) (A), (E), (C), (B), (D)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (E), (A)
Ans: a
Sol: Note: This question has been dropped by NTA.
The correct answer is '(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)'.
Formation Years of the States:
- Bihar: Formed on 22 March 1912, when it was carved out from the Bengal Presidency.
- Rajasthan: Formed on 30 March 1949, by the merger of Rajputana states.
- Nagaland: Became a state on 1 December 1963, as the 16th state of India.
- Gujarat: Formed on 1 May 1960, after the bifurcation of the Bombay State.
- Himachal Pradesh: Became a full-fledged state on 25 January 1971.
Other Related Points
Explanation of Other Options:
- Option 2 (A), (C), (B), (D), (E): Incorrect as Nagaland (C) was formed after Rajasthan (B).
- Option 3 (A), (E), (C), (B), (D): Incorrect as Himachal Pradesh (E) was formed after Gujarat (D) and Nagaland (C).
- Option 4 (C), (B), (D), (E), (A): Incorrect as Nagaland (C) was formed much later than Bihar (A).
Q25: Who has given the concept of "Political Decay"?
(a) Lucian W. Pye
(b) Samuel P. Huntington
(c) Sidney Verba
(d) Almond and Powell
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is 'Samuel P. Huntington'
Political Decay:
- Samuel P. Huntington introduced the concept of "Political Decay" in his seminal work "Political Order in Changing Societies" (1968).
- Political Decay refers to the process by which political systems deteriorate in their ability to maintain order and ensure good governance.
- Huntington argued that political systems may fail to adapt to changing social and economic conditions, leading to instability, corruption, and inefficiency.
- He emphasized the importance of institutional development and the role of political organizations in maintaining political order.
Other Related Points
Lucian W. Pye:
- Lucian W. Pye was a political scientist known for his work on political culture and development, but he did not specifically develop the concept of political decay.
Sidney Verba:
- Sidney Verba was a prominent political scientist who focused on civic culture and political participation. While his work has been influential, he did not coin the term political decay.
Almond and Powell:
- Gabriel Almond and Bingham Powell are known for their contributions to comparative politics and the study of political systems, but they did not introduce the concept of political decay.
Q26: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)'.
People who should rule are those who know about politics (A - III):
- This idea is associated with Aristotle. Aristotle believed in the concept of philosopher-kings, where those who are knowledgeable about politics and governance should rule.
The achievement of freedom through the abolition of exploitation and oppression (B - IV):
- Karl Marx is known for his theories on class struggle, exploitation, and the need to abolish oppression to achieve freedom.
The Principle of equal basic liberties (C - II):
- John Rawls is recognized for his theory of justice, which includes the principle of equal basic liberties for all individuals.
Freedom, rights, and citizenship of women as well as of men (D - I):
- Mary Wollstonecraft advocated for women's rights and equality, emphasizing that women should have the same freedoms and rights as men.
Other Related Points
Option 1: (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
- This option incorrectly matches A with II (John Rawls) and C with I (Mary Wollstonecraft), which does not align with their recognized theories and beliefs.
Option 2: (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
- This option incorrectly matches B with I (Mary Wollstonecraft), which does not align with her advocacy for women's rights specifically.
Option 3: (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
- This option incorrectly matches A with II (John Rawls) and C with IV (Karl Marx), which does not align with their recognized theories and beliefs.
Q27: Which of the following statements is not correct about Constitutionalism?
(a) Totalitarian Government
(b) Responsible Government
(c) Limited Government
(d) Constitutional Monarchy
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is 'Totalitarian Government.'
Totalitarian Government:
- A totalitarian government is a centralized and dictatorial system where the state holds total authority over society and seeks to control all aspects of public and private life wherever possible.
- This type of government is characterized by the absence of constitutional limits and checks on the powers of the rulers, making it the opposite of constitutionalism.
- In a totalitarian regime, individual freedoms are often suppressed, and political opposition is not tolerated.
Responsible Government:
- A responsible government is one in which the executive branch is accountable to the legislature and, through it, to the electorate.
- This principle ensures that the government remains answerable to the people and operates within the framework of the constitution.
Limited Government:
- A limited government is one where its powers are restricted by a constitution or similar form of authority.
- This concept is central to constitutionalism, which seeks to prevent the abuse of power by ensuring that government actions are constrained by law.
Constitutional Monarchy:
- A constitutional monarchy is a system of government in which a monarch shares power with a constitutionally organized government.
- Here, the monarch's powers are limited by law or by a formal constitution, aligning with the principles of constitutionalism.
Other Related Points
Principles of Constitutionalism:
- Constitutionalism is a doctrine that government authority is derived from and limited by a body of fundamental law or a constitution.
- It involves the establishment of a system of checks and balances to ensure that no branch of government becomes too powerful.
- Constitutionalism promotes the protection of individual rights and liberties against arbitrary government actions.
Importance of Constitutionalism:
- Constitutionalism ensures that the government operates within the framework of the law, providing stability and predictability.
- It helps to safeguard democracy by ensuring that the powers of the government are clearly defined and limited.
- It fosters accountability and transparency in government operations, enhancing public trust.
Q28: Which among the following is not correct about India's Nuclear Policy?
(a) Credible Minimum Nuclear Deterrence
(b) No first use
(c) In Post-Pokharan-II phase, India has agreed to sign NPT and CTBT
(d) Homi J. Bhabha is the architect of India's nuclear programme
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'In Post-Pokharan-II phase, India has agreed to sign NPT and CTBT'
Credible Minimum Nuclear Deterrence:
- India's nuclear doctrine emphasizes maintaining a credible minimum nuclear deterrent.
- This policy ensures that India possesses a sufficient nuclear arsenal to deter adversaries from attempting a nuclear attack.
No First Use:
- India has adopted a 'No First Use' (NFU) policy, which means it commits to not using nuclear weapons unless first attacked by an adversary using nuclear weapons.
- This policy is intended to reduce the risk of nuclear conflict and promote strategic stability.
Homi J. Bhabha is the architect of India's nuclear programme:
- Homi Jehangir Bhabha is widely recognized as the father of India's nuclear program.
- He played a key role in establishing the framework and direction for India's atomic energy efforts.
Other Related Points
- India's stance on NPT and CTBT:
- India has not signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT).
- The NPT aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and promote peaceful uses of nuclear energy, while the CTBT seeks to ban all nuclear explosions for both civilian and military purposes.
- India's refusal to sign these treaties stems from its stance on maintaining strategic autonomy and addressing perceived inequities in the global nuclear order.
Post-Pokharan-II developments:
- After the Pokharan-II nuclear tests in 1998, India declared itself a nuclear-weapon state and articulated its nuclear doctrine.
- Despite international pressure, India has maintained its position of not signing the NPT and CTBT, citing the need for a more equitable and comprehensive approach to global nuclear disarmament.
Q29: Merton's criticism of bureaucratic theory:
(A) Displacement of goals
(B) Trained incapacity
(C) Non conformity
(D) Depersonalisation of relationships
(E) Inadequate accountability and responsibility
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (E) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) Only
(c) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(d) (A), (B) and (E) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B) and (D) Only'
Displacement of goals:
- Refers to a situation where the means to achieve a goal become an end in themselves.
- Bureaucrats may focus more on following rules and procedures rather than achieving the intended goals of the organization.
Trained incapacity:
- Occurs when individuals within a bureaucracy become so specialized in their tasks that they are unable to respond to new or unusual situations.
- This specialization can lead to inefficiency and a lack of innovation.
Depersonalisation of relationships:
- In bureaucratic settings, interactions between individuals are often based on roles and rules rather than personal relationships.
- This can lead to a lack of empathy and understanding in organizational operations.
Other Related Points
Non conformity:
- While non-conformity can be a critique of many systems, it is not a central aspect of Merton's criticism of bureaucratic theory.
- Non-conformity would typically oppose the structured and rule-bound nature of bureaucracies.
Inadequate accountability and responsibility:
- This critique focuses on the lack of clear responsibility and accountability within bureaucratic structures.
- While important, it is not one of the core criticisms highlighted by Merton.
Q30: Arrange the following political philosophers in the chronological order:(Dropped Question)
(A) Karl Popper
(B) John Rawls
(C) C.B. Macpherson
(D) Robert Dahl
(E) Herbert Marcuse
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(b) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
(c) (E), (C), (A), (D), (B)
(d) (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)
Ans: c
Sol: Note: This question has been dropped by NTA.
The correct answer is '(E), (C), (A), (D), (B)'
Herbert Marcuse:
- Born in 1898 and known for his works in critical theory and Marxism.
- His notable works include "One-Dimensional Man" and "Eros and Civilization".
C. B. Macpherson:
- Born in 1911, a Canadian political theorist known for his critique of liberal democracy.
- His famous work is "The Political Theory of Possessive Individualism".
Karl Popper:
- Born in 1902, an Austrian-British philosopher of science and political philosopher.
- He is known for "The Open Society and Its Enemies" and his philosophy of science, particularly the concept of falsifiability.
Robert Dahl:
- Born in 1915, an American political scientist known for his work on democracy and political analysis.
- His famous works include "Who Governs?" and "Democracy and Its Critics".
John Rawls:
- Born in 1921, an American moral and political philosopher.
- Best known for "A Theory of Justice", which introduced the principles of justice as fairness.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
- Option 1: (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) - This order is incorrect as it does not reflect the chronological birth years of the philosophers.
- Option 2: (C), (E), (A), (D), (B) - This order incorrectly places C.B. Macpherson before Herbert Marcuse.
- Option 4: (D), (B), (A), (C), (E) - This order is incorrect as it places Robert Dahl and John Rawls before Karl Popper and C.B. Macpherson, which is not accurate.
Q31: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Shimla Agreement - Indira Gandhi (A)-(II):
- The Shimla Agreement was signed between India and Pakistan in 1972.
- It was signed by then Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi, and President of Pakistan, Zulfikar Ali Bhutto.
- This agreement aimed at establishing peace and normalizing relations between the two countries after the 1971 Indo-Pak war.
Tashkent Agreement - Lal Bahadur Shastri (B)-(IV):
- The Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966 after the Indo-Pakistan War of 1965.
- It was signed by the then Prime Minister of India, Lal Bahadur Shastri, and the President of Pakistan, Ayub Khan.
- The agreement aimed at restoring economic and diplomatic relations between the two nations.
Indus Water Treaty - Jawahar Lal Nehru (C)-(I):
- The Indus Water Treaty was signed in 1960 between India and Pakistan.
- It was signed by the then Prime Minister of India, Jawahar Lal Nehru, and President of Pakistan, Ayub Khan, with the World Bank acting as a third-party mediator.
- This treaty deals with the distribution and management of water resources from the Indus River system.
Indo-US Nuclear Agreement - Manmohan Singh (D)-(III):
- The Indo-US Nuclear Agreement, also known as the 123 Agreement, was signed in 2008.
- It was signed during the tenure of the then Prime Minister of India, Manmohan Singh.
- This agreement allowed for civil nuclear trade between India and the United States, marking a significant shift in their bilateral relations.
Additional Information
Options Explanation:
- Option 2: Incorrect as it mismatches the agreements with the respective leaders.
- Option 3: Incorrect as it incorrectly pairs Lal Bahadur Shastri with the Shimla Agreement.
- Option 4: Incorrect as it mismatches the agreements with the respective leaders.
Q32: New provisions under the Consumer Protection Act include:
(A) Strict Norms for misleading advertisements
(B) Establishment of Central Consumer Protection Authority
(C) Inclusion of E-Commerce, Direct selling
(D) Alternate Dispute Resolution through Mediation
(E) Powers of Consumer to complain have been restricted
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (D) and (E) Only
(b) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(d) (A), (B) and (E) Only
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B), (C), and (D) only.'
New provisions under the Consumer Protection Act:
- Strict Norms for misleading advertisements: The Act has introduced stricter norms to prevent misleading advertisements. This includes penalties for false or misleading advertisements that deceive consumers.
- Establishment of Central Consumer Protection Authority: A Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has been established to regulate matters relating to violations of consumer rights, unfair trade practices, and misleading advertisements.
- Inclusion of E-Commerce, Direct selling: The new provisions bring e-commerce and direct selling under the purview of the Act, ensuring that consumers are protected in these rapidly growing sectors.
- Alternate Dispute Resolution through Mediation: The Act introduces mediation as an alternate dispute resolution mechanism, providing a quicker and less formal means for consumers to resolve disputes.
Other Related Points
Powers of Consumer to complain have been restricted:
- This statement is incorrect. In fact, the new provisions under the Consumer Protection Act have expanded the powers of consumers to file complaints. They can now file complaints electronically and from their place of residence, making the process more consumer-friendly.
Incorrect Options:
- Option 1: Includes (E), which is incorrect as the powers of consumers to complain have not been restricted.
- Option 2: Omits (A), which is a key provision under the new Act regarding misleading advertisements.
- Option 4: Includes (E) and omits (C) and (D), which are crucial new provisions under the Act.
Q33: Who has given the concept of "Managerial Revolution"?
(a) James Burnham
(b) C. Wright Mills
(c) Robert Michels
(d) Karl Mannheim
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is 'James Burnham'.
James Burnham and the Managerial Revolution:
- James Burnham was an American philosopher and political theorist, best known for his work "The Managerial Revolution," published in 1941.
- In this book, Burnham argued that traditional capitalism was declining and being replaced by a new form of economic organization dominated by managers and technocrats.
- He posited that power was shifting from capital owners to a new managerial class who control production and decision-making within large corporations and state bureaucracies.
- The concept suggested a transformation in the structure of society and the economy, where the managerial class held the real power, irrespective of the nominal political system in place.
Other Related Points
C. Wright Mills:
- C. Wright Mills was a sociologist known for his critiques of the power structures in American society, particularly in his book "The Power Elite."
- While he discussed the concentration of power in a small elite group, he did not specifically develop the concept of the Managerial Revolution.
Robert Michels:
- Robert Michels was a political sociologist famous for his "Iron Law of Oligarchy," which posits that all forms of organization, regardless of how democratic they are in the beginning, will eventually and inevitably develop oligarchic tendencies.
- His work did not directly address the idea of a managerial revolution.
Karl Mannheim:
- Karl Mannheim was a sociologist known for his work on the sociology of knowledge and ideology.
- While he explored the role of intellectuals and the diffusion of ideas in society, he did not coin the term Managerial Revolution.
Q34: Indian National Movement had many streams. One of them was Extremist Identify which of the following is correct.
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Bipin Chandra Pal
(D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(E) Dadabhai Naoroji
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) Only
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(c) (A), (B), (C), (D) Only
(d) (B), (C), (D), (E) Only
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B), (C) Only'.
Extremist Leaders in the Indian National Movement:
- The Indian National Movement witnessed the rise of various streams, including the Extremists who advocated for more radical approaches to achieve independence from British rule.
- Key figures in the Extremist movement included Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, and Bipin Chandra Pal. These leaders believed in direct action and were more vocal in their demands for self-rule.
- Bal Gangadhar Tilak is often referred to as the 'Father of Indian Unrest' due to his aggressive stance against British rule.
- Lala Lajpat Rai was a prominent figure in Punjab and actively participated in protests and movements against British policies.
- Bipin Chandra Pal was another significant leader who contributed through his writings and speeches, advocating for Swaraj (self-rule).
Other Related Points
Moderate Leaders:
- Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Dadabhai Naoroji were prominent leaders in the Moderate faction of the Indian National Movement.
- Moderates believed in constitutional methods and gradual reform. They sought to achieve their goals through dialogue, petitions, and discussions with the British government.
- Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a mentor to Mahatma Gandhi and believed in non-violent methods to achieve political reforms.
- Dadabhai Naoroji, often called the 'Grand Old Man of India', was instrumental in highlighting the economic exploitation of India by the British through his 'Drain Theory'.
Incorrect Options Explained:
- Option 2, Option 3, and Option 4 include leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Dadabhai Naoroji, who were not part of the Extremist stream but were Moderates.
- These leaders, while significant, followed a different approach and philosophy compared to the Extremists in the Indian National Movement.
Q35: Arrange chronologically the following International Organisations :
(A) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(B) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)
(C) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(D) G-20
(E) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)
(b) (C), (B), (E), (A), (D)
(c) (B), (C), (E), (A), (D)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (A), (E)
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(C), (B), (E), (A), (D)'
International Monetary Fund (IMF):
- The IMF was established in 1944 during the Bretton Woods Conference and began operations in 1945.
- It aims to promote international monetary cooperation, exchange stability, and balanced growth of international trade.
North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO):
- NATO was founded on April 4, 1949, with the signing of the Washington Treaty.
- It is a military alliance of European and North American countries established for mutual defense against aggression.
South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC):
- SAARC was established on December 8, 1985, with the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka.
- It aims to promote regional cooperation and development among its member states in South Asia.
World Trade Organisation (WTO):
- The WTO was established on January 1, 1995, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
- It oversees global trade rules and helps in negotiating trade agreements and resolving disputes.
G-20:
- The G-20 was established in 1999 in response to the financial crises of the late 1990s.
- It is an international forum for governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union, focusing on global economic issues.
Other Related Points
Other Options:
- Option 1: Incorrect as it places (A) WTO before (E) SAARC, which is incorrect.
- Option 3: Incorrect as it places (B) NATO before (C) IMF, which is incorrect.
- Option 4: Incorrect as it places (D) G-20 before (A) WTO and (E) SAARC, which is incorrect.
Q36: Deliberative Democracy Champions:
(A) Informal debate
(B) Direct participation of citizens
(C) Public use of reason
(D) Impartial pursuit of truth
(E) Monism as well as Dualism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (E) Only
(b) (B) and (C) Only
(c) (A), (C) and (D) Only
(d) (A), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (C) and (D) Only'
Deliberative Democracy:
- Deliberative democracy is a form of democracy in which deliberation is central to decision-making.
- It adopts elements of both consensus decision-making and majority rule.
- Deliberative democracy involves the careful discussion and consideration of all sides of an issue before making a decision.
Informal Debate:
- Informal debate is part of deliberative democracy as it encourages open discussion and exchange of ideas among citizens.
- It allows for diverse perspectives to be shared and considered.
Public Use of Reason:
- Public use of reason refers to the capacity and willingness of citizens to engage in rational discourse about public issues.
- This is crucial for making informed and balanced decisions in a democracy.
Impartial Pursuit of Truth:
- Impartial pursuit of truth ensures that decisions are based on factual information and objective analysis, rather than biases or personal interests.
- This is essential for fair and just decision-making in a democratic society.
Other Related Points
Direct Participation of Citizens:
- While direct participation of citizens is a key aspect of participatory democracy, it is not exclusive to deliberative democracy.
- Deliberative democracy focuses more on the quality of discussion and reasoned debate among participants.
Monism as well as Dualism:
- Monism and dualism are philosophical concepts and do not directly relate to the principles of deliberative democracy.
- They refer to different views on the nature of reality and consciousness rather than democratic processes.
Q37: Rational Choice Theory's impact on Public Administration has been strongly felt in the areas such as:
(A) Organization Behaviour
(B) Local Government
(C) Public Service Delivery
(D) Theory of Democratic Administration
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) Only
(c) (A) and (C) Only
(d) (B) and (C) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B) and (D) Only'
Rational Choice Theory's impact on Public Administration:
- Rational Choice Theory (RCT) posits that individuals make decisions by maximizing utility based on personal preferences and constraints.
- This theory has influenced various areas of public administration by emphasizing efficiency, cost-benefit analysis, and individual choice.
Organization Behaviour:
- RCT has influenced organizational behavior by promoting an understanding of how individuals make decisions within organizations.
- It helps in designing incentive structures and understanding employee motivations.
Local Government:
- In local government, RCT has guided the design of policies and programs that align with the preferences and behaviors of local constituents.
- It emphasizes decentralization and local decision-making to improve efficiency and responsiveness.
Theory of Democratic Administration:
- RCT has contributed to the theory of democratic administration by providing frameworks for understanding voter behavior, public choice, and electoral competition.
- It emphasizes the role of rational actors in democratic processes and the design of democratic institutions.
Other Related Points
Public Service Delivery:
- While RCT has implications for public service delivery, it is more directly applied to organizational behavior, local government, and democratic administration.
- Public service delivery often involves considerations beyond individual rationality, such as equity and social justice.
Q38: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)'
Socialism - Thomas Piketty:
- Thomas Piketty is a prominent economist known for his work on wealth and income inequality.
- His book "Capital in the Twenty-First Century" discusses how wealth concentration threatens social and economic stability, aligning with socialist concerns about inequality.
Feminism - bell hooks:
- bell hooks is a renowned feminist theorist and cultural critic.
- Her work focuses on the intersection of race, capitalism, and gender, advocating for a more inclusive and intersectional approach to feminism.
Ecologism - E.F. Schumacher:
- E.F. Schumacher is known for his seminal work "Small is Beautiful," which critiques industrialism and advocates for sustainable development.
- His ideas emphasize the importance of ecological balance and the need for environmentally sustainable practices.
Multiculturalism - Charles Taylor:
- Charles Taylor is a philosopher who has contributed significantly to the discourse on multiculturalism.
- He argues for the recognition of cultural diversity and the importance of acknowledging and respecting different cultural identities within a society.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
Option 1: (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
- Mismatch as E.F. Schumacher is linked with Ecologism, not Socialism.
- Bell Hooks should be associated with Feminism, not Thomas Piketty.
Option 2: (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
- Charles Taylor is related to Multiculturalism, not Socialism.
- Thomas Piketty does not align with Ecologism.
Option 3: (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
- Bell Hooks should be associated with Feminism, not Socialism.
- E.F. Schumacher is linked with Ecologism, not Socialism.
Q39: Who has given the concept of "Iron law of Oligarchy"?
(a) James Burnham
(b) Raymond Aron
(c) Karl Mannheim
(d) Robert Michels
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'Robert Michels'
Iron Law of Oligarchy:
- Robert Michels, a German sociologist, formulated the Iron Law of Oligarchy in his 1911 book "Political Parties."
- The Iron Law of Oligarchy posits that all forms of organization, regardless of how democratic or autocratic they are at the start, will eventually and inevitably develop oligarchic tendencies.
- This theory suggests that true democracy is practically and theoretically impossible, especially in large and complex organizations.
- Michels argued that the internal dynamics of organizations lead to the concentration of power in the hands of a few leaders or elites, making the rank-and-file members less influential over time.
Other Related Points
Other Options:
- James Burnham:
- James Burnham was an American philosopher and political theorist known for his work on managerial revolution and the dynamics of power, but he did not formulate the Iron Law of Oligarchy.
- Raymond Aron:
- Raymond Aron was a French philosopher and sociologist, recognized for his works on sociology of knowledge and political theory, but he did not develop the concept of the Iron Law of Oligarchy.
- Karl Mannheim:
- Karl Mannheim was a Hungarian sociologist known for his contributions to the sociology of knowledge, but he did not propose the Iron Law of Oligarchy.
Implications of the Iron Law of Oligarchy:
- This concept highlights the challenges faced by democratic organizations in maintaining true democratic practices over time.
- It underscores the tendency for power to become concentrated, even in organizations that start with egalitarian and democratic ideals.
- Understanding this law is crucial for political scientists and sociologists studying the dynamics of power within organizations.
Q40: Advantages of social audit.
(a) Encourages e-democracy
(b) Promotes collective decision making and sharing responsibilities
(c) Trains the community in audit practices
(d) Benefits local bureaucracy and elected representatives
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is 'Promotes collective decision making and sharing responsibilities'
Advantages of social audit:
- Social audits are mechanisms that allow citizens to directly participate in evaluating and monitoring the performance of public services and projects.
- They help ensure transparency and accountability in governance by involving the community in the auditing process.
- Social audits promote collective decision-making and sharing of responsibilities among community members, which fosters a sense of ownership and accountability.
Other Related Points
Encourages e-democracy:
- While social audits can utilize digital tools to facilitate the process, their primary focus is on engaging communities in physical and participatory auditing rather than just promoting e-democracy.
Trains the community in audit practices:
- Social audits do provide an opportunity for community members to learn auditing practices, but this is a secondary benefit. The primary advantage is the collective decision-making process and shared responsibilities.
Benefits local bureaucracy and elected representatives:
- While social audits can indirectly benefit local bureaucracy and representatives by improving service delivery and accountability, the primary focus is on empowering the community and promoting transparency.
Q41: Who had envisioned the evolution of human life into a divine life in a divine body?
(a) M. N. Roy
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Deendayal Upadhayay
(d) Aurobindo Ghosh
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'Aurobindo Ghosh'
Aurobindo Ghosh:
- Aurobindo Ghosh, also known as Sri Aurobindo, was an Indian philosopher, yogi, guru, poet, and nationalist.
- He envisioned the evolution of human life into a divine life in a divine body.
- His philosophy of Integral Yoga aims at transforming human nature into divine nature, leading to the manifestation of a divine life on Earth.
- Sri Aurobindo believed in the potential of human beings to evolve spiritually and achieve a higher state of consciousness and existence.
Other Options:
M. N. Roy:
- M. N. Roy was an Indian revolutionary, radical activist, and political theorist, best known for his involvement in the Indian independence movement and his advocacy of radical humanism.
- He did not focus on the spiritual evolution of human life as envisioned by Aurobindo Ghosh.
Ram Manohar Lohia:
- Ram Manohar Lohia was an Indian freedom fighter and a socialist political leader. He was known for his work towards social equality and his contributions to the Indian independence movement.
- His work did not primarily concern the spiritual evolution and transformation of human life.
Deendayal Upadhayay:
- Deen Dayal Upadhayay was an Indian politician, philosopher, and the leader of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, the forerunner of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
- He is known for his philosophy of Integral Humanism, which emphasizes the holistic development of human beings but does not focus on the spiritual transformation to a divine life as Sri Aurobindo did.
Q42: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)'
Labour Party (A) - III. Britain:
- The Labour Party is a major political party in Britain, known for its center-left political stance and its focus on social justice, workers' rights, and public ownership.
Republican Party (B) - IV. America:
- The Republican Party is one of the two major political parties in the United States, often associated with conservative and right-leaning policies.
The Islamic Salvation Front (C) - II. Algeria:
- The Islamic Salvation Front is a political party in Algeria that gained prominence in the early 1990s, advocating for an Islamic state and Sharia law.
Awami League (D) - I. Bangladesh:
- The Awami League is a major political party in Bangladesh, known for its role in the country's independence movement and its center-left political stance.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options Analysis:
Option 1: (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
- This option incorrectly matches The Islamic Salvation Front to Bangladesh and Awami League to Algeria.
Option 2: (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
- This option incorrectly matches Labour Party to Bangladesh, Republican Party to Algeria, The Islamic Salvation Front to Britain, and Awami League to America.
Option 3: (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
- This option incorrectly matches Labour Party to Algeria, Republican Party to Britain, The Islamic Salvation Front to America, and Awami League to Bangladesh.
Q43: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)'
Inside Out Approach - Classical Realism:
- Classical Realism focuses on the influence of human nature on international relations, emphasizing the role of state leaders and their motivations.
- The Inside Out Approach examines internal factors such as domestic politics, individual leaders, and ideologies to understand state behavior.
Outside In Approach - Structural Realism:
- Structural Realism, also known as Neorealism, emphasizes the international system's structure over individual states' internal characteristics.
- The Outside In Approach looks at external factors like the distribution of power in the international system to explain state behavior.
Theory of Relative Gain - Realism:
- Realism posits that states are primarily concerned with maintaining and increasing their relative power compared to other states.
- The Theory of Relative Gain suggests that states focus on how much more or less they gain in comparison to others, driving competitive and often conflictual international relations.
Theory of Absolute Gain - Liberalism:
- Liberalism, in contrast to Realism, emphasizes cooperation and mutual benefits in international relations.
- The Theory of Absolute Gain proposes that states are concerned with the total benefits they receive from cooperation, regardless of how much others gain, leading to more collaborative and peaceful interactions.
Other Options Explained:
- (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV): This option incorrectly matches theories and approaches, as Liberalism is not associated with the Inside Out Approach, and Realism is not linked to the Outside In Approach.
- (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I): This option incorrectly pairs the theories with the approaches, as Classical Realism is not linked to the Outside In Approach, and Structural Realism is not tied to the Theory of Absolute Gain.
- (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II): This option incorrectly associates Structural Realism with the Inside Out Approach and Classical Realism with the Outside In Approach, which is not accurate according to theoretical frameworks.
Q44: Which statements are incorrect with reference to the Election Campaign in India?
(A) Government provides resources for the election campaign
(B) No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters
(C) No party or candidate can use any place of worship for election propaganda
(D) No party or candidate can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion
(E) Once elections are announced, ministers shall not lay the foundation stone of any project or make any promise to the voters
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(c) (B) and (D) Only
(d) (A), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A) Only'
Election Campaign in India:
- The Election Commission of India (ECI) regulates the election campaign processes to ensure free and fair elections.
- These regulations include guidelines on campaign conduct, expenditures, and ethical standards.
Incorrect Statement:
- Government provides resources for the election campaign: This statement is incorrect as the government does not provide resources to political parties or candidates for their election campaigns. Political parties and candidates must fund their campaigns through their resources, subject to the expenditure limits set by the ECI.
Other Related Points
Other Statements:
- No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters: This is correct and a crucial aspect of ensuring free and fair elections. Bribery and threats are illegal and punishable under the law.
- No party or candidate can use any place of worship for election propaganda: This is also correct. Using places of worship for political campaigns is prohibited to maintain the secular nature of elections.
- No party or candidate can appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion: This is correct. Appeals based on caste or religion are banned to prevent divisive tactics and promote unity.
- Once elections are announced, ministers shall not lay the foundation stone of any project or make any promise to the voters: This is correct. This rule is in place to prevent the misuse of government resources and influence during election periods.
Q45: Management by objectives was the key idea put forward by Peter Drucker in :
(a) Managing for Results
(b) The New Society
(c) The Frontier of Management
(d) The Practice of Management
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'The Practice of Management'.
Management by Objectives (MBO):
- Management by Objectives is a strategic management model that aims to improve organizational performance by clearly defining objectives agreed upon by both management and employees.
- Peter Drucker introduced this concept in his 1954 book 'The Practice of Management'.
- The MBO approach promotes participation in goal setting and regular reviews of performance, enhancing communication and aligning individual and organizational goals.
Other Related Points
Managing for Results:
- This book by Peter Drucker, published in 1964, focuses on identifying the business's key areas that will yield the most impactful results and how to effectively manage these areas.
- While it discusses various management strategies, it does not specifically introduce the concept of Management by Objectives.
The New Society:
- Published in 1950, this book explores the emerging post-World War II society and its implications on business and management.
- It does not directly address the concept of Management by Objectives.
The Frontier of Management:
- This 1986 book is a compilation of Peter Drucker's articles and essays on management practices, trends, and innovations.
- Although it covers a wide range of management topics, it is not the book where Drucker originally introduced the MBO concept.
Q46: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)'
Government requires a special elite (IV. Conservatism):
- Conservatism often emphasizes the need for a stable and orderly society, which it believes can be maintained by a special elite who are deemed more capable of governing effectively.
- This perspective holds that traditional institutions and hierarchies are important for societal stability and continuity.
Majority of the population are incapable of effective self-government (I. Liberalism):
- Liberalism, especially in its classical form, sometimes argues that not all individuals are equally capable of self-governance due to varying levels of education and understanding.
- This view can lead to the support of representative democracy where educated elites make decisions on behalf of the general population.
Political democracy ignores the lack of democracy in economic relations (II. Marxism):
- Marxism critiques political democracy by highlighting that true democracy cannot be achieved without addressing economic inequalities.
- Marxists argue that economic power is concentrated in the hands of a few, which undermines the political power of the majority.
Democratic systems reflect gender divisions in society (III. Feminism):
- Feminism points out that democratic systems often reflect and perpetuate existing gender inequalities in society.
- Feminists advocate for the recognition and rectification of gender biases within political and social structures.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options Overview:
Option 1: (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
- This option incorrectly matches Liberalism with the need for a special elite, which is more aligned with Conservatism.
- It also incorrectly matches the majority's incapability of self-government with Feminism.
Option 2: (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
- This option incorrectly matches the need for a special elite with Marxism and majority's incapability of self-government with Liberalism.
- It also mismatches the critique of political democracy's economic relations with Conservatism.
Option 4: (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
- This option incorrectly matches the need for a special elite with Feminism and majority's incapability of self-government with Marxism.
- It also mismatches the critique of political democracy's economic relations with Liberalism.
Q47: Consider the statements about Constitutional Government.
(A) It is a form of limited government
(B) One where Constitution is the basis of public authority
(C) One where Prime Minister is the formal head of the state
(D) One where there is always universal adult franchise
(E) One where there is always limited adult franchise
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (E) Only
(d) (A), (B), and (D) Only
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A) and (B) Only'
Constitutional Government:
- A constitutional government is one in which the powers and duties of the government are defined and limited by a constitution.
- Such a government operates within the framework of a written or unwritten constitution, which serves as the supreme law.
Limited Government:
- In a constitutional government, the powers of the government are limited by law, ensuring that no branch or individual can exercise unchecked authority.
- This principle of limited government is fundamental to protecting individual liberties and preventing tyranny.
Basis of Public Authority:
- The constitution serves as the foundation of public authority, outlining the structure, functions, and limits of government institutions.
- It establishes the rule of law, ensuring that government actions are based on established legal principles and procedures.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
Prime Minister as Formal Head of State:
- This statement is incorrect as the Prime Minister is not the formal head of state in most constitutional governments. In many countries, this role is fulfilled by a President or a Monarch.
Universal Adult Franchise:
- While many constitutional governments do have universal adult franchise, it is not a defining feature of all constitutional governments. Some may have restricted suffrage based on various criteria.
Limited Adult Franchise:
- Similarly, limited adult franchise is not a defining characteristic of constitutional governments. The franchise system can vary widely depending on the specific constitution and historical context.
Q48: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)'
World System Theory:
- Developed by Immanuel Wallerstein, this theory suggests that there is a world economic system in which some countries benefit while others are exploited.
- It divides the world into core, semi-periphery, and periphery countries, describing the dynamics between them.
Social Constructivism:
- Associated with Alexander Wendt, this theory emphasizes that international relations are shaped by social constructs and shared ideas rather than material forces alone.
- It focuses on how identities, norms, and cultures shape the international system.
Defensive Realism:
- Proposed by Kenneth Waltz, this theory argues that states seek to maintain their security through balance of power and often prefer defensive postures over aggressive actions.
- It emphasizes the importance of the structure of the international system in influencing state behavior.
Offensive Realism:
- Advanced by John Mearsheimer, this theory posits that states are inherently aggressive and seek to maximize their power to ensure security.
- It suggests that the anarchic nature of the international system compels states to adopt offensive strategies.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
Option 1: (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
- This option incorrectly associates World System Theory with Alexander Wendt and Social Constructivism with Immanuel Wallerstein.
Option 3: (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
- This option incorrectly matches Defensive Realism with John Mearsheimer and Offensive Realism with Kenneth Waltz.
Option 4: (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
- This option incorrectly associates World System Theory with Kenneth Waltz and Social Constructivism with John Mearsheimer.
Q49: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)'
Doklam Confrontation (A-III):
- The Doklam Confrontation occurred during Narendra Modi's tenure as Prime Minister of India in 2017.
- This standoff was between India and China over the disputed territory of Doklam, near the tri-junction of India, China, and Bhutan.
Bangladesh War (B-IV):
- The Bangladesh War, also known as the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971, took place during Indira Gandhi's tenure as Prime Minister of India.
- This war led to the creation of Bangladesh, formerly East Pakistan, following India's military intervention in support of the Bengali nationalist movement.
Kargil War (C-I):
- The Kargil War occurred in 1999, during Atal Bihari Vajpayee's tenure as Prime Minister of India.
- This conflict was between India and Pakistan in the Kargil district of Jammu and Kashmir and was a significant military engagement.
1965 Indo-Pakistan War (D-II):
- The 1965 Indo-Pakistan War took place during Lal Bahadur Shastri's tenure as Prime Minister of India.
- This war was sparked by territorial disputes over the Kashmir region and ended with a ceasefire brokered by the Soviet Union and the United States.
Other Related Points
Other Options Explained:
- Option 2: Incorrect because it incorrectly matches the Bangladesh War to Narendra Modi and the Kargil War to Lal Bahadur Shastri.
- Option 3: Incorrect because it wrongly associates the Kargil War with Lal Bahadur Shastri and the 1965 Indo-Pakistan War with Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
- Option 4: Incorrect because it incorrectly pairs the Doklam Confrontation with Lal Bahadur Shastri and the Bangladesh War with Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Q50: Development Administration encompasses:
(A) Activities relating to Centralization and limiting the number of agencies that deal with development to be undertaken
(B) New management agencies and systems must be devised
(C) Introduction of competent planning and monitoring delivery
(D) Appointing trained personnel to give specialized support
(E) Regulating the agencies that deal with commercial activities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (E) Only
(c) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(d) (A), (E) and (D) Only
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(B), (C) and (D) Only'
Development Administration:
- Development Administration refers to the processes and structures involved in implementing development policies and programs. It focuses on the efficient and effective delivery of public services, particularly in developing countries.
- It involves the establishment of new management agencies and systems to handle development initiatives effectively (Option B).
- Competent planning and monitoring delivery mechanisms are critical for ensuring that development projects are executed successfully and achieve their intended outcomes (Option C).
- Appointing trained personnel to provide specialized support ensures that the development initiatives are carried out by individuals who have the necessary expertise and skills (Option D).
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
(A) Activities relating to Centralization and limiting the number of agencies that deal with development to be undertaken:
- Centralization can often lead to inefficiencies and bureaucratic delays, which are contrary to the goals of development administration which aims to be flexible and responsive.
(E) Regulating the agencies that deal with commercial activities:
- While regulation is important, it is not a core component of development administration, which focuses more on public service delivery and development management.
Q51: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)'
List I and List II Matching:
- Stephen P. Osborne - Public Management: Critical Perspectives on Business and Management
- Christopher Hood - The Art of the State: Culture, Rhetoric and Public Management
- Jan-Erik Lane - New Public Management: An Introduction
- Michael Barzelay - The NPM: Improving Research and Policy Dialogue
Explanation of Other Options:
Option 1: (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
- This option incorrectly matches all pairs. For example, Stephen P. Osborne wrote 'Public Management: Critical Perspectives on Business and Management' and not 'The NPM: Improving Research and Policy Dialogue'.
Option 3: (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
- This option incorrectly matches all pairs. For instance, Christopher Hood wrote 'The Art of the State: Culture, Rhetoric and Public Management' and not 'New Public Management: An Introduction'.
Option 4: (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
- This option incorrectly matches all pairs. For example, Jan-Erik Lane wrote 'New Public Management: An Introduction' and not 'Public Management: Critical Perspectives on Business and Management'.
Q52: Hannah Arendt analyses the Vita activa via three categories which corresponds to the three fundamental activities of our being in the world.
(a) Capital, job and pleasure
(b) Desire, fulfilment and violence
(c) Labour, work and action
(d) Freedom, suffering and rights
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'Labour, work and action'.
Hannah Arendt's Vita Activa:
- Hannah Arendt, a prominent political theorist, in her work "The Human Condition," introduced the concept of Vita activa, which she categorizes into three fundamental human activities: labour, work, and action.
- Labour: This refers to the biological processes and necessities of human life, such as sustenance and reproduction. It is the activity that corresponds to the human condition of life itself.
- Work: This represents the creation of an artificial world of things, the environment and objects we create for ourselves. It corresponds to the human condition of worldliness.
- Action: This is the only activity that goes on directly between men without the intermediary of things or matter, and it corresponds to the human condition of plurality, the fact that men, not Man, live on the earth and inhabit the world.
Other Related Points
Other Options:
- Capital, job and pleasure: These terms do not align with Arendt's categories. Capital and job are economic terms, while pleasure is a psychological state, none of which correspond directly to her philosophical distinctions.
- Desire, fulfilment and violence: These are more related to psychological or emotional states and actions, rather than the structural activities Arendt identifies in human life.
- Freedom, suffering and rights: These are important themes in political and philosophical discourse but do not correspond to Arendt’s categories of human activities. Freedom and rights are associated with political philosophy, while suffering is a broader existential concept.
Q53: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(1)
(d) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)'
Heartland Theory - Halford J. Mackinder:
- Halford Mackinder formulated the Heartland Theory in 1904, which posits that the nation that controls Eastern Europe commands the Heartland and, subsequently, the world.
- The Heartland is the central part of Eurasia, which is pivotal for global dominance due to its geographical and strategic importance.
Rimland Theory - Nicholas Spykman:
- Nicholas Spykman proposed the Rimland Theory, which emphasizes the importance of coastal fringes (Rimlands) of Eurasia, asserting that controlling these areas leads to global supremacy.
- This theory counters Mackinder's Heartland Theory by highlighting the strategic value of maritime edges rather than inland areas.
Sea Power Theory - A.T. Mahan:
- A.T. Mahan's Sea Power Theory stresses the strategic importance of a strong navy and control over sea routes for national power and global influence.
- His ideas influenced naval strategies and policies of various countries, particularly during the early 20th century.
Air Power Theory - Alexander Seversky:
- Alexander Seversky articulated the Air Power Theory, which underscores the significance of air superiority and the strategic use of air forces in modern warfare.
- Seversky's concepts contributed to the development and emphasis on air capabilities within military doctrines.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options Breakdown:
- Option 2: Incorrect because Rimland Theory is attributed to Nicholas Spykman, not Halford Mackinder.
- Option 3: Incorrect because Sea Power Theory is attributed to A.T. Mahan, not Alexander Seversky.
- Option 4: Incorrect because Air Power Theory is attributed to Alexander Seversky, not Nicholas Spykman.
Importance of Theories:
- Each theory provides a distinct perspective on geopolitical strategy and has influenced military and political strategies globally.
- Understanding these theories is crucial for analyzing historical and contemporary geopolitical dynamics.
Q54: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
First Lok Sabha Election:
- The first Lok Sabha elections in India were held in 1951-1952, marking the beginning of democratic governance in the country.
- The correct match for this event is 1952 (IV).
Adoption of the Constitution:
- The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949.
- The correct match for this event is 1949 (II).
First Republic Day:
- India celebrated its first Republic Day on January 26, 1950, marking the day the Constitution came into effect.
- The correct match for this event is 1950 (I).
Promulgation of Emergency:
- The Emergency in India was declared on June 25, 1975, by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.
- The correct match for this event is 1975 (III).
Other Related Points
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
- Option 2: Matches (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) are incorrect because the first Lok Sabha election was not in 1949 (II), the adoption of the Constitution was not in 1975 (III), and the promulgation of Emergency was not in 1952 (IV).
- Option 3: Matches (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) are incorrect because the first Lok Sabha election was not in 1975 (III), and the promulgation of Emergency was not in 1952 (IV).
- Option 4: Matches (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) are incorrect because the first Lok Sabha election was not in 1950 (I), the first Republic Day was not in 1975 (III), and the promulgation of Emergency was not in 1952 (IV).
Q55: Application of the laws of dialectics in social life is demonstrated through the principle of :
(a) Social materialism
(b) Economic materialism
(c) Historical materialism
(d) Cultural materialism
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'Historical materialism'
Historical materialism:
- Historical materialism is a theory developed by Karl Marx which focuses on the ways in which societies develop through history based on material conditions and economic factors.
- It posits that material conditions, including the modes of production and economic practices, fundamentally shape social structures, political institutions, and ideologies.
- According to historical materialism, societal change occurs through the dialectical process, where contradictions within the economic base and superstructure lead to transformative social developments.
Other Related Points
Social materialism:
- Social materialism is not a widely recognized or specific theoretical framework. It may refer to a general emphasis on the material aspects of social life, but it lacks the structured theoretical basis found in historical materialism.
Economic materialism:
- Economic materialism focuses on the importance of material wealth and economic factors in shaping human behavior and societal structures. While it overlaps with historical materialism in emphasizing economic factors, it does not encompass the broader historical and dialectical analysis.
Cultural materialism:
- Cultural materialism is a theoretical framework in anthropology and cultural studies that examines cultural practices in terms of their material conditions and economic factors. It diverges from historical materialism by focusing more on cultural and ideological aspects rather than broader socio-economic transformations.
Q56: Arrange the following events/incidents related to Sino-India relations chronologically.
(A) Chinese Invasion of India
(B) Wuhan Spirit
(C) Galwan Valley Incident
(D) Chennai Connect
(E) Nathu La Skirmishes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (E), (B), (D), (C)
(b) (E), (A), (B), (D), (C)
(c) (A), (E), (D), (B), (C)
(d) (A), (E), (C), (B), (D)
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is ' (A), (E), (B), (D), (C)'
Chinese Invasion of India (1962):
- The Sino-Indian War, also known as the Chinese Invasion of India, took place in 1962.
- This conflict arose from border disputes between China and India.
- It resulted in a significant defeat for India and had long-lasting effects on Sino-India relations.
Nathu La Skirmishes (1967):
- The Nathu La and Cho La clashes occurred between Indian and Chinese troops in 1967.
- These skirmishes were among the major military confrontations post the 1962 war.
- India successfully defended its positions, leading to a stalemate.
Chennai Connect (2019):
- The Chennai Connect refers to the informal summit held in October 2019 between Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping.
- This summit aimed at enhancing mutual trust and understanding between the two leaders and countries.
Wuhan Spirit (2018):
- The Wuhan Spirit emerged from the informal summit held in April 2018 between the leaders of India and China in Wuhan.
- The main goal was to improve diplomatic relations and manage border disputes peacefully.
Galwan Valley Incident (2020):
- The Galwan Valley Incident occurred in June 2020, leading to a deadly clash between Indian and Chinese troops.
- It resulted in casualties on both sides and heightened tensions along the Line of Actual Control (LAC).
Q57: Different countries have different kinds of Political Party System. Identify the right answer from the given options.
(A) China is a Communist country, therefore it has single party system
(B) India enjoys multi party system
(C) Britain has two party system
(D) Japan enjoys two party system
(E) South Africa has single party system
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(b) (A), (B), (C) Only
(c) (B), (C), (D), (E) Only
(d) (C), (D), (E) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B), (C) Only'.
China is a Communist country, therefore it has single party system:
- China is governed by the Communist Party of China (CPC), which is the only legal party in the country.
- The single-party system means that no other political parties are allowed to govern or compete for power.
India enjoys multi party system:
- India has a multi-party system, which means multiple political parties compete in elections and can hold power at different levels of government.
- This system allows for a diverse representation of interests and ideologies within the political framework of the country.
Britain has two party system:
- The United Kingdom primarily features a two-party system, dominated by the Conservative Party and the Labour Party.
- While other parties exist, these two have historically been the major players in British politics.
Other Related Points
Japan enjoys two party system:
- This statement is incorrect. Japan has a multi-party system, with the Liberal Democratic Party (LDP) being one of the dominant parties, but other parties also play significant roles.
South Africa has single party system:
- This statement is incorrect. South Africa has a multi-party system, with the African National Congress (ANC) being the dominant party, but other parties such as the Democratic Alliance (DA) and the Economic Freedom Fighters (EFF) also participate in the political process.
Q58: United States of America is still the "Sole Super Power" of the world.
(A) Best and brightest of the world prefer to migrate to America
(B) American dream is still intact
(C) USA is the most indebted country of the world
(D) Global surplus capital gets accumulated in the USA
(E) USA still is the Global leader in the development of new innovative technology
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(c) (A), (B), (D) and (E) Only
(d) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B), (D) and (E) Only'
USA still is the Global leader in the development of new innovative technology:
- The United States has consistently been at the forefront of technological innovation, with companies like Google, Apple, Microsoft, and Tesla leading advancements in various fields.
- This leadership in technology is a crucial component of its status as a superpower, as it drives economic growth, military capabilities, and global influence.
- Innovation hubs like Silicon Valley attract talent from around the world, further cementing the USA's position in technology development.
Best and brightest of the world prefer to migrate to America:
- The United States remains a top destination for skilled immigrants, offering opportunities for education, career advancement, and a higher standard of living.
- This influx of talent contributes to the nation's economic and technological prowess.
American dream is still intact:
- The concept of the American Dream, which promises prosperity and success through hard work, continues to attract people globally.
- This cultural ideal supports the notion of the USA as a land of opportunity, reinforcing its superpower status.
Global surplus capital gets accumulated in the USA:
- The United States is a major destination for foreign investment, with global capital flowing into its markets seeking stability and returns.
- This accumulation of capital strengthens the U.S. economy and its position in the global financial system.
Other Related Points
USA is the most indebted country of the world:
- While the USA's high national debt is a significant economic challenge, it does not negate its status as a superpower. The country's vast resources, economic output, and global influence mitigate the impact of its debt.
Q59: Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India has initiated measures to make the Panchayats vibrant. Arrange the following in sequential order, from earlier to later time.(Dropped Question)
(A) SVAMITVA Scheme, Property Survey
(B) PM Suryaghar Free Electricity Scheme to install rooftop solar and provide free electricity upto 300 monthly units
(C) Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) with focus on localization of Sustainable Development Goals
(D) Release of a standard operating procedure (SOP) regarding e-gram Swaraj to bring in better transparency
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (C), (B) and (D)
(b) (B), (C), (A) and (D)
(c) (D), (A), (C) and (B)
(d) (C), (D), (A) and (B)
Ans: c
Sol: Note: This question has been dropped by NTA.
The correct answer is (D), (A), (C) and (B)
Ministry of Panchayati Raj Initiatives:
- The Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Government of India, has implemented several measures to empower and make the Panchayats vibrant.
- These initiatives aim to improve governance, infrastructure, and sustainable development at the grassroots level.
Release of SOP regarding e-gram Swaraj:
- This was the earliest measure taken to enhance transparency and efficiency in Panchayat operations through digital means.
- The SOP provided guidelines for the implementation of e-gram Swaraj.
SVAMITVA Scheme, Property Survey:
- This scheme was launched to provide rural people with the right to document their residential properties.
- It aimed at creating accurate land records for rural planning and reducing property disputes.
Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA):
- This initiative focused on the localization of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
- It aimed to strengthen the Panchayati Raj system and ensure better delivery of services.
PM Suryaghar Free Electricity Scheme
- This was the latest measure introduced to install rooftop solar panels and provide free electricity up to 300 units per month.
- It aimed at promoting renewable energy and reducing the energy burden on rural households.
Q60: Which of the following are variants of International Liberalism?
(A) Complex Interdependence
(B) Institutional Liberalism
(C) Republican/Democratic Liberalism
(D) Neoliberalism
(E) Classical Liberalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(d) (B), (C), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B) and (C) Only'.
International Liberalism:
- International Liberalism is a theory in international relations that emphasizes the role of individuals, norms, institutions, and cooperation among states.
- The primary focus is on creating a peaceful and cooperative international environment through democratic governance, economic interdependence, and international institutions.
Variants of International Liberalism:
Complex Interdependence:
- Proposed by Robert Keohane and Joseph Nye, it suggests that states and their fortunes are inextricably linked through multiple channels of interaction, leading to a decline in the use of military force.
Institutional Liberalism:
- Emphasizes the role of international institutions in fostering cooperation and managing conflicts among states. Institutions such as the United Nations and the World Trade Organization are key actors.
Republican/Democratic Liberalism:
- Focuses on the idea that democracies are less likely to go to war with each other, promoting peace and cooperation through democratic governance.
Other Related Points
Neoliberalism:
- Although neoliberalism is related to liberalism, it focuses more on economic policies advocating for free-market capitalism, deregulation, and reduction in government spending, rather than specifically on international relations.
Classical Liberalism:
- Classical liberalism is a political ideology that values the freedom of individuals—including the freedom of religion, speech, press, assembly, and markets—rather than focusing on international relations. It emphasizes the role of constitutional limits on government and protection of individual rights.
Q61: Which of the following statements are correct regarding conservatism?
(A) Conservatism postulates collective leadership, promotes treaties to achieve peace and order
(B) Sympathises with free-market ideology, greater emphasis on nationalism and the authority of the state
(C) A disposition or an 'attitude of mind' placing their faith in pragmatism, tradition and history
(D) Provides a model for change, improves freedom of thought and take steps to improve happiness of masses
(E) Conservatives believe in equality and they work towards reducing various kinds of inequalities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (B) and (C) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (E) Only
(d) (C) and (D) Only
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(B) and (C) Only'.
Conservatism:
- Conservatism is a political and social philosophy promoting traditional institutions, practices, and values.
- It emphasizes the importance of stability, continuity, and gradual change over radical reforms.
Sympathises with free-market ideology:
- Conservatives often support a free-market economy with minimal government intervention, believing it leads to economic growth and individual freedom.
- They advocate for property rights, free enterprise, and limited government regulation.
Emphasis on nationalism and the authority of the state:
- Conservatism places a strong emphasis on national sovereignty, patriotism, and the preservation of cultural heritage.
- It upholds the authority of the state to maintain order, enforce laws, and protect national interests.
Pragmatism, tradition, and history:
- Conservatives value practical solutions based on experience and historical precedent rather than abstract theories or ideologies.
- They believe in preserving and building upon established traditions and institutions that have stood the test of time.
Other Related Points
Collective leadership and peace treaties:
- While some conservative thinkers may advocate for collective leadership and international treaties, this is not a defining feature of conservatism.
- Conservatism generally focuses more on national sovereignty and may be skeptical of supranational organizations or treaties that could undermine national authority.
Model for change and happiness of masses:
- Conservatism does not typically provide a model for radical change or social engineering aimed at improving mass happiness.
- Instead, it advocates for incremental and cautious reforms to preserve social stability and order.
Equality and reducing inequalities:
- Conservatives believe in equal opportunity but may not prioritize reducing economic or social inequalities through government intervention.
- They often argue that too much focus on equality can undermine meritocracy and individual responsibility.
Q62: Who had organised the Abhinava Bharat, a Secret Society of Revolution?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) V.D. Savarkar
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Prafulla Chaki
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is 'V.D. Savarkar'.
V.D. Savarkar:
- Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, commonly known as V.D. Savarkar, was an Indian independence activist, lawyer, politician, poet, writer, and playwright.
- He founded the secret society called Abhinava Bharat in 1904 to fight against British colonial rule.
- The society aimed at promoting revolutionary activities and preparing for armed struggle against the British government.
- Abhinava Bharat played a significant role in inspiring and organizing revolutionary activities in the early 20th century.
Other Related Points
Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
- Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent Indian nationalist, teacher, and independence activist.
- He was a key figure in the Indian independence movement but did not organize the Abhinava Bharat society.
- Tilak is often referred to as the 'Father of Indian Unrest' and was known for his radical approach to achieving independence.
Aurobindo Ghosh:
- Aurobindo Ghosh was an Indian philosopher, yogi, guru, poet, and nationalist.
- He was involved in revolutionary activities and later became a spiritual leader, but he did not found Abhinava Bharat.
- Aurobindo played a major role in the early nationalist movement and later turned towards spiritual and philosophical pursuits.
Prafulla Chaki:
- Prafulla Chaki was a Bengali revolutionary associated with the Jugantar group, which was another revolutionary organization active during the Indian independence movement.
- He did not organize the Abhinava Bharat society but was involved in revolutionary activities and known for his role in the assassination attempt on a British official.
Q63: Who observed that intellectuals "are the dominant groups 'deputies' exercising the subaltern functions of social hegemony and political government"?
(a) Mao Zedong
(b) Antonio Gramsci
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Frantz Fanon
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is Antonio Gramsci.
Antonio Gramsci:
- Antonio Gramsci was an Italian Marxist philosopher and communist politician.
- Gramsci is best known for his theory of cultural hegemony, which describes how the state and ruling capitalist class use cultural institutions to maintain power in capitalist societies.
- He observed that intellectuals are the "deputies" of the dominant groups, exercising subaltern functions of social hegemony and political government.
- According to Gramsci, intellectuals play a crucial role in maintaining the consent of the ruled classes, ensuring the stability and continuation of the capitalist system.
Other Related Points
Mao Zedong:
- Mao Zedong was the founding father of the People's Republic of China and a key figure in the Chinese Communist Party.
- Mao's theories, military strategies, and political policies are collectively known as Maoism.
- While Mao focused on the role of the peasantry in revolution and class struggle, he did not specifically address the role of intellectuals as deputies of dominant groups in the same way Gramsci did.
Karl Marx:
- Karl Marx was a German philosopher, economist, historian, sociologist, political theorist, journalist, and socialist revolutionary.
- Marx's work in economics laid the foundation for the current understanding of labor and its relation to capital.
- Though Marx discussed the role of the bourgeoisie and proletariat, he did not specifically focus on the role of intellectuals in the context described by Gramsci.
Frantz Fanon:
- Frantz Fanon was a French West Indian psychiatrist and political philosopher whose works are influential in the fields of post-colonial studies, critical theory, and Marxism.
- Fanon wrote extensively on the psychopathology of colonization and the human, social, and cultural consequences of decolonization.
- While Fanon addressed the dynamics of power and oppression, his focus was more on the psychological and cultural impact of colonialism rather than the specific role of intellectuals in maintaining social hegemony and political government.
Q64: Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) India will not use its nuclear weapons against non-nuclear states
(B) India is committed to no-first use of nuclear weapons
(C) India will transfer nuclear technology to friendly countries
(D) India will extend its nuclear umbrella to its friendly neighbouring countries in South Asia
(E) India will develop credible nuclear deterrent capability
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (E) Only
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (E) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(d) (A), (B), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B) and (E) Only'
India's Nuclear Policy:
- India has a declared policy of no-first-use (NFU) of nuclear weapons, meaning it commits not to use nuclear weapons unless first attacked by an adversary using nuclear weapons. This is reflected in statement (B).
- India has also stated that it will not use its nuclear weapons against non-nuclear states, which aligns with statement (A).
- India aims to develop a credible nuclear deterrent to ensure national security, as mentioned in statement (E).
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
- Statement (C) claims that India will transfer nuclear technology to friendly countries. However, India has consistently adhered to non-proliferation norms and has not engaged in transferring nuclear weapons technology.
- Statement (D) suggests that India will extend its nuclear umbrella to friendly neighboring countries in South Asia. India has not formally articulated a policy of extending its nuclear deterrent to other countries in the region.
India's International Commitments:
- India is a responsible nuclear state and adheres to various international norms and treaties related to nuclear non-proliferation, such as the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards.
- India's nuclear doctrine emphasizes maintaining a credible minimum deterrent and a posture of restraint and responsibility.
Q65: What do political parties, pressure groups, public opinion, popular movements have in common?
They are: (Dropped Question)
(a) Formal organisations of power
(b) Informal organisations of power
(c) Helping the governments of the day in governance
(d) Existing only in democracies
Ans: b
Sol: Note: This question has been dropped by NTA.
The correct answer is 'Informal organisations of power'
Informal organisations of power:
- Political parties, pressure groups, public opinion, and popular movements are considered informal organisations because they influence the political process and decision-making without being a part of the formal government structure.
- They play a significant role in shaping policies, representing interests, and bringing about social change through advocacy, protests, and other forms of public engagement.
- These entities are crucial in a democracy as they provide a means for citizens to express their views, hold the government accountable, and participate in the political process outside of formal electoral mechanisms.
Other Related Points
Formal organisations of power:
- This refers to institutions that are officially part of the government structure, such as the executive, legislature, and judiciary.
- Political parties and pressure groups do not fit this description as they operate outside of these formal structures.
Helping the governments of the day in governance:
- While these entities can influence governance, their primary role is not to assist governments directly but to advocate for particular interests and influence public policy.
Existing only in democracies:
- Although these organisations are more prominent in democracies, they can exist in other political systems as well, though their influence and functioning might be restricted.
Q66: Who contended that "we are concerned only with finding a choice mechanism that will lead it to pursue a "satisficing" path, a path that will permit satisfaction at same specified level of all of its needs" ?
(a) Mary Parker Follett
(b) Chester Barnard
(c) Max Weber
(d) Herbert Simon
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'Herbert Simon'.
Herbert Simon:
- Herbert Simon was a renowned economist and cognitive psychologist known for his theory of bounded rationality and decision-making processes.
- He introduced the concept of "satisficing," which suggests that individuals seek a satisfactory solution rather than an optimal one due to the limitations of their cognitive processes.
- Simon's work emphasized the practical aspects of decision-making in organizations, where perfect optimization is often unattainable, and a satisfactory solution is more realistic.
- The quote in question reflects Simon's idea that organizations should aim to meet a satisfactory level of all needs rather than pursuing an unattainable optimal solution.
Other Related Points
Mary Parker Follett:
- Mary Parker Follett was a social worker and management consultant known for her work in organizational theory and behavior.
- She emphasized the importance of collaboration, conflict resolution, and the role of leadership in organizations.
- Although she made significant contributions to management thought, her focus was different from Simon's concept of satisficing.
Chester Barnard:
- Chester Barnard was a management theorist known for his book "The Functions of the Executive," which focused on organizational management and the role of executives in motivating employees and maintaining communication.
- He introduced the concept of the "acceptance theory of authority," but his work did not specifically address the idea of satisficing as Simon did.
Max Weber:
- Max Weber was a sociologist and political economist known for his theory of bureaucracy and the study of authority and social structures.
- Weber's work focused on the characteristics of bureaucratic organizations and the nature of authority, but he did not develop the concept of satisficing.
Q67: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(1), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is '(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)'
Ved Vyasa - Mahabharata(A-II):
- Ved Vyasa is traditionally credited as the author of the Mahabharat, one of the two major Sanskrit epics of ancient India.
- He is also known as Veda Vyasa, the compiler of the Vedas, and a central and revered figure in most Hindu traditions.
Kautilya - Saptang (B-III):
- Kautilya, also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta, is the author of the ancient Indian political treatise called the Arthashastra.
- The Saptang theory, or the theory of seven limbs, is a concept in the Arthashastra which outlines the seven essential elements of a state.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy - Pioneer of Indian Renaissance (C-IV):
- Raja Ram Mohan Roy is considered the father of the Indian Renaissance due to his efforts in social and educational reforms in India during the 19th century.
- He worked towards the abolition of practices such as Sati and promoted modern education, especially the learning of English language.
Gopal Krishna Gokhale - Political Guru of Gandhi (D-I):
- Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and a respected social reformer.
- He was regarded as a political mentor to Mahatma Gandhi, who considered Gokhale his guide on Indian politics and social issues.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
- Option 2: (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) - This option incorrectly matches Vedvyasa with Saptang and Kautilya with Mahabharat.
- Option 3: (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) - This option incorrectly matches Kautilya with Political Guru of Gandhi and Raja Ram Mohan Roy with Saptang.
- Option 4: (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) - This option incorrectly matches Vedvyasa with Political Guru of Gandhi and Kautilya with Mahabharat.
Q68: According to the Election Commission for being considered as a national party, a political party should at least have which of the following qualification?
(A) It should be recognised as a state-level party in four or more states
(B) In General Elections the party must manage to win six percent of the votes and win at least four Lok Sabha seats
(C) It has to win a minimum of two percent of the seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three different states
(D) The state party plays a vital role in regional political system in India
(E) It should be recognised as local level party in seven or more states
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B) Only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (E) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B) and (C) Only'
Recognition as a National Party:
- According to the Election Commission of India, for a political party to be considered a national party, it must meet certain criteria.
- One of the criteria is that the party should be recognized as a state-level party in at least four states.
- Another criterion is that in general elections, the party must secure at least six percent of the total valid votes in four or more states and additionally win at least four seats in the Lok Sabha.
- Lastly, the party must win at least two percent of the total seats in the Lok Sabha, which should come from a minimum of three different states.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
- Option (D): The role of a state party in the regional political system is significant, but it does not directly contribute to its recognition as a national party.
- Option (E): Being recognized as a local-level party in seven or more states is not a criterion for national party recognition.
Importance of National Party Status:
- Recognition as a national party provides certain privileges such as reserved party symbols, free broadcast time on state-owned media, and more extensive party funding.
- It also enhances the party's influence and representation on the national political stage.
Q69: A person who is in the know of things and is willing to alert the controlling authority by disclosing the corrupt act or practice that takes place.
(a) Lokayukta
(b) Ombudsman
(c) Whistleblower
(d) Central Vigilance Commissioner
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'Whistleblower'
Whistle Blower:
- A whistleblower is an individual who exposes any kind of information or activity that is deemed illegal, unethical, or not correct within an organization that is either private or public.
- Whistleblowers often report misconduct to authorities who can take corrective action or to the media and the public.
- They play a critical role in maintaining transparency and accountability within organizations and governments by bringing attention to illegal or corrupt practices.
Other Related Points
Lokayukta:
- The Lokayukta is an anti-corruption authority or ombudsman in the Indian states.
- It is responsible for addressing grievances against public servants and investigating allegations of corruption.
- While they play a significant role in curbing corruption, they are not the individuals who disclose the corrupt practices themselves.
Ombudsman:
- An ombudsman is an official appointed to investigate individuals' complaints against maladministration, especially that of public authorities.
- Their primary role is to ensure that government agencies operate fairly and adhere to the law.
- They are more of a mediator and investigator rather than the one who blows the whistle on corruption.
Central Vigilance Commissioner:
- The Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is the head of the Central Vigilance Commission, an apex Indian governmental body created to address governmental corruption.
- The CVC has the authority to inquire into offenses alleged to have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
- While the CVC plays a significant role in anti-corruption, it is not the individual who discloses corrupt practices but rather investigates them.
Q70: Who has propounded the concept of "Power Elite" ?
(a) James Burnham.
(b) C. Wright Mills
(c) Raymond Aron
(d) Karl Mannheim
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is 'C. Wright Mills'.
Concept of "Power Elite":
- C. Wright Mills introduced the concept of the "Power Elite" in his 1956 book titled "The Power Elite".
- The "Power Elite" refers to a small group of people who hold a disproportionate amount of power and control over the major institutions in society, such as the government, military, and corporations.
- Mills argued that this elite group makes decisions that have significant impacts on society, often operating behind the scenes and beyond the reach of democratic accountability.
Other Related Points
James Burnham:
- James Burnham was a political theorist and philosopher known for his work on managerial revolution and theories about the rise of bureaucratic elites.
- Although Burnham discussed the influence of elites in his work, he did not specifically develop the "Power Elite" concept.
Raymond Aron:
- Raymond Aron was a French philosopher, sociologist, and political scientist known for his critical analysis of totalitarianism and industrial society.
- While Aron made significant contributions to the study of political power, he did not originate the "Power Elite" idea.
Karl Mannheim:
- Karl Mannheim was a sociologist who contributed to the sociology of knowledge and the study of ideology and utopia.
- Mannheim's work explored the role of intellectuals and cultural elites, but he did not specifically introduce the "Power Elite" concept.
Q71: Which is/are group of people who come together to contest election and hold power in the government?
(A) Pressure Group
(B) Political Party
(C) Interest Group
(D) Business Lobby
(E) Religious Group
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B) Only
(b) (B) Only
(c) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(d) (C), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(B) Only'
Political Party:
- A political party is an organized group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.
- Political parties have specific ideologies and policy goals, which they promote through their candidates during elections.
- They play a crucial role in the democratic process by providing choices to voters, forming governments, and acting as opposition to hold the ruling party accountable.
Other Related Points
Pressure Group:
- Pressure groups are organizations that seek to influence government policy or public opinion without seeking to hold power themselves.
- They often represent specific interests or causes and try to affect legislation and decision-making processes through lobbying, advocacy, and public campaigns.
Interest Group:
- Similar to pressure groups, interest groups aim to influence public policy in favor of their specific interests or issues.
- They do not contest elections or seek to hold government power but focus on lobbying and advocacy to achieve their goals.
Business Lobby:
- Business lobbies are groups formed by businesses or business associations to influence public policy and government decisions in favor of their economic interests.
- They engage in lobbying, advocacy, and campaign contributions to achieve their objectives.
Religious Group:
- Religious groups are organizations based on shared religious beliefs and practices.
- While they may influence public opinion and policy on moral and ethical issues, they typically do not contest elections to hold government power.
Q72: Chronologically arrange the classical works of western political philosophers.
(A) A Vindication of Rights of Women with strictures on Moral and Political Subjects
(B) The Social Contract
(C) Elements of Philosophy of Right
(D) On Liberty
(E) The Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
(b) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
(c) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
(d) (E), (C), (A), (D), (B)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '(B), (A), (C), (E), (D)'.
Chronologically arranging classical works:
- The Social Contract (1762): Written by Jean-Jacques Rousseau, this work is a fundamental text in political philosophy, advocating for a form of government based on a social contract agreed upon by all citizens.
- A Vindication of the Rights of Woman (1792): Authored by Mary Wollstonecraft, this work argues for the equality of women and their right to education and participation in political life.
- Elements of the Philosophy of Right (1820): By Georg Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel, this text delves into the nature of law, rights, and ethical life, establishing a framework for understanding modern political institutions.
- The Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts (1844): Written by Karl Marx, these manuscripts explore the nature of labor, production, and human alienation under capitalism.
- On Liberty (1859): John Stuart Mill's work is a cornerstone of liberal political thought, emphasizing the importance of individual freedom and autonomy against the tyranny of the majority.
Other Related Points
Other options explained:
- Option 1: This option incorrectly places 'A Vindication of the Rights of Woman' before 'The Social Contract' and 'Elements of the Philosophy of Right' before 'The Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts'.
- Option 2: This option incorrectly places 'On Liberty' before 'Elements of the Philosophy of Right' and 'The Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts'.
- Option 4: This option incorrectly places 'The Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts' first and 'The Social Contract' last.
Q73: Cosmopolitans argue that citizenship should extend to the :
(a) Country in which an individual resides
(b) People based upon where a person is born
(c) World as a whole
(d) Persons accepted by Governments based on laws and rules
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'World as a whole'
Cosmopolitanism and World Citizenship:
- Cosmopolitanism is a philosophical ideology that suggests that all human beings are citizens of the world rather than being tied to a specific nation-state.
- It advocates for global citizenship, emphasizing the idea that individuals should not be confined to the boundaries of their birth nation or residence but should consider themselves part of the global community.
- This perspective encourages global responsibility, where people work towards the betterment of all humanity, transcending national borders and local allegiances.
Other Related Points
Country in which an individual resides:
- This concept ties citizenship to the country where a person lives. It is a more traditional view and is generally associated with legal and political rights within that specific nation-state.
- While it emphasizes the legal and civic responsibilities within a specific country, it does not address the global responsibilities and interconnectedness advocated by cosmopolitanism.
People based upon where a person is born:
- This approach to citizenship is based on jus soli, or the right of the soil, where citizenship is determined by the place of birth.
- It often results in individuals being tied to the nation-state they are born in, limiting the scope of their responsibilities and rights to that particular country.
- It does not align with the cosmopolitan view that emphasizes global citizenship and a broader sense of belonging to the human community.
Persons accepted by Governments based on laws and rules:
- This option refers to the legal frameworks established by individual governments to grant citizenship based on specific criteria such as residency, marriage, or naturalization processes.
- While it provides a structured approach to citizenship, it is inherently tied to the nation-state and does not encompass the global perspective promoted by cosmopolitanism.
Q74: Which among the following statements are not correct about the Parliamentary System of Government in India? (Dropped Question)
(A) All parties in the parliament are represented in the government
(B) The Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
(C) Government is elected for a fixed term
(D) The Government is chosen by the Parliament and cannot be removed before completion of its fixed term
(E) An independent body is established by the constitution for free and fair election
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) and (B) Only
(b) (B), (C) and (E) Only
(c) (C) and (D) Only
(d) (B) and (E) Only
Ans: a
Sol: Note: This question has been dropped by NTA.
The correct answer is '(A) and (B) Only'
Parliamentary System of Government in India:
- India follows a parliamentary system of government, which is modeled after the British system. This system emphasizes the role of the parliament in the functioning of the government.
- In this system, the executive is derived from the legislative branch and is accountable to it.
All parties in the parliament are represented in the government (Incorrect):
- In India, not all parties in the parliament are represented in the government. The government is typically formed by the party or coalition that has the majority in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament.
- This means that opposition parties do not have representation in the government.
The Government is chosen by the Parliament and cannot be removed before completion of its fixed term (Incorrect):
- The government in India can indeed be removed before the completion of its term. The Lok Sabha can pass a vote of no-confidence against the government, which, if passed, mandates the resignation of the government.
- This ensures that the government remains accountable to the parliament throughout its term.
The Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it (Correct):
- The government is responsible to the parliament and can be removed by a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha.
Government is elected for a fixed term (Correct):
- The government is typically elected for a fixed term of five years, but it can be dissolved earlier if it loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
An independent body is established by the constitution for free and fair election (Correct):
- The Election Commission of India is an independent body established by the constitution to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
Other Related Points
Collective Responsibility:
- In the parliamentary system, the Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
- If the Lok Sabha passes a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers, all ministers, including the Prime Minister, must resign.
Separation of Powers:
- While the parliamentary system involves a fusion of powers between the executive and the legislative branches, there is still a separation of powers to some extent, with the judiciary acting as an independent branch.
Bicameral Legislature:
- India has a bicameral legislature consisting of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
- While the Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people, the Rajya Sabha is indirectly elected and represents the states.
Q75: Who has given the concept of Integral Humanism?
(a) Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is 'Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay'.
Integral Humanism:
- Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay introduced the concept of Integral Humanism as a guiding philosophy for socio-economic and political development in India.
- This philosophy emphasizes the integration of individual and collective aspects of human life, ensuring holistic development.
- It advocates for the synthesis of material and spiritual well-being, aligning with Indian cultural values.
- The concept was first articulated in a series of lectures delivered by Upadhyay in 1965.
Other Related Points
Swami Vivekanand:
- Swami Vivekanand was a renowned spiritual leader and philosopher who promoted the teachings of Vedanta and Yoga worldwide.
- He is known for his emphasis on spiritual humanism and the unity of all religions but did not specifically advocate for Integral Humanism.
Aurobindo Ghosh:
- Aurobindo Ghosh was a philosopher, yogi, and nationalist who contributed significantly to Indian thought and spirituality.
- His teachings focused on Integral Yoga and the evolution of human consciousness, distinct from the socio-political framework of Integral Humanism.
Rabindranath Tagore:
- Rabindranath Tagore was a polymath, poet, and philosopher who contributed immensely to Indian literature and education.
- While he emphasized humanism and cultural values, his ideas were not specifically framed as Integral Humanism.
Q76: When the President of India resigns he/she addresses resignation letter to:
(a) The Prime Minister of India
(b) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(c) The Vice President of India
(d) The Attorney General of India
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'The Vice President of India'
Resignation of the President of India:
- The President of India, when resigning from office, must submit their resignation in writing to the Vice President of India.
- This process is outlined in Article 56 of the Indian Constitution, which details the conditions and procedures for the resignation of the President.
- The resignation letter is addressed to the Vice President to ensure a clear and official transition of duties and responsibilities.
Other Related Points
Prime Minister of India:
- The Prime Minister is the head of the government, not the head of state, and is therefore not the appropriate authority for receiving the President's resignation letter.
Chief Justice of Supreme Court:
- The Chief Justice of India heads the judiciary and is responsible for the judicial system, but is not the designated recipient for the President's resignation.
Attorney General of India:
- The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the government of India but does not have any role in the resignation process of the President.
Q77: Which does not come under All India Service?
(A) Indian Administrative Service
(B) Indian Police Service
(C) Indian Foreign Service
(D) Indian Forest Service
(E) Indian Customs Service
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C) Only
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(c) (B), (C), (D), (E) Only
(d) (C) and (E) Only
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is ' (C) and (E) Only'.
All India Services:
- All India Services (AIS) include services that operate across both the central and state governments in India.
- The three All India Services are the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and Indian Forest Service (IFoS).
- These services are unique in that the officers are recruited by the central government (through the Union Public Service Commission) and serve both under the central government and various state governments.
Indian Administrative Services (IAS):
- IAS officers hold key positions in the Union government, state governments, and public-sector undertakings.
- They are responsible for implementing government policies and advising ministers on various issues.
Indian Police Service (IPS):
- IPS officers are responsible for law enforcement and public safety across India.
- They hold senior positions in the police and intelligence agencies.
Indian Forest Service (IFoS):
- IFoS officers are responsible for the management of forests and wildlife in India.
- They work in various capacities in the forest departments of the states and the central government.
Other Related Points
Indian Foreign Service (IFS):
- IFS officers represent India in international diplomacy and manage India's foreign relations.
- They are part of the Central Civil Services and not classified under All India Services.
Indian Custom Service (ICS):
- ICS officers are responsible for the collection of customs duties and prevention of smuggling.
- They are also part of the Central Civil Services and not categorized under All India Services.
Q78: The Third Wave of Feminism reflected the influence of:
(a) Post-Structuralism
(b) Anarchism
(c) Liberalism
(d) Multiculturalism
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is 'Post-Structuralism'
Post-Structuralism:
- Post-Structuralism is an intellectual movement that emerged in the mid-20th century as a reaction against Structuralism.
- It challenges the idea of fixed structures and meanings, emphasizing the fluid and dynamic nature of knowledge, identity, and social constructs.
- Third Wave Feminism, which began in the 1990s, was significantly influenced by post-structuralist ideas, particularly in its embrace of diversity, intersectionality, and the deconstruction of gender norms.
- This wave of feminism sought to address the limitations of earlier feminist movements by including the voices and experiences of women of different races, ethnicities, sexual orientations, and socioeconomic backgrounds.
Other Related Points
Anarchism:
- Anarchism is a political philosophy that advocates for a society without hierarchical structures or government.
- While some elements of Third Wave Feminism were influenced by anarchist ideas, especially in its grassroots organizing and anti-authoritarian stance, anarchism was not the primary influence.
Liberalism:
- Liberalism is a political and moral philosophy based on the principles of liberty, equality, and individual rights.
- Though Liberal Feminism played a significant role in the earlier waves of feminism, especially in advocating for legal and political rights, the Third Wave moved beyond liberal frameworks to address more complex social and cultural issues.
Multiculturalism:
- Multiculturalism is a perspective that recognizes and values diverse cultural backgrounds and promotes the coexistence of different cultures within a society.
- While multiculturalism was an important aspect of Third Wave Feminism, particularly in its focus on intersectionality and inclusion, it was not the foundational intellectual influence like post-structuralism.
Q79: Human Rights are also criticised for:
(a) Elevating collectivism above individualism
(b) Equating collectivism and individualism
(c) Elevating individualism above collectivism
(d) Opposing collectivism as well as individualism
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'Elevating individualism above collectivism'
Human Rights:
- Human rights are often described as fundamental rights that belong to every person, regardless of nationality, sex, ethnic origin, race, religion, language, or any other status.
- They are considered universal, inalienable, and indivisible.
- Human rights are meant to ensure that all individuals have the means to meet their basic needs and live with dignity.
Criticism for Elevating Individualism above Collectivism:
- Human rights have been criticized for placing a strong emphasis on individual rights and freedoms, sometimes at the expense of community or collective rights and responsibilities.
- This criticism suggests that the focus on individualism can undermine social cohesion and collective welfare.
- Critics argue that this emphasis on individualism may not adequately address the needs and values of more collectivist societies, where the community's well-being is prioritized.
Other Related Points
Other Options:
- Elevating collectivism above individualism: This option is incorrect as human rights are generally criticized for focusing too much on individual freedoms rather than collective rights.
- Equating collectivism and individualism: This option is incorrect because human rights are not typically criticized for balancing individual and collective rights equally. The criticism usually stems from an imbalance favoring individualism.
- Opposing collectivism as well as individualism: This option is incorrect because human rights do not oppose both collectivism and individualism. They are primarily about protecting individual rights and freedoms.
- Universal Declaration of Human Rights:
- The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1948.
- It sets out fundamental human rights to be universally protected and is a milestone document in the history of human rights.
- While the UDHR emphasizes individual rights, it also acknowledges the importance of community and collective well-being.
Balancing Individual and Collective Rights:
- While human rights emphasize individual freedoms, there is an ongoing debate about how to balance these rights with collective responsibilities and the common good.
- Policies and frameworks are constantly being developed to ensure that both individual and collective rights are respected and protected.
Q80: Which is the nodal agency to achieve Sustainable Development Goals in India?
(a) Niti Aayog
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate change
(c) National Environment Engineering Institute
(d) Indian Institute of Sustainable Development
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is 'Niti Aayog'
Niti Aayog:
- Niti Aayog, the National Institution for Transforming India, is the policy think tank of the Government of India.
- It plays a crucial role in coordinating and implementing policies and programs to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) in India.
- Niti Aayog works closely with various ministries, state governments, and other stakeholders to ensure the effective implementation of the SDGs.
- It monitors and evaluates the progress of SDGs and provides policy recommendations to accelerate the achievement of these goals.
Other Related Points
Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change:
- This ministry focuses on environmental conservation, forest management, and addressing climate change issues.
- While it plays a significant role in achieving specific SDGs related to the environment, it is not the central coordinating agency for all SDGs.
National Environment Engineering Research Institute (NEERI):
- NEERI is a research institute that focuses on environmental science and engineering.
- It contributes to sustainable development through research and technological innovations but does not act as the nodal agency for SDGs in India.
Indian Institute of Sustainable Development:
- This institute focuses on education, research, and advocacy in sustainable development.
- It supports the achievement of SDGs through its academic and research activities but is not the primary coordinating body for SDGs in India.
Q81: Which of the following statements are associated with the theory of International Realism?
(A) Domestic politics is characterised by hierarchy and international politics by anarchy
(B) Power is both means and end
(C) Believes in relative gain rather than absolute gain
(D) Anarchy is what states make of it
(E) Like all politics, international politics is the struggle for power
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
(b) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (E) Only
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B), (C) and (E) Only'
International Realism:
- International Realism, also known as political realism, is a theoretical approach to international relations that emphasizes the competitive and conflictual side of international relations.
- Realists view the international system as anarchic, meaning there is no overarching authority above states.
- States are the primary actors in international politics and they operate in a system of self-help where survival and security are paramount.
Key Tenets of International Realism:
- Domestic politics is characterised by hierarchy and international politics by anarchy: Within states, there is a clear hierarchy of authority, but internationally, no such hierarchy exists, leading to an anarchic system.
- Power is both means and end: Power is crucial both as a means to achieve national interest and as an end in itself to ensure a state's survival and influence.
- Believes in relative gain rather than absolute gain: States are more concerned with how much power and advantage they have relative to other states rather than the absolute amount of power they possess.
- Like all politics, international politics is the struggle for power: The struggle for power is a central theme in international relations, with states constantly seeking to maximize their power and security.
Other Related Points
Anarchy is what states make of it:
- This statement is associated with Constructivism, not Realism. Constructivists argue that the nature of anarchy is not fixed but is shaped by states' interactions and interpretations.
- It emphasizes the role of ideas, beliefs, and identities in shaping international relations, contrasting with the Realist focus on material power and interests.
Comparison with other theories:
- Liberalism: Unlike Realism, Liberalism focuses on the potential for cooperation and the role of international institutions in mitigating anarchy.
- Constructivism: As mentioned, Constructivism emphasizes the social construction of international relations, whereas Realism is more about material power and interests.
Q82: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(1), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
Match List - I with List - II:
The will is free when its ends are 'its own', so that it is self-determining:
- This concept is associated with G.W.F. Hegel (I). Hegel's philosophy emphasizes the idea of freedom as self-determination, where the will is considered free when it aligns with its own rational ends.
It is the consent, and not the need which makes the government legitimate:
- This idea is linked to John Locke (IV). Locke's social contract theory posits that government legitimacy arises from the consent of the governed, rather than from the fulfillment of their needs alone.
'Virtue' is indispensable to the citizen and state:
- This statement is attributed to Machiavelli (III). In his works, Machiavelli emphasizes the importance of civic virtue and the moral qualities required for good citizenship and governance.
Man naturally good in the moral sense:
- This belief is associated with J.J. Rousseau (II). Rousseau's philosophy posits that humans are inherently good and that society and its institutions often corrupt this natural goodness.
Other Related Points
Other Options Explained:
Option 1:(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
- This option incorrectly matches the philosophers with their associated concepts. For example, associating the self-determining will with J.J. Rousseau is incorrect.
Option 3:(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
- This option also incorrectly matches the philosophers. For example, associating the concept of virtue with J.J. Rousseau is not accurate.
Option 4:(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
- This option mismatches the philosophers with their ideas. For example, it incorrectly matches the concept of government legitimacy with G.W.F. Hegel.
Q83: Arrange the following events related to India's Foreign Policy in ascending order.
(A) Indo-US Nuclear Deal
(B) Gujral Doctrine
(C) Panchasheel
(D) Panchamrit
(E) Look East Policy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) (C), (E), (D), (A), (B)
(b) (C), (E), (A), (B), (D)
(c) (E), (C), (B), (A), (D)
(d) (C), (E), (B), (A), (D)
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is '(C), (E), (B), (A), (D)'
Panchasheel:
- Signed in 1954 between India and China, the Panchasheel Agreement laid down five principles of peaceful coexistence.
- These principles include mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity, non-aggression, non-interference in each other's internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence.
Gujral Doctrine:
- Proposed by former Prime Minister I.K. Gujral in the 1996–1997, the Gujral Doctrine aimed at improving India's relations with its neighbors.
- The doctrine emphasized non-reciprocal benefits to neighboring countries to foster better regional relationships.
Look East Policy:
- Initiated in the early 1990s, the Look East Policy aimed to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the nations of Southeast Asia.
- This policy was a strategic shift in India's perspective of the world, focusing on the Asia-Pacific region for economic and strategic partnerships.
Indo-US Nuclear Deal:
- Signed in 2008, this landmark deal between India and the United States allowed India access to civilian nuclear technology and fuel.
- This agreement marked a significant shift in Indo-US relations, promoting civilian nuclear energy development in India.
Panchamrit:
- Announced in 2021 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, the Panchamrit strategy focuses on India's environmental and climate goals, including achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
- The five components (Panchamrit) include reducing carbon emissions, increasing renewable energy capacity, and other climate-related measures.
Other Related Points
Incorrect options:
- Option 1: (C), (E), (D), (A), (B) - This sequence incorrectly places Panchamrit before the Indo-US Nuclear Deal and Gujral Doctrine.
- Option 2: (C), (E), (A), (B), (D) - This sequence incorrectly places the Indo-US Nuclear Deal before the Gujral Doctrine.
- Option 3: (E), (C), (B), (A), (D) - This sequence incorrectly places the Look East Policy before Panchasheel.
Q84: India believes in and practices strategic autonomy in its foreign policy.
(A) India refused to be a party to any military alliance during cold war
(B) India procured its weapons from all possible sources
(C) India yielded to American pressure to reduce its oil import from Iran
(D) India refused to yield to Western pressure to not to import oil from Russia because of its Ukraine invasion
(E) India refused to sign NPT and CTBT to protect its strategic autonomy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(b) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (E) Only
(d) (A), (B) and (D) Only
Ans: D
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B) and (D) Only'.
Explanation
Strategic Autonomy in Foreign Policy:
- Strategic autonomy refers to the ability of a country to make its own strategic decisions independently, without undue influence from other countries or external powers.
- India's foreign policy has historically emphasized strategic autonomy, allowing it to navigate complex international dynamics while maintaining its sovereignty and national interests.
Examples of India's Strategic Autonomy:
- Refusal to join military alliances during the Cold War: India did not align with either the US-led NATO or the Soviet-led Warsaw Pact, instead choosing a path of non-alignment to maintain its independence in international relations.
- Procurement of weapons from various sources: India has diversified its defense procurement, sourcing military equipment from countries like Russia, the USA, Israel, and France, ensuring it is not overly dependent on any single nation for its defense needs.
- Refusal to yield to Western pressure regarding oil imports from Russia: Despite Western sanctions on Russia due to the Ukraine invasion, India continued to import oil from Russia, prioritizing its energy security and economic interests.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options Explanation:
- India yielding to American pressure to reduce its oil import from Iran: This example contradicts the principle of strategic autonomy as it shows India succumbing to external pressure rather than making an independent strategic decision.
- Refusal to sign NPT and CTBT: While this is an example of protecting strategic autonomy, it is not as directly related to the principle as the other examples provided in the correct option.
Cold War Context:
- During the Cold War, India adopted a non-aligned stance, refusing to join either of the two major military blocs, thereby demonstrating its commitment to strategic autonomy.
Current Geopolitical Scenario:
- In today's multipolar world, India's strategic autonomy allows it to engage with multiple global powers, balancing its relations with the US, Russia, China, and other nations based on its national interests.
Q85: Arrange the following International Relations Thinkers in the chronological order:
(A) Kenneth Waltz
(B) Hans Morgenthau
(C) Thucydides
(D) Alexander Wendt
(E) E.H. Carr
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)
(b) (C), (E), (A), (B), (D)
(c) (C), (E), (B), (A), (D)
(d) (C), (A), (E), (B), (D)
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is 'Option 3: (C), (E), (B), (A), (D)'
Thucydides (460-395 BC):
- Thucydides, an ancient Greek historian, is considered one of the foundational thinkers in International Relations (IR) due to his work "History of the Peloponnesian War."
- His ideas on the nature of power and human behavior laid the groundwork for realist thought in IR.
E.H. Carr (1892-1982):
- E.H. Carr was a British historian and diplomat who is known for his seminal work "The Twenty Years' Crisis," which challenged the idealist perspective and emphasized the importance of power and national interest in international politics.
Hans Morgenthau (1904-1980):
- Hans Morgenthau, a key figure in the development of the realist school of thought, authored "Politics Among Nations," which articulated the principles of political realism, focusing on the concept of power politics.
Kenneth Waltz (1924-2013):
- Kenneth Waltz was an American political scientist who is best known for his theory of structural realism or neorealism, presented in his book "Theory of International Politics."
- Waltz emphasized the anarchic structure of the international system as the primary determinant of state behavior.
Alexander Wendt (born 1958):
- Alexander Wendt is a prominent constructivist scholar in IR, known for his work "Social Theory of International Politics," which argues that the international system is socially constructed through intersubjective processes.
Other Related Points
Incorrect Options:
Option 1: (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)
- This sequence incorrectly places Kenneth Waltz before Hans Morgenthau and E.H. Carr, and places E.H. Carr last.
Option 2: (C), (E), (A), (B), (D)
- This sequence incorrectly places Kenneth Waltz before Hans Morgenthau.
Option 4: (C), (A), (E), (B), (D)
- This sequence incorrectly places Kenneth Waltz before E.H. Carr and Hans Morgenthau.
Q86: Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is 'A-(III), B-(IV), C-(I), D-(II)'
Cooperative Federalism:
- Cooperative federalism refers to a concept where federal, state, and local governments interact cooperatively and collectively to solve common problems.
- This concept is associated with Granville Austin, who emphasized the cooperative nature of the Indian federation.
Bargaining Federalism:
- Bargaining federalism involves negotiation and bargaining between various levels of government to reach agreements on policy matters.
- Morris Jones is linked with this concept as he discussed the bargaining aspects within the Indian federal structure.
Competitive Federalism:
- Competitive federalism is a model where regions or states compete against each other to attract investment and resources.
- This concept is associated with Niti Aayog, which promotes competitive federalism in India through various initiatives and reforms.
Quasi-Federal:
- Quasi-federalism describes a political system that is neither fully federal nor fully unitary but has elements of both.
- K.C. Wheare is known for describing the Indian constitution as quasi-federal, highlighting its unique blend of federal and unitary features.
Other Related Points
- Option 1:
- This option incorrectly matches Cooperative Federalism with Morris Jones and Quasi-Federal with K.C. Wheare.
- Option 3:
- This option incorrectly matches Competitive Federalism with K.C. Wheare and Quasi-Federal with Niti Aayog.
- Option 4:
- This option incorrectly matches Bargaining Federalism with Granville Austin and Competitive Federalism with K.C. Wheare.
Q87: Ambedkar was a multifaceted personality. Which of the facts and opinion are true?
(A) Ambedkar defined social justice as a means for giving equal opportunity to all
(B) Jyotiba Phule was his ideal
(C) He was the first Attorney General of India
(D) He contested election
(E) He was PhD in Economics
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
(b) (A), (B), (D), (E) Only
(c) (B), (C), (D), (E) Only
(d) (A), (B), (C), (E) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B), (D), (E) Only'.
Ambedkar defined social justice as a means for giving equal opportunity to all:
- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was a staunch advocate for social justice and equality.
- He emphasized the importance of providing equal opportunities to all sections of society, especially the marginalized and oppressed.
Jyotiba Phule was his ideal:
- Jyotiba Phule, a social reformer, was one of the key influences on Ambedkar's thoughts and actions.
- Phule's work towards the upliftment of the oppressed and the eradication of social inequalities inspired Ambedkar significantly.
He contested election:
- Dr. Ambedkar actively participated in the political arena and contested elections to further his agenda of social justice and equality.
- He contested and won a seat in the Constituent Assembly, where he played a crucial role in drafting the Indian Constitution.
He was PhD in Economics:
- Ambedkar was a highly educated individual with a PhD in Economics from Columbia University.
- His academic background helped him understand and address the economic aspects of social issues.
Other Related Points
He was not the first Attorney General of India:
- This is an incorrect statement. The first Attorney General of India was M.C. Setalvad, not Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
- Ambedkar's primary contributions were in the fields of social reform, politics, and education, rather than serving in this legal position.
Q88: Which of the following statements are true?
(A) The constitution of India allows the state to intervene in matters of religion in order to ensure equality among religious communities
(B) Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion
(C) The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion or not to follow any
(D) The Constitution of India advocates the titles of military or academic distinction for the citizen of India
(E) Fundamental Rights are non-justiciable rights
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (E) Only
(b) (B) and (C) Only
(c) (A), (B) and (C) Only
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Only
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (B), (C) and (D) Only.'
State intervention in religious matters:
- The Constitution of India allows the state to intervene in religious matters to ensure equality among religious communities and to prevent discrimination.
- This is essential to maintain secularism and uphold the fundamental rights of individuals and groups.
Prohibition of discrimination:
- The Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
- This ensures that all citizens have equal access to opportunities and are treated fairly under the law.
Freedom of religion:
- The Constitution provides every individual the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate any religion or choose not to follow any religion.
- This right is protected under Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, ensuring religious freedom and tolerance.
Other Related Points
Titles of military or academic distinction:
- Article 18 of the Indian Constitution abolishes titles except for military and academic distinctions, ensuring equality among citizens.
Justiciability of Fundamental Rights:
- Fundamental Rights in India are justiciable, meaning they are enforceable by the courts.
- If any of these rights are violated, individuals can approach the judiciary for enforcement and redressal.
Q89: Key elements of Machiavelli include:
(A) Classification of political regimes
(B) Critique of classical philosophical ideas
(C) Criticism of Liberty
(D) Ideas on Republicanism
(E) Analysing power
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (C) and (E) Only
(b) (A), (D) and (E) Only
(c) (B), (C) and (D) Only
(d) (B), (D) and (E) Only
Ans: b
Sol: The correct answer is '(A), (D) and (E) Only'
Classification of political regimes:
- Machiavelli's work includes the classification of different types of political regimes. His analysis often distinguishes between principalities and republics.
- He is known for discussing how rulers can maintain power in various governmental structures.
Ideas on Republicanism:
- Machiavelli's "Discourses on Livy" delves into the virtues of republicanism, advocating for a mixed government and civic virtue.
- He emphasizes the importance of a well-ordered republic and the role of citizen participation in governance.
Analysing power:
- Machiavelli is renowned for his analysis of power dynamics, particularly in "The Prince," where he explores how rulers can acquire, maintain, and expand their power.
- His pragmatic approach to power politics, often summarized by the phrase "the ends justify the means," highlights his focus on realpolitik.
Other Related Points
Critique of classical philosophical ideas:
- While Machiavelli did critique classical philosophical ideas, especially those of idealistic philosophers like Plato, this was not his primary focus.
- His main contributions are more practical and focused on real-world politics rather than theoretical critiques.
Criticism of Liberty:
- Machiavelli did not primarily criticize liberty; rather, he discussed how it could be preserved or compromised within different political systems.
- His work often emphasized the balance between liberty and authority in maintaining a stable state.
Q90: A thinker of anti-colonial struggle and revolutionary action :
(a) Karl Marx
(b) A. Gramsci
(c) Hannah Arendt
(d) Frantz Fanon
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is - Frantz Fanon
Key Points
Frantz Fanon
- Frantz Fanon was a revolutionary thinker and a key figure in the study of anti-colonial struggle and decolonization.
- He is best known for his works such as "The Wretched of the Earth", which offers a detailed exploration of the psychological and social impacts of colonialism and the necessity of revolutionary action for liberation.
- Fanon argued that colonialism dehumanizes both the colonized and the colonizer, and he advocated for the use of violence as a means of resistance to overthrow colonial systems.
- His ideas were heavily influenced by his own experiences in Algeria during its struggle for independence from French colonial rule.
- Fanon's works remain fundamental to postcolonial studies, focusing on the intersection of politics, psychology, and liberation.
Additional Information
Other Thinkers Mentioned in the Options
Karl Marx
- A German philosopher and economist who developed the theory of Marxism, which critiques capitalism and advocates for a classless, communist society.
- His works, such as "The Communist Manifesto" and "Das Kapital", focus on class struggle and economic systems rather than anti-colonial struggles.
Antonio Gramsci
- An Italian Marxist philosopher best known for his theory of cultural hegemony, which explains how the ruling class maintains control through cultural institutions.
- While his ideas are influential in revolutionary thought, his work does not specifically address anti-colonial struggles.
Hannah Arendt
- A political theorist known for her works on totalitarianism, the nature of power, and revolution.
- Her focus was primarily on political philosophy and the conditions of human existence, not anti-colonial movements.
Key Themes in Frantz Fanon's Work
- Colonialism and Alienation
- Fanon analyzed how colonial systems alienate individuals from their cultural identity and humanity.
- He emphasized the psychological impact of colonial domination on both the colonized and colonizers.
- Decolonization
- Fanon described decolonization as a revolutionary process that involves the complete overthrow of colonial powers.
- He viewed it as a necessary step to reclaim identity, dignity, and autonomy.
- Violence in Anti-Colonial Struggle
- Fanon controversially argued that violence is a cleansing force that allows the oppressed to reclaim their humanity and challenge the oppressors.
- This perspective was rooted in the context of colonial Algeria and its fight for independence.
Q91: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
The debate between the Neorealists and the Neoliberals emerged in the 1970's and developed over the next two decades into the major theoretical controversy within IR. Waltz himself contributed to the classical brand of Realism with his 'Man, the State and War' (1959) which echoed Morgenthau's and Carr's treatment of IR as a never-ending series of conflicts among states trapped in a condition of anarchy. Twenty years later, Waltz published his theory of International Politics (1979) in which he sought to explain the causes of wars. The structural realism is captured in the concept of the balance of power. This system is where we need to focus our attention because its all constituent units perform the same functions in that system, regardless of where they are located in the system, their ideology and culture. Waltz argues that bipolar systems are more stable than multipolar systems. According to him in international relations the idea of the system is all important.
According to Waltz what does he mean by system.
(a) System is an ideological construct
(b) System is run by a powerful country
(c) System does not follow any order
(d) Unit individual states do the same thing
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'Unit individual states do the same thing'
Explanation of Waltz's System:
- According to Kenneth Waltz, the international system is characterized by anarchy, where there is no central authority above states.
- In this system, all individual states (units) perform similar functions of survival, regardless of their location, ideology, or culture.
- Waltz's structural realism emphasizes that the system's structure determines state behavior, focusing on the distribution of power among states.
Other Related Points
- System is an ideological construct: This is incorrect as Waltz's theory focuses on structural aspects rather than ideological constructs.
- System is run by a powerful country: This is incorrect as Waltz's theory emphasizes the balance of power among all states, not dominance by a single powerful country.
- System does not follow any order: This is incorrect because Waltz argues that the international system has an order based on the distribution of power and the anarchic structure.
Q92: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
The debate between the Neorealists and the Neoliberals emerged in the 1970's and developed over the next two decades into the major theoretical controversy within IR. Waltz himself contributed to the classical brand of Realism with his 'Man, the State and War' (1959) which echoed Morgenthau's and Carr's treatment of IR as a never-ending series of conflicts among states trapped in a condition of anarchy. Twenty years later, Waltz published his theory of International Politics (1979) in which he sought to explain the causes of wars. The structural realism is captured in the concept of the balance of power. This system is where we need to focus our attention because its all constituent units perform the same functions in that system, regardless of where they are located in the system, their ideology and culture. Waltz argues that bipolar systems are more stable than multipolar systems. According to him in international relations the idea of the system is all important.
Who is not realist?
(a) E.H. Carr
(b) Morgenthau
(c) Kenneth Waltz
(d) Robert Keohane
Ans: d
Sol: The correct answer is 'Robert Keohane'.
- Robert Keohane is not a realist.
- He is primarily associated with liberalism in international relations theory, particularly neoliberal institutionalism, which emphasizes the role of international institutions, cooperation, and interdependence in world politics.
Other Related Points
- E.H. Carr and Morgenthau are both considered prominent figures in classical realism, focusing on the role of power and national interest in international relations.
- Kenneth Waltz is known for his structural realism or neorealism, which argues that the international system's structure, rather than human nature or domestic factors, is the primary driver of state behavior.
Thus, Robert Keohane stands apart from the other three as he does not adhere to the realist school of thought.
Q93: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
The debate between the Neorealists and the Neoliberals emerged in the 1970's and developed over the next two decades into the major theoretical controversy within IR. Waltz himself contributed to the classical brand of Realism with his 'Man, the State and War' (1959) which echoed Morgenthau's and Carr's treatment of IR as a never-ending series of conflicts among states trapped in a condition of anarchy. Twenty years later, Waltz published his theory of International Politics (1979) in which he sought to explain the causes of wars. The structural realism is captured in the concept of the balance of power. This system is where we need to focus our attention because its all constituent units perform the same functions in that system, regardless of where they are located in the system, their ideology and culture. Waltz argues that bipolar systems are more stable than multipolar systems. According to him in international relations the idea of the system is all important.
According to Waltz which system is better to prevent the war.
(a) Bipolar system
(b) Multipolar system
(c) Unipolar system
(d) Unit Veto system
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is 'Bipolar system'.
According to Kenneth Waltz, the bipolar system (i.e., a world with two major powers or superpowers) is the most stable and effective system for preventing war. This is a key idea in neorealism (or structural realism), a theory he developed.
Additional Information
In his book Theory of International Politics (1979), Waltz argues that the bipolar system minimizes the chances of war because it limits the number of major powers involved in conflicts.
- Multipolar systems (more than two major powers) are seen as more unstable and prone to conflict, as the complexity of balancing power increases.
- Unipolar systems (one dominant power) might be unstable in the long term as other powers challenge the unipole.
- Unit Veto system is not a recognized concept in Waltz’s theory and is unrelated to the question of preventing war in the context of international politics.
Thus, Waltz believes bipolarity is the best system for maintaining peace and preventing war.
Q94: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
The debate between the Neorealists and the Neoliberals emerged in the 1970's and developed over the next two decades into the major theoretical controversy within IR. Waltz himself contributed to the classical brand of Realism with his 'Man, the State and War' (1959) which echoed Morgenthau's and Carr's treatment of IR as a never-ending series of conflicts among states trapped in a condition of anarchy. Twenty years later, Waltz published his theory of International Politics (1979) in which he sought to explain the causes of wars. The structural realism is captured in the concept of the balance of power. This system is where we need to focus our attention because its all constituent units perform the same functions in that system, regardless of where they are located in the system, their ideology and culture. Waltz argues that bipolar systems are more stable than multipolar systems. According to him in international relations the idea of the system is all important.
Who has written the book 'Man, the State and war?
(a) Kenneth Waltz
(b) E.H. Carr
(c) Morgenthau
(d) Edward Said
Ans: a
Sol: The correct answer is 'Kenneth Waltz'.
- The book "Man, the State, and War" was written by Kenneth Waltz and was first published in 1959.
- In this book, Waltz explores the causes of war and argues that wars can be understood from three levels of analysis:
- The individual level (human nature and individual decision-makers).
- The state level (the internal structure of states, including political systems and institutions).
- The international level (the structure of the international system itself).
Other Related Points
Waltz's work is considered foundational in the field of international relations and is a key text in understanding the neorealist perspective on the causes of war.
The other options refer to different scholars and works:
- E.H. Carr wrote The Twenty Years' Crisis.
- Hans Morgenthau wrote Politics Among Nations, a classic in the field of political realism.
- Edward Said is known for Orientalism, a seminal work in postcolonial studies.
Thus, Kenneth Waltz is the correct author of "Man, the State, and War".
Q95: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
The debate between the Neorealists and the Neoliberals emerged in the 1970's and developed over the next two decades into the major theoretical controversy within IR. Waltz himself contributed to the classical brand of Realism with his 'Man, the State and War' (1959) which echoed Morgenthau's and Carr's treatment of IR as a never-ending series of conflicts among states trapped in a condition of anarchy. Twenty years later, Waltz published his theory of International Politics (1979) in which he sought to explain the causes of wars. The structural realism is captured in the concept of the balance of power. This system is where we need to focus our attention because its all constituent units perform the same functions in that system, regardless of where they are located in the system, their ideology and culture. Waltz argues that bipolar systems are more stable than multipolar systems. According to him in international relations the idea of the system is all important.
What was the time frame of the evolution of Neorealists ?
(a) 1950's
(b) 1960's
(c) 1970's
(d) 1990's
Ans: c
Sol: The correct answer is '1970's'.
Neorealism, or Structural Realism, emerged primarily in the 1970s as a development of classical realism in international relations.
- It was largely shaped by the work of Kenneth Waltz, particularly through his influential book "Theory of International Politics" (1979).
- Neorealism shifted the focus of realism from human nature and state behavior to the structure of the international system as the primary driver of state behavior.
Other Related Points
- Neorealism emphasized that the anarchic structure of the international system, rather than the nature of human beings or individual state characteristics, is the main factor influencing state actions, security concerns, and power dynamics.
- While classical realism was more concerned with human nature and the actions of individual statesmen (as seen in the works of Morgenthau and Carr), neorealism in the 1970s proposed a more scientific, systematic analysis of international relations, focusing on how states behave within an anarchic international system.
Thus, 1970s marks the time frame for the emergence of Neorealism
Q96: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Directive principles are not enforceable by the courts. The sanction behind them, is political. As Dr. Ambedkar observed in the Constituent Assembly, "If any government ignores them, they will certainly have to answer for them before the electorate at the election time". DPSP is a part of the Constitution. Article 37 unequivocally enjoins that 'It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws'. Hence it should be competent for the Union to issue directions against particular states to introduce compulsory education for children Article 45, to prevent Slaughter of Cows (Art. 48), prohibition of alcoholic drinks Art (47). In case of refusal to comply with such directions issued by the Union, it may apply Art 365 against such recalcitrant state. Sir Ivor Jennings characterised DPSP "Pious Aspiration" and also questioned the utility of importing it into India of the 19th Century, English Philosophy of 'Fabian Socialism without the Socialism' Granville Austin considers these directives to be "aimed at furthering the goals of the social revolution". Besides the Directives contained in part IV, there are certain other Directives addressed to the state in other parts of the Constitution. Art 350 A enjoins every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instructions in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education. Art 351 enjoins to promote the spread of the Hindi language. These instructions are not part of DPSP but carry the same value.
Which Article instructs the government to incorporate directions given under the Directive Principles in formulating the policies?
(a) Article 37
(b) Article 365
(c) Article 35
(d) Article 51
Ans: a
Sol: The Correct Answer is 'Article 37'.
- Article 37 of the Indian Constitution instructs the government to incorporate the directions given under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) while formulating policies.
- The article clearly states that it is the duty of the state to apply these principless in making laws.
- However, while the Directive Principles are not enforceable in a court of law, they guide the government in policy-making and legislation.
- The aim is to promote social justice and welfare, as emphasized in the Constitution.
Q97: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Directive principles are not enforceable by the courts. The sanction behind them, is political. As Dr. Ambedkar observed in the Constituent Assembly, "If any government ignores them, they will certainly have to answer for them before the electorate at the election time". DPSP is a part of the Constitution. Article 37 unequivocally enjoins that 'It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws'. Hence it should be competent for the Union to issue directions against particular states to introduce compulsory education for children Article 45, to prevent Slaughter of Cows (Art. 48), prohibition of alcoholic drinks Art (47). In case of refusal to comply with such directions issued by the Union, it may apply Art 365 against such recalcitrant state. Sir Ivor Jennings characterised DPSP "Pious Aspiration" and also questioned the utility of importing it into India of the 19th Century, English Philosophy of 'Fabian Socialism without the Socialism' Granville Austin considers these directives to be "aimed at furthering the goals of the social revolution". Besides the Directives contained in part IV, there are certain other Directives addressed to the state in other parts of the Constitution. Art 350 A enjoins every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instructions in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education. Art 351 enjoins to promote the spread of the Hindi language. These instructions are not part of DPSP but carry the same value.
Who said "Directive Principles are merely furthering the goal of Social Revolution"?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) G. Austin
(c) Ivor Jennings
(d) D.D. Basu
Ans: b
Sol: The Correct Answer is 'G. Austin'.
Key Points
- The quote "Directive Principles are merely furthering the goal of Social Revolution" was made by G. Austin.
- He viewed the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as tools for promoting social justice and reform in India.
- Austin considered these principless essential for achieving the social revolution aimed at uplifting the marginalized sections of society and ensuring equality. While not legally enforceable, they were seen as crucial in guiding the state's actions toward social transformation and welfare.
Q98: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Directive principles are not enforceable by the courts. The sanction behind them, is political. As Dr. Ambedkar observed in the Constituent Assembly, "If any government ignores them, they will certainly have to answer for them before the electorate at the election time". DPSP is a part of the Constitution. Article 37 unequivocally enjoins that 'It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws'. Hence it should be competent for the Union to issue directions against particular states to introduce compulsory education for children Article 45, to prevent Slaughter of Cows (Art. 48), prohibition of alcoholic drinks Art (47). In case of refusal to comply with such directions issued by the Union, it may apply Art 365 against such recalcitrant state. Sir Ivor Jennings characterised DPSP "Pious Aspiration" and also questioned the utility of importing it into India of the 19th Century, English Philosophy of 'Fabian Socialism without the Socialism' Granville Austin considers these directives to be "aimed at furthering the goals of the social revolution". Besides the Directives contained in part IV, there are certain other Directives addressed to the state in other parts of the Constitution. Art 350 A enjoins every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instructions in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education. Art 351 enjoins to promote the spread of the Hindi language. These instructions are not part of DPSP but carry the same value.
Who proclaimed that the Directive Principles of State Policy is an attempt to import Fabian Socialism without Socialism?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J. Nehru
(c) Sir Ivor Jennings
(d) Motilal Nehru
Ans: c
Sol: The Correct Answer is 'Sir Ivor Jennings'
- Sir Ivor Jennings is the one who proclaimed that the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution were an attempt to import Fabian Socialism without actually implementing socialism.
- Jennings, a British constitutional expert, highlighted that the DPSP reflected the goals of Fabian socialism, which advocated for gradual social reforms through legislative means, but without adopting the full ideology of socialism.
- In his view, the DPSP aimed at achieving social justice and welfare but did not explicitly enforce socialism as a political system.
Q99: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Directive principles are not enforceable by the courts. The sanction behind them, is political. As Dr. Ambedkar observed in the Constituent Assembly, "If any government ignores them, they will certainly have to answer for them before the electorate at the election time". DPSP is a part of the Constitution. Article 37 unequivocally enjoins that 'It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws'. Hence it should be competent for the Union to issue directions against particular states to introduce compulsory education for children Article 45, to prevent Slaughter of Cows (Art. 48), prohibition of alcoholic drinks Art (47). In case of refusal to comply with such directions issued by the Union, it may apply Art 365 against such recalcitrant state. Sir Ivor Jennings characterised DPSP "Pious Aspiration" and also questioned the utility of importing it into India of the 19th Century, English Philosophy of 'Fabian Socialism without the Socialism' Granville Austin considers these directives to be "aimed at furthering the goals of the social revolution". Besides the Directives contained in part IV, there are certain other Directives addressed to the state in other parts of the Constitution. Art 350 A enjoins every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instructions in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education. Art 351 enjoins to promote the spread of the Hindi language. These instructions are not part of DPSP but carry the same value.
The Chairman of the Drafting Committee Dr. Ambedkar observed about directive principles, "If any government ignores them, they will certainly have to answer for them before the electorate at the time of election."
What does he mean by this observation :
(a) It is unethical
(b) It is illegal
(c) It is political
(d) It is philosophical
Ans: c
Sol: The Correct Answer is 'It is political'.
- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's statement reflects the political nature of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
- He suggested that if a government ignores these principless, it will not face legal consequences but will be held accountable in the political arena, particularly during elections.
Other Related Points
- The responsibility to follow the DPSPs lies in the government's political mandate and its ability to answer to the electorate.
- In essence, it is a political issue because the government must justify its actions or inactions to the voters, who will decide whether the government is worthy of their support in the next election.
Q100: Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Directive principles are not enforceable by the courts. The sanction behind them, is political. As Dr. Ambedkar observed in the Constituent Assembly, "If any government ignores them, they will certainly have to answer for them before the electorate at the election time". DPSP is a part of the Constitution. Article 37 unequivocally enjoins that 'It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws'. Hence it should be competent for the Union to issue directions against particular states to introduce compulsory education for children Article 45, to prevent Slaughter of Cows (Art. 48), prohibition of alcoholic drinks Art (47). In case of refusal to comply with such directions issued by the Union, it may apply Art 365 against such recalcitrant state. Sir Ivor Jennings characterised DPSP "Pious Aspiration" and also questioned the utility of importing it into India of the 19th Century, English Philosophy of 'Fabian Socialism without the Socialism' Granville Austin considers these directives to be "aimed at furthering the goals of the social revolution". Besides the Directives contained in part IV, there are certain other Directives addressed to the state in other parts of the Constitution. Art 350 A enjoins every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instructions in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education. Art 351 enjoins to promote the spread of the Hindi language. These instructions are not part of DPSP but carry the same value.
Which article of Directive Principles was brought into fundamental rights through 86th amendment of the Constitution?
(a) Provision for Free and Compulsory Education (Article 45)
(b) Article 48 Slaughter of Cows
(c) Article 47 Prohibition of Alcohol
(d) Article 51 International Peace
Ans: a
Sol: The Correct Answer is 'Provision for Free and Compulsory Education (Article 45).'.
- The 86th Amendment of the Constitution, enacted in 2002, brought Article 45 (which was part of the Directive Principles of State Policy) into the realm of Fundamental Rights.
- Specifically, it made "the right to free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 to 14 years" a fundamental right by inserting Article 21A.
- This change aimed to ensure that every child in India has the fundamental right to education, aligning it with the earlier directive in Article 45, which emphasized the state's responsibility to provide free education to children.
