UGC NET Paper 2: Political Science 4th Sept 2024 Shift 2 | UGC NET Past Year Papers PDF Download

Q1: Arrange the following Political Parties (as per their year of formation) in the chronological order: 

A. Janata Dal (U)

B. All India Trinamool Congress

C. Telugu Desam Party

D. Asom Gana Parishad

E. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) B, E, C, D, A

(c) E, C, D, B, A

(d) D, A, B, C, E

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'E, C, D, B, A'.

Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK):

• The DMK was founded in 1949 by C. N. Annadurai.
• It emerged from the Dravidian movement and has played a significant role in Tamil Nadu's politics.

Telugu Desam Party (TDP):

• The TDP was established in 1982 by N. T. Rama Rao.
• It became a prominent political force in Andhra Pradesh and played a significant role in state and national politics.

Asom Gana Parishad (AGP):

• The AGP was formed in 1985 following the Assam Accord, which ended the Assam Movement.
• It focuses on regional issues and has been a key player in Assam politics.

All India Trinamool Congress (AITC or TMC):

• The TMC was founded in 1998 by Mamata Banerjee after splitting from the Indian National Congress.
• It has become a dominant force in West Bengal politics.

Janata Dal (United) [JD(U)]:

• The JD(U) was formed in 2003 through the merger of the Janata Dal (United) and the Samata Party.
• It has been influential in Bihar politics and part of various coalition governments at the center.

Q2: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, formation of the Finance Commission is laid down? 

(a) Article 269

(b) Article 271

(c) Article 280

(d) Article 289

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.'

Formation of the Finance Commission:

• The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
• It is established by the President of India every five years.
• The main function of the Finance Commission is to recommend the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and the States, and among the States themselves.
• It also addresses issues related to the financial relations between the central and state governments.

Other Related Points

Other Articles:

Article 269:

• Deals with taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States.
• It does not pertain to the formation or functioning of the Finance Commission.

Article 271:

• Relates to the surcharge on certain duties and taxes for purposes of the Union.
• It does not involve the Finance Commission.

Article 289:

• Concerns the exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation.
• This article does not discuss the Finance Commission.

Q3: Read carefully the following statements regarding Fundamental duties in Indian Constitution and choose the incorrect answer - 

A. Fundamental duties were inserted by the 44th Constitution Amendment Act.

B. Parliament cannot amend the fundamental duties.

C. Fundamental duties can be enforced by writs.

D. There are eleven fundamental duties in Article 51A.

E. Promotion of international peace and securitiy in one of the important fundamental duty.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, C, D Only

(b) A, B, C, E Only

(c) B, D, E Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: b

Sol: The incorrect statement is 'A, B, C, E Only'

Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution:

• Fundamental Duties were inserted by the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act, 1976, not the 44th Amendment Act. This makes statement A incorrect.
• Parliament has the power to amend the Fundamental Duties, contradicting statement B.
• Fundamental Duties cannot be enforced by writs, making statement C incorrect.
• There are indeed eleven Fundamental Duties listed in Article 51A, making statement D correct.
• Promotion of international peace and security is not a Fundamental Duty, making statement E incorrect.

Other Related Points

List of Fundamental Duties:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag, and the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
• To develop scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and abjure violence.
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
• Parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children or wards between the ages of six and fourteen years.

Q4: Arrange the following Speakers of the Lok Sabha as per their tenure in the chronological order: 

A. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar

B. P. A. Sangma

C. Om Birla

D. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

E. Ms. Meira Kumar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) A, D, B, E, C

(c) E, A, B, C, D

(d) D, A, B, E, C

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, D, B, E, C'

Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar:

• He was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 1952 to 1956.

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy:

• He served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1967 to 1969 and later became the President of India.

P. A. Sangma:

• He was the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1996 to 1998.

Ms. Meira Kumar:

• She was the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 2009 to 2014.

Om Birla:

• He has been the Speaker of the Lok Sabha since 2019.

Other Related Points

Role and Position: The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of India's Parliament, responsible for maintaining order and decorum during proceedings.

Election: The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves, typically belonging to the ruling party or coalition.

Responsibilities:

• Maintaining Order: Ensures orderly conduct of debates and proceedings in the Lok Sabha.
• Decision on Matters of Procedure: Has the authority to interpret and apply rules of procedure.
• Casting Vote: Exercises a casting vote in the event of a tie but does not vote otherwise to maintain impartiality.
• Control over Committees: Nominates members to various parliamentary committees and presides over certain select committees.
• Independence and Impartiality: The Speaker is expected to be impartial and represents the entire House, regardless of party affiliation.
• Disqualification Power: Has the authority to decide on matters of disqualification of members under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law).
• Resignation and Removal: The Speaker can resign by submitting a written notice to the Deputy Speaker and can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of the members of the Lok Sabha.

Q5: Arrange the following books in the chronological order (years of first publication) (Dropped Question) 

A. The End of History and the Last Man

B. Man, the State and War

C. Politics Among Nations: The Struggle for Power and Peace

D. The Second Sex

E. The Clash of Civilisations and the Remaking of World Order

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) C, B, D, A, E

(b) C, D, B, E, A

(c) A, B, C, D, E

(d) D, C, B, E, A

Ans: a

Sol: Note: This question has been dropped by NTA.

The correct answer is 'C, B, D, A, E'.

Politics Among Nations: The Struggle for Power and Peace by Hans Morgenthau (1948)

• This foundational text in international relations theory was first published in 1948 and emphasizes realism in international politics, discussing power dynamics and state interactions.

Man, the State and War by Kenneth Waltz (1959)

• Published in 1959, this book explores the causes of war and presents a theoretical framework for understanding conflict through three "images" (individual, state, and international system levels).

The Second Sex by Simone de Beauvoir (1949 in French; English translation in 1953)

• Originally published in French in 1949, this landmark feminist work examines the treatment of women throughout history and argues for gender equality.

The End of History and the Last Man by Francis Fukuyama (1992)

• First published in 1992, this book argues that liberal democracy may signal the endpoint of humanity’s ideological evolution.

The Clash of Civilisations and the Remaking of World Order by Samuel P. Huntington (1996)

• Published in 1996, Huntington’s work argues that future conflicts will be between cultural and civilizational groups rather than ideologically or economically driven.

Q6: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - IV, B - III, C - II

(b) A - I, B - II, C - III

(c) A - III, B - I, C - II

(d) A - II, B - IV, C - III

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - I, B - II, C - III'

Abul Ahsan:

• Abul Ahsan served as the first Secretary General of SAARC from January 16, 1987, to October 15, 1989.

Yadav Kant Silwal:

• Yadav Kant Silwal held the position of Secretary General of SAARC from January 1, 1994, to December 31, 1995.

Naeem U. Hasan:

• Naeem U. Hasan served as the Secretary General of SAARC from January 1, 1996, to December 31, 1998.

Other Related Points

• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is an economic and geopolitical organization of eight countries that are primarily located in South Asia.
• Its Secretary General is appointed for a tenure of three years.
• The correct sequence of Secretary Generals and their tenures is crucial for understanding the administrative history and leadership of SAARC.

Q7: Who gave the notion of 'Radical Humanism"? 

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Raja Rammohan Roy

(c) Swami Vivekananda

(d) M. N. Roy

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'M. N. Roy'

Radical Humanism:

• Radical Humanism is a philosophical and political concept introduced by M. N. Roy, an Indian revolutionary, radical thinker, and political activist.
• It emphasizes the importance of human reason, ethics, and justice, advocating for a society free from exploitation, oppression, and inequality.
• Roy's Radical Humanism was a shift from his earlier Marxist beliefs, focusing more on human rights and individual freedom rather than class struggle and economic determinism.

Other Related Points

Mahatma Gandhi:

• Known as the leader of the Indian independence movement against British rule, Gandhi advocated for non-violent civil disobedience and self-reliance.
• While he promoted humanism and ethical living, he did not coin the term 'Radical Humanism'.

Raja Rammohan Roy:

• A prominent social reformer in India, Raja Rammohan Roy is known for his efforts to abolish practices like Sati and promote modern education.
• He did not develop the concept of Radical Humanism.

Swami Vivekananda:

• A key figure in introducing Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world, Vivekananda emphasized spiritual humanism and universal brotherhood.
• He is not associated with the term Radical Humanism.

Q8: Gabriel Almond classified the Pressure group into different categories. Find the correct ones - 

A. Associational groups

B. Non-associational groups

C. Institutional groups

D. Anomic groups

E. Non - anomic groups

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, E Only

(b) A, B, C, E Only

(c) A, C, D, E Only

(d) A, B, C, D Only

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, C, D Only'

Gabriel Almond's Classification of Pressure Groups:

• Gabriel Almond, a prominent political scientist, classified pressure groups into four main categories based on their characteristics and behaviors.
• These categories help in understanding how different types of pressure groups function and influence political systems.

Associational Groups:

• These are formally organized groups with specific objectives and a structured hierarchy.
• Examples include trade unions, professional associations, and business groups.

Non-associational Groups:

• These groups are not formally organized and often lack a structured hierarchy.
• They can be based on ethnicity, religion, or kinship, such as tribal groups or ethnic communities.

Institutional Groups:

• These groups are part of governmental or bureaucratic structures and influence policy from within.
• Examples include the military, civil services, and government agencies.

Anomic Groups:

• These groups are characterized by spontaneous and unorganized actions, often arising in response to specific events or issues.
• Examples include spontaneous protests, riots, or mobs.

Q9: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

(b) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(c) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(d) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III'

State-wise membership in the Constitutional Assembly:

• The Constituent Assembly of India was formed to draft the Constitution of India. It had representatives from different states.
• The number of representatives from each state varied based on the population and other considerations.
• Understanding the correct number of representatives from each state as of 31 December 1947 is crucial for matching List - I with List - II.

Matching List - I and List - II:

• Madras - 49: The state of Madras had 49 representatives in the Constituent Assembly.
• Bombay - 21: The state of Bombay had 21 representatives in the Constituent Assembly.
• West Bengal - 19: The state of West Bengal had 19 representatives in the Constituent Assembly.
• United Province - 55: The United Province (now Uttar Pradesh) had 55 representatives in the Constituent Assembly.

Q10: Which American President had laid down "fourteen points" as the basis for peace after World War I? 

(a) Theodore Roosevelt

(b) James Madison

(c) Millard Fillmore

(d) Woodrow Wilson

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'Woodrow Wilson.'

Woodrow Wilson:

• Woodrow Wilson was the 28th President of the United States, serving from 1913 to 1921.
• He introduced the Fourteen Points on January 8, 1918, as a statement of principles for peace to be used for peace negotiations to end World War I.
• The Fourteen Points were designed to address the causes of the war and to prevent future conflicts through measures such as the establishment of the League of Nations, self-determination for nations, and open diplomacy.
• These points were significant in shaping the post-war world and influencing the Treaty of Versailles, although not all points were adopted.

Other Related Points

Theodore Roosevelt:

• 26th President of the United States, serving from 1901 to 1909.
• Known for his progressive policies and the construction of the Panama Canal, but not related to the Fourteen Points.

James Madison:

• 4th President of the United States, serving from 1809 to 1817.
• Often referred to as the "Father of the Constitution" for his pivotal role in drafting and promoting the U.S. Constitution and the Bill of Rights, but not associated with World War I or the Fourteen Points.

Millard Fillmore:

• 13th President of the United States, serving from 1850 to 1853.
• Known for his role in passing the Compromise of 1850, which included the Fugitive Slave Act, but not related to the Fourteen Points or World War I.

Q11: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

(b) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV

(c) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II

(d) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III'

President's Rule in Indian States:

• President's Rule refers to the suspension of a state government and the imposition of direct rule by the central government in India.
• It is invoked under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution when there is a failure of the constitutional machinery in a state.
• Various states have experienced President's Rule at different times due to political instability or other reasons.

Matching List - I with List - II:

• Andhra Pradesh: President's Rule was imposed from 18.1.73 to 10.12.1973 due to political instability.
• Assam: President's Rule was imposed from 30.6.1981 to 13.1.1982 due to law and order issues.
• Himachal Pradesh: President's Rule was imposed from 15.12.1992 to 3.12.1993 due to political crisis.
• Uttarakhand: President's Rule was imposed from 18.3.2016 to 6.5.2016 due to political instability.

Q12: In which year, Visva-Bharti was established by Rabindranath Tagore? 

(a) 1918

(b) 1920

(c) 1919

(d) 1922

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is '1920'.

Visva-Bharati University:

• Visva-Bharati is a renowned public central university located in Santiniketan, West Bengal, India.
• It was founded by the Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore on December 23, 1920.
• The university emphasizes the blending of Indian and Western traditions of education, promoting an environment where learning and creativity can flourish.

Other Related Points

Significance of Visva-Bharati:

• The institution was unique as it focused on the holistic development of students, integrating arts, humanities, and sciences.
• Rabindranath Tagore's philosophy of education, which emphasized the harmony between man and nature, is a cornerstone of Visva-Bharati's ethos.
• It has produced numerous notable alumni who have made significant contributions to various fields globally.

Q13: Who was the first Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu? 

(a) J. Jayalalitha

(b) K. Kamraj

(c) C. N. Annadurai

(d) K. Karunanidhi

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'C. N. Annadurai'

C. N. Annadurai:

• C. N. Annadurai, popularly known as Anna, was the first Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, serving from 1967 to 1969.
• He was a founder of the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) party and a key figure in the Dravidian movement, which advocated for social equality and regional pride.
• Annadurai's leadership marked a significant shift in Tamil Nadu politics, emphasizing social reform and economic development.
• His tenure laid the foundation for several progressive policies and programs in the state.

Other Related Points

J. Jayalalitha:

• J. Jayalalitha was a prominent political leader and six-time Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu from the All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) party.
• Her tenure began much later, in 1991.

K. Kamraj:

• K. Kamraj, also known as Kamaraj, was a notable Indian politician and former Chief Minister of Madras State before it was renamed Tamil Nadu.
• He served as Chief Minister from 1954 to 1963 but not as the first Chief Minister of the renamed Tamil Nadu.

K. Karunanidhi:

• K. Karunanidhi was a five-time Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu and a prominent leader of the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) party.
• His first tenure as Chief Minister began in 1969, succeeding C. N. Annadurai.

Q14: Match the List - I with List - II 

 Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(b) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

(c) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

(d) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II'

Trygve Lie appointed Secretary General:

• Trygve Lie was the first Secretary General of the United Nations.
• He was appointed in 1946.

Kofi Annan appointed Secretary General:

• Kofi Annan, from Ghana, was appointed as Secretary General in 1997.
• He was the seventh Secretary General of the United Nations.

U. N Peace Keepers sent to Cyprus:

• The United Nations Peacekeeping Force in Cyprus (UNFICYP) was established in 1964.
• This mission aimed to prevent further fighting between the Greek Cypriot and Turkish Cypriot communities.

UN High Commissioner for Refugees established:

• The Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) was established in 1950.
• The agency is mandated to lead and coordinate international action to protect refugees and resolve refugee problems worldwide.

Q15: Who proposed the 'Chaukhamba Model' of decentralization? 

(a) Ram Manohar Lohia

(b) Jayaprakash Narayan

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) B. R. Ambedkar

Ans: a

Sol: Ram Manohar Lohia proposed the 'Chaukhamba Model' of decentralization

Chaukhamba Model of Decentralization:

• The Chaukhamba Model, proposed by Ram Manohar Lohia, advocates for a four-tiered system of decentralized governance.
• The four tiers include the village, district, state, and central levels, promoting a more localized and participatory form of governance.
• This model emphasizes empowering local communities and institutions to enhance democratic engagement and ensure efficient delivery of public services.
• Lohia's vision aimed to reduce the centralization of power and promote self-reliance among smaller administrative units.

Other Related Points

Jayaprakash Narayan:

• Jayaprakash Narayan was a prominent Indian independence activist and political leader known for his role in the Quit India Movement and later, the Total Revolution movement.
• While he advocated for decentralized governance, he did not propose the specific Chaukhamba Model.

Jawaharlal Nehru:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India and a key figure in India's independence movement.
• Nehru's focus was on building a strong, centralized state and implementing socialist policies, rather than promoting a decentralized model like Chaukhamba.

B. R. Ambedkar:

• B. R. Ambedkar was the principal architect of the Indian Constitution and a champion of social justice and equality.
• Although Ambedkar emphasized decentralization in certain aspects, his primary contribution was in framing the constitutional and legal structure of India, not the Chaukhamba Model.

Q16: Arrange the UN Secretary - General as per their tenures in the chronological order: 

A. Boutros Boutros-Ghali

B. Ban Ki-moon

C. U Thant

D. Kofi A. Annan

E. Kurt Waldheim

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) C, A, E, B, D

(b) A, B, C, D, E

(c) C, E, A, D, B

(d) E, B, C, D, A

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'C, E, A, D, B'

UN Secretary-General Tenures:

• U Thant (C): U Thant served as the Secretary-General from 1961 to 1971. He was the third Secretary-General of the United Nations and the first non-European to hold the post.
• Kurt Waldheim (E): Kurt Waldheim held the office from 1972 to 1981. He was the fourth Secretary-General and came from Austria.
• Boutros Boutros-Ghali (A): Boutros Boutros-Ghali served from 1992 to 1996. He was the sixth Secretary-General and the first African to hold the position.
• Kofi A. Annan (D): Kofi Annan served two terms from 1997 to 2006. He was the seventh Secretary-General and hailed from Ghana.
• Ban Ki-Moon (B): Ban Ki-Moon was in office from 2007 to 2016. He was the eighth Secretary-General and came from South Korea.

Other Related Points

Incorrect Options:

• Option 1 (C, A, E, B, D): This sequence incorrectly places Boutros Boutros-Ghali before Kurt Waldheim.
• Option 2 (A, B, C, D, E): This sequence does not follow the chronological order of their tenures at all.
• Option 4 (E, B, C, D, A): This sequence is incorrect as it places Ban Ki-Moon before U Thant and Kurt Waldheim, which is not in chronological order.

Understanding the Role:

• The Secretary-General is the head of the United Nations Secretariat, one of the principal organs of the UN. The role involves being a spokesperson for the interests of the world's peoples, especially the poor and vulnerable.
• The Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council and usually serves a five-year term, which can be renewed.

Q17: 42nd Constitution Amendment Act was passed in India in - 

(a) 1974

(b) 1973

(c) 1976

(d) 1979

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is '1976'.

42nd Constitution Amendment Act:

• The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India, also known as the Constitution Act, 1976, is one of the most significant amendments. It is often referred to as the "Mini-Constitution" due to its wide-ranging impact on the Indian Constitution.
• This amendment was enacted during the Emergency period (1975-1977) when Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India.
• It aimed to reduce the power of the judiciary and increase the power of the Parliament, significantly altering the balance of power between the two.
• Key changes included the addition of the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble, and a reduction in the power of High Courts and the Supreme Court regarding judicial review.

Other Related Points

Other Options:

• 1974: No significant constitutional amendment related to the 42nd Amendment occurred in this year.
• 1973: This year is notable for the Kesavananda Bharati case, where the Supreme Court laid down the Basic Structure Doctrine, but it is not related to the 42nd Amendment.
• 1979: This year saw no significant amendments comparable to the 42nd Amendment. The Janata Party government was in power and was more focused on repealing some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment.

Q18: Choose the correct statements regarding Constitution of India - 

A. The Governor is appointed by the Prime Minister.

B. The Attorney general is appointed by the President.

C. The Chairman of UPSC is appointed by the President.

D. The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.

E. The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, C, D, E Only

(b) B, C, D Only

(c) C, D, E Only

(d) A, B, D, E Only

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'B, C, D Only'

The Attorney General is appointed by the President:

• The Attorney General for India is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and is appointed by the President of India under Article 76(1) of the Constitution.

The Chairman of UPSC is appointed by the President:

• Under Article 316 of the Constitution, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) are appointed by the President of India.

The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President:

• As per Article 124 of the Constitution, the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President of India.

Other Related Points

The Governor is not appointed by the Prime Minister:

• According to Article 155 of the Constitution, the Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India, not the Prime Minister.

The Judges of the High Court are not appointed by the Governor:

• As per Article 217 of the Constitution, the Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the state, and the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned.

Q19: Choose the correct statements regarding elite theory: 

A. Robert Dahl advocated the Concept of polyrchial democracy.

B. John Plamenatz argued that if the will of the people is a myth, then will of the minority' also belongs to the same category.

C. Gaetano Mosca advocated the idea of elite theory in his classical work 'The Political Parties'.

D. Robert Michels advocated the idea of 'Iron law of Oligarchy'.

E. C Right Mills advocated his idea of elite power in his book 'The Managerial Revolution'.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C Only

(b) A, B, D Only

(c) A, B, C, D Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, D Only'

Robert Dahl advocated the concept of polyarchial democracy:

• Robert Dahl, a prominent political theorist, introduced the concept of polyarchy, a form of government where power is vested in multiple people.
• Polyarchial democracy refers to a system of government characterized by a high degree of political competition and participation.

John Plamenatz argued that if the will of the people is a myth, then the will of the minority also belongs to the same category:

• John Plamenatz was a political philosopher who contributed to the debate on democratic theory.
• He suggested that if the concept of the "will of the people" is considered a myth, then the "will of the minority" is equally mythical, emphasizing the complex nature of democratic representation.

Robert Michels advocated the idea of 'Iron law of Oligarchy':

• Robert Michels, a sociologist, proposed the Iron Law of Oligarchy, which posits that all complex organizations, irrespective of how democratic they are at the start, eventually develop into oligarchies.
• This theory suggests that leadership inevitably becomes concentrated in the hands of a few, undermining democratic principles.

Other Related Points

Gaetano Mosca's work:

• Gaetano Mosca is known for his work "The Ruling Class," not "The Political Parties." In "The Ruling Class," Mosca discusses the concept of a political elite that inevitably rules over the majority.
• His theory emphasizes the hierarchical nature of societies and the inevitability of an elite class.

C. Wright Mills' work:

• C. Wright Mills is renowned for his book "The Power Elite," not "The Managerial Revolution." In "The Power Elite," Mills examines the interlocking interests and roles of the military, corporate, and political leaders in the United States.
• His analysis highlights how these elites wield significant power and influence, often beyond democratic control.

Q20: Choose the correct statements regarding political theorists - 

A. Mary Wollstonecraft emphasized the equal rights of women.

B. Hannah Arendt examined the nature of both Nazism and Stalinism in 'The Origins of Totalitarianism'.

C. Antonio Gramsei wrote the famous book 'On People's Democratic Dictatorship'.

D. Franz Fanon wrote the famous book 'Black Skin White Masks'.

E. In his famous book, 'Politics among Nations', Aristotle advocated a system of mixed government.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) A, B, C, E Only

(c) B, C, D Only

(d) A, B, D Only

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, D Only'

Mary Wollstonecraft emphasized the equal rights of women:

• Mary Wollstonecraft was a pioneering advocate for women's rights.
• Her seminal work, "A Vindication of the Rights of Woman" (1792), argued for the education and equality of women.
• She is considered one of the earliest feminist philosophers.

Hannah Arendt examined the nature of both Nazism and Stalinism in 'The Origins of Totalitarianism':

• Hannah Arendt was a political theorist known for her analysis of totalitarian regimes.
• In her book "The Origins of Totalitarianism" (1951), she explored the commonalities between Nazi Germany and Stalinist Soviet Union.
• She introduced the concept of totalitarianism to describe these regimes.

Franz Fanon wrote the famous book 'Black Skin White Masks':

• Franz Fanon was a psychiatrist and philosopher who focused on the effects of colonialism on the human psyche.
• His book "Black Skin, White Masks" (1952) examines the psychological impact of colonialism on Black people.
• Fanon's work is influential in post-colonial studies and critical race theory.

Other Related Points

Antonio Gramsei wrote the famous book 'On People's Democratic Dictatorship':

• This statement is incorrect. Antonio Gramsci was an Italian Marxist philosopher and communist politician known for his theory of cultural hegemony.
• He did not write "On People's Democratic Dictatorship"; this is a concept associated with Mao Zedong.

In his famous book, 'Politics among Nations', Aristotle advocated a system of mixed government:

• This statement is incorrect. "Politics among Nations" is a book by Hans Morgenthau, not Aristotle.
• Aristotle's work on politics is found in "Politics," where he discusses various forms of government and advocates a mixed government system.

Q21: Arrange the following languages conferred with classical language status by Government of India in the chronological order: 

A. Kannada

B. Odia

C. Tamil

D. Sanskrit

E. Malayalam

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) E, D, C, B, A

(b) D, C, A, E, B

(c) C, D, A, E, B

(d) B, A, D, E, C

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'C, D, A, E, B'

Chronological Order of Classical Languages:

• Tamil: The Government of India first conferred the classical language status to Tamil in 2004.
• Sanskrit: Sanskrit was the next language to receive this status in 2005.
• Kannada: Kannada was granted classical language status in 2008.
• Malayalam: Malayalam followed, receiving the status in 2013.
• Odia: Finally, Odia was conferred classical language status in 2014.

Other Related Points 

Recognition: 

• The Government of India grants the status of a "Classical Language" to languages that meet certain historical and cultural criteria, recognizing their rich heritage and ancient roots.

Criteria for Classical Status:

• Antiquity: The language must have a recorded history of at least 1500–2000 years.
• Rich Heritage: The language must possess a significant body of ancient literature or texts that have cultural significance.
• Original Literary Tradition: It must have an independent literary tradition, not borrowed from another tradition.

Q22: Which Indian President inaugurated newly restored Somnath Temple? 

(a) Rajendra Prasad

(b) Giani Zail Singh

(c) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

(d) Radhakrishnan

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is Rajendra Prasad

Inauguration of Somnath Temple:

• The Somnath Temple, one of the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva, holds significant importance in Indian history and culture.
• Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, inaugurated the newly restored Somnath Temple on May 11, 1951.
• This event marked the revival of the temple after it had been repeatedly destroyed and rebuilt over centuries.
• The restoration was a significant cultural and religious event, symbolizing the resilience and continuity of Indian civilization.

Other Related Points

Giani Zail Singh:

• He served as the seventh President of India from 1982 to 1987.
• Though a significant political figure, he did not have any direct involvement in the restoration of the Somnath Temple.

Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy:

• He was the sixth President of India from 1977 to 1982.
• Like Giani Zail Singh, he was not associated with the inauguration of the Somnath Temple.

Radhakrishnan:

• Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the second President of India, serving from 1962 to 1967.
• Although he was an influential philosopher and statesman, he did not play a role in the temple's restoration.

Q23: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

(b) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

(c) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(d) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV'.

House of Representatives (United States of America):

• The House of Representatives is one of the two chambers of the United States Congress, the other being the Senate.
• It is responsible for making and passing federal laws.
• Members of the House are elected every two years and represent congressional districts based on population.

National Assembly (Pakistan):

• The National Assembly is the lower house of the bicameral Parliament of Pakistan.
• It consists of elected members who serve five-year terms.
• The National Assembly has the authority to make laws and plays a key role in the legislative process in Pakistan.

House of Commons (United Kingdom):

• The House of Commons is the lower house of the Parliament of the United Kingdom.
• It is composed of Members of Parliament (MPs) who are elected to represent constituencies.
• The House of Commons is the primary legislative body, and most government ministers are drawn from it.
• Knesset (Israel):
  • The Knesset is the national legislature of Israel.
  • It is a unicameral body consisting of 120 members who are elected to four-year terms.
  • The Knesset is responsible for enacting laws, electing the President and Prime Minister, and overseeing the government.

Additional Information

Option 1: A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II:

• This option incorrectly matches the legislatures with the countries. For example, the House of Representatives is not associated with Israel (IV).

Option 2: A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III:

• This option incorrectly matches the legislatures with the countries. For example, the House of Representatives is not associated with Pakistan (II).

Option 4: A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV:

• This option incorrectly matches the legislatures with the countries. For example, the House of Representatives is not associated with Pakistan (II).

Q24: In which year, Planning Commission was converted into 'Niti Aayog'? 

(a) 2013

(b) 2015

(c) 2017

(d) 2016

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is '2015'

Transformation of Planning Commission to NITI Aayog:

• The Planning Commission of India was a government institution in India that formulated India's Five-Year Plans, among other functions. It was established in March 1950.
• In 2015, the Government of India decided to replace the Planning Commission with a new institution called the National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog).
• NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015, with the aim to foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis.
• The main objective of NITI Aayog is to achieve sustainable development goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach.

Other Related Points

Functions of NITI Aayog:

Promoting cooperative federalism.

• Formulating strategic and long-term policies and programs.
• Providing relevant technical advice to the Center and States.
• Monitoring and evaluating the implementation of programs and initiatives.

Key differences between Planning Commission and NITI Aayog:

• The Planning Commission followed a top-down approach, while NITI Aayog follows a bottom-up approach.
• Planning Commission had the power to allocate funds to states, whereas NITI Aayog acts as a policy think tank without financial powers.

Q25: In which year, Burma was bifurcated from British India? 

(a) 1915

(b) 1917

(c) 1923

(d) 1937

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is '1937'.

Bifurcation of Burma from British India:

• Burma (now Myanmar) was officially separated from British India on April 1, 1937.
• This separation was part of the Government of India Act 1935, which aimed to grant greater autonomy to Indian provinces and separate Burma from the administration of British India.
• Following this bifurcation, Burma became a separately administered colony under the British Crown with its own government structure.

Other Related Points

Impact of the Separation:

• Post-1937, Burma had a separate legislative council and was governed independently from India, though still under British colonial rule.
• This administrative change laid the groundwork for Burma's eventual independence from British rule in 1948.

Reasons for Separation:

• The British aimed to ease administrative control and reduce the influence of Indian nationalist movements in Burma.
• Separating Burma allowed the British to govern it independently from Indian politics and movements for independence.

Establishment of a Separate Constitution:

• Following the separation, Burma was given its own constitution and governance structure under the British Crown, distinct from that of British India.

Impact on Administration:

• Post-separation, Burma had its own Governor and legislative council, separate from British India's governance framework.

Path to Independence:

• After the separation, Burma continued under British rule until it gained independence on 4th January 1948 as the Union of Burma.

Q26: 'Mook Nayak' newspaper was published by - 

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(c) M. N. Roy

(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar:

• Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was a prominent Indian jurist, economist, and social reformer who campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables (Dalits).
• He founded the newspaper 'Mook Nayak' in 1920 to voice the concerns and issues faced by the marginalized communities in India.
• The newspaper played a crucial role in raising awareness about social injustices and advocating for the rights of the oppressed classes.

Other Related Points

Mahatma Gandhi:

• Mahatma Gandhi was a key leader in the Indian independence movement and the proponent of non-violent resistance (Satyagraha).
• Although he published several newspapers like 'Young India' and 'Harijan,' he was not associated with 'Mook Nayak.'

M. N. Roy:

• M. N. Roy was an Indian revolutionary and political theorist, renowned for founding the Communist Party of India.
• He was not involved in the publication of 'Mook Nayak.'

Gopal Krishna Gokhale:

• Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress and a social reformer in pre-independence India.
• He played a significant role in the Indian National Movement but did not publish 'Mook Nayak.'

Q27: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

(b) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

(c) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

(d) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV'.

African Union:

• Establishment Year: 2002
• The African Union (AU) is a continental union consisting of 55 member states located on the continent of Africa. It was founded to replace the Organization of African Unity (OAU) and aims to promote unity and solidarity among African countries.

Latin American Integration Association:

• Establishment Year: 1980
• The Latin American Integration Association (ALADI) is an international and regional scope organization. It aims to promote the harmonious and balanced socioeconomic development of the region through economic integration and cooperation.

East Asia Summit:

• Establishment Year: 2005
• The East Asia Summit (EAS) is a forum held annually by leaders of, initially, 16 countries in East Asia, Southeast Asia, and South Asia. It has since expanded to include additional members. The EAS aims to promote stability and economic integration in the region.

Eurasian Economic Community:

• Establishment Year: 2000
• The Eurasian Economic Community (EAEC or EurAsEC) was an international organization that aimed to establish a common market among its member states. It was succeeded by the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) in 2015.

Other Related Points

Incorrect Options:

Option 1 (A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I):

• This option incorrectly matches the African Union with 2005 and the Latin American Integration Association with 2002.

Option 3 (A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III):

• This option incorrectly matches the African Union with 1980 and the Latin American Integration Association with 2005.

Option 4 (A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III):

• This option incorrectly matches the African Union with 2000 and the Latin American Integration Association with 2005.

Q28: After Jawaharlal Nehru, which one of the following leader became Prime Minister of India third time in row after completing two full tenures? 

(a) Indira Gandhi

(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(c) Narendra Modi

(d) Morarji Desai

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'Narendra Modi'

Narendra Modi:

• Narendra Modi became the Prime Minister of India for the first time in May 2014.
• He was re-elected for a second term in May 2019.
• After successfully completing two full tenures, he continues to serve as Prime Minister, making him the third leader after Jawaharlal Nehru to achieve this feat.

Other Related Points

Indira Gandhi:

• Indira Gandhi served as Prime Minister of India from 1966 to 1977 and then again from 1980 until her assassination in 1984.
• While she served multiple terms, she did not achieve three consecutive full tenures.

Dr. Manmohan Singh:

• Dr. Manmohan Singh served as Prime Minister from 2004 to 2014, completing two full tenures.
• He did not serve a third consecutive term as Prime Minister.

Morarji Desai:

• Morarji Desai served as Prime Minister of India from 1977 to 1979.
• He did not complete even one full tenure, let alone three consecutive ones.

Q29: Who conceived the notion of 'Linking Pin Model? 

(a) Elton Mayo

(b) Fred Riggs

(c) Rensis Likert

(d) Woodrow Wilson

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is Renin Likert

Renin Likert:

• Renin Likert was an American social psychologist known for his contributions to management theory and organizational behavior.
• He conceived the "Linking Pin Model," which describes organizations as systems of overlapping groups, where leaders act as linking pins connecting different levels.
• This model emphasizes the importance of communication and coordination among different organizational levels for effective management.
• Likert's model helps in understanding how information flows within an organization and how leaders can bridge gaps between teams or departments.

Other Related Points

Elton Mayo:

• Elton Mayo was an Australian-born psychologist, industrial researcher, and organizational theorist.
• He is best known for his role in the Hawthorne Studies, which examined how social relations and worker satisfaction impact productivity.
• Mayo's work laid the foundation for the human relations movement in management.

Fred Riggs:

• Fred W. Riggs was a political scientist known for his work in comparative public administration.
• He introduced the "Prismatic Society" model to explain complexities in developing countries' administrative systems.
• His work did not focus on organizational behavior within companies but rather on administrative and bureaucratic structures in different societies.

Woodrow Wilson:

• Woodrow Wilson was the 28th President of the United States and a political scientist.
• He is often credited with founding the field of public administration as an academic discipline in the United States.
• His essay "The Study of Administration" emphasized the need for a professionalized and efficient public administration separate from political influence.

Q30: Which one of the following organisation won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2017? 

(a) The International Campaign to abolish nuclear weapons.

(b) The International Campaign to counter - terrorism.

(c) The International Campaign to safeguard environment.

(d) The International Campaign to protect women and children.

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons.'

The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN):

• ICAN is a global coalition of non-governmental organizations advocating for the elimination of nuclear weapons.
• Founded in 2007, ICAN played a pivotal role in the creation of the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons, which was adopted by the United Nations in July 2017.
• The Nobel Committee awarded ICAN the Nobel Peace Prize in 2017 for its efforts to draw attention to the catastrophic humanitarian consequences of any use of nuclear weapons and for its ground-breaking work to achieve a treaty-based prohibition of such weapons.

Other Related Points

The International Campaign to Counter-Terrorism:

• This is a hypothetical organization and does not exist as a recognized entity. Various nations and international bodies do work towards counter-terrorism, but no specific campaign with this name won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2017.

The International Campaign to Safeguard Environment:

• While environmental protection is a critical global issue, and organizations like Greenpeace and the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) have made significant contributions, no such campaign won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2017.

The International Campaign to Protect Women and Children:

• Many organizations work globally to protect women and children, such as UNICEF and UN Women. However, no campaign specifically focused on this issue won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2017.

Q31: Identify the incorrect statements - 

A. Jacques Derrida wrote the book 'Specters of Marx'.

B. Deendayal Upadhyay opposed the idea of Integral Humanism.

C. Federalism was borrowed by the framers of Indian Constitution from British Constitution.

D. Asif Ali Zardari is the President of Pakistan,

E. Panchayati Raj system in India provided 45% reservation for women.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D Only

(b) B, C, D, E Only

(c) B, C, E Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is ‘B, C, E Only’

Deendayal Upadhyay opposed the idea of Integral Humanism:

• This statement is incorrect. Deendayal Upadhyay was the proponent of Integral Humanism, a philosophy that promotes the harmonious development of the individual and society.
• Integral Humanism emphasizes the integration of material and spiritual values, rejecting both Western capitalism and Marxist socialism.

Federalism was borrowed by the framers of Indian Constitution from British Constitution:

• This statement is incorrect. The concept of federalism in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Government of India Act, 1935, and the federal structure of the United States Constitution, not the British Constitution.
• India adopted a quasi-federal structure with a strong central government.

Panchayati Raj system in India provided 45% reservation for women:

• This statement is incorrect. The Panchayati Raj system in India provides for at least 33% reservation for women, not 45%.
• This reservation is intended to ensure women's participation in local self-governance.

Other Related Points

Jacques Derrida wrote the book 'Specters of Marx':

• This statement is correct. Jacques Derrida, a French philosopher, wrote the book 'Specters of Marx' in 1993.
• The book discusses Marxist thought and its relevance in the contemporary world.

Asif Ali Zardari is the President of Pakistan:

• This statement is outdated but was once correct. Asif Ali Zardari served as the President of Pakistan from 2008 to 2013.
• The current President of Pakistan is Arif Alvi (as of the latest update in 2023).

Q32: Arrange the following designated SAARC years in the chronological order: 

A. SAARC year of the Youth

B. SAARC year of Girl Child

C. SAARC year of Environment

D. SAARC year of Disabled Persons

E. SAARC year of Poverty Eradication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, D, C, E, A

(b) C, A, D, E, B

(c) B, C, D, A, E

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'B, C, D, A, E'

SAARC Year of the Girl-Child (1990):

• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) designated 1990 as the "SAARC Year of the Girl-Child" to focus on the issues and challenges faced by girl children in the region.
• It aimed to promote the welfare and rights of girl children, ensuring their health, education, and overall development.

SAARC Year of Environment (1992):

• Following the focus on girl children, 1992 was declared the "SAARC Year of Environment" to address environmental concerns and promote sustainable development in the region.
• This initiative aimed to raise awareness about environmental issues and encourage member countries to adopt eco-friendly practices.

SAARC Year of Disabled Persons (2003):

• In 2003, SAARC focused on the needs and rights of disabled persons by designating it as the "SAARC Year of Disabled Persons."
• The goal was to enhance the quality of life for disabled individuals and ensure their inclusion in society.

SAARC Year of Youth (2008):

• The year 2008 was designated as the "SAARC Year of Youth" to highlight the importance of youth in the region's development.
• This initiative aimed to empower young people, provide them with opportunities, and engage them in the socio-economic development of their countries.

SAARC Year of Poverty Eradication (2010):

• Finally, 2010 was declared the "SAARC Year of Poverty Eradication" to combat poverty and promote socio-economic development in South Asia.
• This initiative focused on strategies and programs to alleviate poverty and improve living standards in the region.

Q33: Who become first democratically elected woman Prime Minister in Islamic world? 

(a) Sheikh Hasina Wajed

(b) Hina Rabbani Khar

(c) Khalida Zia

(d) Benazir Bhutto

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'Benazir Bhutto'

Benazir Bhutto:

• Benazir Bhutto became the first democratically elected woman prime minister in the Islamic world when she took office in Pakistan in 1988.
• She was the daughter of former Prime Minister Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and a leading figure in the Pakistan Peoples Party (PPP).
• Her tenure marked a significant milestone in a predominantly male-dominated political landscape in Islamic countries.

Other Related Points

Sheikh Hasina Wazid:

• She is a prominent political leader in Bangladesh and has served as the Prime Minister of Bangladesh multiple times.
• She is not the first democratically elected woman prime minister in the Islamic world but has played a critical role in Bangladeshi politics.

Hina Rabbani Khar:

• She served as the Foreign Minister of Pakistan and gained international recognition for her role.
• However, she has never served as a prime minister.

Khalida Zia:

• Khalida Zia is a former Prime Minister of Bangladesh and the first woman to hold the office in Bangladesh.
• While she is a significant figure in Bangladeshi politics, she is not the first woman prime minister in the Islamic world.

Q34: Who stated - 'Sri Aurobindo has appropriated Hegel's notion of an Absolute Spirit and employed it to radically restructure the architectonic framework of the ancient Hindu Vedanta system in contemporary terms?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Rabindranath Tagore

(c) Swami Vivekananda

(d) Steve Odin

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is Steve Odin.

Steve Odin:

• Steve Odin is a scholar who has extensively studied comparative philosophy, especially focusing on the intersection of Eastern and Western philosophical traditions.
• He noted how Sri Aurobindo incorporated Hegel's notion of an Absolute Spirit to modernize and recontextualize the ancient Hindu Vedanta system.
• This observation highlights Sri Aurobindo's innovative approach to blending Eastern spirituality with Western philosophical ideas.

Other Related Points

Mahatma Gandhi:

• Known primarily for his role in the Indian independence movement and his philosophy of non-violence (Ahimsa).
• Gandhi's works do not focus on integrating Hegelian philosophy with Hindu Vedanta.

Rabindranath Tagore:

• A renowned poet, philosopher, and polymath from India, who primarily focused on literature, art, and cultural issues.
• Tagore’s contributions are not primarily in the realm of integrating Western and Eastern philosophical traditions in the manner described.

Swami Vivekananda:

• A key figure in introducing Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world in the late 19th century.
• While he did engage with Western philosophies, he did not specifically appropriate Hegel's notion of an Absolute Spirit to restructure the Vedanta system.

Q35: Match the List-I with List-II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

(b) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(c) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(d) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III'

George Soros:

• George Soros is a renowned investor and philanthropist.
• He is the author of the book "Open Society".
• The book discusses his philosophy of open societies, the role of democracy, and the importance of individual freedoms.

Paul Krugman:

• Paul Krugman is a Nobel laureate in Economics and a well-known economist.
• He authored the book "The Conscience of a Liberal".
• The book focuses on economic and political issues in the United States, advocating for a more equitable society.

Herman Daly:

• Herman Daly is a prominent ecological economist.
• He co-authored the book "For the Common Good" with John B. Cobb Jr.
• The book presents an argument for a more sustainable and community-focused economic system.

Immanuel Wallerstein:

• Immanual Wallerstein was a sociologist and economic historian.
• He authored the book "Decline of American Power".
• The book analyzes the decline of the United States' hegemony in the global system.

Q36: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

(b) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

(c) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

(d) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV'

Creation of States in India:

• Jharkhand: Jharkhand was created on November 15, 2000, by bifurcating the state of Bihar. It became the 28th state of India.
• Telangana: Telangana was officially formed on June 2, 2014, after being separated from Andhra Pradesh. It became the 29th state of India.
• Goa: Goa attained statehood on May 30, 1987, making it the 25th state of India. Prior to that, it was a Union Territory.
• Sikkim : Sikkim became the 22nd state of India on May 16, 1975, after merging with India.

Other Related Points 

State Reorganisation Act, 1956: 

• This landmark act came into effect on 1st November 1956, following the recommendations of the State Reorganisation Commission (SRC). 
• It aimed to reorganize Indian states along linguistic lines.   

Formation of the State Reorganisation Commission: 

• Established in 1953, the SRC was headed by Fazal Ali, with K. M. Panikkar and H. N. Kunzru as members.
• The commission submitted its report in 1955.

Q37: Pakistan exploded its first nuclear bomb at - 

(a) Abbotabad

(b) Chagai

(c) Dalbadin

(d) Haripur

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'Chagai'

Chagai:

• Pakistan conducted its first successful nuclear test at the Chagai district in the Balochistan province on May 28, 1998.
• This test was part of a series of five underground nuclear explosions, collectively known as Chagai-I, which marked Pakistan's entry into the list of nuclear-armed states.
• The tests were conducted in response to India's nuclear tests earlier that month, which escalated tensions in the region.

Other Related Points

Abbotabad:

• Abbotabad is a city in the Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan, known for its military academy.
• It has no historical connection to Pakistan's nuclear tests.

Dalbadin:

• Dalbadin is a town in the Chagai District, but it was not the specific site of the nuclear tests.
• It is geographically close to the actual test site but does not hold the same significance.

Haripur:

• Haripur is a city in the Khyber Pakhtunkhwa province and is known for its industrial significance.
• It has no relevance to Pakistan's nuclear testing history.

Q38: Who was the Chairman of 15th Finance Commission of India? 

(a) N. K. Singh

(b) A. K. Chanda

(c) Dr. Rajamannar

(d) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

Ans: a

Sol: N. K. Singh was the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission of India.

Overview of the 15th Finance Commission:

• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that is tasked with recommending the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Center and the States, and among the States themselves.
• The 15th Finance Commission was constituted in November 2017 and its recommendations cover the period from 2020 to 2025.

N. K. Singh:

• N. K. Singh, a seasoned bureaucrat and politician, was appointed as the Chairman of the 15th Finance Commission of India.
• He has held various significant positions in the Indian government, including as a member of the Planning Commission and as a Secretary to the Government of India.
• Under his leadership, the 15th Finance Commission made several important recommendations on tax devolution, grants-in-aid, and fiscal consolidation.

Other Related Points

A. K. Chanda:

• A. K. Chanda was the Chairman of the 2nd Finance Commission of India, which was constituted in 1956.
• His tenure and contributions are not related to the 15th Finance Commission.

Dr. Rajamannar:

• Dr. P. V. Rajamannar was the Chairman of the 4th Finance Commission of India, which was constituted in 1964.
• He has no connection with the 15th Finance Commission.

Montak Singh Ahluwalia:

• Montek Singh Ahluwalia is a noted Indian economist and civil servant, known for his role as the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India.
• He has never been the Chairman of any Finance Commission of India, including the 15th Finance Commission.

Q39: Arrange the following events in the chronological order: 

A. Non Cooperation Movement

B. Civil Disobedience Movement

C. 'Purna Swaraj' accepted as Congress goal at the Lahore Congress

D. Champaran Movement

E. Peasant Movements in Kheda (Gujarat) and Worker's Movement in Ahmedabad

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, D, A, E, C

(b) A, B, C, D, E

(c) E, D, A, B, C

(d) D, E, A, C, B

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'D, E, A, C, B'

Champaran Movement:

• The Champaran Movement was launched in 1917 by Mahatma Gandhi in Bihar to address the grievances of indigo farmers facing exploitation from British planters.
• This movement marked Gandhi's first active involvement in Indian mass politics, setting the stage for future mass movements.

Peasant Movements in Kheda (Gujarat) and Worker's Movement in Ahmedabad:

• Following the Champaran Movement, Gandhi led the Kheda Satyagraha in 1918, supporting peasants facing crop failure and demanding tax relief.
• In the same year, he also led the Ahmedabad Mill Strike, advocating for better working conditions and wages for textile workers.

Non Cooperation Movement:

• Launched in 1920, the Non Cooperation Movement aimed to resist British rule through non-violent means, urging Indians to boycott British goods, institutions, and honors.
• This movement saw widespread participation and marked a significant escalation in the Indian independence struggle.

'Purna Swaraj' accepted as Congress goal at the Lahore Congress:

• In 1929, during the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress, the demand for 'Purna Swaraj' (complete independence) was formally adopted as the goal of the Indian National Congress.
• This resolution led to the declaration of 26th January 1930 as the first Independence Day of India.

Civil Disobedience Movement:

• In 1930, the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi with the Dandi March, where he marched to the Arabian Sea to produce salt, defying British salt laws.
• This movement involved the refusal to obey certain laws, demands, and commands of the British government.

Q40: Who was the Speaker of the Lok Sabha during Janata Party regime? 

(a) Baliram Bhagat

(b) K. S. Hedge

(c) Bal Ram Jakhar

(d) Shivraj Patil

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'K. D. Hedge'

K. D. Hedge:

• During the Janata Party regime, K. S. Hedge served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• He was a prominent Indian politician and a member of the Janata Party.
• Hedge played a significant role in the functioning of the Lok Sabha during this period, ensuring the smooth conduct of legislative business.

Other Related Points

Baliram Bhagat:

• Baliram Bhagat was an Indian politician who served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1976 to 1977, which was prior to the Janata Party regime.
• He belonged to the Indian National Congress and was known for his contributions to Indian politics.

Bal Ram Jakhar:

• Bal Ram Jakhar served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1980 to 1989.
• He was a member of the Indian National Congress and played a significant role in the parliamentary proceedings during his tenure.

Shivraj Patil:

• Shivraj Patil was the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1991 to 1996.
• He was also a member of the Indian National Congress and had a long political career, including serving as the Union Home Minister.

Q41: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

(c) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

(d) A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV'

Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees:

• Enacted in 1954.
• Defines the term "refugee" and outlines the rights of the displaced, as well as the legal obligations of states to protect them.

Declaration on Torture:

• Enacted in 1975.
• Aimed at prohibiting and preventing all forms of torture and other cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment worldwide.

Convention on the Rights of the Child:

• Enacted in 1990.
• Sets out the civil, political, economic, social, health, and cultural rights of children.

Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European Union:

• Enacted in 2000.
• Enshrines the fundamental rights of EU citizens and residents, covering areas such as dignity, freedoms, equality, solidarity, citizens' rights, and justice.

Q42: Arrange the following Prime Minister of India in the chronological order as per their tenure: 

A. Chandra Shekhar

B. H. D. Deve Gowda

C. Vishwanath Pratap Singh

D. Charan Singh

E. Morarji Desai

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) E, D, A, B, C

(b) E, D, C, A, B

(c) A, B, C, D, E

(d) E, C, D, B, A

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'E, D, C, A, B'

Morarji Desai:

• Morarji Desai served as the Prime Minister of India from 1977 to 1979.
• He was the first Prime Minister to head a non-Congress government.

Charan Singh:

• Charan Singh succeeded Morarji Desai and served as Prime Minister from 1979 to 1980.
• His tenure was short-lived due to lack of majority support in the Parliament.

Vishwanath Pratap Singh:

• Vishwanath Pratap Singh served as Prime Minister from 1989 to 1990.
• He is known for his decision to implement the Mandal Commission report, which recommended reservations for OBCs in government jobs and educational institutions.

Chandra Shekhar:

• Chandra Shekhar served as Prime Minister from 1990 to 1991.
• His government was supported by Congress from outside but eventually fell due to withdrawal of support.

H. D. Deve Gowda:

• H. D. Deve Gowda served as Prime Minister from 1996 to 1997.
• He was the 11th Prime Minister of India and headed the United Front coalition government.

Q43: Choose the correct statements - 

A. UN declared 1975 as International Women's Year.

B. B N Rau Committee prepared the first draft of the Hindu Code Bill.

C. Kabir was a social reformer in ancient India.

D. Sunderlal Bahuguna became popular in the Chipko Agitation.

E. Subhash Chandra Bose formed Independent Labour Party in 1936.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D Only

(b) B, C, E Only

(c) A, B, D Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, D Only'

UN declared 1975 as International Women's Year:

• The United Nations General Assembly designated 1975 as International Women's Year to focus on women's issues and gender equality.
• This year marked the beginning of the UN Decade for Women (1976-1985), aimed at implementing measures to improve the status of women globally.

B N Rau Committee prepared the first draft of the Hindu Code Bill:

• Sir Benegal Narsing Rau was an eminent jurist and a key figure in the drafting of the Indian Constitution.
• He also prepared the initial draft of the Hindu Code Bill, which aimed to reform Hindu personal law in India.
• The bill sought to codify and modernize Hindu law, dealing with aspects such as marriage, divorce, succession, and adoption.

Sunderlal Bahuguna became popular in the Chipko - agitation:

• Sunderlal Bahuguna was a prominent environmentalist and activist known for his role in the Chipko Movement.
• The Chipko Movement, which began in the 1970s in the Himalayan region of India, was aimed at preventing deforestation and preserving the environment.
• The name "Chipko" means "to hug" or "to cling to," and the movement involved villagers, especially women, hugging trees to prevent them from being cut down.

Other Related Points

Kabir was a social reformer in ancient India:

• Kabir was a 15th-century poet-saint and social reformer, not from ancient India but from the medieval period.
• He is known for his efforts to bridge the gap between Hinduism and Islam and for his criticisms of caste discrimination and ritualism.

Subhash Chandra Bose formed Independent Labour Party in 1936:

• This statement is incorrect as the Independent Labour Party was actually founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1936.
• Subhash Chandra Bose was a prominent freedom fighter and leader of the Indian National Army (INA), but he did not form the Independent Labour Party.

Q44: Identify the correct statements: 

A. A consensus on poverty eradication was adopted at the Seventh SAARC Summit

B. Giuseppe Mazzini wrote the book 'On Nationality'.

C. V. D. Savarkar did not establish the Abhinav Bharat Society.

D. Jurgen Habermas is the leading exponent of the 'Second Generation' of the Frankfurt School.

E. India adopted planning process from United States of America.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, C, D, E Only

(b) C, E Only

(c) A, B, D Only

(d) A, B, C, D Only

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, D Only'

A consensus on poverty eradication was adopted at the Seventh SAARC Summit:

• The Seventh SAARC Summit was held in Dhaka, Bangladesh, in 1993.
• During this summit, member countries agreed on a common agenda to address poverty in the region, recognizing it as a crucial factor for regional development and cooperation.

Giuseppe Mazzini wrote the book 'On Nationality':

• Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian politician, journalist, and activist for the unification of Italy.
• He was a key proponent of the nationalist movement in Europe and wrote extensively on the subject, including the book 'On Nationality.'

Jurgen Habermas is the leading exponent of the 'Second Generation' of the Frankfurt School:

• Jurgen Habermas is a renowned German sociologist and philosopher.
• He is associated with the Frankfurt School of critical theory and is considered a leading figure in its 'Second Generation.'
• His work focuses on communication, democracy, and the public sphere.

Other Related Points

V. D. Savarkar did not establish the Abhinav Bharat Society:

• This statement is incorrect. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, commonly known as V. D. Savarkar, did indeed establish the Abhinav Bharat Society in 1904.
• The society aimed at promoting revolutionary activities against British rule in India.

India adopted the planning process from the United States of America:

• This statement is incorrect. India adopted its planning process primarily from the Soviet model, not the United States.
• The Planning Commission, established in 1950, was inspired by the centralized planning techniques of the USSR.

Q45: Who stated - 

"There is nothing _______ absolute in management affairs. Seldom do we have to apply the same principle twice as in identical conditions; allowance must be made for different changing circumstances?

(a) Max Weber

(b) Peter Drucker

(c) Bertram Gross

(d) Henri Fayol

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'Henri Fayol'

Henri Fayol:

• Henri Fayol was a French mining engineer and management theorist who is widely recognized for his contributions to modern management theory.
• Fayol's quote emphasizes the flexibility required in management practices, highlighting that identical solutions rarely work in different situations due to varying circumstances.
• He is best known for developing a general theory of business administration and for formulating the 14 Principles of Management, which include concepts like division of work, authority, discipline, unity of command, and others.

Other Related Points

Max Weber:

• Max Weber was a German sociologist, philosopher, and political economist known for his theory of bureaucracy and ideas on the structure of organizations.
• Weber's focus was more on the systematic and structured aspects of organizations, rather than the flexible approach mentioned in the quote.

Peter Drucker:

• Peter Drucker was an Austrian-American management consultant, educator, and author, often referred to as the "father of modern management."
• Drucker emphasized innovation, entrepreneurship, and the importance of a customer-centric business approach, which differs from the context of the quote.

Bertram Gross:

• Bertram Gross was an American social scientist and management theorist known for his work on policy planning and organizational theory.
• Gross focused on policy and planning within organizations, rather than the principle-based flexibility discussed in the quote.

Q46: Choose the correct statements regarding Comparative Politics. 

A. In traditional approach, emphasis is on value-laden study of politics.

B. Behavioural approach is one of the important traditional approach.

C. David Easton is one of the leading theorist of Behaviouralism.

D. David Easton's input-output analysis has three main variables in the form of demands, supports and feedbacks.

E. 'Political assassination is one of the important positive indices of political development.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, C, E Only

(b) A, B, C, D, E

(c) A, B, C, D Only

(d) A, C, D Only

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, C, D Only.'

Comparative Politics:

• Comparative Politics involves the study and comparison of political systems globally. It examines political institutions, processes, and behaviors across different countries.

Traditional approach in Comparative Politics:

• In traditional approach, emphasis is on value-laden study of politics:
• The traditional approach often includes normative and philosophical aspects and focuses on the values and moral judgments in political analysis.

Behavioural approach:

• David Easton is one of the leading theorists of Behaviouralism:
• David Easton significantly contributed to the Behavioural approach, emphasizing empirical and scientific methods in political science.
• David Easton's input-output analysis has three main variables in the form of demands, supports, and feedbacks:
• Easton's system analysis model includes inputs (demands and supports), the political system, and outputs (decisions and actions), with feedback loops.

Other Related Points

Behavioural approach is one of the important traditional approaches: 

• This is incorrect.
• The Behavioural approach is not a traditional approach; it emerged in the mid-20th century as a reaction against the traditional, normative approaches, focusing more on empirical and scientific methods.

'Political assassination is one of the important positive indices of political development: 

• This is incorrect.
• Political assassination is generally viewed as a negative and destabilizing factor in political development, not a positive index.

Q47: In which year, Jotiba Phule started a girl's school at Poona? 

(a) 1850

(b) 1848

(c) 1950

(d) 1852

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is '1848'

Jotiba Phule:

• Jyotirao Govindrao Phule, also known as Jotiba Phule, was an Indian social activist, thinker, anti-caste social reformer, and writer from Maharashtra.
• He is most known for his efforts to educate women and lower caste people, and he was a pioneer in the field of women's education in India.

Girl's School at Poona:

• In 1848, Jotiba Phule and his wife Savitribai Phule started the first school for girls in Pune (then Poona), Maharashtra.
• This was a groundbreaking step in promoting education for girls in India, at a time when female education was largely neglected.

Other Related Points

Significance of the School:

• This school was one of the first of its kind in India and marked a significant step towards gender equality in education.
• Jotiba and Savitribai Phule faced considerable opposition and social ostracism for their efforts, but their persistence laid the foundation for future educational reforms.

Q48: Consider the following statements regarding judicial system and choose the correct answer - 

A. Supreme Court of Canada has three judges from the province of Quebec to ensure ethnic and religious balance.

B. Some judges of the Federal Constitutional Court of Germany are elected by the Bundestag and Bundesrat.

C. In United States, the judges are nominated by the House of Lords and ratified by the Senate.

D. US Constitution of 1787 did not explicitly provide for judicial review.

E. The power of judicial review originated in India in the leading case of Marbury Vs. Madison.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D Only

(b) B, C, D, E Only

(c) A, B, D Only

(d) A, C, D, E Only

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, D Only'

Supreme Court of Canada:

• It is accurate that the Supreme Court of Canada has three judges from the province of Quebec.
• This provision ensures that the court has sufficient expertise in the civil law system practiced in Quebec and maintains a balance in the representation of different legal traditions and linguistic groups.

Federal Constitutional Court of Germany:

• This court has judges elected by two legislative bodies, the Bundestag (Federal Diet) and the Bundesrat (Federal Council).
• This method of selection ensures a broad representation and balance of political views in the judiciary.

US Constitution and Judicial Review:

• The US Constitution of 1787 does not explicitly provide for judicial review.
• The concept of judicial review was established through the landmark case of Marbury v. Madison in 1803.

Other Related Points

US Judicial Nominations:

• In the United States, judges are not nominated by the House of Lords.
• The President nominates judges, and the Senate confirms the appointments.

Origin of Judicial Review:

• The power of judicial review did not originate in India but rather in the United States with the Marbury v. Madison case.

Importance of Judicial Review:

• Judicial review is a critical function of the judiciary, allowing courts to assess the constitutionality of legislative acts and executive actions.
• It serves as a check on the powers of the other branches of government, ensuring that laws and actions comply with the Constitution.

Q49: Find out the correct statements from the following - 

A. NITI Aayog like Planning Commission was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India.

B. The Consumer Protection Act, 2023 has repealed and replaced the earlier Consumer Protection Act, 1986

C. The earliest democratic institution in the world for the redressal of citizen's grievance is the Russian institution of Ombudsman.

D. The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India recommended the setting up of Lokpal and Loakyukta.

E. The First ARC of India was headed by Morarji Desai.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, E Only

(b) A, C, D, E Only

(c) A, D, E Only

(d) B, C, D, E Only

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, D, E Only'

NITI Aayog like Planning Commission was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India.

• NITI Aayog was established by an executive resolution of the Government of India, replacing the Planning Commission.
• This means that it was not formed by an act of Parliament, but rather by a decision of the executive branch of the government.

The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India recommended the setting up of Lokpal and Lokayukta.

• The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India, set up in 1966, did recommend the establishment of the Lokpal at the central level and Lokayukta at the state level to address issues of corruption and maladministration.

The First ARC of India was headed by Morarji Desai.

• Morarji Desai was indeed the chairman of the First Administrative Reforms Commission of India.
• The commission was established to suggest measures for administrative improvements and reforms.

Other Related Points

The Consumer Protection Act, 2023 has repealed and replaced the earlier Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

• This statement is incorrect.
• The Consumer Protection Act that repealed and replaced the 1986 Act is the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, not 2023.

The earliest democratic institution in the world for the redressal of citizen's grievance is the Russian institution of Ombudsman.

• This statement is incorrect.
• The earliest known ombudsman institution originated in Sweden in 1809, not Russia.

Q50: Who proposed the ideas of 'Pitribhu' (fatherland) and 'Punybhu' (holyland) in the classical text on the ideology of Hindutva? 

(a) M. N. Roy

(b) Jai Prakash Narayan

(c) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'Vinayak Damodar Savarkar'.

Vinayak Damodar Savarkar:

• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, often referred to as Veer Savarkar, was an Indian freedom fighter, politician, lawyer, writer, and the formulator of the Hindutva philosophy.
• In his seminal work, "Hindutva: Who is a Hindu?", Savarkar proposed the ideas of 'Pitribhu' (fatherland) and 'Punybhu' (holyland), which became central concepts in the ideology of Hindutva.
• 'Pitribhu' refers to the geographical land of one's ancestors, while 'Punybhu' refers to the sacred land where religious and cultural traditions are rooted.
• Savarkar's ideology aimed at unifying Hindus across India by emphasizing a common heritage and cultural identity.

Other Related Points

M. N. Roy:

• M. N. Roy was an Indian revolutionary and radical activist, who later became a prominent philosopher known for his advocacy of Radical Humanism.
• He did not contribute to the ideology of Hindutva; instead, his ideas focused on humanism and rationalism.

Jai Prakash Narayan:

• Jai Prakash Narayan was an Indian independence activist and political leader, known for his role in the Quit India Movement and for advocating for "Total Revolution".
• He did not propose the concepts of 'Pitribhu' and 'Punybhu'. His focus was more on social justice and democratic socialism.

Mahatma Gandhi:

• Mahatma Gandhi was a leader of the Indian independence movement and a proponent of non-violent civil disobedience.
• Gandhi's philosophy centered around Ahimsa (non-violence), Swaraj (self-rule), and Sarvodaya (welfare for all), rather than the specific cultural and religious identity expressed in the concepts of 'Pitribhu' and 'Punybhu'.

Q51: Which politician has become Chief Minister of two states?

(a) N. D. Tiwari

(b) Sharad Pawar

(c) Jyoti Basu

(d) Karpoori Thakur

Ans: A

Sol: The correct answer is N. D. Tiwari.

Explanation

• N. D. Tiwari:
  • Narayan Datt Tiwari was a prominent Indian politician who served as the Chief Minister of two different states.
  • He was the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh three times: in 1976–77, 1984–85, and 1988–89.
  • He also served as the Chief Minister of Uttarakhand from 2002 to 2007.
  • His unique position of having served as the head of the government in two different states makes him a notable figure in Indian politics.

Other Related Points

• Sharad Pawar:
  • Sharad Pawar is a veteran Indian politician and the founder of the Nationalist Congress Party (NCP).
  • He served as the Chief Minister of Maharashtra three times but never held the position in any other state.
• Jyoti Basu:
  • Jyoti Basu was an influential Indian communist politician who served as the Chief Minister of West Bengal from 1977 to 2000.
  • He was one of the longest-serving Chief Ministers in Indian history but only served in West Bengal.
• Karpoori Thakur:
  • Karpoori Thakur was an Indian politician who served as the Chief Minister of Bihar twice.
  • He is known for his work in promoting social justice but did not serve as Chief Minister in any other state.

Q52: Which one of the following US President survived the American Congress impeachment proceedings by a single vote in 1868? 

(a) Andrew Johnson

(b) Abraham Lincoln

(c) James Madison

(d) Woodrow Wilson

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'Andrew Johnson'

Andrew Johnson:

• Andrew Johnson was the 17th President of the United States, serving from 1865 to 1869.
• He ascended to the presidency following the assassination of Abraham Lincoln.
• Johnson faced impeachment by the House of Representatives in 1868, primarily due to his violation of the Tenure of Office Act by removing Edwin M. Stanton, the Secretary of War.
• The impeachment proceedings were highly contentious and he was acquitted by the Senate by just one vote, allowing him to remain in office.

Other Related Points

Abraham Lincoln:

• 16th President of the United States, serving from 1861 until his assassination in 1865.
• Led the country during the Civil War and is known for the Emancipation Proclamation and the Gettysburg Address.
• Was never impeached.

James Madison:

• 4th President of the United States, serving from 1809 to 1817.
• Known as the "Father of the Constitution" and played a key role in drafting the Bill of Rights.
• Was never impeached.

Woodrow Wilson:

• 28th President of the United States, serving from 1913 to 1921.
• Led the nation during World War I and was a key architect of the League of Nations.
• Was never impeached.

Q53: Identify the correct statements regarding administrative ideas: 

A. Fred Riggs advocated the sala model of administration.

B. Abraham Maslow advanced the idea of hierarchy of needs.

C. Chester Barnard advanced the idea of Hawthorne effect.

D. Max Weber gave the idea of legal-rational authority.

E. Luther Gulick and Lyndall Urwick are associated with the concept of POSDCORB.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, E Only

(b) B, C, E Only

(c) A, B, D, E Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, D, E Only'

Fred Riggs advocated the sala model of administration:

• Fred W. Riggs is known for his work in comparative public administration.
• He introduced the "sala" model to describe traditional societies' administrative systems, characterized by a lack of clear distinction between the public and private sectors.
• His models, including the "prismatic" and "fused" models, are instrumental in understanding the complexities of administration in different cultural contexts.

Abraham Maslow advanced the idea of hierarchy of needs:

• Abraham Maslow proposed the hierarchy of needs theory in psychology.
• It is a motivational theory comprising a five-tier model of human needs, often depicted as hierarchical levels within a pyramid.
• The needs range from basic (physiological) to more complex (self-actualization) levels.

Max Weber gave the idea of legal-rational authority:

• Max Weber, a German sociologist, introduced the concept of legal-rational authority.
• This type of authority is grounded in legal legitimacy and established laws and procedures.
• It contrasts with traditional and charismatic forms of authority.

Luther Gulick and Lyndall Urwick are associated with the concept of POSDCORB:

• Luther Gulick and Lyndall Urwick developed the concept of POSDCORB.
• POSDCORB stands for Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, and Budgeting.
• It is a mnemonic device that represents the functions of management and public administration.

Other Related Points

Chester Barnard and the Hawthorne Effect:

• Chester Barnard is known for his work in organizational theory and management, particularly for his book "The Functions of the Executive."
• The Hawthorne Effect, however, is associated with Elton Mayo and the Hawthorne Studies, which revealed that workers' productivity increases when they feel observed and valued.
• Barnard's contributions are more aligned with understanding executive functions and the importance of organizational communication and cooperation.

Q54: Consider the following correct statements - 

A. Anthony Smith wrote the book 'The Ethnic Origins of Nations'.

B. Ernest Gellner emphasised his idea of nationalism in book 'Nations and Nationalism.'

C. Malcom X argued for rediscovery of Africa as a spiritual and cultural homeland.

D. John Locke's idea of General Will was the seed from which nationalist doctrines sprang during the French Revolution of 1789.

E. Eric Hobsbawm highlighted the idea of 'invented traditions."

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, D, E Only

(b) B, D, E Only

(c) A, B, C, D, E

(d) A, B, C, E Only

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, C, E Only'

Anthony Smith's Contribution:

• Anthony Smith wrote the book "The Ethnic Origins of Nations".
• This work is significant in the study of nationalism, focusing on the role of ethnic communities in the formation of nations.

Ernest Gellner's Nationalism:

• Ernest Gellner emphasized his ideas of nationalism in his book "Nations and Nationalism."
• Gellner's theory posits that nationalism is a product of modernity and industrialization.

Malcom X's Rediscovery of Africa:

• Malcom X argued for the rediscovery of Africa as a spiritual and cultural homeland.
• This perspective is crucial for understanding the African American experience and the broader Pan-African movement.

Eric Hobsbawm's Invented Traditions:

• Eric Hobsbawm highlighted the idea of "invented traditions."
• This concept explains how traditions are often modern creations that serve specific social and political purposes.

Other Related Points

John Locke's General Will:

• The statement that John Locke's idea of General Will was the seed from which nationalist doctrines sprang during the French Revolution of 1789 is incorrect.
• In fact, the concept of General Will is attributed to Jean-Jacques Rousseau, not John Locke.

Q55: Who wrote the book "Democracy, Bureaucracy and Hypocrisy"? 

(a) Fred Riggs

(b) Dwight Waldo

(c) Rensis Likert

(d) Abraham Maslow

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'Dwight Waldoo'

Dwight Waldoo:

• Dwight Waldo was an American political scientist and professor who significantly contributed to the field of public administration.
• His book, "The Administrative State," published in 1948, is considered a seminal work in the field of public administration.
• Waldo's work often explored the complexities and contradictions within democratic governance, bureaucracy, and public administration, making "Democracy, Bureaucracy and Hypocrisy" a fitting title for his insights.

Other Related Points

Fred Riggs:

• Fred W. Riggs was a political scientist known for his work in comparative public administration.
• He developed the "Prismatic-Sala" model and the concept of "prismatic society" to explain administrative systems in developing countries.
• While influential, Riggs did not author the book in question.

Renin Likert:

• Rensis Likert was a psychologist best known for developing the Likert Scale, a popular method for measuring attitudes and opinions.
• His primary focus was on organizational psychology and management, not public administration or political science.

Abraham Maslow:

• Abraham Maslow was a psychologist renowned for creating Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a theory of psychological health predicated on fulfilling innate human needs.
• His work was largely in psychology and human motivation, not public administration or governance.

Q56: Choose the incorrect answer related to the Indian Constitution - 

A. Provisions related to 'All India Services' are mentioned in Article 312.

B. Provisions related to Administrative tribunals are mentioned in Article 323A.

C. Provisions related to Inter-State council are mentioned in Article 244.

D. Provisions related to facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage is not mentioned in Indian Constitution.

E. Provisions related to languages are mentioned in Article 368.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C Only

(b) A, C, D, E Only

(c) B, C, D, E Only

(d) A, D, E Only

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'B, C, D, E Only'

Article 312:

• Provisions related to 'All India Services' are indeed mentioned in Article 312 of the Indian Constitution.
• This article empowers the Rajya Sabha to create new All India Services if it is in the national interest.

Article 342A:

• This article does not deal with Administrative Tribunals. Instead, Article 323A is concerned with Administrative Tribunals.
• Article 323A allows for the creation of tribunals for public service matters.

Article 244:

• Article 244 deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas, not Inter-State Councils.
• The Inter-State Council is established under Article 263.

Facilities for instruction in mother-tongue:

• Provisions for facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage are indeed mentioned in the Indian Constitution under Article 350A.
• Article 350A requires the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
• Article 368:
  • Article 368 deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure, not languages.
  • Provisions related to languages are mentioned in Part XVII of the Constitution, specifically from Articles 343 to 351.

Other Related Points

Article 263:

• This article provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council to discuss and recommend policies for better coordination between states and the central government.

Article 323A:

• This article allows for the establishment of tribunals for public service matters, including Administrative Tribunals.

Part XVII (Articles 343 to 351):

• This part of the Constitution deals with the official languages of the Republic of India, covering provisions related to languages.

Q57: Fred Riggs developed ideal models to analyse the administrative systems of different countries. Choose the correct ones from the following. 

A. Fused

B. Focussed

C. Prismatic

D. Rainbow

E. Diffracted

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C Only

(b) A, B, C, D Only

(c) A, C, E Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, C, E Only'

Fred Riggs' Ideal Models:

• Fred Riggs developed the Fused-Prismatic-Diffracted (FPD) model to analyze the administrative systems of various countries.
• These models describe different stages of societal development and the corresponding nature of administrative systems.
• They are used to understand the complexities and dynamics of public administration in different socio-economic contexts.

Fused Model:

• Represents a traditional, agrarian society.
• The administrative system is simple and undifferentiated.
• There is minimal specialization and the roles of political, economic, and social institutions are not distinct.

Prismatic Model:

• Represents a transitional society.
• Characterized by a mix of traditional and modern elements.
• The administrative system shows complexity and heterogeneity, with overlapping roles and functions.
• Diffracted Model:
  • Represents a modern, industrial society.
  • The administrative system is highly specialized and differentiated.
  • Clear separation of roles and functions among political, economic, and social institutions.

Other Related Points

Focussed Model:

• This term does not belong to Fred Riggs' classification of administrative systems.

Rainbow Model:

• This term is also not part of Fred Riggs' models and does not describe any stage of societal or administrative development in his framework.

Q58: Identify the correct statements - 

A. Chinese Communist Party (CCP) is an example of a cadre based party.

B. Otto Kirchheimer argues for a category of 'catch - all parties".

C. O. Kirchheimer puts the US Republican and Democratic parties in the category of catch - all parties.

D. Anthony Downs portray politicians as power - seeking creatures who are willing' to adopt 'whatever' policies are likely to bring them electoral success.

E. Thomas Jefferson was the principal author of UK Declaration of freedom.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, E Only

(b) B, C, D, E Only

(c) A, B, C, D Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, C, D Only'

Chinese Communist Party (CCP) as a Cadre Based Party:

• The CCP is an example of a cadre-based party, characterized by a highly organized structure with a small, professional, and committed core of party members.
• Such parties emphasize discipline, ideological training, and loyalty among their members.

Otto Kirchheimer and 'Catch-All Parties':

• Otto Kirchheimer introduced the concept of "catch-all parties" which aim to attract a broad spectrum of voters, often by de-emphasizing ideological purity.
• These parties seek to maximize their electoral appeal by broadening their policy platforms.

US Republican and Democratic Parties as Catch-All Parties:

• Kirchheimer categorized the US Republican and Democratic parties as catch-all parties due to their strategies to attract diverse voter bases and their pragmatic approach to policy issues.
• These parties often shift their positions on various issues to gain wider support.

Anthony Downs on Politicians as Power-Seeking Creatures:

• Anthony Downs, in his economic theory of democracy, portrays politicians as power-seeking individuals who are willing to adopt any policy that will increase their chances of electoral success.
• This pragmatic approach aligns with the behavior observed in catch-all parties.

Other Related Points

Thomas Jefferson and the UK Declaration of Freedom:

• Thomas Jefferson was the principal author of the US Declaration of Independence, not a UK Declaration of Freedom.
• The error in statement E disqualifies options that include it as correct.

Q59: All - Jammu Kashmir Muslim Conference was formed in - 

(a) 1932

(b) 1933

(c) 1943

(d) 1939

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is '1932'.

Formation of Jammu Kashmir Muslim Conference in 1932:

• The Jammu Kashmir Muslim Conference was established in 1932.
• It was a significant political party in the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.
• The party was formed to address the political and social issues of the Muslim population in the region.
• Sheikh Abdullah, a prominent political leader, played a key role in the formation of the Jammu Kashmir Muslim Conference.
• The party later evolved into the Jammu and Kashmir National Conference in 1933, broadening its base to include all communities in the region.

Other Related Points

Historical Context:

• The formation of the Jammu Kashmir Muslim Conference in 1932 was a response to the political and social conditions of the time, aiming to represent the interests of the Muslim majority in the region.
• Sheikh Abdullah's leadership and vision were instrumental in shaping the party's direction and its later transformation into a more inclusive political entity.

Q60: Which Article of the Indian Constitution makes special provision for the Administration of certain areas called Scheduled Areas"? 

(a) Article 249

(b) Article 244 (1)

(c) Article 253

(d) Article 259

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'Article 244 (1)'

Article 244 (1) of the Indian Constitution:

• Article 244 (1) deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas.
• It states that the provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• The Fifth Schedule outlines the guidelines for the administration of these areas, including the establishment of Tribal Advisory Councils and the application of laws to Scheduled Areas.

Other Related Points

Article 249:

• Article 249 empowers the Parliament to legislate on a matter enumerated in the State List in the national interest, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority.
• This article does not pertain to the administration of Scheduled Areas.

Article 253:

• Article 253 gives the Parliament the power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country.
• This article is related to international agreements and not the administration of Scheduled Areas.

Article 259:

• Article 259 deals with the extension of executive power of the Union to certain states.
• It does not involve the administration of Scheduled Areas.

Q61: Which Chief Minister was removed first time in India by the use/misuse of Article 356? 

(a) N. T. Rama Rao

(b) E. M. S. Namboodripad

(c) Ramkrishna Hedge

(d) Bhagat Singh Koshyari

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is E. M. S. Namboodripad

Usage of Article 356:

• Article 356 of the Indian Constitution allows the President to impose President's Rule in a state if the state government is unable to function according to the constitutional provisions.

Case of E. M. S. Namboodripad:

• In 1959, E. M. S. Namboodripad, the Chief Minister of Kerala, was the first to be removed from office under Article 356.
• The central government, led by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, dismissed Namboodripad’s government citing law and order issues.

Other Related Points

• N. T. Rama Rao: He was the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh but was not the first to be removed under Article 356.
• Ramakrishna Hegde: He served as the Chief Minister of Karnataka but was not removed using Article 356.
• Bhagat Singh Koshyari: He was the Chief Minister of Uttarakhand, but his removal did not involve the first application of Article 356.
•  Implications of Article 356: The use of Article 356 has been a subject of controversy and debate, often criticized as a tool for political misuse and Its application has been scrutinized by the judiciary, leading to landmark judgments like the S. R. Bommai case, which set guidelines for its use.

Q62: Arrange the following events related to United Nations in the chronological order: 

A. UN peace keepers sent to Cyprus.

B. UN Peace Keeping Commission was established.

C. First UN Peace Keeping Force sent to the Suez Canal.

D. General Assembly adopts the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

E. UN High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) established.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) E, D, C, B, A

(b) B, D, A, E, C

(c) E, C, A, B, D

(d) C, A, D, E, B

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'E, C, A, B, D'

UN High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) established:

• The UNHCR was established on December 14, 1950, by the United Nations General Assembly.
• It was created to help millions of Europeans who had fled or lost their homes during World War II.

First UN Peace Keeping Force sent to the Suez Canal:

• The first UN peacekeeping force, UNEF (United Nations Emergency Force), was deployed to the Suez Canal in 1956 after the Suez Crisis.
• This marked the beginning of UN peacekeeping missions.

UN peacekeepers sent to Cyprus:

• UN peacekeepers were sent to Cyprus in 1964 following intercommunal violence between the Greek Cypriot and Turkish Cypriot communities.
• The mission was called UNFICYP (United Nations Peacekeeping Force in Cyprus).

UN Peacekeeping Commission was established:

• The UN Peacekeeping Commission was established in 2005.
• It aims to support peace efforts in countries emerging from conflict.

General Assembly adopts the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):

• The SDGs were adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015.
• They replaced the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) and set a global agenda for sustainable development by 2030.

Q63: Arrange the following Indian Constitutional Amendments in the chronological order: 

A. Amendment in the Preamble and addition of unity and integrity of the nation'.

B. Maithili added as a language in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

C. Konkani added as a language in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

D. The Co - operative Societies inserted as Art.243 ZH

E. Women Reservation Act.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) B, C, A, E, D

(c) C, D, E, B, A

(d) A, C, B, D, E

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, C, B, D, E'.

Amendment in the Preamble and addition of 'unity and integrity of the nation':

• This refers to the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, which added the words "Socialist," "Secular," and "Integrity" to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
• It was one of the most comprehensive amendments made to the Constitution.

Konkani added as a language in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

• This was done through the 71st Amendment Act of 1992.
• Along with Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were also added to the 8th Schedule.

Maithili added as a language in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

• The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added Maithili, Dogri, Bodo, and Santhali to the 8th Schedule.

The Co-operative Societies inserted as Art.243 ZH:

• This was incorporated through the 97th Amendment Act of 2011.
• The amendment aimed to encourage the economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India.

Women’s Reservation Bill (106th Amendment, 2023):

• This is a proposed bill that seeks to reserve 33% of all seats in the Lok Sabha and in all state legislative assemblies for women.
• It has not yet been passed into law as of the latest available information.

Q64: Identify the correct statements- 

A. Eighth SAARC Summit held at New Delhi in 1995.

B. 1989 was designated as SAARC year of Combating Drug Abuse and Drug Trafficking.

C. There was an assassination attempt on US President - Barack Obama while he was in office.

D. Bilawal Bhutto Zardari became Prime Minister of Pakistan in March, 2024.

E. The Agreement on SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement was signed on 11 April, 1993.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C Only

(b) B, C, D Only

(c) C and D Only

(d) A, B and E Only

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B and E Only'

Eightth SAARC Summit held at New Delhi in 1995:

• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) held its eighth summit in New Delhi, India in 1995.
• This summit brought together leaders from the member countries to discuss and promote regional cooperation in South Asia.

1989 was designated as SAARC year of Combating Drug Abuse and Drug Trafficking:

• In 1989, SAARC focused on addressing the significant issue of drug abuse and trafficking within the region.
• This initiative aimed to strengthen regional collaboration and formulate strategies to combat drug-related problems.

The Agreement on SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement was signed on 11 April, 1993:

• SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement (SAPTA) was signed on 11 April 1993 to promote and sustain mutual trade and economic cooperation among the member states.
• This agreement aimed to reduce trade barriers and enhance economic integration within the SAARC region.

Other Related Points
Incorrect Statements:
 There was an assassination attempt on US President - Barack Obama while he was in office:

• There were no recorded assassination attempts on Barack Obama during his presidency. There were, however, various threats and security concerns, but none culminated in an actual attempt.

Bilawal Bhutto Zardari became Prime Minister of Pakistan in March, 2024:

• As of the knowledge cutoff in 2023, Bilawal Bhutto Zardari has not become the Prime Minister of Pakistan. He is a prominent political figure and the chairman of the Pakistan Peoples Party (PPP).

Q65: Which Naga queen responded to the call of Mahatma Gandhi and raised the banner of revolt against the British rule? 

(a) Kanaklata Baruah

(b) Rani Gaidilieu

(c) Chandraprava Saikaini

(d) Lalnu Ropuiliani

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'Rani Gaidilieu'

Rani Gaidilieu:

• Rani Gaidilieu was a Naga spiritual and political leader who led a revolt against British rule in India.
• She was inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's call for resistance against British colonialism and played a crucial role in the Naga struggle for independence.
• At the young age of 16, she was arrested by the British in 1932 and sentenced to life imprisonment. However, she was released after India's independence in 1947.
• She is often referred to as the "Rani" or queen, a title given to her by Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India.

Other Related Points

Kanaklata Baruah:

• Kanaklata Baruah was an Indian freedom fighter from Assam.
• She is known for her role in the Quit India Movement, where she was shot dead while leading a procession carrying the Indian national flag in 1942.

Chandraprava Saikaini:

• Chandraprava Saikaini was a prominent Assamese freedom fighter and social reformer.
• She played a significant role in the Indian independence movement but was not directly connected to the Naga struggle.

Lalnu Ropuiliani:

• Lalnu Ropuiliani was a Mizo chieftainess who resisted British colonial rule in the northeastern region of India.
• She is a notable figure in the history of Mizoram but did not specifically respond to Mahatma Gandhi's call for revolt.

Q66: Arrange the following Treaties and Agreements in the chronological order: 

A. India and Bangladesh signed the Farakka Treaty for sharing of the Ganga water.

B. India and Pakistan signed the Shimla Agreement.

C. India and Pakistan signed the Indus Water Treaty.

D. Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee under took bus journey to Lahore and signed a declaration.

E. India and Pakistan signed the Tashkent Agreement.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) C, E, B, A, D

(c) C, B, A, E, D

(d) E, C, B, A, D

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'C, E, B, A, D'

Chronological Order of the Treaties and Agreements:

India and Pakistan signed the Indus Water Treaty (C):

• Signed in 1960, the Indus Water Treaty is an agreement between India and Pakistan on the sharing of water from the Indus River system.

India and Pakistan signed the Tashkent Agreement (E):

• Signed in 1966, the Tashkent Agreement was a peace agreement between India and Pakistan, which ended the 1965 Indo-Pakistani War.

India and Pakistan signed the Shimla Agreement (B):

• Signed in 1972, the Shimla Agreement was aimed at resolving the conflict and establishing peace following the 1971 Indo-Pakistani War.

India and Bangladesh signed the Farakka Treaty (A):

• Signed in 1996, the Farakka Treaty is an agreement between India and Bangladesh on the sharing of the Ganga River water.

Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee undertook a bus journey to Lahore and signed a declaration (D):

• In 1999, Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee took a bus journey to Lahore, where he signed the Lahore Declaration, a bilateral agreement between India and Pakistan aimed at improving relations between the two countries.

Other Related Points

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

Option 1 (A, B, C, D, E):

• This option places the Farakka Treaty first, which was actually signed much later in 1996. It also incorrectly orders the Shimla Agreement and the Indus Water Treaty.

Option 3 (C, B, A, E, D):

• This option incorrectly places the Tashkent Agreement after the Farakka Treaty and Shimla Agreement, which is not in chronological order.

Option 4 (E, C, B, A, D):

• This option incorrectly places the Tashkent Agreement before the Indus Water Treaty, which is not correct as the Indus Water Treaty was signed earlier in 1960.

Q67: Arrange the following High Courts with their year of establishment in the chronological order: 

A. Manipur

B. Gujarat

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Rajasthan

E. Sikkim

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) D, B, A, C, E

(c) E, A, B, C, D

(d) D, C, B, E, A

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'D, C, B, E, A'

Establishment of High Courts in India:

• The High Courts in India are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory.
• They also have appellate jurisdiction over the lower courts and tribunals in their respective regions.
• The chronological order of establishment of these High Courts is significant for understanding the development of the judicial system in India.

Order of Establishment:

• Rajasthan High Court (1949): It was established after the formation of the state of Rajasthan.
• Madhya Pradesh High Court (1956): It was established with the reorganization of states in India.
• Gujarat High Court (1960): It was established after the bifurcation of the state of Bombay into Maharashtra and Gujarat.
• Sikkim High Court (1975): It was established after Sikkim became a part of India.
• Manipur High Court (2013): It was established as a separate High Court for the state of Manipur.

Other Related Points

• Judicial Hierarchy: High Courts are the highest courts at the state or union territory level in India, forming a crucial part of the country’s judicial system below the Supreme Court.
• Establishment: High Courts were established under the Government of India Act, 1861. Currently, there are 25 High Courts across India, each serving a specific state or group of states.
• Jurisdiction:
• Original Jurisdiction: High Courts have the authority to hear cases for the first time in matters such as fundamental rights, and disputes between states and the Centre.
• Appellate Jurisdiction: They hear appeals from lower courts, including District Courts and Tribunals.
• Writ Jurisdiction: High Courts can issue writs for enforcing fundamental rights under Article 226 of the Constitution.

Q68: Consider the Article 15 of Constitution of India - 

The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of -

A. Religion

B. Race

C. Caste

D. Sex

E. Place of birth

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, C Only

(b) A, C, D Only

(c) B, D Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, C, D, E'

Article 15 of the Constitution of India:

• Article 15 is a fundamental right provided under Part III of the Constitution of India.
• This article prohibits the state from discriminating against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• The objective is to promote equality and eliminate discrimination in any form, ensuring that every citizen enjoys equal rights and opportunities.
• It also allows for positive discrimination in favor of disadvantaged sections of society, such as socially and educationally backward classes, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes, to promote their welfare.

Other Related Points

Significance of Article 15:

• It ensures that every citizen is treated equally by the state and no one is discriminated against based on arbitrary criteria.
• It upholds the principle of equality, which is a cornerstone of democratic governance.
• It empowers the state to create special provisions for vulnerable sections of society, promoting social justice.

Q69: Arrange the following Commissions of India as per their year of formation in the chronological order: 

A. National Commission for Minorities

B. National Commission for Schedule Castes

C. Central Information Commission

D. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights

E. National Commission for Women

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) E, A, B, C, D

(b) E, B, A, D, C

(c) A, B, C, D, E

(d) C, B, A, D, E

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'E, A, B, C, D'

National Commission for Women (NCW):

• Formed in 1992.
• Established to address issues concerning women's rights and to ensure the protection and promotion of women’s welfare.

National Commission for Minorities (NCM):

• Formed in 1993.
• Tasked with ensuring the rights and interests of minorities in India are protected.

National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):

• Formed in 2004, following the bifurcation of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into separate entities.
• Focuses on safeguarding the rights and interests of Scheduled Castes in India.

Central Information Commission (CIC):

• Formed in 2005.
• Established under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 to ensure transparency and accountability in governance.

National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):

• Formed in 2007.
• Created to protect, promote and defend child rights in India.

Q70: Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India? 

(a) S. P. Sen Verma

(b) S.L. Shakdhar

(c) Sukumar Sen

(d) T. N. Seshan

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'Sukumar Sen'

Sukumar Sen:

• Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India, serving from 21 March 1950 to 19 December 1958.
• He played a crucial role in overseeing the first general elections in India in 1951-52, which were a mammoth task considering the logistical challenges and the vast population.
• Sen's efforts were instrumental in laying the foundation for a robust electoral process in India, ensuring free and fair elections.

Other Related Points

S. P. Sen Verma:

• S. P. Sen Verma was not the first Chief Election Commissioner but served later from 1 October 1967 to 30 September 1972.
• He made significant contributions during his tenure, but he did not have the pioneering role that Sukumar Sen had.

S.L. Shakdhar:

• S.L. Shakdhar served as Chief Election Commissioner from 1977 to 1982.
• He is known for his role in the elections held during the Emergency period, but again, he was not the first to hold the position.

T. N. Seshan:

• T. N. Seshan served as Chief Election Commissioner from 1990 to 1996.
• He is widely respected for his reforms and efforts to clean up electoral practices, but he came much later after Sukumar Sen.

Q71: Arrange the following Cases related to Indian Constitution in the chronological order: 

A. The Golaknath Case

B. The Kesavananda Bharati Case

C. The Minerva Mills Case

D. The A. K. Gopalan Case

E. The Indra Sawhney Case

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) D, A, B, C, E

(c) E, A, B, D, C

(d) E, C, D, B, A

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'D, A, B, C, E'

The A. K. Gopalan Case (1950):

• This case dealt with the interpretation of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
• The Supreme Court held that the procedure established by law cannot be challenged on the grounds that it violated fundamental rights.

The Golaknath Case (1967):

• In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could not amend fundamental rights, thus limiting its amending power.
• This case was pivotal in shaping the doctrine of the basic structure of the Constitution.

The Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973):

• This landmark case established the 'basic structure' doctrine, stating that Parliament could amend the Constitution but could not alter its basic structure.
• This case is considered a cornerstone of Indian constitutional law.

The Minerva Mills Case (1980):

• In this case, the Supreme Court further reinforced the basic structure doctrine and struck down amendments that sought to limit judicial review and expand Parliament's power to amend the Constitution.

The Indra Sawhney Case (1992):

• This case, also known as the Mandal Commission case, dealt with reservations in government jobs and educational institutions.
• The Supreme Court upheld the 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) but excluded the creamy layer from availing these benefits.

Q72: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(c) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

(d) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III'

Dr. Zakir Hussain:

• Dr. Zakir Hussain served as the President of India from 13 May 1967 to 3 May 1969.
• He was the third President of India and the first Muslim to hold the highest office in the country.
• Unfortunately, his tenure was cut short due to his untimely demise.

Fakhrudin Ali Ahmed:

• Fakhrudin Ali Ahmed served as the President from 24 August 1974 until his death on 11 February 1977.
• His tenure was marked by the declaration of the Emergency in India (1975-1977).

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy:

• Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as the President from 25 July 1977 to 25 July 1982.
• He was the sixth President of India and the only person to be elected to the presidency unopposed.

R. Venkataraman:

• R. Venkataraman served as the President from 25 July 1987 to 25 July 1992.
• He was the eighth President of India and previously held the positions of Union Minister and Vice-President of India.

Q73: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

(b) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

(c) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

(d) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV

Government by Committee - KC Wheare:

• KC Wheare was a political scientist known for his works on the British constitution and federalism.
• "Government by Committee" is one of his significant works, analyzing the functioning of committees in governance.

Parliament in India - WH Morris Jones:

• WH Morris Jones was a prominent scholar in Indian politics and governance.
• "Parliament in India" delves into the workings and structure of the Indian parliamentary system.

How Britain is Governed - Ramsey Muir:

• Ramsey Muir was a historian and political writer known for his analysis of British government structures.
• "How Britain is Governed" provides an in-depth look into the British governmental system.

Musolini's Italy - Herman Finer:

• Herman Finer was a political scientist and author specializing in governmental and administrative studies.
• "Mussolini's Italy" examines the political and administrative systems under Mussolini's regime in Italy.

Other Related Points

Additional Context on the Authors:

• KC Wheare: Known for his work on constitutional theory and federalism.
• WH Morris Jones: Renowned for his studies on Indian politics and parliamentary systems.
• Ramsey Muir: A historian with significant contributions to the understanding of British governance.
• Herman Finer: Recognized for his extensive research on political systems and public administration.

Q74: Who set up the 'Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha' in 1924? 

(a) V. D. Savarkar

(b) Dada Bhai Naoroji

(c) B. R. Ambedkar

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'B. R. Ambedkar'

Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha (1924):

• The Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha was established by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1924.
• The primary aim of the organization was to uplift the socially and economically marginalized sections of society, particularly the Dalits.
• It focused on providing education, better living conditions, and socio-economic development to the oppressed communities.
• Ambedkar used this platform to fight against the caste system and advocate for the rights of untouchables.

Other Related Points

V. D. Savarkar:

• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar was an Indian independence activist, lawyer, and writer known for his role in the revolutionary freedom struggle.
• He did not establish the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha.

Dada Bhai Naoroji:

• Dadabhai Naoroji was an Indian political leader, merchant, scholar, and a founding member of the Indian National Congress.
• He is known for his work on the economic exploitation of India by the British, but he did not set up the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha.

Mahatma Gandhi:

• Mahatma Gandhi was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement, known for his philosophy of non-violence and civil disobedience.
• Although Gandhi worked extensively for the upliftment of the untouchables (Harijans), he did not establish the Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha.

Q75: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

(b) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(c) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(d) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II'

North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA):

• NAFTA was established in 1993.
• It is a trade agreement between the United States, Canada, and Mexico aimed at eliminating trade barriers.

Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC):

• APEC was established in 1989.
• This organization promotes economic cooperation and trade among Pacific Rim countries.

Mercosur:

• Mercosur was established in 1991.
• It is a regional trade bloc in South America aiming to promote free trade and fluid movement of goods, people, and currency.

Free Trade Area of the Americas (FTAA):

• FTAA was proposed in 1994.
• It aimed to extend NAFTA to all countries in the Americas, but it was never fully realized.

Q76: Under which Prime Minister, 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act was passed? 

(a) V. P. Singh

(b) Morarji Desai

(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(d) P. V. Narasimha Rao

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is P. V. Narasimha Rao

73rd and 74th Constitution Amendment Act:

• These amendments were passed in 1992 during the tenure of Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao.
• The 73rd Amendment deals with the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and the 74th Amendment deals with the Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
• The aim of these amendments was to provide a constitutional status to local self-governments and empower them with more authority and responsibilities.
• Key features include the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, regular elections, reservation of seats for SCs/STs and women, and the constitution of State Finance Commissions.

Other Related Points

V. P. Singh:

• V. P. Singh was the Prime Minister of India from 1989 to 1990.
• His tenure did not see the passage of the 73rd and 74th Amendments.

Morarji Desai:

• Morarji Desai served as Prime Minister from 1977 to 1979.
• His administration focused on various reforms, but the 73rd and 74th Amendments were not part of his tenure.

Atal Bihari Vajpayee:

• Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the Prime Minister in various terms, the first of which was in 1996.
• However, the 73rd and 74th Amendments were enacted before his time in office.

Q77: Democratic Party of the United States was established in - 

(a) 1779

(b) 1803

(c) 1828

(d) 1901

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is '1828'

Democratic Party of the United States:

• The Democratic Party is one of the two major contemporary political parties in the United States, alongside the Republican Party.
• It was founded in 1828, making it the world's oldest active political party.
• The party's first president was Andrew Jackson, who was elected in the same year the party was founded.
• Historically, the Democratic Party has supported a wide range of policies, including social welfare programs, labor rights, and civil rights.

Other Related Points

Early Origins

• Democratic-Republican Party: The roots of the Democratic Party can be traced back to the Democratic-Republican Party, founded in the early 1790s by Thomas Jefferson and James Madison. 
• It opposed the Federalist Party and advocated for states' rights and agrarian interests.

Formation of the Democratic Party

• Emergence in 1828: The Democratic Party was officially founded in 1828, primarily as a response to the changing political landscape in the U.S., particularly during Andrew Jackson's campaign for president.
• Andrew Jackson: Often regarded as the founder of the modern Democratic Party, Jackson's presidency (1829-1837) significantly shaped the party's direction, emphasizing populism, democracy, and the rights of the "common man."

Key Features and Ideologies

• Populism: The party adopted a populist stance, promoting the interests of the working class and rural populations against what they viewed as the elitism of the established political order.
• State vs. Federal Power: The early Democratic Party championed states' rights and limited federal government intervention, reflecting the agrarian interests of its base.

Q78: Which American President got 'Nobel prize for Peace' for his efforts of mediation between Japan and Russia? 

(a) Ronald Reagan

(b) John F. Kennedy

(c) George W. Bush

(d) Theodore Roosevelt

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is Theodore Roosevelt

Theodore Roosevelt:

• Theodore Roosevelt was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1906.
• The award was given for his successful mediation in the Russo-Japanese War, which ended with the Treaty of Portsmouth in 1905.
• Roosevelt's efforts helped bring peace between the two nations, earning him international recognition and the Nobel Prize.

Other Related Points

Ronald Reagan:

• Ronald Reagan served as the 40th President of the United States from 1981 to 1989.
• While he played a significant role in ending the Cold War, he did not receive the Nobel Peace Prize.

John F. Kennedy:

• John F. Kennedy was the 35th President of the United States from 1961 until his assassination in 1963.
• He is known for his efforts in the Cuban Missile Crisis and advancing civil rights but did not receive a Nobel Peace Prize.

George W. Bush:

• George W. Bush served as the 43rd President of the United States from 2001 to 2009.
• He is known for his administration's response to the 9/11 attacks and the wars in Afghanistan and Iraq, but he did not receive the Nobel Peace Prize.

Q79: In which year, present Dalai Lama came to India? 

(a) 1959

(b) 1960

(c) 1961

(d) 1963

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is '1959'

Background:

• The 14th Dalai Lama, Tenzin Gyatso, is the spiritual leader of Tibetan Buddhism and was the political leader of Tibet until his retirement from political duties in 2011.
• In 1959, the Dalai Lama fled Tibet due to the Chinese military crackdown following an unsuccessful uprising against Chinese rule.

Arrival in India:

• In 1959, the Dalai Lama sought asylum in India.
• The Indian government, led by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, granted him asylum, and he has lived in India ever since.
• Dharamshala in Himachal Pradesh became the headquarters of the Tibetan government-in-exile.

Other Related Points

Significance of 1959:

• The year 1959 marks a crucial turning point in Tibetan history with the Dalai Lama's flight to India, symbolizing the Tibetan struggle for freedom and the preservation of their cultural identity.
• The Dalai Lama's presence in India has had a significant impact on Indo-Tibetan relations and global awareness of the Tibetan cause.

Q80: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

(b) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

(c) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I

(d) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III'

Number of Women elected in Lok Sabha:

• Number of women elected in the Lok Sabha varies with each general election, reflecting the changing political landscape and increasing representation over time.
• This question relates to matching the number of women elected to specific Lok Sabha terms.
• Representation of Women in Lok Sabha:
  • The increasing number of women in the Lok Sabha highlights the progress towards gender equality in Indian politics.
  • Over the years, various measures and reforms have been introduced to encourage greater participation of women in politics.

Other Related Points

Legislative Structure: India has a bicameral legislature, consisting of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Parliamentary elections primarily pertain to the Lok Sabha.

Lok Sabha Elections

• Frequency: Lok Sabha elections are held every five years. However, they can be called earlier in case of a dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
• Universal Suffrage: All citizens of India aged 18 years and above are eligible to vote in these elections.

Election Process

• Single Member Constituencies: India is divided into 543 parliamentary constituencies, each electing one member to the Lok Sabha through a first-past-the-post voting system.

Candidates:

• Candidates can be nominated by political parties or can contest as independents. Each candidate must deposit a security amount, which is forfeited if they fail to secure a certain percentage of the vote.

Role of the Election Commission

• Supervision: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is responsible for conducting free and fair elections. It oversees the entire election process, from announcing dates to counting votes.
• Model Code of Conduct: The ECI enforces the Model Code of Conduct, which outlines guidelines for political parties and candidates during elections to ensure a level playing field.

Q81: Arrange the Acts related to implementation of Directive Principle of State Policy in the chronological order: 

A. The Bonded Labour System Abolition Act

B. The Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act

C. The Trade Unions Act

D. The Minimum Wages Act

E. The Mines Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, D, E

(b) C, E, D, B, A

(c) B, E, D, C, A

(d) C, D, E, A, B

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'C, D, E, A, B'

The Trade Unions Act (1926):

• This Act was enacted to provide for the registration of Trade Unions and in certain respects to define the law relating to registered Trade Unions.
• It aimed to ensure that workers could form unions and collectively bargain for better working conditions and wages.

The Minimum Wages Act (1948):

• This Act was brought into force to provide for fixing minimum rates of wages in certain employments.
• It ensures that employees are paid a minimum wage to prevent exploitation and to ensure a decent standard of living.

The Mines Act (1952):

• This Act consolidates and amends the law relating to the regulation of labor and safety in mines.
• It aims to protect mine workers and ensure safe working conditions.

The Bonded Labour System Abolition Act (1976):

• This Act was enacted to abolish the bonded labor system, which was a form of modern-day slavery.
• It aims to free bonded laborers from their debts and to prevent the exploitation of labor.

The Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986):

• This Act prohibits the engagement of children in certain employments and regulates the conditions of work of children in other employments.
• Its purpose is to protect children from exploitation and to ensure their well-being and development.

Q82: Who coined the term 'Deep Ecology"? 

(a) Arne Naess

(b) Carolyn Merchant

(c) Rachel Carson

(d) Murray Bookchin

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'Arne Naess'

Deep Ecology:

• Deep Ecology is an environmental philosophy that promotes the inherent worth of living beings regardless of their instrumental utility to human needs.
• This approach advocates for a fundamental shift in how humans perceive and interact with the natural world, emphasizing ecological balance and biodiversity.
• Arne Naess, a Norwegian philosopher, coined the term "Deep Ecology" in 1973 to distinguish between shallow and deep environmentalism.

Other Related Points

Carolyn Merchant:

• Carolyn Merchant is an American ecofeminist philosopher and historian of science, known for her work on the history of science and the role of women in the scientific revolution.
• She did not coin the term "Deep Ecology," but her work focuses on the intersection of feminism and environmentalism.

Rachel Carson:

• Rachel Carson was an American marine biologist, author, and conservationist whose book "Silent Spring" is credited with advancing the global environmental movement.
• Though she played a significant role in environmental advocacy, she did not coin the term "Deep Ecology."

Murray Bookchin:

• Murray Bookchin was an American social theorist, author, and advocate of social ecology, which emphasizes the relationship between ecological and social issues.
• He did not coin the term "Deep Ecology," but his work has influenced ecological thought.

Q83: Who was the President of the Parliament of the World's Religions at Chicago in which Swami Vivekananda delivered his famous address? 

(a) Woodrow Wilson

(b) Paul Deussen

(c) John Henry Barrows

(d) Leo Tolstoy

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is John Henry Barrows

John Henry Barrows:

• John Henry Barrows was the President of the Parliament of the World's Religions held in Chicago in 1893.
• He played a significant role in organizing and managing the event, which aimed to create a global dialogue among different religious traditions.
• Swami Vivekananda delivered his famous address at this Parliament, where he introduced Hinduism to the Western world and emphasized the importance of religious tolerance and universal acceptance.

Other Related Points

Woodrow Wilson:

• Woodrow Wilson was the 28th President of the United States, serving from 1913 to 1921.
• He had no direct involvement with the Parliament of the World's Religions in 1893.

Paul Deussen:

• Paul Deussen was a German Indologist and Sanskrit scholar.
• Although he was a contemporary of Swami Vivekananda, he did not have a direct role in the Parliament of the World's Religions.

Leo Tolstoy:

• Leo Tolstoy was a renowned Russian author and philosopher.
• He was not involved in the Parliament of the World's Religions and is better known for his literary works like "War and Peace" and "Anna Karenina."

Q84: "The state shall take steps to organize village Panchayats and endow them with high powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government" 

Which Article of the Indian Constitution mention it?

(a) Article 40

(b) Article 37

(c) Article 33

(d) Article 43

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is 'Article 40'

Article 40 of the Indian Constitution:

• It directs the State to take steps to organize village Panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority to function as units of self-government.
• This is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.
• The aim is to promote decentralization and empower local self-governments to ensure effective governance at the grassroots level.

Other Related Points

Article 37:

• This Article clarifies that the provisions in Part IV of the Constitution (Directive Principles of State Policy) are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down are fundamental in the governance of the country.

Article 33:

• This Article empowers Parliament to modify the rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution (Fundamental Rights) in their application to the armed forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous forces.

Article 43:

• This Article directs the State to secure a living wage, a decent standard of life, and social and cultural opportunities for all workers through suitable legislation or economic organization.

Q85: Identify the correct statements regarding Abraham Maslow's need of hierarchy. 

A. Esteem needs

B. Self-actualisation

C. Belonging needs

D. Safety needs

E. Entertaining needs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A, B, C, E Only

(b) C, D, E Only

(c) B, D, E Only

(d) A, B, C, D Only

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, B, C, D Only'

Overview of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs:

• Abraham Maslow proposed a theory in psychology that encompasses a five-tier model of human needs, often depicted as hierarchical levels within a pyramid.
• According to Maslow, people are motivated to achieve certain needs, and some needs take precedence over others.

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs:

• Physiological Needs: Basic requirements for human survival, such as air, food, water, shelter, and sleep.
• Safety Needs: Once physiological needs are met, individuals seek safety and security, including personal security, financial security, health and well-being, and safety against accidents/illness.
• Belonging and Love Needs: After safety needs, the third level involves emotional relationships such as friendships, intimacy, trust, and acceptance, receiving and giving affection and love.
• Esteem Needs: The fourth level is esteem needs, which include self-esteem, respect, recognition, and the feeling of accomplishment.
• Self-Actualization Needs: The highest level is self-actualization, where individuals realize their potential, seek personal growth, peak experiences, and self-fulfillment.

Other Related Points

Entertaining Needs:

• This is not a recognized category in Maslow's hierarchy.
• While entertainment can contribute to well-being, it does not constitute a distinct level of human needs as defined by Maslow.

Other Psychological Theories:

• Maslow's hierarchy is one of many theories that attempt to explain human motivation.
• Other notable theories include Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory and Alderfer's ERG Theory.

Q86: In India, the Speaker of Lok Sabha appointed the Pataskar Committee in 1954 to examine the issue of - 

(a) Panchayati Raj

(b) Fundamental Duties

(c) Delegated Legislation

(d) Money Bill

Ans: c

Sol: The correct answer is 'Delegated Legislation'

Delegated Legislation:

• Delegated legislation refers to laws or regulations that are enacted by an executive authority under powers given to them by an Act of Parliament.
• The Pataskar Committee was appointed in 1954 by the Speaker of Lok Sabha specifically to examine the issue of delegated legislation in India.
• The committee's role was to scrutinize how legislative powers were being delegated to the executive and ensure that these powers were exercised within the boundaries set by the legislature.
• The aim was to maintain a balance between necessary administrative flexibility and safeguarding legislative authority.

Other Related Points

Panchayati Raj:

• Panchayati Raj refers to the system of local self-government in rural India.
• This system was formalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which aimed at decentralizing power to local governing bodies.
• The Pataskar Committee did not focus on Panchayati Raj but on the issue of delegated legislation.

Fundamental Duties:

• Fundamental Duties are moral obligations for Indian citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
• These were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, long after the Pataskar Committee's report.
• The committee had no role in examining Fundamental Duties.

Money Bill:

• A Money Bill is a specific type of bill in the Indian Parliament which deals with national taxation or government spending.
• Such bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and must be endorsed by the Speaker as a Money Bill.
• The Pataskar Committee's focus was not on Money Bills but on delegated legislation.

Q87: Choose the correct statements regarding political ideas - 

A. John Locke championed the cause of constitutional government.

B. Montesquieu proposed a system of checks and balances in the form of separation of power which became the important feature of British Constitution.

C. Jeremy Bentham developed his idea of utilitarianism.

D. J. S. Mill argued for broadening of popular participation with inclusion of women.

E. Thomas Hobbes discussed the grounds of political obligation in his classical work 'Philosophy of Right".

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) B, C, D, E Only

(b) A, C, D Only

(c) A, B, E Only

(d) A, B, C, D, E

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'A, C, D Only'

John Locke:

• John Locke championed the cause of constitutional government, advocating for a system where the power of the government is limited by law.
• He is known for his work 'Two Treatises of Government' which laid the foundation for modern liberal democracy.

Jeremy Bentham:

• Jeremy Bentham developed the idea of utilitarianism, which suggests that the best action is the one that maximizes overall happiness or utility.
• Bentham's utilitarianism has had a lasting impact on legal and political reforms.

J. S. Mill:

• J. S. Mill argued for broadening popular participation in government, including advocating for women's suffrage.
• His work 'On Liberty' and 'The Subjection of Women' are seminal texts in the field of political philosophy.

Other Related Points

Montesquieu:

• Montesquieu proposed a system of checks and balances in his work 'The Spirit of the Laws'.
• However, this system became a fundamental feature of the U.S. Constitution, not the British Constitution.

Thomas Hobbes:

• Thomas Hobbes discussed the grounds of political obligation in his classical work 'Leviathan', not 'Philosophy of Right'.
• 'Philosophy of Right' is a work by G.W.F. Hegel, not Hobbes.

Q88: In which year, Swami Vivekananda founded the periodical 'Brahmavadin' to teach the Vedanta? 

(a) 1895

(b) 1897

(c) 1890

(d) 1901

Ans: a

Sol: The correct answer is '1895'.

Swami Vivekananda and 'Brahmavadin':

• Swami Vivekananda, a key figure in the introduction of Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world, founded the periodical 'Brahmayadin' in 1895.
• 'Brahmayadin' was aimed at disseminating the teachings of Vedanta, a principal philosophy within Hinduism that emphasizes the idea of Brahman (the ultimate reality).
• Through 'Brahmayadin,' Swami Vivekananda sought to spread the knowledge of Vedanta and promote spiritual growth and education.

Other Related Points

• Swami Vivekananda (1863-1902) was a prominent Indian spiritual leader, philosopher, and social reformer, known for introducing Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world. 
• His most famous moment came in 1893 at the World Parliament of Religions in Chicago, where he began his speech with the iconic greeting, "Sisters and brothers of America," which earned him a standing ovation. 
• His speech emphasized the importance of tolerance, universal acceptance, and the unity of religions.

Q89: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

(c) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(d) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I.'

David Apter - The Politics of Modernisation:

• David Apter is a political scientist known for his work on the politics of modernization in developing countries.
• His book "The Politics of Modernisation" explores the political development and transformation in various societies undergoing modernization.

Walter Bagehot - English Constitution:

• Walter Bagehot was an English journalist and essayist, best known for his analysis of the British Constitution.
• His book "English Constitution" provides a detailed examination of the functioning of the British political system, particularly the roles of the monarchy, parliament, and the cabinet.

Jean Blondel - An Introduction to Comparative Government:

• Jean Blondel is a prominent political scientist, particularly known for his contributions to comparative politics.
• His book "An Introduction to Comparative Government" offers an overview of different government systems and their comparative analysis.

Almond and Powell - Comparative Politics: A Developmental Approach:

• Gabriel Almond and Bingham Powell are influential figures in the field of political science, particularly in comparative politics.
• Their book "Comparative Politics: A Developmental Approach" is a foundational text that explores the political development in various countries using a comparative method.

Other Related Points

Importance of Matching Authors with Their Works:

• Understanding the correct pairing of authors and their works is crucial in the study of political science and comparative politics.
• It helps in recognizing the contributions of these scholars and their perspectives on political development and systems.

Q90: Match the List - I with List - II 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

(b) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

(c) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

(d) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III'

A Theory of Justice:

• Author: John Rawls
• This book, published in 1971, is a seminal work in political philosophy and ethics.
• It introduces the concept of "justice as fairness" and the original position as a way of determining principles of justice.

Philosophy of Right:

• Author: Friedrich Hegel
• This work, published in 1820, outlines Hegel's views on ethical life, the role of the state, and the nature of freedom.
• It is a fundamental text in the realm of political philosophy and social theory.

Towards a Rational Society:

• Author: Jurgen Habermas
• Published in 1970, this book discusses the role of communication and rationality in society.
• Habermas argues for the importance of public discourse and democratic participation.

State and Revolution:

• Author: Vladimir Ilyich Lenin
• This book, written in 1917, examines the role of the state in society and the need for proletarian revolution.
• Lenin elaborates on Marxist theory and the necessity of dismantling the bourgeois state apparatus.

Q91: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

To a large extent, British India and independent India helped China to re - establish and consolidate its hold on Tibet, particularly in view of Tibet having enjoyed de - facto independent status from 1913 to 1951. It must not be forgotten that India facilitated the Tibetan delegation to proceed through India to Peking to formally accept to be an autonomous part of China, even though the seventeen - point agreement signed in May 1951 has remained controversial, as something done under duress. India's large heartedness and its endeavors to befriend China did not end there. As a gesture of goodwill, the Panchsheel Agreement of 1954 was a classic example of India's one - sided generosity and diplomatic naivety, one that resulted in its giving away all rights and privileges and significantly, in ending India's presence in Tibet without the country gaining anything as a quid pro quo. Although at times, there has been friction on the border issue, the maturity and statesmanship of the leaders of both nations have ensured that there problems were resolved in a peaceful manner through dialogue and diplomatic exchange, as has been demonstrated during the recent standoff at Doklam.

 Who facilitated the Tibetan delegation to proceed through India to Peking to formally accept to be an autonomous part of China? 

(a) Pakistan

(b) Bhutan

(c) Myanmar

(d) British India

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is 'British India'.
Key Points 

• British India played a crucial role in facilitating the Tibetan delegation’s journey to Peking (now Beijing) to negotiate and formally accept Tibet as an autonomous part of China. 
• This occurred in the context of British India's influence over Tibet and the wider Himalayan region during the early 20th century.
• After World War II, as China strengthened its claims over Tibet, British India allowed the Tibetan delegation to pass through its territory en route to China. 
• This arrangement was part of the broader diplomatic efforts by the British to manage relationships with neighboring regions and to balance the power dynamics between China and Tibet.

Q92: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

To a large extent, British India and independent India helped China to re - establish and consolidate its hold on Tibet, particularly in view of Tibet having enjoyed de - facto independent status from 1913 to 1951. It must not be forgotten that India facilitated the Tibetan delegation to proceed through India Peking to formally accept to be an autonomous part of China, even though the seventeen - point agreement signed in May 1951 has remained controversial, as something done under duress. India's large heartedness and its endeavors to befriend China did not end there. As a gesture of goodwill, the Panchsheel Agreement of 1954 was a classic example of India's one - sided generosity and diplomatic naivety, one that resulted in its giving away all rights and privileges and significantly, in ending India's presence in Tibet without the country gaining anything as a quid pro quo. Although at times, there has been friction on the border issue, the maturity and statesmanship of the leaders of both nations have ensured that there problems were resolved in a peaceful manner through dialogue and diplomatic exchange, as has been demonstrated during the recent standoff at Doklam.

 In which year, Panchsheel Agreement was signed? 

(a) 1951

(b) 1952

(c) 1953

(d) 1954

Ans: d

Sol: The correct answer is '1954'.
The Panchsheel Agreement, also known as the "Agreement on Trade and Intercourse between the Tibet region of China and India," was signed on April 29, 1954, by India and the People's Republic of China. 

• The agreement outlined five principles of peaceful coexistence, known as the Panchsheel Principles, which were intended to guide the relationship between the two countries.

Historical Context: 

• The agreement was signed at a time when India, recently independent, sought to establish peaceful and cooperative relations with neighboring countries, especially China, which had established the People's Republic in 1949.

Tibetan Trade and Border Arrangements: 

• The agreement specifically addressed trade and interactions between India and Tibet, a region where both countries had historical interests. India agreed to recognize Tibet as part of China under the "One China" policy, while China assured non-interference in Tibet's internal autonomy.

Q93: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

To a large extent, British India and independent India helped China to re - establish and consolidate its hold on Tibet, particularly in view of Tibet having enjoyed de - facto independent status from 1913 to 1951. It must not be forgotten that India facilitated the Tibetan delegation to proceed through India Peking to formally accept to be an autonomous part of China, even though the seventeen - point agreement signed in May 1951 has remained controversial, as something done under duress. India's large heartedness and its endeavors to befriend China did not end there. As a gesture of goodwill, the Panchsheel Agreement of 1954 was a classic example of India's one - sided generosity and diplomatic naivety, one that resulted in its giving away all rights and privileges and significantly, in ending India's presence in Tibet without the country gaining anything as a quid pro quo. Although at times, there has been friction on the border issue, the maturity and statesmanship of the leaders of both nations have ensured that there problems were resolved in a peaceful manner through dialogue and diplomatic exchange, as has been demonstrated during the recent standoff at Doklam.

 When was the Seventeen-Point Agreement signed? 

(a) 1950

(b) 1951

(c) 1955

(d) 1954

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is '1951'.
Key Points 

• The Seventeen-Point Agreement was signed on May 23, 1951, between representatives of Tibet and the People’s Republic of China. 
• This agreement formally acknowledged Tibet as part of China, while promising autonomy and preservation of Tibetan religious and cultural practices.

Key Aspects of the Seventeen-Point Agreement:

• Recognition of Chinese Sovereignty: Tibet formally acknowledged China's sovereignty, and in return, the Chinese government promised to maintain Tibet's autonomy and respect its cultural practices.
• Autonomy and Cultural Preservation: The agreement ensured that Tibet’s traditional religious practices, local administration, and cultural identity would be respected under the Chinese administration.

Q94: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

To a large extent, British India and independent India helped China to re - establish and consolidate its hold on Tibet, particularly in view of Tibet having enjoyed de - facto independent status from 1913 to 1951. It must not be forgotten that India facilitated the Tibetan delegation to proceed through India Peking to formally accept to be an autonomous part of China, even though the seventeen - point agreement signed in May 1951 has remained controversial, as something done under duress. India's large heartedness and its endeavors to befriend China did not end there. As a gesture of goodwill, the Panchsheel Agreement of 1954 was a classic example of India's one - sided generosity and diplomatic naivety, one that resulted in its giving away all rights and privileges and significantly, in ending India's presence in Tibet without the country gaining anything as a quid pro quo. Although at times, there has been friction on the border issue, the maturity and statesmanship of the leaders of both nations have ensured that there problems were resolved in a peaceful manner through dialogue and diplomatic exchange, as has been demonstrated during the recent standoff at Doklam.

 According to the passage, during which period Tibet enjoyed de facto independent status? 

(a) 1913 - 1970

(b) 1913 - 1951

(c) 1952 - 1960

(d) 1960 - 1990

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is '1913 - 1951'.

• The period 1913 to 1951 is recognized as the time during which Tibet enjoyed de facto independent status.
• Although Tibet was not widely recognized internationally as a separate nation, it operated with considerable independence from China in most practical aspects. 

Self-Governance: 

• Following the fall of the Qing Dynasty in 1911, Tibet declared its independence in 1913. 
• It established its own government, led by the Dalai Lama, and managed its internal affairs, border security, and foreign relations without interference from China.

Diplomatic Relations: 

• During this time, Tibet engaged in its own foreign relations and signed agreements, particularly with neighboring countries.
• While its sovereignty was not universally recognized, Tibet functioned similarly to an independent state, and it maintained relations with British India.

Q95: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

To a large extent, British India and independent India helped China to re - establish and consolidate its hold on Tibet, particularly in view of Tibet having enjoyed de - facto independent status from 1913 to 1951. It must not be forgotten that India facilitated the Tibetan delegation to proceed through India Peking to formally accept to be an autonomous part of China, even though the seventeen - point agreement signed in May 1951 has remained controversial, as something done under duress. India's large heartedness and its endeavors to befriend China did not end there. As a gesture of goodwill, the Panchsheel Agreement of 1954 was a classic example of India's one - sided generosity and diplomatic naivety, one that resulted in its giving away all rights and privileges and significantly, in ending India's presence in Tibet without the country gaining anything as a quid pro quo. Although at times, there has been friction on the border issue, the maturity and statesmanship of the leaders of both nations have ensured that there problems were resolved in a peaceful manner through dialogue and diplomatic exchange, as has been demonstrated during the recent standoff at Doklam.

 According to the passage, which one of the following helped China to consolidate its hold on Tibet? 

(a) Only British India

(b) Only Independent India

(c) Both British India and Independent India

(d) Only Russia

Ans: c

Sol: The correctr answer is 'Both British India and Independent India'.
Both British India and Independent India played roles, directly and indirectly, that helped China consolidate its hold on Tibet. 

• This support took different forms during each period, reflecting shifts in diplomatic priorities and regional strategies.

Role of British India:

• British India had historical ties and influence in Tibet and the Himalayan region. However, it followed a policy that generally avoided direct interference in Tibetan-Chinese relations.
• As British India sought stable relations with China, it did not strongly oppose China’s claim over Tibet, especially during the late colonial period. British facilitation of Tibetan delegations to Beijing (as discussed in previous questions) helped China establish a formal relationship with Tibet, indirectly consolidating China’s claim.

Role of Independent India:

• After gaining independence in 1947, India, under Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, continued to adopt a cooperative stance toward China. 
• In 1950, when the People’s Liberation Army entered Tibet, India chose to recognize Tibet as part of China under the One China policy and later formalized this stance in the Panchsheel Agreement of 1954.

Q96: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

The campaign for decentralization of authority has a long past. As history shows, sustained attempts were made to decentralize authority in India since the 1880s with the acceptance of Ripon resolution of 1882. One of the most clearly - stated justifications for Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) was given by the report of the Ashok Mehta Committee. Another categorical statement regarding strengthening of local self - government was made by the report of the 1986 L. M. Singhvi Committee, Revitalisation of PRIs for Democracy and Development. What was strongly argued became a reality with the adoption of the 73rd Amendment Act in 1992, which not only constitutionalized local self government in India but also gave the long overdue constitutional recognition to PRIs. The legislative origins of the 73rd constitutional Amendment Act can be traced back to the constitutional 64th Amendment Bill, which was introduced in the Parliament in 1989. 73rd constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced a three - tier structure of rural local level - gram Panchayats at the lowest level, panchayat samiti at the intermediate level and zilla parishad at the highest level.

 Who brought out the report 'Revitalisation of PRIs for Democracy and Development' ? 

(a) Ashok Mehta

(b) L M Singhvi

(c) Balwant Rai Mehta

(d) Ashok Sen

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'L M Singhvi'

• The report titled "Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) for Democracy and Development" was brought out by L M Singhvi.
• The L M Singhvi Committee, formed in 1986 by the Government of India, was tasked with examining the structure and functioning of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and suggesting measures to strengthen them.

Key Recommendations of the L M Singhvi Committee:

• Constitutional Status for PRIs: The committee recommended that Panchayati Raj Institutions should be given constitutional status to ensure their legitimacy, stability, and independence in local governance.
• Democratic Decentralization: It emphasized strengthening PRIs as democratic institutions that would enable grassroots participation in decision-making and ensure better governance and development outcomes at the local level.

Q97: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

The campaign for decentralization of authority has a long past. As history shows, sustained attempts were made to decentralize authority in India since the 1880s with the acceptance of Ripon resolution of 1882. One of the most clearly - stated justifications for Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) was given by the report of the Ashok Mehta Committee. Another categorical statement regarding strengthening of local self - government was made by the report of the 1986 L. M. Singhvi Committee, Revitalisation of PRIs for Democracy and Development. What was strongly argued became a reality with the adoption of the 73rd Amendment Act in 1992, which not only constitutionalized local self government in India but also gave the long overdue constitutional recognition to PRIs. The legislative origins of the 73rd constitutional Amendment Act can be traced back to the constitutional 64th Amendment Bill, which was introduced in the Parliament in 1989. 73rd constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced a three - tier structure of rural local level - gram Panchayats at the lowest level, panchayat samiti at the intermediate level and zilla parishad at the highest level.

 According to the paragraph, 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act introduced which kind of rural structure at the intermediate level? 

(a) Gram Panchayat

(b) Panchayat Samiti

(c) Zila Parishad

(d) Town Planning Council

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is 'Panchayat Samiti'

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 was a landmark amendment in India that established a structured three-tier Panchayati Raj system in rural areas to promote decentralized governance.
• The amendment formalized local self-governance by creating distinct layers of rural administration, each with defined responsibilities and powers.

Structure Introduced by the 73rd Amendment:

• The 73rd Amendment provided for a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs):
• Gram Panchayat: This is the village-level body, responsible for managing local affairs at the grassroots level.
• Panchayat Samiti: This is the intermediate-level body in the Panchayati Raj structure, positioned between the Gram Panchayat (village level) and Zila Parishad (district level). The Panchayat Samiti coordinates and oversees activities across multiple Gram Panchayats within a particular block or tehsil.
• Zila Parishad: This is the district-level body, which acts as the apex body in the rural governance structure, supervising the activities of Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats within the district.

Q98: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

The campaign for decentralization of authority has a long past. As history shows, sustained attempts were made to decentralize authority in India since the 1880s with the acceptance of Ripon resolution of 1882. One of the most clearly - stated justifications for Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) was given by the report of the Ashok Mehta Committee. Another categorical statement regarding strengthening of local self - government was made by the report of the 1986 L. M. Singhvi Committee, Revitalisation of PRIs for Democracy and Development. What was strongly argued became a reality with the adoption of the 73rd Amendment Act in 1992, which not only constitutionalized local self government in India but also gave the long overdue constitutional recognition to PRIs. The legislative origins of the 73rd constitutional Amendment Act can be traced back to the constitutional 64th Amendment Bill, which was introduced in the Parliament in 1989. 73rd constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced a three - tier structure of rural local level - gram Panchayats at the lowest level, panchayat samiti at the intermediate level and zilla parishad at the highest level.

 In which year, 64th Constitution Amendment Bill introduced in Parliament of India? 

(a) 1979

(b) 1989

(c) 1992

(d) 1993

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is '1989'
Key Points 

• The 64th Constitution Amendment Bill was introduced in the Parliament of India in 1989 with the goal of strengthening the Panchayati Raj system and empowering local self-governance in rural India.
• This bill proposed significant changes aimed at providing a constitutional framework for the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to ensure greater autonomy and continuity in local governance.
• Key Provisions of the 64th Amendment Bill:
  • Constitutional Status for PRIs: 
  • The bill sought to give PRIs constitutional backing, which would safeguard their existence and provide them with a formal structure within the Indian Constitution.
  • Three-Tier Structure: 
  • The bill proposed a structured three-tier system for Panchayati Raj, including Gram Panchayat at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at the intermediate level, and Zila Parishad at the district level.
  • This system aimed to decentralize administration and improve accountability and efficiency in rural governance.

Q99: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

The campaign for decentralization of authority has a long past. As history shows, sustained attempts were made to decentralize authority in India since the 1880s with the acceptance of Ripon resolution of 1882. One of the most clearly - stated justifications for Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) was given by the report of the Ashok Mehta Committee. Another categorical statement regarding strengthening of local self - government was made by the report of the 1986 L. M. Singhvi Committee, Revitalisation of PRIs for Democracy and Development. What was strongly argued became a reality with the adoption of the 73rd Amendment Act in 1992, which not only constitutionalized local self government in India but also gave the long overdue constitutional recognition to PRIs. The legislative origins of the 73rd constitutional Amendment Act can be traced back to the constitutional 64th Amendment Bill, which was introduced in the Parliament in 1989. 73rd constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced a three - tier structure of rural local level - gram Panchayats at the lowest level, panchayat samiti at the intermediate level and zilla parishad at the highest level.

 Ripon Resolution was accepted in - 

(a) 1982

(b) 1882

(c) 1973

(d) 1873

Ans: b

Sol: The correct option is '1882'.
 The Ripon Resolution, also known as Lord Ripon’s Resolution on Local Self-Government, was accepted in 1882.

• This resolution marked a significant step in the development of local self-government in India under British rule.

Background and Significance:

• Lord Ripon's Vision: Lord Ripon, the then Viceroy of India (1880-1884), believed in decentralizing administrative power and aimed to involve Indians in local governance.
• He was a liberal reformer who thought that local self-governance could foster responsible administration and provide Indians with experience in democratic practices.

Q100: Read the following passage and answer the questions - 

The campaign for decentralization of authority has a long past. As history shows, sustained attempts were made to decentralize authority in India since the 1880s with the acceptance of Ripon resolution of 1882. One of the most clearly - stated justifications for Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) was given by the report of the Ashok Mehta Committee. Another categorical statement regarding strengthening of local self - government was made by the report of the 1986 L. M. Singhvi Committee, Revitalisation of PRIs for Democracy and Development. What was strongly argued became a reality with the adoption of the 73rd Amendment Act in 1992, which not only constitutionalized local self government in India but also gave the long overdue constitutional recognition to PRIs. The legislative origins of the 73rd constitutional Amendment Act can be traced back to the constitutional 64th Amendment Bill, which was introduced in the Parliament in 1989. 73rd constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced a three - tier structure of rural local level - gram Panchayats at the lowest level, panchayat samiti at the intermediate level and zilla parishad at the highest level.

 According to the passage, which one of the following constitutional Act, constitutionalized local self-government in India? 

(a) 64th Constitution Amendment Act

(b) 73rd Constitution Amendment Act

(c) 80th Constitution Amendment Act

(d) 93rd Constitution Amendment Act

Ans: b

Sol: The correct answer is '73rd Constitution Amendment Act'.
Explanation

• The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 was the constitutional amendment that formally constitutionalized local self-government in India, specifically for rural areas through the Panchayati Raj system.
• This amendment provided a constitutional framework for establishing and strengthening local self-governing bodies, ensuring their stability and autonomy.

Key Features of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:

• Constitutional Status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs):
• The 73rd Amendment introduced Part IX to the Indian Constitution, titled "The Panchayats," which gave a formal constitutional status to local self-government bodies in rural areas, ensuring they could not be arbitrarily dissolved.
• Three-Tier Structure:
• The amendment mandated a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in every state—comprising Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (intermediate level), and Zila Parishad (district level)—with the exception of states with populations below 20 lakh, where only a two-tier system was required.