UGC NET Past Year Question Paper II: Management with Answer Key (Dec. 2022) held on 12 March 2023 | UGC NET Past Year Papers PDF Download

 Page 1


UGC NET Code 17 Management 12
th
 March 2023 
1.) What kind of elasticity of demand is faced by the oligopolistic firm? 
(A) Low elasticity for price rise and more elasticity for price cuts. 
(B) High elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(C) Low elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(D) High elasticity for price rise but less elasticity for price cuts.  
 
2.) Which of the following correctly explains the notion of consumer surplus? 
(A) The difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a given quantity of goods and 
services and the amount they actually pay. 
(B) The difference between what consumers are willing to buy given quantity of goods and 
services and the quantity they actually buy. 
(C) The difference between what consumers are willing to plan to buy given quantity of goods 
and services and the quality they actually buy. 
(D) The difference between total utility and addition to total utility from goods and services the 
consumers buy. 
 
3.) The market-demand and supply equation for a product are: 
Q
D
 = 30 - 3P  
Q
S
 = 20 + 2P 
Here Q for quantity; P for price. What is the equilibrium demand? 
(A) 18 
(B) 16  
(C) 24 
(D) 20 
 
4.) "Corporate governance is to conduct the business in accordance with the owner's 
(shareholders) desires" is conceptualized by: 
(A) Henry Fayol 
(B) Milton Friedman 
(C) Peter Drucker 
(D) Lord Cadbury 
 
5.) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which one of the following organizational aspects 
will not be included in the self-actualization needs? 
(A) Advancement 
(B) Job challenge 
(C) Status 
(D) Self-image  
 
6.) Which one of the following is not a job-related performance data to identify the performance 
of an employee? 
(A) Attitude Surveys 
(B) Late deliveries 
(C) Grievances 
(D) Absenteeism 
 
Page 2


UGC NET Code 17 Management 12
th
 March 2023 
1.) What kind of elasticity of demand is faced by the oligopolistic firm? 
(A) Low elasticity for price rise and more elasticity for price cuts. 
(B) High elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(C) Low elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(D) High elasticity for price rise but less elasticity for price cuts.  
 
2.) Which of the following correctly explains the notion of consumer surplus? 
(A) The difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a given quantity of goods and 
services and the amount they actually pay. 
(B) The difference between what consumers are willing to buy given quantity of goods and 
services and the quantity they actually buy. 
(C) The difference between what consumers are willing to plan to buy given quantity of goods 
and services and the quality they actually buy. 
(D) The difference between total utility and addition to total utility from goods and services the 
consumers buy. 
 
3.) The market-demand and supply equation for a product are: 
Q
D
 = 30 - 3P  
Q
S
 = 20 + 2P 
Here Q for quantity; P for price. What is the equilibrium demand? 
(A) 18 
(B) 16  
(C) 24 
(D) 20 
 
4.) "Corporate governance is to conduct the business in accordance with the owner's 
(shareholders) desires" is conceptualized by: 
(A) Henry Fayol 
(B) Milton Friedman 
(C) Peter Drucker 
(D) Lord Cadbury 
 
5.) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which one of the following organizational aspects 
will not be included in the self-actualization needs? 
(A) Advancement 
(B) Job challenge 
(C) Status 
(D) Self-image  
 
6.) Which one of the following is not a job-related performance data to identify the performance 
of an employee? 
(A) Attitude Surveys 
(B) Late deliveries 
(C) Grievances 
(D) Absenteeism 
 
7.) Which one of the following is not an effect on performance, behaviour and health when stress 
level of an employee is high? 
(A) Feeling sleepy all the time 
(B) Poor performance 
(C) Exhaustion 
(D) Nervousness 
 
8.) Which one of the following methods of forecasting human resource demand is not a 
qualitative method? 
(A) Delphi technique. 
(B) Markov analysis. 
(C) Nominal group technique. 
(D) Group brain storming. 
 
9.) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Performance Management? 
(A) Owned by human resource department. 
(B) Does not have direct link to reward. 
(C) Continuous review with one or more formal reviews in a year. 
(D) Joint or participative process. 
 
10.) Which one of the following is not an advantage of staffing international operations of an 
MNC using Parent Country Nationals (PCN)? 
(A) Proper linkage between foreign subsidiary and the headquarters. 
(B) Familiar with the local norms and culture. 
(C) Use of PCN helps develop global capabilities in the organisation. 
(D) Knowledgeable about how the parent company operates. 
 
11.) Which one of the following can be the coping mechanism if the source of resistance to 
change is the fear of loss of power? 
(A) Active support from the top. 
(B) Participation and involvement. 
(C) Role clarity and definition. 
(D) Role redefinition and re-orientation. 
 
12.) If the employers' attitude towards trade unions is of acceptance, their behaviour will be: 
(A) Dictatorial 
(B) Paternal 
(C) Business-like 
(D) Participative 
 
13.) Accounting principles are generally based on: 
(A) Practicability 
(B) Subjectivity 
(C) Convenience in recording. 
(D) Legal framework 
 
14.) ABC Ltd. produces two products X and Y in its production unit. Each unit of X and Y takes 5 
hours and 10 hours as production time respectively. 1000 units of X and 600 units of Y were 
Page 3


UGC NET Code 17 Management 12
th
 March 2023 
1.) What kind of elasticity of demand is faced by the oligopolistic firm? 
(A) Low elasticity for price rise and more elasticity for price cuts. 
(B) High elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(C) Low elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(D) High elasticity for price rise but less elasticity for price cuts.  
 
2.) Which of the following correctly explains the notion of consumer surplus? 
(A) The difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a given quantity of goods and 
services and the amount they actually pay. 
(B) The difference between what consumers are willing to buy given quantity of goods and 
services and the quantity they actually buy. 
(C) The difference between what consumers are willing to plan to buy given quantity of goods 
and services and the quality they actually buy. 
(D) The difference between total utility and addition to total utility from goods and services the 
consumers buy. 
 
3.) The market-demand and supply equation for a product are: 
Q
D
 = 30 - 3P  
Q
S
 = 20 + 2P 
Here Q for quantity; P for price. What is the equilibrium demand? 
(A) 18 
(B) 16  
(C) 24 
(D) 20 
 
4.) "Corporate governance is to conduct the business in accordance with the owner's 
(shareholders) desires" is conceptualized by: 
(A) Henry Fayol 
(B) Milton Friedman 
(C) Peter Drucker 
(D) Lord Cadbury 
 
5.) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which one of the following organizational aspects 
will not be included in the self-actualization needs? 
(A) Advancement 
(B) Job challenge 
(C) Status 
(D) Self-image  
 
6.) Which one of the following is not a job-related performance data to identify the performance 
of an employee? 
(A) Attitude Surveys 
(B) Late deliveries 
(C) Grievances 
(D) Absenteeism 
 
7.) Which one of the following is not an effect on performance, behaviour and health when stress 
level of an employee is high? 
(A) Feeling sleepy all the time 
(B) Poor performance 
(C) Exhaustion 
(D) Nervousness 
 
8.) Which one of the following methods of forecasting human resource demand is not a 
qualitative method? 
(A) Delphi technique. 
(B) Markov analysis. 
(C) Nominal group technique. 
(D) Group brain storming. 
 
9.) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Performance Management? 
(A) Owned by human resource department. 
(B) Does not have direct link to reward. 
(C) Continuous review with one or more formal reviews in a year. 
(D) Joint or participative process. 
 
10.) Which one of the following is not an advantage of staffing international operations of an 
MNC using Parent Country Nationals (PCN)? 
(A) Proper linkage between foreign subsidiary and the headquarters. 
(B) Familiar with the local norms and culture. 
(C) Use of PCN helps develop global capabilities in the organisation. 
(D) Knowledgeable about how the parent company operates. 
 
11.) Which one of the following can be the coping mechanism if the source of resistance to 
change is the fear of loss of power? 
(A) Active support from the top. 
(B) Participation and involvement. 
(C) Role clarity and definition. 
(D) Role redefinition and re-orientation. 
 
12.) If the employers' attitude towards trade unions is of acceptance, their behaviour will be: 
(A) Dictatorial 
(B) Paternal 
(C) Business-like 
(D) Participative 
 
13.) Accounting principles are generally based on: 
(A) Practicability 
(B) Subjectivity 
(C) Convenience in recording. 
(D) Legal framework 
 
14.) ABC Ltd. produces two products X and Y in its production unit. Each unit of X and Y takes 5 
hours and 10 hours as production time respectively. 1000 units of X and 600 units of Y were 
produced in a month. Actual man-hours in this production were 10,000. Yearly budgeted hours 
are 96,000. The activity ratio is: 
(A) 125% 
(B) 137.50% 
(C) 108.33% 
(D) 125.50% 
 
15.) Computation of overhead absorption rates should be based on : 
(A) Maximum capacity 
(B) Practical capacity 
(C) Idle capacity 
(D) Normal capacity 
 
16.) Operating budget consists of two parts, called as _____ budget and _____ budget: 
(A) Cash, Expense 
(B) Flexible, Master 
(C) Programme, Responsibility 
(D) Master, Utilisation 
 
17.) As per CAPM model, the required rate of return on a security is: 
(A) Return on Treasury Bonds + Market Risk Premium 
(B) Return on individual securities + Beta Premium 
(C) Return on Government Securities + Unsystematic Risk Premium 
(D) Return on Corporate Securities + Systematic Risk Premium 
 
18.) A firm can delay and favourably affect the control of its cash disbursements through the use 
of: 
(A) Bootstrapping payables. 
(B) Zero balance accounts. 
(C) Yield sensing for marketable securities. 
(D) Hedging of intangibles. 
 
19.) Firm A wants to acquire Firm B and the financial details of the firms are: 
 
 A B 
Market Price per share Rs. 50 Rs. 20 
Number of shares 1,000,000 500,000 
Market value of the firm Rs. 50 million Rs. 10 million 
 
If the merger is expected to bring gains which have a present value of Rs. 10 million and Firm A 
offers one share for every two shares of Firm B to the shareholders of Firm B, the apparent cost 
of acquiring firm B is: 
(A) Rs. 3,500,000 
(B) Rs. 5,000,000 
(C) Rs. 7,692,516 
(D) Rs. 2,500,000  
 
Page 4


UGC NET Code 17 Management 12
th
 March 2023 
1.) What kind of elasticity of demand is faced by the oligopolistic firm? 
(A) Low elasticity for price rise and more elasticity for price cuts. 
(B) High elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(C) Low elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(D) High elasticity for price rise but less elasticity for price cuts.  
 
2.) Which of the following correctly explains the notion of consumer surplus? 
(A) The difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a given quantity of goods and 
services and the amount they actually pay. 
(B) The difference between what consumers are willing to buy given quantity of goods and 
services and the quantity they actually buy. 
(C) The difference between what consumers are willing to plan to buy given quantity of goods 
and services and the quality they actually buy. 
(D) The difference between total utility and addition to total utility from goods and services the 
consumers buy. 
 
3.) The market-demand and supply equation for a product are: 
Q
D
 = 30 - 3P  
Q
S
 = 20 + 2P 
Here Q for quantity; P for price. What is the equilibrium demand? 
(A) 18 
(B) 16  
(C) 24 
(D) 20 
 
4.) "Corporate governance is to conduct the business in accordance with the owner's 
(shareholders) desires" is conceptualized by: 
(A) Henry Fayol 
(B) Milton Friedman 
(C) Peter Drucker 
(D) Lord Cadbury 
 
5.) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which one of the following organizational aspects 
will not be included in the self-actualization needs? 
(A) Advancement 
(B) Job challenge 
(C) Status 
(D) Self-image  
 
6.) Which one of the following is not a job-related performance data to identify the performance 
of an employee? 
(A) Attitude Surveys 
(B) Late deliveries 
(C) Grievances 
(D) Absenteeism 
 
7.) Which one of the following is not an effect on performance, behaviour and health when stress 
level of an employee is high? 
(A) Feeling sleepy all the time 
(B) Poor performance 
(C) Exhaustion 
(D) Nervousness 
 
8.) Which one of the following methods of forecasting human resource demand is not a 
qualitative method? 
(A) Delphi technique. 
(B) Markov analysis. 
(C) Nominal group technique. 
(D) Group brain storming. 
 
9.) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Performance Management? 
(A) Owned by human resource department. 
(B) Does not have direct link to reward. 
(C) Continuous review with one or more formal reviews in a year. 
(D) Joint or participative process. 
 
10.) Which one of the following is not an advantage of staffing international operations of an 
MNC using Parent Country Nationals (PCN)? 
(A) Proper linkage between foreign subsidiary and the headquarters. 
(B) Familiar with the local norms and culture. 
(C) Use of PCN helps develop global capabilities in the organisation. 
(D) Knowledgeable about how the parent company operates. 
 
11.) Which one of the following can be the coping mechanism if the source of resistance to 
change is the fear of loss of power? 
(A) Active support from the top. 
(B) Participation and involvement. 
(C) Role clarity and definition. 
(D) Role redefinition and re-orientation. 
 
12.) If the employers' attitude towards trade unions is of acceptance, their behaviour will be: 
(A) Dictatorial 
(B) Paternal 
(C) Business-like 
(D) Participative 
 
13.) Accounting principles are generally based on: 
(A) Practicability 
(B) Subjectivity 
(C) Convenience in recording. 
(D) Legal framework 
 
14.) ABC Ltd. produces two products X and Y in its production unit. Each unit of X and Y takes 5 
hours and 10 hours as production time respectively. 1000 units of X and 600 units of Y were 
produced in a month. Actual man-hours in this production were 10,000. Yearly budgeted hours 
are 96,000. The activity ratio is: 
(A) 125% 
(B) 137.50% 
(C) 108.33% 
(D) 125.50% 
 
15.) Computation of overhead absorption rates should be based on : 
(A) Maximum capacity 
(B) Practical capacity 
(C) Idle capacity 
(D) Normal capacity 
 
16.) Operating budget consists of two parts, called as _____ budget and _____ budget: 
(A) Cash, Expense 
(B) Flexible, Master 
(C) Programme, Responsibility 
(D) Master, Utilisation 
 
17.) As per CAPM model, the required rate of return on a security is: 
(A) Return on Treasury Bonds + Market Risk Premium 
(B) Return on individual securities + Beta Premium 
(C) Return on Government Securities + Unsystematic Risk Premium 
(D) Return on Corporate Securities + Systematic Risk Premium 
 
18.) A firm can delay and favourably affect the control of its cash disbursements through the use 
of: 
(A) Bootstrapping payables. 
(B) Zero balance accounts. 
(C) Yield sensing for marketable securities. 
(D) Hedging of intangibles. 
 
19.) Firm A wants to acquire Firm B and the financial details of the firms are: 
 
 A B 
Market Price per share Rs. 50 Rs. 20 
Number of shares 1,000,000 500,000 
Market value of the firm Rs. 50 million Rs. 10 million 
 
If the merger is expected to bring gains which have a present value of Rs. 10 million and Firm A 
offers one share for every two shares of Firm B to the shareholders of Firm B, the apparent cost 
of acquiring firm B is: 
(A) Rs. 3,500,000 
(B) Rs. 5,000,000 
(C) Rs. 7,692,516 
(D) Rs. 2,500,000  
 
20.) Which of the following forms of purchasing power parity states that changes in spot rates 
over a period of time reflect the changes in price levels over the same period in the currencies of 
the concerned economies? 
(A) Relative form 
(B) Absolute form 
(C) Expectations form 
(D) Contango form  
 
21.) Which of the following marketing channel function helps to fulfill the completed 
transactions? 
(A) Gathering and distributing information about consumers. 
(B) Reaching an agreement on price and other terms. 
(C) Communicating with prospective buyers. 
(D) Assuming the risks of carrying out the channel work. 
 
22.) A portion of a market that is so well suited to a firm's internal and external environment that 
other firms are not likely to challenge and dislodge it, is called: 
(A) Core competency 
(B) Propitious niche 
(C) Market segment 
(D) Product positioning 
 
23.) An approach to corporate strategy in which top management views its product lines and 
business units as a series of investments from which it expects a profitable return is called: 
(A) business mix 
(B) integrated strategy 
(C) portfolio analysis 
(D) scenario analysis 
 
24.) The total combined customer lifetime values of all of the company's customers is known as: 
(A) Customer equity 
(B) Customer-perceived value 
(C) Customer Lifetime value 
(D) Customer share 
 
25.) Which of the following indicates "Perishability" aspect of service characteristics? 
(A) Customers participate in and affect the transaction. 
(B) Service delivery and customer satisfaction depend on employee actions. 
(C) Customers affect each other. 
(D) It is difficult to synchronize supply and demand with services. 
 
26.) Which of the following are the distinctive features of "Big data" being used in Analytical 
CRM? 
(A) V olume, Variety, Velocity, Veracity 
(B) V olume, Variability, Variety, Veracity 
(C) Valence, Variety, V olume, Variance 
(D) Variance, Valence, Velocity, Veracity 
 
Page 5


UGC NET Code 17 Management 12
th
 March 2023 
1.) What kind of elasticity of demand is faced by the oligopolistic firm? 
(A) Low elasticity for price rise and more elasticity for price cuts. 
(B) High elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(C) Low elasticity for both whether there is price rise or price cuts. 
(D) High elasticity for price rise but less elasticity for price cuts.  
 
2.) Which of the following correctly explains the notion of consumer surplus? 
(A) The difference between what consumers are willing to pay for a given quantity of goods and 
services and the amount they actually pay. 
(B) The difference between what consumers are willing to buy given quantity of goods and 
services and the quantity they actually buy. 
(C) The difference between what consumers are willing to plan to buy given quantity of goods 
and services and the quality they actually buy. 
(D) The difference between total utility and addition to total utility from goods and services the 
consumers buy. 
 
3.) The market-demand and supply equation for a product are: 
Q
D
 = 30 - 3P  
Q
S
 = 20 + 2P 
Here Q for quantity; P for price. What is the equilibrium demand? 
(A) 18 
(B) 16  
(C) 24 
(D) 20 
 
4.) "Corporate governance is to conduct the business in accordance with the owner's 
(shareholders) desires" is conceptualized by: 
(A) Henry Fayol 
(B) Milton Friedman 
(C) Peter Drucker 
(D) Lord Cadbury 
 
5.) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which one of the following organizational aspects 
will not be included in the self-actualization needs? 
(A) Advancement 
(B) Job challenge 
(C) Status 
(D) Self-image  
 
6.) Which one of the following is not a job-related performance data to identify the performance 
of an employee? 
(A) Attitude Surveys 
(B) Late deliveries 
(C) Grievances 
(D) Absenteeism 
 
7.) Which one of the following is not an effect on performance, behaviour and health when stress 
level of an employee is high? 
(A) Feeling sleepy all the time 
(B) Poor performance 
(C) Exhaustion 
(D) Nervousness 
 
8.) Which one of the following methods of forecasting human resource demand is not a 
qualitative method? 
(A) Delphi technique. 
(B) Markov analysis. 
(C) Nominal group technique. 
(D) Group brain storming. 
 
9.) Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Performance Management? 
(A) Owned by human resource department. 
(B) Does not have direct link to reward. 
(C) Continuous review with one or more formal reviews in a year. 
(D) Joint or participative process. 
 
10.) Which one of the following is not an advantage of staffing international operations of an 
MNC using Parent Country Nationals (PCN)? 
(A) Proper linkage between foreign subsidiary and the headquarters. 
(B) Familiar with the local norms and culture. 
(C) Use of PCN helps develop global capabilities in the organisation. 
(D) Knowledgeable about how the parent company operates. 
 
11.) Which one of the following can be the coping mechanism if the source of resistance to 
change is the fear of loss of power? 
(A) Active support from the top. 
(B) Participation and involvement. 
(C) Role clarity and definition. 
(D) Role redefinition and re-orientation. 
 
12.) If the employers' attitude towards trade unions is of acceptance, their behaviour will be: 
(A) Dictatorial 
(B) Paternal 
(C) Business-like 
(D) Participative 
 
13.) Accounting principles are generally based on: 
(A) Practicability 
(B) Subjectivity 
(C) Convenience in recording. 
(D) Legal framework 
 
14.) ABC Ltd. produces two products X and Y in its production unit. Each unit of X and Y takes 5 
hours and 10 hours as production time respectively. 1000 units of X and 600 units of Y were 
produced in a month. Actual man-hours in this production were 10,000. Yearly budgeted hours 
are 96,000. The activity ratio is: 
(A) 125% 
(B) 137.50% 
(C) 108.33% 
(D) 125.50% 
 
15.) Computation of overhead absorption rates should be based on : 
(A) Maximum capacity 
(B) Practical capacity 
(C) Idle capacity 
(D) Normal capacity 
 
16.) Operating budget consists of two parts, called as _____ budget and _____ budget: 
(A) Cash, Expense 
(B) Flexible, Master 
(C) Programme, Responsibility 
(D) Master, Utilisation 
 
17.) As per CAPM model, the required rate of return on a security is: 
(A) Return on Treasury Bonds + Market Risk Premium 
(B) Return on individual securities + Beta Premium 
(C) Return on Government Securities + Unsystematic Risk Premium 
(D) Return on Corporate Securities + Systematic Risk Premium 
 
18.) A firm can delay and favourably affect the control of its cash disbursements through the use 
of: 
(A) Bootstrapping payables. 
(B) Zero balance accounts. 
(C) Yield sensing for marketable securities. 
(D) Hedging of intangibles. 
 
19.) Firm A wants to acquire Firm B and the financial details of the firms are: 
 
 A B 
Market Price per share Rs. 50 Rs. 20 
Number of shares 1,000,000 500,000 
Market value of the firm Rs. 50 million Rs. 10 million 
 
If the merger is expected to bring gains which have a present value of Rs. 10 million and Firm A 
offers one share for every two shares of Firm B to the shareholders of Firm B, the apparent cost 
of acquiring firm B is: 
(A) Rs. 3,500,000 
(B) Rs. 5,000,000 
(C) Rs. 7,692,516 
(D) Rs. 2,500,000  
 
20.) Which of the following forms of purchasing power parity states that changes in spot rates 
over a period of time reflect the changes in price levels over the same period in the currencies of 
the concerned economies? 
(A) Relative form 
(B) Absolute form 
(C) Expectations form 
(D) Contango form  
 
21.) Which of the following marketing channel function helps to fulfill the completed 
transactions? 
(A) Gathering and distributing information about consumers. 
(B) Reaching an agreement on price and other terms. 
(C) Communicating with prospective buyers. 
(D) Assuming the risks of carrying out the channel work. 
 
22.) A portion of a market that is so well suited to a firm's internal and external environment that 
other firms are not likely to challenge and dislodge it, is called: 
(A) Core competency 
(B) Propitious niche 
(C) Market segment 
(D) Product positioning 
 
23.) An approach to corporate strategy in which top management views its product lines and 
business units as a series of investments from which it expects a profitable return is called: 
(A) business mix 
(B) integrated strategy 
(C) portfolio analysis 
(D) scenario analysis 
 
24.) The total combined customer lifetime values of all of the company's customers is known as: 
(A) Customer equity 
(B) Customer-perceived value 
(C) Customer Lifetime value 
(D) Customer share 
 
25.) Which of the following indicates "Perishability" aspect of service characteristics? 
(A) Customers participate in and affect the transaction. 
(B) Service delivery and customer satisfaction depend on employee actions. 
(C) Customers affect each other. 
(D) It is difficult to synchronize supply and demand with services. 
 
26.) Which of the following are the distinctive features of "Big data" being used in Analytical 
CRM? 
(A) V olume, Variety, Velocity, Veracity 
(B) V olume, Variability, Variety, Veracity 
(C) Valence, Variety, V olume, Variance 
(D) Variance, Valence, Velocity, Veracity 
 
27.) "A tennis player slams his tennis racket to the ground when disappointed with his/her game". 
In above example, tennis player exhibits which of the following defense mechanism to handle 
frustration? 
(A) Aggression 
(B) Regression 
(C) Projection 
(D) Rationalization 
 
28.) “An outlet which starts as a general retailer grows into a specialized retailer and in course of 
time becomes even a bigger general retailer”. 
Above statement corresponds to which of the following theory of Retail? 
(A) Wheel of Retailing Theory 
(B) Retail Accordian Theory 
(C) Theory of Natural Selling 
(D) Retail Life Cycle Theory 
 
29.) A cold drink bottling plant fills bottles of 500 ml. capacity with mean of 500 ml and a 
standard deviation of 5. At least what percentage of bottles would contain cold drink between 490 
ml and 510 ml? 
(A) 75 per cent 
(B) 95 per cent 
(C) 67 per cent 
(D) 81 per cent  
 
30.) Karl Pearson co-efficient of variation (CV) measures which of the following characteristics? 
(A) Homogeneity 
(B) Unbiasedness 
(C) Consistency 
(D) Efficiency 
 
31.) For a project activity, the optimistic, the pessimistic and the most likely times are 4, 14 and 6 
days respectively. Its average time is: 
(A) 10 days 
(B) 7 days 
(C) 12 days 
(D) 9 days 
 
32.) In decision analysis, the expected value of perfect information is calculated as: 
(A) Expected payoff with perfect information minus Expected payoff without experimentation. 
(B) Expected value of sample information minus expected payoff with perfect information. 
(C) Maximum payoff for each state of nature multiplied by the prior probability of that state of 
nature. 
(D) Expected increase in the payoff minus the cost of the experimentation. 
 
33.) Which one of the following is NOT a non-tariff barrier? 
(A) Quota 
(B) Customs and entry procedures 
(C) Combined rates