UGC NET Past Year Question Paper II: Management with Answer Key (June 2020) | UGC NET Past Year Papers PDF Download

 Page 1


UGC NET Code 17 Management June 2020 
1.) Which of the following oligopoly firms’ architectural framework is often describes as first 
mover advantage model?  
(A) The Cournot Model  
(B) The Stackelberg Model  
(C) The Bertrand Model  
(D) The Kinked demand curve model  
 
2.) Which is not an assumption under pinning the rational decision-making model?  
(A) Incomplete information  
(B) An agreed goal 
(C) A structured problem  
(D) High Level of certainty regarding the environment  
 
3.)  The problem arising from expressions in communication are called. 
(A) Spatial barriers 
(B) Semantic barriers  
(C) Wrong assumptions  
(D) Selected perception  
 
4.) What is paradigm?  
(A) A theoretical Assumption  
(B) An illustration  
(C) An example serving as a model  
(D) A theoretical model  
 
5.) Which of the following comprises people with complementary skills committed to a common 
purpose, common performance goals and an approach to which they hold themselves mutually 
accountable?   
(A) Group  
(B) Team 
(C) Organisation  
(D) Firm 
 
6.)  Demonstration type of training method is used to train __________. 
(A) Supervisor  
(B) Workers  
(C) Manager  
(D) Senior training  
 
7.) One trait that dominates a personality so much that it influences nearly everything a person does 
is a  
(A) Global Trait 
(B) Specific Trait 
(C) Cardinal Trait 
(D) Central Trait  
Page 2


UGC NET Code 17 Management June 2020 
1.) Which of the following oligopoly firms’ architectural framework is often describes as first 
mover advantage model?  
(A) The Cournot Model  
(B) The Stackelberg Model  
(C) The Bertrand Model  
(D) The Kinked demand curve model  
 
2.) Which is not an assumption under pinning the rational decision-making model?  
(A) Incomplete information  
(B) An agreed goal 
(C) A structured problem  
(D) High Level of certainty regarding the environment  
 
3.)  The problem arising from expressions in communication are called. 
(A) Spatial barriers 
(B) Semantic barriers  
(C) Wrong assumptions  
(D) Selected perception  
 
4.) What is paradigm?  
(A) A theoretical Assumption  
(B) An illustration  
(C) An example serving as a model  
(D) A theoretical model  
 
5.) Which of the following comprises people with complementary skills committed to a common 
purpose, common performance goals and an approach to which they hold themselves mutually 
accountable?   
(A) Group  
(B) Team 
(C) Organisation  
(D) Firm 
 
6.)  Demonstration type of training method is used to train __________. 
(A) Supervisor  
(B) Workers  
(C) Manager  
(D) Senior training  
 
7.) One trait that dominates a personality so much that it influences nearly everything a person does 
is a  
(A) Global Trait 
(B) Specific Trait 
(C) Cardinal Trait 
(D) Central Trait  
 
8.) Personality tests are given to measure a prospective employee’s motivation to function in a 
working environment. There are various tests designed to assess a candidate’s personality. Name 
the test which measures the self-sufficiency, neurotic tendency, sociability, introversion and 
extroversion, locus of control and self-confidence.  
(A) The Bernreuter Personality Inventory  
(B) The Thematic Apperception Test 
(C) The Thurstone Temperament Survey  
(D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test 
 
9.) Which of the following is a position from which someone is unlikely to move to a higher level 
of work responsibility?  
(A) Career goals  
(B) Career path  
(C) Career progression  
(D) Career plateau  
 
10.) The balanced scorecard developed by Kaplan and Norton contains four dimensions. Which 
one out of the following is one of the dimensions of the balanced scorecard?  
(A) Competitors analysis  
(B) Customer service  
(C) Human resource 
(D) Production management  
 
11.) Which one of the following means a mandatory settlement of an individual dispute by a labour 
court or a tribunal?  
(A) Collective bargaining  
(B) Arbitration  
(C) Conciliation  
(D) Adjudication  
 
12.) Who among the following has developed the institutional theory of work life Initiative? 
(A) Daft and Weick 
(B) Miliken et al  
(C) Dimaggio and Powell 
(D) Pfeffer and salancik 
 
13.)  As a regulatory norm in India, a listed company in ordinary course is required to report 
quarterly results within how many days of the end of the quarters?  
(A) 45 
(B) 15 
(C) 30 
(D) 90  
 
14.) Which one of the following is excluded from the responsibility of the international Accounting 
Standard Board (IASB)?  
(A) Harmonization and convergence of Accounting standard  
(B) Promulgation and adaption of Generally Accepted Accounting Principle (GAAP) 
Page 3


UGC NET Code 17 Management June 2020 
1.) Which of the following oligopoly firms’ architectural framework is often describes as first 
mover advantage model?  
(A) The Cournot Model  
(B) The Stackelberg Model  
(C) The Bertrand Model  
(D) The Kinked demand curve model  
 
2.) Which is not an assumption under pinning the rational decision-making model?  
(A) Incomplete information  
(B) An agreed goal 
(C) A structured problem  
(D) High Level of certainty regarding the environment  
 
3.)  The problem arising from expressions in communication are called. 
(A) Spatial barriers 
(B) Semantic barriers  
(C) Wrong assumptions  
(D) Selected perception  
 
4.) What is paradigm?  
(A) A theoretical Assumption  
(B) An illustration  
(C) An example serving as a model  
(D) A theoretical model  
 
5.) Which of the following comprises people with complementary skills committed to a common 
purpose, common performance goals and an approach to which they hold themselves mutually 
accountable?   
(A) Group  
(B) Team 
(C) Organisation  
(D) Firm 
 
6.)  Demonstration type of training method is used to train __________. 
(A) Supervisor  
(B) Workers  
(C) Manager  
(D) Senior training  
 
7.) One trait that dominates a personality so much that it influences nearly everything a person does 
is a  
(A) Global Trait 
(B) Specific Trait 
(C) Cardinal Trait 
(D) Central Trait  
 
8.) Personality tests are given to measure a prospective employee’s motivation to function in a 
working environment. There are various tests designed to assess a candidate’s personality. Name 
the test which measures the self-sufficiency, neurotic tendency, sociability, introversion and 
extroversion, locus of control and self-confidence.  
(A) The Bernreuter Personality Inventory  
(B) The Thematic Apperception Test 
(C) The Thurstone Temperament Survey  
(D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test 
 
9.) Which of the following is a position from which someone is unlikely to move to a higher level 
of work responsibility?  
(A) Career goals  
(B) Career path  
(C) Career progression  
(D) Career plateau  
 
10.) The balanced scorecard developed by Kaplan and Norton contains four dimensions. Which 
one out of the following is one of the dimensions of the balanced scorecard?  
(A) Competitors analysis  
(B) Customer service  
(C) Human resource 
(D) Production management  
 
11.) Which one of the following means a mandatory settlement of an individual dispute by a labour 
court or a tribunal?  
(A) Collective bargaining  
(B) Arbitration  
(C) Conciliation  
(D) Adjudication  
 
12.) Who among the following has developed the institutional theory of work life Initiative? 
(A) Daft and Weick 
(B) Miliken et al  
(C) Dimaggio and Powell 
(D) Pfeffer and salancik 
 
13.)  As a regulatory norm in India, a listed company in ordinary course is required to report 
quarterly results within how many days of the end of the quarters?  
(A) 45 
(B) 15 
(C) 30 
(D) 90  
 
14.) Which one of the following is excluded from the responsibility of the international Accounting 
Standard Board (IASB)?  
(A) Harmonization and convergence of Accounting standard  
(B) Promulgation and adaption of Generally Accepted Accounting Principle (GAAP) 
(C) Promulgation of International accounting standard  
(D) Promulgation of gaining acceptance of international financial reporting standard (IFRS)   
 
15.)  A firm’s current assets and current liabilities are Rs 1600 and Rs 1000 respectively. How 
much it can borrow on a short-term basis without reducing the current ratio below 1.25?  
(A) Rs 2000 
(B) Rs 1200 
(C) Rs 1400  
(D) Rs 1080  
 
16.) From the ratio given below find out efficiency ratio of the firm’s operations:  
Budgeted production: 880 units, Actual production 750 units standard hours per unit is 10 hour, 
Actual working hours: 6000 hours 
(A) 125 %  
(B) 80% 
(C) 75 %  
(D) 120 %  
 
17.) Given the interest rate on one-year loan is 14.5 % and inflation is expected to be 6.5% in India. 
What should be the interest rate on one-year maturity loan in Thailand when expected inflation rate 
is 8.5%? 
(A) 18.35%  
(B) 14.65 % 
(C) 16.65 %  
(D) 16.35 % 
 
18.) The linear relationship between the excess return on individual securities and overall market 
at every point in time is known as  
(A)  Capital Market Line (CML) 
(B)  Security Market Line (SML) 
(C)  Security Characteristic Line (SCL)  
(D)  Market Specification Bias (MSB)  
 
19.) What should be the economic order quantity (EOQ) for procurement of 20000 units annually 
at a price of Rs 12 per unit for consumption in production, when the cost per order is Rs 2000 and 
the inventory carrying cost is 25 % percent of Inventory value? 
(A) 6000 units  
(B) 5164 units  
(C) 6145 units 
(D) 5416 units 
 
20.) Which one the following describes the relationship between market value of a firm’s securities 
and replacement cost of its physical assets?  
(A) Tobin’s q- ratio 
(B) Residual analysis  
(C) Retention ratio  
(D) Book to price ratio  
 
Page 4


UGC NET Code 17 Management June 2020 
1.) Which of the following oligopoly firms’ architectural framework is often describes as first 
mover advantage model?  
(A) The Cournot Model  
(B) The Stackelberg Model  
(C) The Bertrand Model  
(D) The Kinked demand curve model  
 
2.) Which is not an assumption under pinning the rational decision-making model?  
(A) Incomplete information  
(B) An agreed goal 
(C) A structured problem  
(D) High Level of certainty regarding the environment  
 
3.)  The problem arising from expressions in communication are called. 
(A) Spatial barriers 
(B) Semantic barriers  
(C) Wrong assumptions  
(D) Selected perception  
 
4.) What is paradigm?  
(A) A theoretical Assumption  
(B) An illustration  
(C) An example serving as a model  
(D) A theoretical model  
 
5.) Which of the following comprises people with complementary skills committed to a common 
purpose, common performance goals and an approach to which they hold themselves mutually 
accountable?   
(A) Group  
(B) Team 
(C) Organisation  
(D) Firm 
 
6.)  Demonstration type of training method is used to train __________. 
(A) Supervisor  
(B) Workers  
(C) Manager  
(D) Senior training  
 
7.) One trait that dominates a personality so much that it influences nearly everything a person does 
is a  
(A) Global Trait 
(B) Specific Trait 
(C) Cardinal Trait 
(D) Central Trait  
 
8.) Personality tests are given to measure a prospective employee’s motivation to function in a 
working environment. There are various tests designed to assess a candidate’s personality. Name 
the test which measures the self-sufficiency, neurotic tendency, sociability, introversion and 
extroversion, locus of control and self-confidence.  
(A) The Bernreuter Personality Inventory  
(B) The Thematic Apperception Test 
(C) The Thurstone Temperament Survey  
(D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test 
 
9.) Which of the following is a position from which someone is unlikely to move to a higher level 
of work responsibility?  
(A) Career goals  
(B) Career path  
(C) Career progression  
(D) Career plateau  
 
10.) The balanced scorecard developed by Kaplan and Norton contains four dimensions. Which 
one out of the following is one of the dimensions of the balanced scorecard?  
(A) Competitors analysis  
(B) Customer service  
(C) Human resource 
(D) Production management  
 
11.) Which one of the following means a mandatory settlement of an individual dispute by a labour 
court or a tribunal?  
(A) Collective bargaining  
(B) Arbitration  
(C) Conciliation  
(D) Adjudication  
 
12.) Who among the following has developed the institutional theory of work life Initiative? 
(A) Daft and Weick 
(B) Miliken et al  
(C) Dimaggio and Powell 
(D) Pfeffer and salancik 
 
13.)  As a regulatory norm in India, a listed company in ordinary course is required to report 
quarterly results within how many days of the end of the quarters?  
(A) 45 
(B) 15 
(C) 30 
(D) 90  
 
14.) Which one of the following is excluded from the responsibility of the international Accounting 
Standard Board (IASB)?  
(A) Harmonization and convergence of Accounting standard  
(B) Promulgation and adaption of Generally Accepted Accounting Principle (GAAP) 
(C) Promulgation of International accounting standard  
(D) Promulgation of gaining acceptance of international financial reporting standard (IFRS)   
 
15.)  A firm’s current assets and current liabilities are Rs 1600 and Rs 1000 respectively. How 
much it can borrow on a short-term basis without reducing the current ratio below 1.25?  
(A) Rs 2000 
(B) Rs 1200 
(C) Rs 1400  
(D) Rs 1080  
 
16.) From the ratio given below find out efficiency ratio of the firm’s operations:  
Budgeted production: 880 units, Actual production 750 units standard hours per unit is 10 hour, 
Actual working hours: 6000 hours 
(A) 125 %  
(B) 80% 
(C) 75 %  
(D) 120 %  
 
17.) Given the interest rate on one-year loan is 14.5 % and inflation is expected to be 6.5% in India. 
What should be the interest rate on one-year maturity loan in Thailand when expected inflation rate 
is 8.5%? 
(A) 18.35%  
(B) 14.65 % 
(C) 16.65 %  
(D) 16.35 % 
 
18.) The linear relationship between the excess return on individual securities and overall market 
at every point in time is known as  
(A)  Capital Market Line (CML) 
(B)  Security Market Line (SML) 
(C)  Security Characteristic Line (SCL)  
(D)  Market Specification Bias (MSB)  
 
19.) What should be the economic order quantity (EOQ) for procurement of 20000 units annually 
at a price of Rs 12 per unit for consumption in production, when the cost per order is Rs 2000 and 
the inventory carrying cost is 25 % percent of Inventory value? 
(A) 6000 units  
(B) 5164 units  
(C) 6145 units 
(D) 5416 units 
 
20.) Which one the following describes the relationship between market value of a firm’s securities 
and replacement cost of its physical assets?  
(A) Tobin’s q- ratio 
(B) Residual analysis  
(C) Retention ratio  
(D) Book to price ratio  
 
21.)  What are the segmentation variables used to segment the market for toothpaste as a product?  
(A) Demographic Segmentation Bases  
(B) Psychological Segmentation Bases  
(C) Behavioural Segmentation Bases  
(D) Geographical Segmentation Bases   
 
22.) The stages of a turnaround process are  
(A) Realignment, Retrenchment and Recovery 
(B) Realignment, Stabilise and Recovery  
(C) Reassess, Stabilise and Survival 
(D) Reassess, Retrenchment and Survival  
 
23.)  In Porter’s Generic Strategies Model, a focus strategy involves  
(A) Selling a limited range of products. 
(B) Selling to a narrow customers segment.  
(C) Selling simple products that are cheap to produce.  
(D) Selling simple products that are cheap to produce.  
 
24.) This system of distribution channel consists of producers, wholesaler and the retailers acting 
as a unified system. One channel member owns their other, has contracts with them or wields so 
much power that they must cooperate. Name this system of channel distribution  
 (A) Convectional Distribution Channel  
(B) Vertical Marketing System (VMS) 
(C) Consumer Distribution System  
(D) National Marketing Distribution System  
 
25.) Complex buying behaviour is characterised by:  
(A) Products are of low risks, but the involvement level is high. 
(B) When the level of involvement is high and the significant difference the brand is low. 
(C) When the level of involvement is low and significant difference among the brand is high. 
(D) When the level of involvement is high and significant difference among the brand is high.  
 
26.) A brand extension strategy refers to 
(A) Extending existing brand names to forms of an existing product strategy.  
(B) Extending an existing brand name to a new or modified product in a new category.  
(C) Coming out with different brands in a given product category. 
(D) All the above  
 
27.)  Coke has started coke parlours- the red lounge - for tech crazy adolescent called “Experience 
Outlets”. What type of differentiation strategy this can be called? 
(A) Differentiating the service utilizing brand image. 
(B) Differentiating through people. 
(C) Differentiating a process. 
(D) Differentiating through physical evidence.  
 
28.) The CRM strategy adopted by Big Bazaar in India is all about  
(A) Frequency marketing Program  
(B) Club Membership Program  
Page 5


UGC NET Code 17 Management June 2020 
1.) Which of the following oligopoly firms’ architectural framework is often describes as first 
mover advantage model?  
(A) The Cournot Model  
(B) The Stackelberg Model  
(C) The Bertrand Model  
(D) The Kinked demand curve model  
 
2.) Which is not an assumption under pinning the rational decision-making model?  
(A) Incomplete information  
(B) An agreed goal 
(C) A structured problem  
(D) High Level of certainty regarding the environment  
 
3.)  The problem arising from expressions in communication are called. 
(A) Spatial barriers 
(B) Semantic barriers  
(C) Wrong assumptions  
(D) Selected perception  
 
4.) What is paradigm?  
(A) A theoretical Assumption  
(B) An illustration  
(C) An example serving as a model  
(D) A theoretical model  
 
5.) Which of the following comprises people with complementary skills committed to a common 
purpose, common performance goals and an approach to which they hold themselves mutually 
accountable?   
(A) Group  
(B) Team 
(C) Organisation  
(D) Firm 
 
6.)  Demonstration type of training method is used to train __________. 
(A) Supervisor  
(B) Workers  
(C) Manager  
(D) Senior training  
 
7.) One trait that dominates a personality so much that it influences nearly everything a person does 
is a  
(A) Global Trait 
(B) Specific Trait 
(C) Cardinal Trait 
(D) Central Trait  
 
8.) Personality tests are given to measure a prospective employee’s motivation to function in a 
working environment. There are various tests designed to assess a candidate’s personality. Name 
the test which measures the self-sufficiency, neurotic tendency, sociability, introversion and 
extroversion, locus of control and self-confidence.  
(A) The Bernreuter Personality Inventory  
(B) The Thematic Apperception Test 
(C) The Thurstone Temperament Survey  
(D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Test 
 
9.) Which of the following is a position from which someone is unlikely to move to a higher level 
of work responsibility?  
(A) Career goals  
(B) Career path  
(C) Career progression  
(D) Career plateau  
 
10.) The balanced scorecard developed by Kaplan and Norton contains four dimensions. Which 
one out of the following is one of the dimensions of the balanced scorecard?  
(A) Competitors analysis  
(B) Customer service  
(C) Human resource 
(D) Production management  
 
11.) Which one of the following means a mandatory settlement of an individual dispute by a labour 
court or a tribunal?  
(A) Collective bargaining  
(B) Arbitration  
(C) Conciliation  
(D) Adjudication  
 
12.) Who among the following has developed the institutional theory of work life Initiative? 
(A) Daft and Weick 
(B) Miliken et al  
(C) Dimaggio and Powell 
(D) Pfeffer and salancik 
 
13.)  As a regulatory norm in India, a listed company in ordinary course is required to report 
quarterly results within how many days of the end of the quarters?  
(A) 45 
(B) 15 
(C) 30 
(D) 90  
 
14.) Which one of the following is excluded from the responsibility of the international Accounting 
Standard Board (IASB)?  
(A) Harmonization and convergence of Accounting standard  
(B) Promulgation and adaption of Generally Accepted Accounting Principle (GAAP) 
(C) Promulgation of International accounting standard  
(D) Promulgation of gaining acceptance of international financial reporting standard (IFRS)   
 
15.)  A firm’s current assets and current liabilities are Rs 1600 and Rs 1000 respectively. How 
much it can borrow on a short-term basis without reducing the current ratio below 1.25?  
(A) Rs 2000 
(B) Rs 1200 
(C) Rs 1400  
(D) Rs 1080  
 
16.) From the ratio given below find out efficiency ratio of the firm’s operations:  
Budgeted production: 880 units, Actual production 750 units standard hours per unit is 10 hour, 
Actual working hours: 6000 hours 
(A) 125 %  
(B) 80% 
(C) 75 %  
(D) 120 %  
 
17.) Given the interest rate on one-year loan is 14.5 % and inflation is expected to be 6.5% in India. 
What should be the interest rate on one-year maturity loan in Thailand when expected inflation rate 
is 8.5%? 
(A) 18.35%  
(B) 14.65 % 
(C) 16.65 %  
(D) 16.35 % 
 
18.) The linear relationship between the excess return on individual securities and overall market 
at every point in time is known as  
(A)  Capital Market Line (CML) 
(B)  Security Market Line (SML) 
(C)  Security Characteristic Line (SCL)  
(D)  Market Specification Bias (MSB)  
 
19.) What should be the economic order quantity (EOQ) for procurement of 20000 units annually 
at a price of Rs 12 per unit for consumption in production, when the cost per order is Rs 2000 and 
the inventory carrying cost is 25 % percent of Inventory value? 
(A) 6000 units  
(B) 5164 units  
(C) 6145 units 
(D) 5416 units 
 
20.) Which one the following describes the relationship between market value of a firm’s securities 
and replacement cost of its physical assets?  
(A) Tobin’s q- ratio 
(B) Residual analysis  
(C) Retention ratio  
(D) Book to price ratio  
 
21.)  What are the segmentation variables used to segment the market for toothpaste as a product?  
(A) Demographic Segmentation Bases  
(B) Psychological Segmentation Bases  
(C) Behavioural Segmentation Bases  
(D) Geographical Segmentation Bases   
 
22.) The stages of a turnaround process are  
(A) Realignment, Retrenchment and Recovery 
(B) Realignment, Stabilise and Recovery  
(C) Reassess, Stabilise and Survival 
(D) Reassess, Retrenchment and Survival  
 
23.)  In Porter’s Generic Strategies Model, a focus strategy involves  
(A) Selling a limited range of products. 
(B) Selling to a narrow customers segment.  
(C) Selling simple products that are cheap to produce.  
(D) Selling simple products that are cheap to produce.  
 
24.) This system of distribution channel consists of producers, wholesaler and the retailers acting 
as a unified system. One channel member owns their other, has contracts with them or wields so 
much power that they must cooperate. Name this system of channel distribution  
 (A) Convectional Distribution Channel  
(B) Vertical Marketing System (VMS) 
(C) Consumer Distribution System  
(D) National Marketing Distribution System  
 
25.) Complex buying behaviour is characterised by:  
(A) Products are of low risks, but the involvement level is high. 
(B) When the level of involvement is high and the significant difference the brand is low. 
(C) When the level of involvement is low and significant difference among the brand is high. 
(D) When the level of involvement is high and significant difference among the brand is high.  
 
26.) A brand extension strategy refers to 
(A) Extending existing brand names to forms of an existing product strategy.  
(B) Extending an existing brand name to a new or modified product in a new category.  
(C) Coming out with different brands in a given product category. 
(D) All the above  
 
27.)  Coke has started coke parlours- the red lounge - for tech crazy adolescent called “Experience 
Outlets”. What type of differentiation strategy this can be called? 
(A) Differentiating the service utilizing brand image. 
(B) Differentiating through people. 
(C) Differentiating a process. 
(D) Differentiating through physical evidence.  
 
28.) The CRM strategy adopted by Big Bazaar in India is all about  
(A) Frequency marketing Program  
(B) Club Membership Program  
(C) Structural relationship Program  
(D) Experiential Relationship Program  
 
29.) Six Sigma levels of Quality Management results in  
(A) 34 defects per one million  
(B) 3.4 Defects per million  
(C) 3.0 defects per million  
(D) 3.2 defects per million  
 
30.) Automobile Assembly or Manufacturing follows which one of the following type of layouts? 
(A) Process layout  
(B) Fixed position Layout  
(C) Production Focussed Layout  
(D) Cellular layout   
 
31.) Which one of the following is not a method of primary data collection?   
(A) Interview  
(B) Questionnaire 
(C) Delphi Technique  
(D) Documents  
 
32.) One use of regression line is  
(A) To determine if any X value are outlets  
(B) To determine if any value are outliers  
(C) To determine if any change in x cases a change in y  
(D) To estimate the change in Y or one-unit change of x 
 
33.) Which one of the following International Trade theories, the ‘Leontief paradox’ pertains to 
(A) Comparative Advantage theory  
(B) Product life cycle theory  
(C) Heckscher-Ohlin Theory  
(D) Absolute advantage theory  
 
34.)  FDI in multi- brand retailing in India is  
(A) Capped to 49 % and had to approach to Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) 
for permission  
(B) Capped to 51 % but not under automatic route in India  
(C) Capped to 51 % but under Automatic route in India  
(D) Capped to 51% but under automatic route with few strings attached  
 
35.) The current Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) announced by Government of India covers the policy 
period  
(A) 1995- 2000 
(B) 2000- 2005  
(C) 1996- 2001  
(D) 2015 – 2020 
 
36.) An information system that captures and records fundamental business events is a (n)