CBSE Past Year Paper - Outside Delhi 2017 (Set 1), Class 12 Economics | Economics Class 12 - Commerce PDF Download

CBSE Class 12 Economics

General Instructions:
All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
Marks for questions are indicated against each question.
Questions No. 1 – 5 and 16 – 20 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 mark each.
They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
Questions No. 6 – 8 and 21 – 23 are short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
Questions No. 9 – 11 and 24 – 26 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks
each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
Questions No. 12 – 15 and 27 – 30 are long-answer questions carrying 6 marks each.
Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limits should be
adhered to as far as possible.

SECTION A

Q1. Any statement about demand for a good is considered complete only when the following is/are mentioned in it (Choose the correct alternative):
(a) Price of the good
(b) Quantity of the good
(c) Period of time
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above.

Q2. Demand for a good is termed inelastic through the expenditure approach when if (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Price of the good falls, expenditure on it rises
(b) Price of the good falls, expenditure on it falls
(c) Price of the good falls, expenditure on it remains unchanged
(d) Price of the good rises, expenditure on it falls
Ans. (b) Price of the good falls, expenditure on it falls.

Q3. Define indifference curve.
Ans. A curve joining all points representing such bundles of two goods among which the consumer is indifferent is called an indifference curve.

Q4. A seller cannot influence the market price under (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a) Perfect competition.

Q5. State any one feature of monopolistic competition.
Ans.
1) Large number of buyers & sellers.
2) Differentiated product.
3) Free entry and exit of firms.

Q6. Give the meaning and characteristics of production possibility frontier.
Ans. It is the locus of points representing such combinations of two goods that can be produced by fuller utilization of given resources.
Characteristics:
1. It slopes downward from left to right.
2. It is concave to the origin.

Q7. Explain the problem of ‘‘how to produce’’.
Ans. It is the problem relating to the choice of technique of production. Which technique should be used in production-whether labour intensive or capital intensive. Labour intensive technique uses more of labour as compared to capital while capital intensive technique uses more of capital as compared to labour.

Q8. Distinguish between ‘increase in demand’ and ‘increase in quantity demanded’ of a good.
OR
Explain the meaning of ‘Budget set’ and ‘Budget line’.
Ans. When demand of a good rises due to a fall in its price, it is called ‘increase in quantity demanded’ and when demand of a good rises at the same price of the good, it is called ‘increase in demand.’
OR
Budget set refers to the set of possible combinations of two goods which the consumer can afford with his income at given prices. From the budget set if only such bundles are taken on which total expenditure equals total income and plotted on a graph, we get a line called the budget line.

Q9. Explain with the help of a numerical example, the meaning of diminishing marginal rate of substitution.
Ans. When a consumer substitutes one good for one unit of another good, the rate at which this substitution takes place is called the (marginal rate of substitution.)
As this substitution goes on, the marginal rate of substitution declines. Example: combination of 

Q10. Define market supply. Explain the factor ‘input prices’ that can cause a change in supply.
OR
Give the behaviour of marginal product and total product as more and more units of only one input are employed while keeping other inputs as constant.
Ans. The sum of output of a commodity by all its producers at a given price during a given period is called market supply. When input price rises (falls), the cost of production increases (decreases).Price of the good remaining the same, it reduces (increases) profits. So the producers produce less(more) and thus market supply decreases (increases).
OR
a) As more and more units of variable factor are employed, total product increases at an increasing rate initially and marginal product increases.
b) After sometime use of more units of variable factor results in increase in total product at diminishing rate and marginal product fall, but is positive.
c) Ultimately total product falls and marginal product becomes negative.

Q11. Explain ‘‘perfect knowledge about the markets’’ feature of perfect competition.
Ans. In a perfectly competitive market buyers and sellers have full knowledge about the market. So no seller can charge a price higher than the price determined by the market and no buyer is willing to pay the price higher than the market price.

Q12. When the price of a good rises from Rs 10 per unit to Rs 12 per unit, its quantity demanded falls by 20 percent. Calculate its price elasticity of demand. How much would be the percentage change in its quantity demanded, if the price rises from Rs 10 per unit to Rs 13 per unit?

Ans.

Percentage change in quantity = 30%
Demand falls by 30%

Q13. Complete the following table:

Ans.

Q14. From the following total cost and total revenue schedule of a firm, find out the level of output, using marginal cost and marginal revenue approach, at which the firm would be in equilibrium. Give reasons for your answer.

Ans.

The conditions for producer’s equilibrium are:
I. MC = MR and
II. Beyond the level of output at which MC = MR, MC must be greater than MR.
Both these conditions are satisfied at 4 units of output. So the producer is in equilibrium,
when he produces 4 units.

Q15. Distinguish between perfect oligopoly and imperfect oligopoly. Also explain the ‘‘interdependence between the firms’’ feature of oligopoly.
OR
Explain the meaning of excess demand and excess supply with the help of a schedule.
Explain their effect on equilibrium price.
Ans. In oligopoly market, if the product is homogeneous then it is called Perfect oligopoly. When the product is hetro geneous then it is called imperfect oligopoly.
Under oligopoly, firms are interdependent. There are only a few firms in such a market. If some firm changes its decision regarding its output or price, it will affect other firms. They react, so the firm while taking decision about price and output keeps in mind the reaction of other firms.
OR
Market demand and market supply schedule

At price of Rs 6 the quantity demanded and supplied are equal, so it is the equilibrium price. When the market price is less than the equilibrium price, quantity demanded will be more than quantity supplied as shown in the schedule. This is the situation of “excess demand”. At a price of Rs 5 there is excess demand. This leads to competition among buyers resulting in price rise. When price rises demand falls and supply rises. These changes continue till demand and supply are equal. Similarly at a price of Rs 7, there is “excess supply”. This will result in competition among sellers. This will reduce price. When price falls demand will rise and supply will fall
ultimately equilibrium is reached when price falls to Rs 6.

SECTION B

Q16. Demand deposits include (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Saving account deposits and fixed deposits
(b) Saving account deposits and current account deposits
(c) Current account deposits and fixed deposits
(d) All types of deposits
Ans. (b) Saving account deposits and current account deposits.

Q17. Define marginal propensity to consume.
Ans. It is the ratio of change in consumption expenditure to change in income.

Q18. If the marginal propensity to consume is greater than marginal propensity to save,
the value of the multiplier will be (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) greater than 2
(b) less than 2
(c) equal to 2
(d) equal to 5
Ans. (a) Greater than 2.

Q19. Define Government budget.
Ans. It is a financial statement showing expected receipts and expected expenditure of the government during a fiscal year.

Q20. What is meant by depreciation of domestic currency?
Ans. When in the foreign exchange market the price of foreign currency rises in terms of domestic currency, it is depreciation of domestic currency.

Q21. Explain with the help of an example, the basis of classifying goods into final goods and intermediate goods.
Ans. Goods are classified as final goods and intermediate goods on the basis of the end use. If goods are purchased for consumption or investment, these would be classified as final goods. For example, machine purchased for use in a factory is a final good. Milk purchased by households is also final good as it is purchased for consumption.
When a good is purchased for resale or for using it up completely in production during the year, it is called intermediate good. For example, raw material purchased for producing goods.

Q22. Explain ‘‘difficulty in storing wealth’’ problem faced in the barter system of exchange.
OR
Explain the ‘‘medium of exchange’’ function of money.
Ans. Under barter system there were difficulties in storing wealth. Wealth is stored to be used in future. All goods cannot be stored. Perishable goods cannot be stored. All goods cannot be transported from one place to another. All goods may not be acceptable as medium of exchange. No single physical good has all these qualities. So in the barter system of exchange there was difficulty in storing wealth.
OR
Money serves as a medium of exchange. Goods can be purchased with money. Goods can also be sold for money. Thus money acts as a medium of exchange.

Q23. Distinguish between direct taxes and indirect taxes. Give an example of each.
Ans. When the burden of tax and its liability to pay falls on the same person, it is a direct tax. When the burden of a tax and the liability to pay is on different persons, it is an indirect tax.
Direct tax - Income tax, etc.
Indirect tax - Sales tax, etc.

Q24. Explain the ‘‘bankers’ bank’’ function of the central bank.
OR
Explain the process of credit creation by commercial banks.
Ans. Commercial Banks keep a part of their deposits with central bank. This is called cash reserve ratio. This ratio is decided by the central bank and can be changed from time to time. In times of need, central bank gives loans to commercial banks.
OR
When a commercial bank receives deposits it keeps a part of it with the Central bank and a part with itself. These are called legal reserves. The money lent comes back to it as deposits. Again it keeps a part of it with the central bank and a part with itself and lends the rest. This process continues. In this way bank gives loans which is many a times the original deposit. The total credit creation will be 

Q25. An economy is in equilibrium. From the following data, calculate the marginal propensity to save:
(a) Income = 10,000
(b) Autonomous consumption = 500
(c) Consumption expenditure = 8,000
Ans. C =  + mpc(Y)
8000 = 500 + mpc(10000)

So mps = 1 – 0.75 = 0.25 or 1/4

Q26. Explain how government budget can be helpful in bringing economic stabilization in the economy.
Ans. Economic stability means stability of prices. Too much fluctuation in prices is not good for the economy. Government uses taxation policy and expenditure policy in controlling the prices. For example in an inflationary situation, government can reduce its expenditure and this would reduce aggregate demand. During deflationary situation, government can reduce taxes and increase its expenditure.

Q27. Distinguish (a) between current account and capital account, and (b) between autonomous transactions and accommodating transactions of balance of
payments account.
Ans. (a) Current account records exports and imports of goods and services and transfer payments whereas capital account records borrowings and lending to and from abroad, investments to and from abroad and changes in foreign exchange reserves.

(b) Transactions made independent of the state of balance of payments are called autonomous transaction whereas transactions made on account of the state of balance of
payments are called accommodating transactions.

Q28. Explain the precautions that should be taken while estimating national income by expenditure method.
OR
Will the following be included in the domestic product of India? Give reasons for your answer.

(a) Profits earned by foreign companies in India
(b) Salaries of Indians working in the Russian Embassy in India
(c) Profits earned by a branch of State Bank of India in Japan
Ans.
Precautions to be taken while estimating N.I. by expenditure method.
I. Expenditure on intermediate goods should not be included otherwise it will result in double counting.
II. Transfer payments such as gifts, old age pension etc, should not be included. These payments are not made for factor services.
III. Expenditure on financial assets like shares etc. should not be included. This does not result in any production. It is only transfer of money.
OR
(a) Yes, as it is a factor income earned within domestic territory of India.
(b) No, because Russian Embassy is not a part of the domestic territory of India. It is factor income from abroad.
(c) No, as profits are not earned within the domestic territory of India.

Ans. N.I = (i) + (ii) + (iii) + (v) + (vi) - (vii)
= 2000 + 400 + 900 + 500 + 7000 – 50
= Rs 10750 Crore.
N.N.D.I = N.I + Net indirect taxes – Net current transfer to rest of the world.
= 10750 + 300 – 30
= Rs 11020 Crore

Q30. Given a consumption curve, outline the steps required to be taken in deriving a saving curve from it. Use diagram.
Ans. 

CC’ is the given consumption curve steps taken in deriving saving curve from it.
Take OS = OC
Draw a 45° Line on OX at O.
It intersects CC’ at point A.
Draw a perpendicular for A at OY meeting OY at B.
Join SB and extend it to S’
SS’ is the required saving curve.