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NEET Previous Year Questions (2016-2025): Reproductive Health

2025

Q1: What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?       (NEET 2025)
A. High fatality risk to mother 
B. Expensive instruments and reagents 
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors 
D. Less adoption of orphans 
E. Not available in India 
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D only
(b) A, B, C, E, F only
(c) B, D, F only
(d) A, C, D, F only
Ans: (c)
IVF (In Vitro Fertilization) is a medical procedure in which an egg is fertilized by sperm outside the body and then implanted into the uterus. It is a widely accepted method for treating infertility in couples who are unable to conceive naturally.

  • Expensive instruments and reagents (Option B): IVF is a costly procedure, requiring specialized equipment, reagents, and trained professionals. The high cost can make it inaccessible to many couples.
  • Less adoption of orphans (Option D): The availability of IVF as a solution to infertility might reduce the willingness of couples to adopt orphaned children, as they prefer biological offspring.
  • Possibility that the early embryo does not survive (Option F): There is a risk that the embryo created during IVF may not survive or fail to implant in the uterus, leading to emotional distress and additional financial costs.

Other options:

  • High fatality risk to mother (Option A): IVF does not pose a high fatality risk to the mother. While there may be mild to moderate side effects, life-threatening risks are rare and are usually associated with pre-existing health conditions.
  • Husband/wife necessary for being donors (Option C): This statement is inaccurate. Donor eggs or sperm can be used in IVF procedures, meaning that a husband or wife is not always required to be the donor.
  • Not available in India (Option E): This is incorrect as IVF is widely available in India, with numerous clinics providing the procedure across the country.

2024

Q1: Which of the following is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?       (NEET 2024)
(a) Coitus interrupts
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Lactational amenorrhea
(d) Vaults

Q2: Match List I with List II     (NEET 2024)
2024

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(a) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(b) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(c) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q3: Which of the following is NOT an example of Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)?       (NEET 2024)
(a) IVF
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) IUD

Q4: Match List-I with List-II relating to examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier :      (NEET 2024)

2024

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
(b) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
(c) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(d) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

Q5: Following is a list of STDs. Select the diseases which are not completely curable.       (NEET 2024)
A. Genital warts
B. Genital herpes
C. Syphilis
D. Hepatitis-B
E. Trichomoniasis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and D only
(b) B and D only
(c) A and C only
(d) D and E only

2023

Q1:  Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.     [NEET 2023]
Assertion A : Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.
Reason R : Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide. 
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

Try yourself: Q2: Match List I with List II.    [NEET 2023]

                                                  2023

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

B

A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

C

A-II, B-III, C-I, D-I

D

A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Q2: Which one of the following common sexually transmitted diseases is completely curable when detected early and treated properly? [NEET 2023]
(a) HIV Infection
(b) Genital herpes
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Hepatitis-B

Q3: Match List I with List II         [NEET 2023]

2023

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV    B-II    C-I    D-III
(b) A-III    B-I    C-IV    D-II
(c) A-III    B-IV    C-II    D-I
(d) A-II    B-III    C-I    D-IV

Q4: Which of the following sexually transmitted infections are completely curable?         [NEET 2023]
(a) HIV infection and Trichomoniasis
(b) Syphilis and Trichomoniasis
(c) Hepatitis-B and Genital herpes
(d) Genital Herpes and Genital warts

Q5:  Match List - I with List - II         [NEET 2023]

2023

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A)-(IV)    (B)-(III)    (C)-(I)    (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(II)    (B)-(IV)    (C)-(III)    (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III)    (B)-(I)    (C)-(IV)    (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(III)    (D)-(IV)    (C)-(II)    (D)-(I)

Q6: Given below are two statements:       [NEET 2023]
I: Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is another specialized procedure of in-vivo fertilization.
II: Infertility cases due to the inability of the male partner to inseminate the female can be corrected by Artificial Insemination (AI).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q7: Which of the following statements are correct?       [NEET 2023]
A. Reproductive health refers to total well-being in all aspects of reproduction
B. Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination in India
C. "Saheli" - an oral contraceptive for females was developed in collaboration with ICMR (New Delhi)
D. Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic disorders and survivability of foetus
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) (B) and (C) only
(b) (D) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B) and (D) only
(d) (A) and (C) only

2022

Q1: Which of the following is not an Intra Uterine Device?
(a) Progestasert
(b) B Progestogens
(c) Multiload 375
(d) Lippes loop  [NEET 2022 Phase 2]

Q2: IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity. Which of the following statements are correct about IUDs ?            [NEET 2022 Phase 2]
a. IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
b. The released copper ions suppress the sperm motility.
c. IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the sperm.
d. IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of sperm.
e. The IUDs require surgical intervention for their insertion in the uterine cavity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A.  a, b and e only
B.  (b) and (c) only
C.  (b) and (d) only
D.  (d) only

Q3: Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as:     [NEET 2022]
(a) Vault barrier 
(b) Non-Medicated IUD 
(c) Copper releasing IUD 
(d) Cervical barrier

Q4: Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.     [NEET 2022]
2022

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 
(A) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) 
(B) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) 
(C) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) 
(D) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)

2021

Q1: Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?     [NEET 2021]
(a) LNG-20
(b) Multiload-375
(c) Lippes loop
(d) Cu-7

Q2: Venereal diseases can spread through:     [NEET 2021]
(i) Using sterile needles
(ii) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(iii) Infected mother to foetus
(iv) Kissing
(v) Inheritance

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (ii) and (iii) only
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q3: Match List-I with List-II     [NEET 2021]
2021Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
        (a)    (b)     (c)       (d)
(a)  (ii)   (iv)    (iii)     (i)
(b) (iii)   (i)      (iv)     (ii)
(c)  (iv)   (ii)     (i)       (iii)
(d)  (i)    (iii)    (ii)      (iv)

2020

Q1: In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?     [NEET 2020]
(a) ICSI and ZIFT
(b) GIFT and ICSI
(c) ZIFT and IUT
(d) GIFT and ZIFT

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

Try yourself: Q2: Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.      [NEET 2020]

A

AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

B

Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

C

Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital Herpes

D

Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

2019

Q1: Which of the following contraceptive methods involve the role of hormones?
(a) Pill, Emergency contraception, Barrier methods
(b) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
(c) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea pills
(d) Cut, Pills, Emergency contraceptive      [NEET 2019]

Q2: Select the horomone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.
(a) Progestasert, LNG-20
(b) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
(c) Vaults, LNG-20
(d) Multiload 375, Progestasert     [NEET 2019]

2018

Q1: The contraceptive 'Saheli':       [NEET 2018]
(a) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

(b) Increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(c) Is an IUD
(d) Is a post-coital contraceptive.

2017

Q1: Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column I) with their causative agents (Column II) and select the correct option.      [NEET 2017]
2017

Q2: The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUDs is: 
(a) They inhibit gametogenesis
(b) They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) They inhibit ovulation
(d) They suppress sperm motility and fertilization capacity of sperm.      [NEET 2017]

2016

Q1: Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD ?
(a) Lippes loop
(b) LNG-20
(c) Cu7
(d) Multiload 375          [NEET 2016 Phase 2]

Q2: Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy? 
(a) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
(b) No sperm occurs in the epididymis
(c) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
(d) Irreversible sterility      [NEET 2016]

Q3: Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in Vitro fertilization is transferred into [NEET 2016]
(a) Uterus
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) Fimbriae
(d) Cervix

Q4: In the context of amniocentesis, which of the following statements is incorrect? 
(a) It can be used for the detection of Down's syndrome.
(b) It can be used for the detection of cleft palate.
(c) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant.
(d) It is used for prenatal sex determination.   [NEET 2016 Phase 1]

Q5: Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?   
(a) Barrier methods prevent fertilization
(b) Intrauterine Increase phagocytosis devices of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(c) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry of contraceptives sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
(d) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis   [NEET 2016 Phase 1]

2015

Q1: A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique is :
(a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(b) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
(c) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
(d) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer [NEET 2015 / AIPMT 2015

Q2: Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted desease?
(a) Trichomoniasis
(b) Syphilis
(c) Encephalitis
(d) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)     [AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper] 

Q3: Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
(a) Ebola virus
(b) Chikungunya virus
(c) Hepatitis B virus
(d) Human immunodeficiency virus    [AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper] 

2014

Q1: Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which:        [NEET 2014 / AIPMT 2014
(a) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.
(b) Ovaries are removed surgically.
(c) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(d) Uterus is removed surgically. [NEET 2014 / AIPMT 2014

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

Try yourself: Q2: Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves the transfer of:      [NEET 2014]

A

Ovum into the fallopian tube.

B

Zygote into the fallopian tube.

C

Zygote into the uterus.

D

Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.

Q3: Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?
(a) Vault
(b) Cervical cap
(c) LNG - 20
(d) Multiload 375

The document NEET Previous Year Questions (2016-2025): Reproductive Health is a part of the NEET Course Biology Class 12.
All you need of NEET at this link: NEET

FAQs on NEET Previous Year Questions (2016-2025): Reproductive Health

1. What are the most common reproductive health questions asked in NEET exams from 2016 to 2025?
Ans. NEET frequently tests contraceptive methods, sexually transmitted infections (STIs), reproductive anatomy, infertility causes, and family planning strategies. Previous year questions emphasise hormonal contraceptives, barrier methods, and IUCD mechanisms. Understanding reproductive disorders like PCOS and male infertility patterns is essential. Students should focus on why certain contraceptive failures occur and how reproductive health policies impact population control in India.
2. How do I differentiate between various contraceptive methods based on their effectiveness rates in NEET questions?
Ans. Contraceptive effectiveness depends on mechanism: barrier methods (condoms, diaphragms) are 80-95% effective; hormonal contraceptives (pills, injections) reach 99% when used correctly; intrauterine devices (IUCDs) provide 99.2% protection; sterilisation methods offer permanent prevention. NEET exams test failure rates, reversibility, and side-effects. Students must compare temporary versus permanent family planning methods and understand why consistency matters in contraceptive reliability.
3. What sexually transmitted infections and reproductive tract infections appear most in NEET previous year papers?
Ans. Common NEET topics include chlamydia, gonorrhoea, syphilis, herpes simplex, and HIV/AIDS as STIs, alongside bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis as reproductive tract infections. Exam questions focus on transmission routes, clinical symptoms, diagnostic methods, and treatment protocols. Understanding how preventive measures like safe practices reduce infection risk is crucial for reproductive health scoring in competitive exams.
4. Why do NEET questions emphasise understanding infertility causes in both males and females separately?
Ans. Male infertility involves low sperm count, poor motility, and structural abnormalities; female infertility relates to ovulation disorders, fallopian tube blockage, and uterine issues like endometriosis. NEET tests distinguish between primary and secondary infertility. Assisted reproductive techniques (ART), including IVF and embryo transfer, are frequently examined. Recognising gender-specific causes helps students score higher on reproductive health problem-solving questions.
5. How should I approach NEET questions about population control policies and reproductive health programmes in India?
Ans. India's reproductive health initiatives include family planning schemes, maternal health programmes, and adolescent reproductive health education. NEET emphasises the role of government policies in reducing fertility rates and improving contraceptive awareness. Students should connect reproductive health awareness with demographic transitions. Refer to flashcards and mind maps on EduRev to visualise how policy implementation affects population dynamics and public health outcomes effectively.
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