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Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 9 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 PDF Download

SOCIAL SCIENCE (CODE 087)
CLASS X – SESSION 2019-20
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
i. The question paper has 35 questions in all.
ii. Marks are indicated against each question.
iii. Questions from serial number 1 to 20 are objective type questions. Each question carries one mark. Answer them as instructed.
iv. Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
v. Questions from serial number 29 to 34 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
vi. Question number 35 is a map question of 6 marks with two parts - 35 a. from History (2 marks) and 35b. from Geography (4 marks).

SECTION – A VERY SHORT ANS. QUESTIONS 

Q.1. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. Choose the correct given below:    (1 Mark)

Column-A Column-B
(i) Kitagawa Utamaro
(a) Ninety Five Theses
(ii) Johann Gutenberg
(b) Adages
(iii) Martin Luther
(c) Ukiyo
(iv) Erasmus
(d) Printing press

Ans: (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b).

Q.2. Which one of the following lists includes subjects such as police, trade, commerce, etc?    (1 Mark)
(a) Union list

(b) Concurrent List
(c) State List
(d) Residuary List
Ans:
(c) State List

Q.3. “Manuscripts were not widely used in India before the age of Print”. Give a reason.    (1 Mark)
Ans:
Manuscripts were expensive, fragile and difficult to handle.

Q.4. How is community government elected in Belgium?    (1 Mark)
Ans: Community government is elected by people belonging to one language community in Belgium irrespective of their place of residence.

Q.5. Which of the following factors play the most important role in the location of an industry in a particular region?    (1 Mark)
(a)    Raw material
(b)    Market
(c)    Least production cost
(d)    Transport
Ans:
(c) Least production cost

Q.6. Who prepared the painting ‘The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics: The Pact Between Nations' in 1848?    (1 Mark)
OR
Who was referred to as Bismarck of Italy?
Ans:
In 1848, Frederic Sorrieu prepared the painting 'The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics : The Pact Between Nations’.
OR
Garibaldi was referred to as Bismarck of Italy.

Q.7. It is a plantation crop and its cultivation is confined to the Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Identify the crop.    (1 Mark)
Ans:
Coffee.

Q.8. Name the Summit held in June 1992 regarding environmental protection.    (1 Mark)
(а) Congress of Vienna
(b) Congress of Paris
(c) Heads of the governments summit Bandung.
(d) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit 1992, Brazil.
Ans: 
(d) Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit 1992, Brazil.

Q.9. _________acts as an umpire its disputes arise between different levels of government.    (1 Mark)
OR
Belgium is an example of __________federation.
Ans:
 The Supreme Court
OR
'holding together'

Q.10. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.    (1 Mark)
Assertion (A) Different persons have different developmental goals.
Reason (R) Our society consists of both rich and poor people. Thus, development for rich persons may not be the development for the poors.
Options
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: 
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q.11. When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local government, it is called________.    (1 Mark)
Ans: 
Decentralisation.

Q.12. There is one redeeming characteristic of Indian federation.    (1 Mark)
(a) Centre is more powerful.
(b) Powers are equally divided between centre and the states.
(c) All the Indian states enjoy autonomy.
(d) States are more powerful than the centre.
Ans:
(a) Centre is more powerful.

Q.13. The activities in primary, secondary and tertiary sectors are _______.    (1 Mark)
Ans: 
Interdependent

Q.14. Complete the following table with correct information with regard to manganese.    (1 Mark)
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 9 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10
Ans:
(A)-Metallic mineral
(B)-Odisha

Q.15.  The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of:    (1 Mark)
(а) employment conditions
(b) the nature of economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) number of workers employed in the enterprise
Ans:
(c) Ownership of enterprises.

Q.16. The basis of Communal Politics is ___________ .    (1 Mark)
Ans: 
religion

Q.17. Find the incorrect option:    (1 Mark)
(a) MNCs set up their factories and offices in more than one country.
(b) MNCS set up their units where they can get cheap labour.
(c) MNCs set up their units where markets are closer
(d) MNCS set up their units where the cost of production is high.
Ans: 
(d) MNCs set up their units where the cost of production is high.

Q.18. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.    (1 Mark)
(i) People take loans from banks.
(ii) People make deposits into banks.
(iii) People get interest on deposits and make withdrawals.
(iv) People repay loans with interest.
Options
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Ans:
(b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Q.19. State one example of trade barriers    (1 Mark)
Ans: 
Tax on imports.

Q.20. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as globalisation.    (1 Mark)
Ans:
False.

SECTION – B SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS 

Q.21. How has the Napoleonic Code exported to the regions under french control? Explain with examples.
OR
Explain any three provisions of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815.    (3 Mark)
Ans: Napoleonic code exported to the regions under French Control:
(i) Simplified administrative divisions.
(ii) Abolished feudal system.
(iii) Freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
(iv) In towns, guild restrictions were removed.
(v) Transport and communication system improved.

Q.22. Which sector is known as 'public sector'? Also give some examples.
OR
Do you agree that agriculture in India takes place in the unorganised sector? Give three points.    (3 Mark)
Ans: 
The public sector refers to the part of the economy concerned with providing various government services. The composition of the public sector varies from country to country. In most countries, the public sector includes services like military, police, public transit and care of public roads, public education, healthcare, etc. The public sector might provide services that a non-tax payer cannot be excluded from (such as street lighting) services. This sector benefits all the people of society rather than just the individual who uses the services.
OR
Yes, Indian agriculture is mostly concentrated in the unorganised sector.
(i) Agriculture in India faces the problem of disguised unemployment which means more number of people are employed than actually needed. So this shows that agriculture is unorganised.
(ii) Farmers are employed during harvesting and sowing season while rest of time they are unemployed. So the problem of underemployment shows that agriculture is unorganised.
(iii) Most of the farmers depend on money lenders, rich farmers and relatives for taking loans instead of banks. Then they have to pay high interest, this means that agriculture in India is unorganised sector.

Q.23. Differentiate between community government in Belgium and majoriiarian government in Sri Lanka.    (3 Mark)
Ans: 

Community government in BelgiumMajoritarian government in Sri Lanka
(i) The government was based on the principle of Federalism.(i) The government was based on the principle of Unitary government.
(ii) The government recognized the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities.(ii) The government did not recognised the existence of regional and cultural diversities.
(iii) By respecting the feeling and interest of different communities country was able to maintain unity of the country.(iii) By not respecting the interest of different communities country lead to civil war.


Q.24. What is the necessity of political parties in democratic politics?    (3 Mark)
Ans:
Political parties perform various functions such as contesting elections, formation of government, act as opposition party. We, therefore, need political parties in a democracy. But still question is raised why modem democracies cannot exist without political parties. The reasons for this are as mentioned below:
(i) In the absence of political parties, every candidate in the elections will be independent. There will be no promises, no party manifestos. People will not be able to know about the future programme/policies of the new government after the elections.
(ii) The government may be formed but there will be no unity among the members of the legislature unless they are members of one political party.
(iii) Elected representatives will be accountable to the voters /people of their constituency for their problems and promises made to them. No one will be held responsible for the foreign and defence policies of the country because these are decisions that are taken by majority or unanimously. The question may also be raised to whom the members will be responsible and why for national policies.
(iv) Modern large scale societies need representative democracy which in turn need some agency to gather different views on various issues and present these to the government. This function is done by political parties. Thus, parties are a necessary condition for democracy as well as modern democracies cannot exist without political parties.

Q.25. Explain the measures taken by Sri Lanka according to an Act passed in 1956.    (3 Mark)
Ans: 
The measures taken by Sri Lanka according to an Act passed in 1956:
(i) Government adopted majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala Suprernacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language thus disregarding Tamil.
(ii) The governments followed preferential politics that favoured Sinhala applicants for university posotions and government jobs.
(iii) A new Constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism.
(iv) Sri Lankan Tamils felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture.
(v) As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained overtime and it soon turned into a Civil War.

Q.26. "Most of the poor households are still dependent on informal sources of credit.” Why? Do you see the ineffectiveness of Indian Banking System in this situation?    (3 Mark)
Ans: 
Banks are not present everywhere in rural India whereas informal sources like moneylenders are easily available. Moneylenders provide loans to the poor people without any collateral. Formal sources like banks give loans only for productive purposes, whereas informal sources provide credit for ail reasons. The methods of running business of formal sources are complicated and poor households cannot meet their conditions. So, most of them are still dependent on informal sources of credit. Yes, this situation shows ineffectiveness of Indian Banking System.

Q.27. “Rural borrowers depend on the informal sector of credit”. Explain.
Or
“Credit has its own unique role for development”. Justify the statement with arguments.    (3 Mark)
Ans:
(i) Banks are not present everywhere in rural India, whereas the informal sources are easily available in all the villages.
(ii) Getting a loan from a bank is much more difficult than taking a loan from the informal resources because bank loans require proper documents and collateral. Most of the poor people don’t possess anything to offer as collateral.
(iii) Moneylenders vendors provide loan to the poor people without any collateral.
OR
(i) If cheap credit is not provided to the farmers they will be forced to arrange the capital at high rate which will increase the cost of production. The high cost of production put the farmers into a debt trap.
(ii) Cheap and affordable credit is also must for manufacturing sector to purchase raw material and other inputs.
(iii) Cheap and affordable credit is required to decrease the dependency on informal sources of credit.

Q.28. “Credit can play a positive role.” Justify the statement.    (3 Mark)
Ans:
A trader obtains credit to meet the working capital needs of production. The credit helps him to meet the ongoing expenses of production, complete production on time and thereby increase his earnings. Thus, he is able to repay the loan that he had borrowed in time. In such a situation credit plays a positive role and the borrower is able to improve his condition.

SECTION – C LONG ANS. QUESTIONS 

Q.29. Explain the impact of the First World War on the British economy.
OR
Mention any five important factors that finally led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and start of globalisation.    (5 Mark)
Ans: Economic conditions of Britain after the first World War:
After the First World War, Britain found difficult to recapture its earlier position. Britain was burdened with huge external debts. The war had led to an economic boom a large increase in demand, production and employment. When the war boom ended, production contracted and unemployment increased. At the same, time the government reduced bloated war expenditures to bring them into line with peace time revenues. These debts led to huge job losses. Many agricultural economists were also in crisis.
OR
The important resons behind the end of Bretton Woods system are:
(i) Decline in economic power of the USA.
(ii) Change in the international financial system.
(iii) Unemployment in industrialised countries.
(iv) Shifting of production  enterprises.
(v) Changes in China.


Q.30. "Dalit participation was limited in the Civil Disobedience Movement." Examine the statement.
OR
When was the Civil Disobedience Movement started? What were the significant effects of it on Indians?    (5 Mark)
Ans:
Dalits or untouchables belong to the lower strata of our society. The Congress Party ignored the Dalits for fear of offending the conservative high caste Hindus, i.e. Sanatanis. Gandhiji first realised that Swaraj would not come for a hundred years if untouchability was not eliminated. But, many Dalit leaders believed in a different political solutions to the problem of their community. They thought that only political empowerment would resolve their problems of social disabilities. So, they began organising themselves, demanding reserve seats in educational institutions and a separate electorate that would choose their Dalit members for Legislative Councils. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar demanded separate electorate for Dalits which was denied by Gandhiji. Dalit Movement continued to be apprehensive of the Congress led National Movement and their participation was limited. Thus, it can be concluded that Dalit participation was limited in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
OR
Under the leadership of Gandhiji, the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in 1930. The Dandi March, signified the start of the Civil Disobedience Movement. It carried forward the unfinished work of the Non-Cooperation Movement, Practically, the whole country involved in it. However, the Civil Disobedience Movement had some significant effects on India’s freedom struggle. These were as follows:
(i) Strengthened the National Movement further.
(ii) Created political consciousness and a deep sense of patriotism in the minds of the people.
(iii) Brought women out of their homes and make them equal partners in the freedom struggle.
(iv) Made people understand the significance of the principles of non-vioience.
(v) Made the British government realise the need for constitutional reform, as a consequence the Government of India Act, 1935 was passed.

Q.31. Give reasons why the iron and steel industry in India is concentrated around the Chhota Nagpur plateau region.    (5 Mark)
Ans:
(i) The Chhota Nagpur plateau is famous for iron ores. The states of Bihar, Bengal and Jharkhand provide the raw materials.
(ii) Coal which is used as a fuel is another important input, and is available in this region in plenty.
(iii) Because of more population in this region, cheap labour is also available.
(iv) The Damodar Valley Corporation provides power to these plants.
(v) The export and import facility is provided by Kolkata port.

Q.32. Describe the importance of a third tier of government in a vast country like India.
OR
Describe any five features of unitary government.    (5 Mark)
Ans:
(a) (i) A vast country like India cannot be run only through central and state governments.
(ii) States in India are as large as independent countries of Europe. In terms of population, Uttar Pradesh is bigger than Russia.
(iii) There is, thus need for power sharing within these states. Local govts, were set up after independence.
(iv) Another tier has been introduced at the local level i.e., Panchayati Raj. Under the Act of 1992 Constitution was amended to make third tier more powerful and effective.
(v) It has proved largest experiment in a democracy conducted anywhere in the world.
(b) Importance - (i) There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities etc. all over the country.
(ii) Constitutional status for local government has helped to strengthen democracy in the country.
(iii) There is now uniformity in local bodies across the country.
(iv) There is a significant number of women in the local bodies.
OR
(i) Generally, there is only one level of government. In case of sub-units, they are subordinate to the national government.
(ii) There is no division of powers. The Central or National government has all the powers.
(iii) The state governments or sub-units are answerable to the Central government.
(iv) All powers are with the Central government. There is no separate jurisdiction for the sub-units. The Central government can grant them powers and take back at any time.
(v) The Central government alone can make constitutional amendment like an ordinary law.

Q.33. Explain any four problem areas in the working of political parties.
OR
Differentiate between national and regional parties.    (5 Mark)
Ans:
(i) Lack of internal democracy: The first challenge is the lack of internal democracy within parties. The concentration of power in one or a few leaders at the top.
(ii) Dynastic succession: Favour people close to them or even their family members. In many parties, the top positions are always controlled by members of one family.
(iii) Money and muscle power: The third challenge is about a growing role of money and muscle power in parties, especially during elections.
(iv) Meaningful choice: The fourth challenge is that very often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
OR
National Parties:
(i) A party that secures at least 6% of total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognized as a national party.
(ii) National parties have influence in more than three states. For example: Congress, BJP, BSP, CPI-M, CPI and NCP.
Regional Parties:
(i) A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognised as a state party or regional party.
(ii) Regional parties have influence in about three states. For example, DMK, Rashtriya Janata Dal, AIADMK.

Q.34. Give some examples about insufficient development of resources in India.    (5 Mark)
Ans:
In India, the resources arc vast but their development is insufficient or they are distributed unevenly. Some examples are as follows:
(i) States like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in coal and minerals, but lack in technological and institutional support.
(ii) Arunachai Pradesh has abundant water resources, but lacks in infrastructure development.
(iii) Rajasthan is well endowed with wind and solar energy, but lacks in water resources.
(iv) Some states like Punjab and Haryana have a poor resource base, but they are economically well developed.
(v) The cold desert of Ladakh lacks natural resources, although it has a rich cultural heritage.

MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION 

Q.35.  (a) Two features (A) and (B) are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked near them.
(A) The place where Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place.    (2 Mark)
(B) The place where the Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.    (4 Mark)
(b) Locate and label, any four of the following with appropriate symbols on the same given outline political map of India:
(i) Salem - Iron and Steel Plant
(ii) Kochi - Major Seaport
(iii) Chennai - Software Technology Park
(iv) Raniganj - Coal Mine
(v) Narora - Nuclear Power Plant
(vi) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose - international Airport
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 9 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10
Ans: (a) & (b)
Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 9 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 

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FAQs on Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper (2019-20) - 9 - CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10

1. What is the format of the CBSE Sample Question Paper for Class 10 Social Science?
Ans. The CBSE Sample Question Paper for Class 10 Social Science follows the same format as the actual exam. It consists of multiple-choice questions, short answer questions, and long answer questions. The paper is divided into sections based on different topics of the subject.
2. How can I access the CBSE Sample Question Paper for Class 10 Social Science (2019-20)?
Ans. The CBSE Sample Question Paper for Class 10 Social Science (2019-20) can be accessed through the official website of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). It is available in the "Examinations" section of the website. Students can download the question paper in PDF format.
3. Are the CBSE Sample Question Papers for Class 10 Social Science helpful for exam preparation?
Ans. Yes, the CBSE Sample Question Papers for Class 10 Social Science are extremely helpful for exam preparation. They provide students with a clear understanding of the exam pattern and the types of questions that can be expected. By practicing these sample papers, students can assess their knowledge and improve their answering skills.
4. Can I rely solely on the CBSE Sample Question Papers for Class 10 Social Science for exam preparation?
Ans. While the CBSE Sample Question Papers for Class 10 Social Science are valuable resources for exam preparation, it is advisable not to rely solely on them. It is important to study the textbook thoroughly, understand the concepts, and practice additional reference materials. This will ensure a comprehensive understanding of the subject and better performance in the exam.
5. Are the CBSE Sample Question Papers for Class 10 Social Science updated every year?
Ans. Yes, the CBSE Sample Question Papers for Class 10 Social Science are updated every year to align with the latest syllabus and exam pattern prescribed by the CBSE. It is important to refer to the most recent sample papers to get an accurate idea of the exam format and practice accordingly.
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