SSC JE Civil Past Year Paper Non Technical - 2018

# SSC JE Civil Past Year Paper Non Technical - 2018 | Civil Engineering SSC JE (Technical) - Civil Engineering (CE) PDF Download

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE AND REASONING

Q.1. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Rains Clouds :: ? : ?
(a) Rice : Food
(b) Grey : Colour
(c) Heat : Sun
(d) Snow : Mountains

Ans. (c)
Solution.
As Cloud gives rain, similarly Sun gives heat

Q.2. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Cactus : Plant :: Rice : ?
(a) Basmati
(b) Crop
(c) White
(d) Rabi

Ans. (b)
Solution.
As Cactus is a plant, similarly Rice is a crop

Q.3. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Pink : Colour :: Eagle : ?
(a) Black
(b) Symbol
(c) Bird
(d) Sky

Ans. (c)
Solution.
As pink is a colour, similarly Eagle is a bird

Q.4. In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.
TOM: NIG :: ? : ?
(a) EAT: YUN
(b) EAT: XXM
(c) FAT : LMV
(d) EAT: ZXC

Ans. (a)
Solution.

Q.5. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
LERI: PJVN:: MONT : ?
(a) WRTY
(b) QTRY
(c) RITY
(d) RQYB

Ans. (b)
Solution.

Q.6. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
SAT : WEX:: MET : ?
(a) AQI
(b) IYX
(c) FHY
(d) QIX

Ans. (d)
Solution.

Q.7. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
43 : 7 : : 2 3 : ?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 5

Ans. (d)
Solution.

43 : 7 : : 23 : ?
43 → 4 + 3 = 7
Similarly,
23 ⇒ 2 + 3 = 5.

Q.8. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
38 : 53 : : 53 : ?
(a) 72
(b) 68
(c) 79
(d) 87
Ans.
(b)
Solution.

38 : 53 : : 53 : ?
38 + 15 = 53
similarly 53 + 15 = ?
∴ ? = 68

Q.9. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
9 : 81 : : 11:?
(a) 78
(b) 93
(c) 121
(d) 146

Ans. (c)
Solution.
9 : 8 1 : : 11 : ?
(9)2 = 81
similarly
(11)2 = 121

Q.10. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Goggle
(b) Purse
(c) Accessories
(d) Belt

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Among the given options Google, purse and belt are in singular form but Accessories are in plural form

Q.11. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Grapes
(b) Guava
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Orange

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Among the given options, Grapes, Guava and Orange are fruits while Cauliflower is vegetable.

Q.12. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Sparrow
(b) Rat
(c) Ostrich
(d) Parrot

Ans. (b)
Solution.
Among the given options, sparrow, Ostrich and parrot are bird but Rat is a rodent.

Q.13. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) GCXTO
(b) KGBXS
(c) RNIEX
(d) QMHDY

Ans. (c)
Solution.

Q.14. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) SOKG
(b) AWSO
(c) RNJF
(d) CYTP

Ans. (d)
Solution.

Q.15. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) KNQ
(b) DGJ
(c) WZB
(d) TWZ

Ans. (c)
Solution.

Q.16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
(a) 7 - 11
(b) 12 - 16
(c) 14 - 18
(d) 9 - 15

Ans. (d)
Solution.
7 - 11 ⇒ 7 + 4 = 11
similarly 12 - 16 ⇒ 12 + 4 = 16
similarly 14 - 18 ⇒ 14 + 4 = 18
while 9 - 15 ⇒ 9 + 4 = 13 ≠ 15

Q.17. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
(a) 2 - 4
(b) 3 - 9
(c) 4 - 18
(d) 5 - 25

Ans. (c)
Solution.
2 - 4 ⇒ (2)2 = 4
3 - 9 ⇒ (3)2 = 9
4 - 18 ⇒ (4)2 = 16 ≠ 18
5 → 25 ⇒ (5)2 = 25

Q.18. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
(a) 76 - 42
(b) 92 - 20
(c) 73 - 21
(d) 93 - 27

Ans. (b)
Solution.
76 - 42 ⇒ 7 x 6 = 42
92 - 20 ⇒ 9 x 2 = 18 ≠ 20
73 - 21 ⇒ 7 x 3 = 21
93 - 27 ⇒ 9 x 3 = 27

Q.19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. Flagrant
2. Flavour
3. Flatter
4. Flick
5. Flawed
(a) 13254
(b) 31254
(c) 23541
(d) 32541

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Arranging the given words as per dictionary order we get the following sequence. Flagrant, Flatter, Flavour, Flawed, Flick

Q.20. According to dictionary, which of the following word will come at THIRD position?
1. Heritage
3. Hectic
4. Heroic
5. Heroism
(a) Hectic
(b) Heritage
(c) Heroic

Ans. (b)
Solution.
Arranging the given words as per dictionary order we get the following sequence.
Hence ‘Heritage’ word is at the third position.

Q.21. From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at LAST position?
(a) Juvenile
(b) Justify
(c) Judge
(d) Justice

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Arranging the given word as per dictionary order we get the following sequence.
Judge, Justice, Justify, Juvenile
Hence ‘Juvenile’ words comes at last position

Q.22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
F, M, T, ?, H, O
(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) D

Ans. (c)
Solution.

Q.23. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
ROK, LIE, FCY, ZWS, ?
(a) LAQ
(b) SRV
(c) TQM
(d) FMQ

Ans. (c)
Solution.

Q.24. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
FAQ, LGW, RMC, ?, DYO
(a) VIR
(b) XSI
(c) LSI
(d) MIS

Ans. (b)
Solution.

Q.25. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
14, 22, 49, 113, 238, ?
(a) 386
(b) 532
(c) 454
(d) 576

Ans. (c)
Solution.
14, 22, 49,113, 238, ____
14 + 23 = 22
22 + 33 = 49
49 + 43 = 113
113 + 53 = 238
238 + 63 = 454

Q.26. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
42, 21, 21, 31.5, 63, ?
(a) 169.75
(b) 157.5
(c) 152.5
(d) 126.75

Ans. (b)
Solution.

Q.27. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
14, 44, 135, 409, 1232, ?
(a) 2962
(b) 3340
(c) 3702
(d) 3406

Ans. (c)
Solution.

Q.28. E is sitting between D and A, B is to the right of A, C is at one of the ends and C and D are sitting next to each other. Who is sitting third?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) B
(d) E

Ans. (d)
Solution.
According to given information, we get the following sitting arrangement
C D E A B
‘E’ is sitting at third position

Q.29. Showing a photograph of a married couple B said that the gentleman in it was his father’s father and A said that the lady in it was her mother. How is A related to B?
(а) A is B’s mother’s sister
(b) A is B’s sister
(c) A is B’s Father’s sister
(d) A is B’s mother

Ans. (c)
Solution.
According to given relation, A is B’s father’s sister.

Q.30. From the given alternative words select the word ' which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
MERCANTILE
(a) Truce
(b) Learn
(c) Trace
(d) Claim

Ans. (a)
Solution.
From the given word ‘MERCANTILE’, ‘TRUCE’ word can’t be form as letter ‘U’ of‘TRUCE’ is not present in word ‘MERCANTILE’.

Q.31. If OLYMPUS is coded as MJWKNSQ, then how will TEN be coded as?
(a) RCL
(b) GVM
(c) SDM
(d) UFO

Ans. (a)
Solution.

Q.32. In a certain code language, 1875 means ‘wound the round watch’, 6143 means ‘a cake is round’ and 7321 means ‘watch a round wheel’. Find the code for ‘watch’.
(a) 1
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 7

Ans. (d)
Solution.

 Code Statement 1875 wound the round watch ...(1) 6143 a cake is round ..(2) 7321 watch a round wheel ...(3)

From (1), (2) and (3)
Code for watch is ‘7’.

Q.33. In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘-’, ‘-’ represents ‘ represents  represents ‘+’ . Find out the answer to the follow ing question.

(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 50
(d) 8

Ans. (b)
Solution.

Q.34. If 17 \$ 22 = 4 and 56 \$ 13 = 7, then find the value of 71 \$ 25 = ?
(a) 56
(b) 96
(c) 1
(d) 8

Ans. (c)
Solution.
17 \$ 22 = 4
⇒ (1 + 7) - (2 + 2) = 4
similarly 56 \$ 13 = 7
⇒ (5 + 6) - (1 + 3) = 7
similarly 71 \$ 26 = (7 + 1) - (2 + 5) = 1

Q.35. If A \$ B means A is son of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A * B means A is father of B, then what does X # Y * Z \$ W mean?
(a) W is X’s brother’s wife
(b) W is X’s wife
(c) W is X’s mother
(d) W is X’s sister

Ans. (a)
Solution.
\$ → son
# → brother.
* → father
X # Y * Z \$ W

∴ W is X’s brother’s wife

Q.36. Select the missing number from the given responses

 1 4 2 2 7 10 3 ? 12

(a) 3
(b) 9
(c) -3
(d) 11

Ans. (d)
Solution.
1 + 2 = 3
2 + 10 = 12
∴ 4 + 7 = ?
∴ ? = 11

Q.37. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?
OOXXXXX, OXOXXXX, OXXOXXX, OXXXOXX, OXXXXOX, _______ .
(a) XOXXXXO
(b) XOXXXOX
(c) OXXXOXX
(d) OXXXXXO

Ans. (d)
Solution.
At each step ‘O’ is shifting one position towards right

Q.38. A scientist is studying the behaviour of an ant. The ant picks food and walks 5 cm North, then it turns to its right and walks for another 11 cm. then it turns right and walks 3 cm, then it turns West and walks 15 cm, then finally it turns to its left and walks 2 cm. Where is the ant now with respect to its starting point?
(a) 4 cm East
(b) 26 cm West
(c) 4 cm West
(d) 26 cm East

Ans. (c)
Solution.

Ant is 4 cm west from the starting position

Q.39. Two football players start running from the same point on the ground. Player A runs 10 km East, then turns to his left and runs 13 km. In the meanwhile Player B runs 6 km South, then he runs 3 km East, the then turns to his left and runs 19 km. Where is Player A with respect to Player B?
(a) 7 km West
(b) 7 km East
(c) 13 km East
(d) 13 km West

Ans. (b)
Solution.

Q.40. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I: Some chapters are physics
Statement II: All science is physics
Conclusion I: All science is chapters
Conclusion II: Some physics is science
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Ans. (b)
Solution.

Conclusion: All science is chapters
Some physics is science

Q.41. In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I: All success is victory
Statement II: All luck is success
Statement III: Some hard work is luck
Conclusion I: Some success is hard work
Conclusion II: Some hard work is victory
Conclusion III: No victory is luck
(а) Only conclusions I and II follow
(b) Only conclusions II and III follow
(c) Only conclusions I and III follow
(d) All conclusions I, II and III follow

Ans. (a)
Solution.

Conclusion: Some success is hard work
Some hard work is victory
No victory is luck

Q.42. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?

Ans. (a)

Q.43. Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?

Ans. (b)

Q.44. In the following figure, square represents Professors, triangle represents Social Workers, circle represents Dieticians and rectangle represents Men. Which set of letters represents Dieticians who are not men?
(a) EFGI
(b) BDKHJ
(c) IGAC
(d) DEJI

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Professors = {I, G, H, J}
Social workers = {G, H, K, F, A}
Dieticians = {I, G, A, F, C, E}
Men = {A, C, B, D}
Dieticians who are not men
Dieticians - Men = {I, G, A, F, C, E} - {A, C, B, D} = {I, G, F, E}

Q.45. Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Butterflies, Animals and Insects?

Ans. (a)
Solution.

Q.46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Ans. (c)

Q.47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which, the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Ans. (c)

Q.48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

Ans. (c)

Q.49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

Ans. (d)

Q.50. A word it; represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternative s are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to and that of Matrix-H are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example 'C can be represented by 43, 41 etc and 'O' can be represented by 97, 98 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set of the word 'SPAN'

(a) 66, 87, 33, 56
(b) 59, 78, 42, 31
(c) 86, 89, 32, 55
(d) 78, 43, 22, 98

Ans. (c)
Solution.

∴ option (c) is correct

GENERAL AWARENESS

Q.51. Preliminary expenses are the examples of
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Capital gain
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Deferred revenue expenditure

Ans. (a)
Solution.
The expenses incurred when a company is formed and before the start of any business operations are termed as preliminary expenses. Capital expenditure is an example of Preliminary expenses.

Q.52. Which economic activity cannot be included in the tertiary sector?
(а) Working in a call-centre
(b) Tuition occupation
(c) Bee-keeping
(d) Banking

Ans. (c)
Solution.
The service sector of the economy is called tertiary sector. Services of various kinds like education, health, banking, insurance, trade and transport are included in this sector. while Bee keeping is not the tertiary sector.

Q.53. Which of the following statement is true for the Public Sector Unit?
(a) Most of assets is owned by a group of people
(b) Most of assets is owned by big companies
(c) Most of assets is owned by government
(d) Most of assets is owned by an individual

Ans. (c)
Solution.
In public sector unit, most of the assets is owned by Government

Q.54. The percentage of India’s population in the total population of the world as per 2011 census is;
(a) 17.5%
(b) 18.01%
(c) 19.35%
(d) 20.25%

Ans. (a)
Solution.
The population of India as per 2011 census was 1,210,193,422. India added 181.5 million to its population since 2001, slightly lower than the population of Brazil. India, with 2.4% of the world's surface area, accounts for 17.5% of its population.

Q.55. Which of the following five year plan of India recognized human development as the core of development efforts?
(a) Eighth five year plan
(b) Ninth five year plan
(c) Tenth five year plan
(d) Eleventh five year plan

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Eighth five year plan of India recognized human development as the core of development efforts

Q.56. Which of the following thinker is associated with “the concept of political sovereignty”?
(a) Maclver
(b) Socrates
(c) Rousseau
(d) Plato

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Rousseau is associated with "the concept of political sovereignty"

Q.57. Who said, “A good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state”?
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) G. B. Shaw
(d) Rousseau

Ans. (b)
Solution.
"A good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state" is said by Aristotle.

Q.58. Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is a/an
(b) Coordinating Authority only
(c) Supervisory Authority only

Ans. (d)
Solution.
The Panchayti system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Mandal Parishad or Block Samiti or Panchayat Samiti(block level), and Zila Parishad (district level). Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is an Administrative Authority

Q.59. According to Indian Constitution, who decides the salary of members of Parliament?
(a) Union Council of Ministers
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President of India

Ans. (b)
Solution.
The Government has asserted “it is the sacrosanct right of Parliament” to decide on the perks and salaries of its members.

Q.60. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Eighth Schedule: Languages
(b) Second Schedule: Form of Oath of office
(c) Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
(d) Tenth Schedule: Defection related provisions

Ans. (b)
Solution.
8th schedule of the Indian constitution includes the list of recognised languages.

Q.61. When did the Chinese traveler ‘Sung Yun’ come to India?

Ans. (b)

Q.62. Which among the following state ‘Odantpuri’ education center was situated?
(a) Bengal
(b) Gujarat
(c) Bihar

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Odantapuri was a Buddhist Mahavihara which is now in Bihar, India. It was established by the Pala Emperor Gopala I in the 8th century. It is considered the second oldest of India's Mahaviharas after Nalanda University and was situated in Magadha.

Q.63. Who was the founder of Bahmani Kingdom?
(a) Hasan Gangu
(b) Firoz Shah
(c) Mahmud Gawan
(d) Asaf Khan

Ans. (a)
Solution.
The founder of the Bahmani kingdom was Alauddin Bahman Shah also known as Hasan Gangu in 1347.

Q.64. During whose rule in India did the Khilafat movement begin?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(6) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Chelmsford
(d) Lord Curzon

Ans. (c)
Solution.
The Khilafat Movement (1919-20) was essentially a movement to express Muslim support for the Caliph of Turkey against the allied powers particularly. During the rule of Lord Chelmsford in India the Khilafat movement begin.

Q.65. Who among the following was the founder of the Arya Mahila Samaj in the early 1880s?
(а) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(d) Pandita Ramabai

Ans. (d)
Solution.
In 1882 Pandita Ramabai established the Arya Mahila Samaj in Pune for women's education.

Q.66. Dasht-e Kavir Desert is located in which country?
(a) Iran
(b) Saudi Arab
(c) Iraq
(d) Sudan

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Kavir Desert, great salt desert of north-central Iran. Located in a basin southeast of the Elburz Mountains.

Q.67. Which of the following layers is called “Barysphere”?
(а) Earth’s most internal layer
(b) Earth’s intermediate layer
(c) Earth’s topmost layer
(d) Lowest part of the atmosphere where climate changes occur

Ans. (a)
Solution.
The inner most layer of the earth is called the “Core or Barysphere”

Q.68. The Blue Nile river originates from which of the following lakes?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Tana
(c) Lake Edward
(d) Lake Albert

Ans. (b)
Solution.
The Blue Nile is a river originating in natural springs above Lake Tana in Ethiopia. The river has played a significant role in human history by supplying the majority of the water for the Nile River, providing the means for the land through which it flowed to be agriculturally productive

Q.69. Which of the following states of India has the largest percentage of geographical area under forest as per the report of the Forest survey of India?
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland

Ans. (c)
Solution.
In terms of percentage of the total geographical area, Top states: Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar Island, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur.

Q.70. At which of the following towns the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi combines to form River Ganga?
(a) Haridwar
(6) Rishikesh
(c) Rudraprayag
(d) Devprayag

Ans. (d)

Solution.
Starting point of river Ganga after confluence of river Bhagirathi & AIaknanda at Devprayag After this join of two rivers the combined river is officially known as the river Ganga.

Q.71. ‘Nirvana Fund’ was set up by NSDC for financial help to
(a) Entrepreneurs from the bottom rungs of society
(b) Displaced Kashmiri Pandits
(c) Old age people having no means of livelihood
(d) Ventures of selected candidates trained under PMKVY but did not get any job.

Ans. (d)
Solution.
'Nirvana Fund' was set up by NSDC for financial help to Ventures of selected candidates trained under PMKVY who did not get any job.

Q.72. Nakul Swasthya Patra’ is a scheme by the Government for which among the following purposes?
(a) Wellness of animals
(b) Wellness of animal owners
(c) Taking care of lactating mother in the rural areas
(d) Taking care of newborn babies in the rural areas

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Government has announced four schemes for the maintaining the health of animals and livestock. These are “Pashudhan Sanjivani”, an animal wellness programme and provision of Animal Health Cards (‘Nakul Swasthya Patra’). Under this scheme, 8.5 crore animals in milk will be identified using UID and their data will be uploaded to the INAPH data base. Second is an advanced breeding technology. The third is Creation of E-Pashudhan Haat, an e market portal for connecting breeders and farmers and fourth is a National Genomic Centre for indigenous breeds.

Q.73. Which mine of India was in the news recently for becoming the country’s first iron-ore mine to have a solar plant for reducing carbon footprint?
(a) Talchar mine
(b) Koraput mine
(c) Noamundi mine
(d) Ratnagiri mine

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Tata steel commissions solar power plant at Noamundi iron ore mines

Q.74. Where will the Summer Olympics be held in 2028?
(a) Sydney
(b) Paris
(c) Los Angeles
(d) Copenhagen

Ans. (c)
Solution.
The 2028 Summer Olympics, is a forthcoming international multi-sport event that is scheduled to take place from July 21 to August 6, 2028, in Los Angeles, California, United States.

Q.75. Which country has won the 2017 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament?
(a) Switzerland
(b) Serbia
(c) France
(d) Belarus

Ans. (c)
Solution.
The 2017 Davis Cup a tournament between national teams in men's tennis was won by France with Lucas Pouille defeating Steve Darcis of Belgium.

Q.76. “You are Unique” is written by
(a) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Taslima Nasrin

Ans. (a)
Solution.
“You are Unique” is written by Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam.

Q.77. The third Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) Distinguished Indologist Award for the year 2017 was awarded to Japanese professor.
(a) Hiroshi Marui
(b) Shimamaru Marui
(c) Nagasaki Marui
(d) Toyota Marui

Ans. (a)
Solution.
The third Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) Distinguished Indologist Award for the year 2017 was awarded to Professor Hiroshi Marui of Japan. He was presented with this award by President Ram Nath Kovind at a function in Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi.

Q.78. Which of the following city has became first Indian city to get UNESCO’s world heritage city tag?
(a) Jaipur
(c) Gandhi Nagar

Ans. (b)
Solution.
The 600-year-old Walled City of Ahmedabad was declared World Heritage City by the World Heritage Committee (WHC) of UNESCO after it met in Karlow, Poland. It is first Indian city getting the honour.

Q.79. In June 2017, which of the following countries have signed a protocol of co-operation in the field of archive?
(a) India and Israel
(b) India and Portugal
(c) India and Netherland
(d) India and Iran

Ans. (b)
Solution.
India and Portugal have signed 11 pacts after in- depth talks between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Portuguese counterpart Antonio Costa in areas like counter-terrorism, space and climate studies.

Q.80. India has signed an agreement to provide USD 318 million as line of credit for developing railway sector of which of the following country?
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Sri Lanka

Ans. (d)
Solution.
India has signed an agreement with Sri Lanka to provide USD 318 million as line of credit for developing Sri Lanka’s railway sector, The agreement was signed between Sri Lanka’s Ministry of Finance and Mass media, and Managing Director of India’s Export Import Bank in Colombo.

Q.81. Dot Matrix is a type of
(a) Tape
(b) Disk
(c) Printer
(d) Bus

Ans. (c)
Solution.
A dot matrix printer (DMP) is a type of printer which uses pins impacting an ink ribbon to print. These printers are generally considered outdated, as they cannot create high-quality prints and are costly as well.

Q.82. The secondary storage devices can only store data but they cannot perform.
(а) Arithmetic operations
(b) Logic operations
(c) Fetch operations
(d) All options are correct

Ans. (d)
Solution.
The secondary storage devices can only store data but they cannot perform Arithmetic operations, Logic operations, or fetch operations.

Q.83. In the modern periodic table metals, metalloids and non metals are found in which block?
(a) s-Block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block

Ans. (b)
Solution.
The p-block is on the right side of the periodic table and includes elements from the six columns beginning with column 13 and ending with column 18. This block contains a variety of elements and is the only block that contains all three types of elements: metals, nonmetals, and metalloids.

Q.84. Cinnabar is ore of which of the following ?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Aluminium
(c) Mercury
(d) Iron

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Cinnabar is a toxic mercury sulfide mineral with a chemical composition of HgS. It is the only important ore of mercury.

Q.85. In which of the following mirror size of image formed is always equal to the size of object?
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) Both convex and concave mirror

Ans. (c)
Solution.
A plane mirror always produces an image which is of the same size as the object.

Q.86. Mass of a hydrogen atom is how many time the mass of an electron?
(a) 1000
(b) 8000
(c) 1837
(d) 5000

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Mass of a hydrogen atom is 1837 time the mass of an electron.

Q.87. Which of the following are Fabrics that may contain polyester?
I. Polycot
II. Polywool
III. Terrycot
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only II and III
(d) All I, II and III

Ans. (d)
Solution.
In Polycot, Polywool, Terrycot, contains polyster.

Q.88. Which of the following term does NOT represent electrical power in circuit?
(a) I2R
(b) ER2
(c) VI
(d) V2/R

Ans. (b)

Q.89. A positively charged particle projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. What is the direction of magnetic field ?
(a) Toward south
(b) Toward east
(c) Downward
(d) Upward

Ans. (d)
Solution.
A positively charged particle projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is upward. Hence, according to Fleming's left hand rule, the direction of magnetic field will be upwards.

Q.90. Which of the following is NOT positively charged?
(a) Alpha particle
(b) Proton
(c) Helium nucleus
(d) Electron

Ans. (d)
Solution.
Electron is negatively charged.

Q.91. Which is a water soluble Vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K

Ans. (b)
Solution.
Among the given options, Vitamin C is water soluble vitamin.

Q.92. Match the items given in column (A) with those in column (B).

 Column - A Column -B I. Frog 1. Skin II. Leaves 2. Stomata III. Earthworm 3. Lungs and skin

(a) I-3, II-2, III-1
(b) I-1, II-2,III-3
(c) I-3, II-1, III-2
(d) I-2, II-1,III-3

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Frog has skin and lungs, Leaves has stomata for exchange of Gases while Earthworm has skin.

Q.93. How many number of chambers are there in human heart?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

Ans. (c)
Solution.
In humans, other mammals, and birds, the heart is divided into four chambers: upper left and right atria and lower left and right ventricles. Commonly the right atrium and ventricle are referred together as the right heart and their left counterparts as the left heart.

Q.94. Which of the following is NOT present in a matured stomata?
(a) Plasmodesma
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Cell wall
(d) Vacuole

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Plasmodesma is not present in a matured stomata

Q.95. What is/are the cause(s) of arise hyper metropia ?
(а) Excessive curvature of the eye lens.
(b) Elongation of the eye ball.
(c) Focal length of the eye lens is too long.
(d) No option is correct.

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Hypermetropia is a defect of vision that causes the impossibility for rays of light to be focused on the retina, but behind it. The main cause for this defect is the insufficiente eye length. i.e. Focal length of the eye lens is too long.

Q.96. Antibiotics are useful for which type of infections?
(a) Only bacteria
(b) Only virus
(c) Both bacteria and virus
(d) Neither bacteria nor virus

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Antibiotics are used to treat or prevent bacterial infections.

Q.97. Which one of the following is NOT responsible for water shortage?
(a) Rapid growth of industries
(b) Increasing population
(c) Forestation
(d) Mismanagement of water resources

Ans. (c)
Solution.
Among the given option, Forestation is correct answer.

Q.98. Which gas is major contributor to greenhouse effect?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Chlorofluorocarbon
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Nitrogen dioxide

Ans. (a)
Solution.
Carbon dioxide gas is major contributor to green house effect.

Q.99. Which of the following is NOT a major problem in development of resources?
(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.
(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands.
(c) An equitable distribution of resources.
(d) In discriminate exploitation of resources.

Ans. (c)
Solution.
An equitable distribution of resources is not a major problem in development of resources

Q.100. Which of the following is NOT man made ecosystem?
(a) Orchards
(b) Home aquarium
(c) Botanical gardens
(d) Grassland

Ans. (d)
Solution.
Among the given options, Grassland is not man made ecosystem.

The document SSC JE Civil Past Year Paper Non Technical - 2018 | Civil Engineering SSC JE (Technical) - Civil Engineering (CE) is a part of the Civil Engineering (CE) Course Civil Engineering SSC JE (Technical).
All you need of Civil Engineering (CE) at this link: Civil Engineering (CE)

## Civil Engineering SSC JE (Technical)

2 videos|122 docs|55 tests

## FAQs on SSC JE Civil Past Year Paper Non Technical - 2018 - Civil Engineering SSC JE (Technical) - Civil Engineering (CE)

 1. What is the SSC JE Civil exam and what does it consist of?
Ans. The SSC JE Civil exam is conducted by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC) to recruit Junior Engineers (Civil) in various government departments and organizations. The exam consists of two papers - Paper 1 and Paper 2. Paper 1 is a computer-based objective type exam while Paper 2 is a descriptive type exam.
 2. How can I apply for the SSC JE Civil exam?
Ans. To apply for the SSC JE Civil exam, you need to visit the official website of the Staff Selection Commission (SSC) and fill out the online application form. Make sure to provide all the required details, upload the necessary documents, and pay the application fee before the deadline.
 3. What is the eligibility criteria for the SSC JE Civil exam?
Ans. The eligibility criteria for the SSC JE Civil exam are as follows: - Educational Qualification: Candidates must have a Degree/Diploma in Civil Engineering from a recognized university or institute. - Age Limit: Candidates must be between 18 to 32 years of age. Age relaxation is applicable for reserved category candidates as per government rules.
 4. How should I prepare for the SSC JE Civil exam?
Ans. To prepare for the SSC JE Civil exam, you can follow these tips: - Understand the exam pattern and syllabus thoroughly. - Create a study schedule and allocate time for each subject. - Refer to standard textbooks and study materials for concept clarity. - Solve previous year question papers and take mock tests for practice. - Stay updated with current affairs related to the field of civil engineering.
 5. What are the job prospects after qualifying the SSC JE Civil exam?
Ans. After qualifying the SSC JE Civil exam, candidates are appointed as Junior Engineers (Civil) in various government departments and organizations. They are responsible for tasks such as designing, planning, and executing civil engineering projects. The job offers stability, growth opportunities, and attractive salary packages. Additionally, it provides a chance to work on prestigious government projects.

## Civil Engineering SSC JE (Technical)

2 videos|122 docs|55 tests

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