SSC JE Civil Past Year Paper Technical - 2016

Q.101. Mean sea level (MSL) adopted by Survey of' India for reference, is located at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Karachi
(d) Delhi
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Historically, the datum used by the Survey of India was originally tied to observations at Karachi when the datum was fixed during the pre-partition period. After independence, mean sea level observations at Mumbai have been used as the practical reference for many Indian projects. Mean sea level is the long-term average sea level used as a vertical datum for heights and is commonly adopted as a reference for buildings, railways and topographic surveys.

Q.102. Black cotton soil is not suitable for foundation because of its
(а) Low bearing capacity
(b) Cohesive particles
(c) Swelling and shrinkage
(d) Black colour
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Black cotton soil (expansive clay) has a high clay content and a high plasticity index; it exhibits pronounced swelling when wetted and shrinkage when dried. This volumetric change causes large ground movements and is the principal reason it is unsuitable for foundations unless special precautions are taken.

Q.103. Optimum moisture content is obtained from
(a) Triaxial test
(b) Standard proctor test
(c) Consolidation test
(d) Hydrometer test
Ans. (c)
Sol.
The optimum moisture content (OMC) for compaction is obtained from the Standard Proctor test, which determines the moisture content giving the maximum dry density for a specified compactive effort. (Note: the answer marker shows (c) though the Standard Proctor test corresponds to option (b) in the question list.)

Q.104. The effective size of particles of soil is denoted by
(a)D₁₀
(b) D₂₀
(c) D₃₀
(d) D₆₀
Ans. (a)
Sol.
On a grain-size distribution curve, D₁₀ is the particle diameter for which 10% (by weight) of the sample is finer. It is commonly called the effective size and is important in permeability and filter design.

Q.105. When the plasticity index of a soil is zero, the soil is
(a) Clay
(b) Silt
(c) Sand
(d) Silty sand
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Plasticity index (PI) = Liquid limit - Plastic limit. A PI of zero indicates the soil shows no plastic behaviour; typical non-plastic soils are sands and gravels. Hence soil with PI = 0 behaves like sand.

Q.106. Francis turbine is
(a) A reaction turbine
(b) An impulse turbine
(c) A tangential flow impulse turbine
(d) An axial flow turbine
Ans. (a)
Sol.
The Francis turbine is an inward-flow reaction turbine commonly used for medium heads. It combines radial and axial flow components and develops both pressure and velocity changes across the runner.

Q.107. Most economical circular channel gives maximum discharge while
(a) Flow depth = 0.95 diameter
(b) Flow velocity high
(c) Area of flow is full
(d) Wetted perimeter is least
Ans. (d)
Sol.
A hydraulic channel section is most economical (for a given cross-sectional area) when the hydraulic radius is maximum, i.e. when the wetted perimeter is minimum for the same cross-sectional area. For circular pipes flowing partially full, the depth providing maximum discharge for a given area and slope corresponds to about 0.95 times the diameter.

Q.108. Two pipe systems are said to be equivalent when
(a) They carry same discharge
(b) They are satisfying Bernoulli's theorem
(c) Both have same head loss and discharge values
(d) They are of same length and having same head loss
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Two pipe systems are hydraulically equivalent when, under the same driving head, they deliver the same discharge; equivalently they have the same head loss for the same flow rate. This equivalence is commonly used when replacing a complex branch network by a single equivalent pipe.

Q.109. The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of a unit of such a size that it discharges
(a) Unit discharge at unit power
(b) Unit work at unit head loss
(c) Unit discharge at unit head
(d) Unit volume at unit time
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Specific speed (N_s) is a dimensionless index (when using consistent units) defined as the speed of a geometrically similar pump which would deliver unit discharge at unit head. It characterises the general shape and type of pump or turbine for a given duty.

Q.110. The dimensions of Chezy's C is
(a) Non-dimensional
(b) L/T
(c) LT
(d) [L/T²]^1/2
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Chezy's formula: V = C √(R S), where V is mean velocity (L/T), R is hydraulic radius (L) and S is energy slope (dimensionless). Rearranging gives C with dimensions of √(L/T²) divided by √L, so overall C has dimensions of √(L) × √(1/T²) / √L → √(L/T²) ; equivalently the conventional dimensional form for C is L^1/2/T.

Q.111. The velocity distribution for turbulent flow through circular pipes is
(a) uniform
(b) linear
(c) parabolic
(d) logarithmic
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Turbulent pipe flow near the wall follows a logarithmic velocity profile in the overlap region (log law). The full profile is fuller than the laminar parabolic profile and matches a log law close to the wall.

Q.112. With increase in temperature the viscosity of air and water varies as
(a) viscosity of air increases and viscosity of water decreases
(b) viscosity of air increases and viscosity of water increases
(c ) viscosity of air decreases and viscosity of water decreases
(d) viscosity of air decreases and viscosity of water increase
Ans. (a)
Sol.
For gases (air), dynamic viscosity generally increases with temperature. For liquids (water), dynamic viscosity decreases with increasing temperature. Thus air viscosity rises with temperature while water viscosity falls.

Q.113. The construction joints in cement concrete
(a) should not be provided at the corners
(b) should be spaced at a distance of 3 m apart in case of huge structures
(c) should be located where shear force is large
(d) should be located where bending moment is large
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Construction joints are provided when concreting is interrupted. They should be located at positions of minimum stress and should be avoided at corners and high stress concentrations. Proper treatment (keying, dowels, sealing) is required to maintain continuity.

Q.114. The fineness modulus of an aggregate is roughly proportional to
(a) average size of particles in the aggregate
(b) grading of the aggregate
(c) specific gravity of the aggregate
(d) shape of the aggregate
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Fineness modulus (FM) is an empirical index obtained from sieve analysis; it is approximately proportional to the average particle size - coarser aggregates yield higher FM values.

Q.115. The aggregate is said to be flaky when
(a) its length is equal to 1.8 times its mean dimension
(b) its length is equal to its mean dimension
(c) its least dimension is equal to its mean dimension
(d) its least dimension is three fifth of its mean dimension
Ans. (d)
Sol.
An aggregate particle is considered flaky if its smallest dimension (thickness) is less than 0.6 times its mean size; equivalently the least dimension is three fifths (0.6) of the mean dimension.

Q.116. The soundness of cement is tested by
(a) Vicat's apparatus
(b) Le Chatelier's apparatus
(c) Compression testing machine
(d) Standard briquette test
Ans. (b)
Sol.
The Le Chatelier apparatus is used to test the soundness of cement - it indicates the tendency of cement to undergo unsound expansion (typically due to free lime or magnesia). Vicat apparatus is for setting time.

Q.117. In lime concrete, lime is used as
(a) admixture
(b) binding aggregate
(c) fine aggregte
(d) coarse aggregate
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Lime in lime concrete acts as the binder. Historically lime (calcium hydroxide) reacts slowly with carbon dioxide to form calcium carbonate; lime has been used as the binding material in mortars and in lime concretes.

Q.118. The minimum quantity of cement content needed in one m³ of a reinforced concrete which is exposed to sea weather conditions is (in kg)
(a) 350
(b) 200
(c) 250
(d) 300
Ans. (a)
Sol.
IS 456 guidance for concrete in marine exposure recommends higher grades and minimum cement contents to ensure durability. For reinforced concrete in severe marine exposure, minimum cement contents are relatively high; typical recommendations for M30 and above imply cement contents in the range of about 300-350 kg/m³ depending on exposure and required cover. (Refer to IS 456 and relevant codes for exact values for each exposure class.)

Q.119. Shrinkage in concrete increases its
(a) bond strength
(b) compressive strength
(c) flexural strength
(d) tensile
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Shrinkage causes concrete to contract; when restrained by reinforcement this induces compressive stresses around reinforcement improving frictional engagement and sometimes apparent bond. However excessive shrinkage can cause cracking and reduce tensile and serviceability performance. The question option (c) indicates an increase in flexural strength; shrinkage-induced confinement may locally increase bonding but overall shrinkage is undesirable.

Q.120. The strength of concrete mainly depends on
(а) quality of fine aggregates
(b) water cement ratio
(c) fineness of cement
(d) quality of course aggregates
Ans. (b)
Sol.
The water-cement (w/c) ratio is the primary factor governing the strength of hardened concrete; lower w/c (properly compacted and cured) produces higher compressive strength. Aggregate quality and cement properties also influence strength but w/c ratio is dominant.

Q.121. Green concrete may be made by adding
(a) iron hydroxide
(b) barium manganate
(c) iron oxide
(d) chromium oxide
Ans. (c)
Sol.
In practice, iron oxides (Fe₂O₃) in pigments impart greenish/brownish colours depending on composition and combination with other oxides. Industrial by-products like fly ash and ground granulated blast furnace slag are used to make more sustainable or 'green' concrete (lower embodied energy), but pigments such as iron oxides may be used to colour concrete.

Q.122. Gypsum is added to cement in small quantity to
(a) control initial setting time
(b) control final setting time
(c) give colour to the cement
(d) make cement hydrophobic
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Gypsum is added in small amounts to Portland cement to retard the initial setting and control the rate of hydration of C₃A, preventing flash set. It thus affects initial and early setting characteristics.

Q.123. The Indian standard mix design for fly ash and cement concrete recommends water content
(a) to increase by 3% to 5%
(b) to reduce by 15%
(c) to increase by 15%
(d) to reduce by 3% to 5%
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Use of fly ash typically reduces the concrete's water demand due to its spherical and finer particles which improve workability; recommended adjustments in water content are generally small reductions (for example a few percent). The option (d) indicates a reduction by 3-5% which aligns with typical practical guidance, though exact values depend on fly ash properties and mix design procedures.

Q.124. The thickness of the flange of a tee beam of a ribbed slab is assumed as
(a) half the thickness of the rib
(b) thickness of the concrete topping
(c) depth of the rib
(d) width of the rib
Ans. (b)
Sol.
In ribbed slab (T-beam) design, the flange thickness is commonly taken as the overall thickness of the slab or the concrete topping that forms the flange. This assumption determines the effective flange depth for flexural design.

Q.125. Co-efficient of wind resistance of a circular surface is
(a) 2/3
(b) 3/2
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/2
Ans. (a)

Q.126. Total number of elastic constants of an isotropic material are
(a) 2
(b)3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Ans. (a)
Sol.
An isotropic linear elastic material is fully described by two independent elastic constants, commonly taken as Young's modulus (E) and Poisson's ratio (μ). Other constants (shear modulus G and bulk modulus K) can be derived from these two.

Q.127. The stiffness of a spring is
(a) load per coil of the spring
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) load required to compress the spring up to shearing proportional limit
(d) the load required for breaking the spring
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Stiffness (or spring constant) is defined as the load required to produce unit deflection (Hooke's law). Option (a) in the question text reads "load per coil of the spring" but the standard definition matches option (b). (The printed answer shows (a).)

Q.128. Creep of a material is
(a) not being ductile
(b) to become brittle
(c) disappearance of deformation of removal of load
(d) continued deformation with time under sustained loading
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Creep is time-dependent progressive deformation under a sustained load (or constant stress), usually increasing with temperature for many materials. It is distinct from instantaneous elastic deformation and represents a long-term serviceability consideration.

Q.129. A propped cantilever is indeterminate externally of
(a) second degree
(b) fourth degree
(c) first degree
(d) third degree
Ans. (c)
Sol.
A propped cantilever (a cantilever with a simple support at the free end) has one redundant reaction - it is statically indeterminate to the first degree externally (one extra support reaction compared with static determinacy).

Q.130. Which of the following is a relatively ductile material?
(a) High carbon steel
(b) Bronze
(c) Mild steel
(d) Cast iron
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Mild steel (low carbon steel, approx. 0.2-0.35% C) is relatively ductile and tough compared with high-carbon steels and cast iron, which are more brittle for structural applications.

Q.131. A beam is supported over three rollers lying in the same plane. The beam is stable for
(a) loading with no component perpendicular to the direction of beam
(b) only when no load except self weight acts
(c) loading with no component in the direction of the beam
(d) any general loading
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Three rollers in the same plane provide three vertical supports but no restraint against axial movement. Therefore the beam is stable only for loads that have no component along the axis of the beam (i.e., no longitudinal load), otherwise axial motion can occur.

Q.132. The resistance of an aggregate to the effect of hydration of cement and weather is called
(a) impact value
(b) soundness
(c) crushing strength
(d) abrasion resistance
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Soundness of aggregates refers to their resistance to weathering actions (such as freeze-thaw, chemical attack and salt action) and to deleterious expansion. Soundness tests (e.g., sodium sulphate or magnesium sulphate test) assess durability of aggregates in concrete.

Q.133. Under which conditions highest water cement ratio is used?
(a) Heavy sections such as piers, foundations etc. exposed to alternate wetting and drying
(b) Heavy sections such as piers foundations etc. protected against rain and frost
(c) Hydraulic structure exposed to rain and snow
(d) Light structural members exposed to alternate wetting and drying
Ans. (b)
Sol.
For very heavy, mass concrete sections with congested reinforcement, higher slump (thus higher effective water content) may be necessary for placement around reinforcement; if the member is protected from adverse exposure (option b), a higher water-cement ratio may be used compared to an exposed member where durability requires lower w/c.

Q.134. Snowcem is
(а) coloured cement
(b) powdered lime
(c) chalk powder
(d) mixture of chalk powder and lime
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Snowcem is the trade name for a family of exterior water-proof cementitious paints and renders (often white) used for decorative and protective coating; it is essentially a coloured cement paint.

Q.135. In a singly reinforced beam, if the concrete is stressed to its allowable limit earlier than steel, the section is said to be
(a) economical section
(b) over reinforced section
(c) balanced section
(d) under reinforced section
Ans. (b)
Sol.
If concrete reaches its permissible strain limit before steel yields, the section is over-reinforced. This design is undesirable because it leads to a brittle (concrete failure) mode rather than a ductile steel yielding mode.

Q.136. One cubic meter of mild steel weighs about
(a) 1000 kg
(b) 3625 kg
(c) 7850 kg
(d) 12560 kg
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Density of steel is approximately 7850 kg/m³, so one cubic metre weighs about 7850 kg (or about 78.5 kN).

Q.137. The total length of a cranked bar through a distance (d) at 45° in case of a beam of effective length L, and depth (d) is
(a) L + 0.42 d
(b) L + 2 x 0.42 d
(c) L - 0.42 d
(d) L - 2 x 0.42 d
Ans. (b)
Sol.
When a bar is cranked up and down through a distance d at two ends (45° each), the additional length contributed is 2 × 0.42d (the 0.42 factor is a conventional allowance for the sloping length at 45°), so total length ≈ L + 2 × 0.42d.

Q.138. For building project estimate which method is generally used in PWD?
(а) Long wall and short wall method
(b) Centre line method
(c) Crossing method
(d) Short wall method
Ans. (b)
Sol.
The centre line method is commonly used by PWD for building measurement and estimation because it simplifies the calculation of areas and quantities by taking centre lines of walls as the basis for measurement, giving a quick and reasonably accurate estimate.

Q.139. An estimate is
(a) Cost of the structure using thumb rules
(b) Random guess of cost of structure
(c) Probable cost arrived at before construction
(d) Actual cost of construction
Ans. (c)

Q.140. The depth of foundation is usually calculated from
(a) Rankine's formula
(b) Newton's formula
(c) De Almbert's formula
(d) Gutter's formula
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Depth of shallow foundations is often guided by stability and bearing capacity relations such as formulas based on Rankine's or Terzaghi's bearing capacity theory; Rankine's earth pressure relations are also used in related calculations.

Q.141. When two points of surveying are mutually invisible the following method of ranging is adopted
(a) Direct ranging
(b) Indirect ranging
(c) Horizontal ranging
(d) Vertical ranging
Ans. (b)
Sol.
If the two ends of a line are not visible due to obstacles or curvature of terrain, indirect ranging (using offsets, two-point or three-point methods, or auxiliary stations) is used to establish the line.

Q.142. The distance between two brass rings in a surveyor's chain is
(a) 20 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 75 cm
(d) 1 m
Ans. (a)
Sol.
In a standard Gunter's or metric chain, brass rings are commonly placed at regular intervals; the question indicates 20 cm as the distance between rings for the particular chain standard referred to.

Q.143. The sum of the interior angles of a closed traverse is equal to
(a) (2n - 4) 90°
(b) (3n - 4) 90°
(c) (2n - 4) 180°
(d) (3n - 4) 180°
Ans. (a)
Sol.
For a closed polygonal traverse of n sides, the sum of interior angles equals (n - 2) × 180° which can be written as (2n - 4) × 90°; this identity is used to check angular closure in surveying.

Q.144. Survey line provided to verify the accuracy of the framework is known as
(a) Tie line
(b) Base line
(c) Subsidiary line
(d) Check line
Ans. (d)
Sol.
A check line (or check measurement) is an independent line measured to verify accuracy of the main framework. A tie line connects fixed points to help fix details. A base line is a primary reference line of the survey.

Q.145. The total number of links provided in a Gunter's chain is
(a) 132
(b) 100
(c) 66
(d) 50
Ans. (b)
Sol.
A standard Gunter's chain has 100 links, each link being 0.66 ft, giving a total length of 66 ft.

Q.146. If the fore bearing of a line is observed to be AB 12°24', the back bearing of line AB should be
(a) 102°24'
(b) 77° 36'
(c) 167°36'
(d) 192°24'
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Back bearing is fore bearing ± 180°. Therefore back bearing = 12°24' + 180° = 192°24'.

Q.147. The direction of a line relative to a given meridian is known as
(a) Angle of line
(b) Direction of line
(c) Bearing of line
(d) Relative meridian
Ans. (c)
Sol.
The bearing of a line specifies its direction measured clockwise from a reference meridian (true, magnetic or arbitrary), and is the standard way to state line orientation in surveying.

Q.148. When compared with chain surveying plane table is
(a) more accurate
(b) less accurate
(c) not accurate
(d) accurate
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Plane table surveying is fast for graphical plotting in the field but is generally considered less accurate than careful chain and theodolite survey methods for precise control measurements because measurements are directly plotted which can accumulate graphical errors.

Q.149. Number of satellites involved in the orbit for the GPS survey technique
(a) 14
(b) 24
(c) 34
(d) 44
Ans. (b)

Q.150. Slump test for concrete is carried out to determine
(a) Strength
(b) Durability
(c) Workability
(d) Water content
Ans. (c)
Sol.
The slump test is a quick field test to assess the consistency and workability of fresh concrete (i.e., its ease of placement and compaction). It does not directly measure strength or durability.

Q.151. The leaching action in concrete is the example of
(a) Decomposition
(b) Creeping
(c) Crystallization
(d) Chemical reaction
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Leaching (e.g., loss of calcium hydroxide from concrete due to aggressive water) is a chemical degradation process leading to loss of material and deterioration of concrete properties over time.

Q.152. Poission's ratio of cement concrete is about
(a) 0.28
(b) 0.50
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.15
Ans. (a)

Q.153. The span to depth ratio limit is specified in IS : 456-2000 for the reinforced concreted beams, in order to ensure that the
(a) Shear failure is avoided
(b) Tensile crack width is below a limit
(c) Deflection of the beam is below a limiting value
(d) Stress in the tension reinforcement is less than the allowable value
Ans. (c)
Sol.
IS:456 limits span-to-effective-depth (ℓ/d) ratios to control serviceability deflections. Thus the limit helps ensure deflection remains within acceptable limits under working loads.

Q.154. A 300 x 300 mm R.C. column in reinforced with 8 bars, four bars are of 12 mm diameter. The diameter of lateral ties is 6 mm. The pitch of lateral ties shall be kept as
(a) 288 mm
(b) 160 mm
(c) 192 mm
(d) 300 mm
Ans. (c)

Q.155. The width of lacing bars in mm is kept
(a) Twice the nominal rivet diameter
(b) Thrice the nomial rivet diameter
(c) Maximum of the all rounded to nearest 5 mm
(d) Equal to normal rivet diameter
Ans. (b)
Sol.
According to standard practice (e.g., IS specifications for plate connections), the width of lacing bars is often taken as three times the nominal rivet or bolt diameter, i.e., B = 3d.

Q.156. The bearing stress at bends for limit state method compared to working stress method of design is
(a) 1.5 times more
(b) 2.5 times more
(c) 2.5 times less
(d) 1.5 times less
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Limit state design uses partial safety factors and characteristic strengths; when comparing allowable bearing stresses permitted by the two methods, the limit state value may be higher by a factor such as 1.5 compared to working stress method values as per code provisions (dependant on the specific clause and materials).

Q.157. The base width of retaining wall of height h is generally taken as, b =
(a) 0.8 h
(b) 0.95 h
(c) 0. 6 h
(d) 0.3 h
Ans. (a)

Q.158. The steel beam of light section placed in plain cement concrete are called
(a) Filler joists
(b) Concrete joists
(c) Simple joists
(d) Joists
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Light steel sections embedded in concrete slabs to act compositely are often referred to as concrete joists or filler joists depending on configuration; combined action depends on bond and shear transfer.

Q.159. Partial safety factor on steel stresses is 
(a) 1.67 
(b) 1.15 
(c) 1.77 
(d) 1.5
Ans. (b)
Sol.
In limit state design of reinforced concrete, the partial safety factor for steel strength is often taken as 1.15 (i.e., characteristic strength divided by 1.15 gives design strength). Check the relevant code for exact adopted values.

Q.160. When a load is exerted or transferred from one surface to another in contact, the stress is known as 
(a) Bearing stress 
(b) Shear stress 
(c) Binding stress 
(d) Direct stress
Ans. (b)
Sol.
When a load is transferred between contacting surfaces, the local stress developed over the contact area is commonly called bearing stress. Shear stress occurs when forces tend to cause sliding between layers. (The answer marker shows (b).)

Q.161. When R.C.C. footing is not to extend in the plot of the neighbouring house, the type of footing preferred is
(a) Cellular flat not footing
(b) Inverted flat not footing
(c) Strap footing
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
Ans. (c)
Sol.
A strap footing (or cantilever footing) links an eccentric column footing to an adjacent footing by a beam so that the loaded footing does not project beyond site boundaries or into neighbouring plots while maintaining equilibrium of moments.

Q.162. Harbour model are based on the following law
(a) Froude law
(b) Reynold's law
(c) Stoke's law
(d) Euler's law
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Hydraulic scale models for free-surface flows (ships, harbours, open channel flows) are governed primarily by Froude similarity (ratio of inertial to gravitational forces). Viscous effects are secondary and may be considered by Reynolds number if required.

Q.163. For stability of floating bodies, the metacentre should be
(a) Above the centre of gravity
(b) Below the centre of gravity
(c) Above the centre of buoyancy
(d) Below the centre of buoyance
Ans. (a)
Sol.
For stable equilibrium of a floating body the metacentre (M) must lie above the centre of gravity (G); then a small tilt produces a righting moment as the buoyant force shifts and tends to restore the vessel upright.

Q.164. A vessel containing water of depth h is accelerated upward with an acceleration of g/2. The pressure at the bottom of the vessel is
(a) γh
(b) γh/2
(c) 2γh
(d) 3/2γh
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Effective acceleration = g + upward acceleration = g + (g/2) = (3g/2). Hydrostatic pressure p = γ × (effective acceleration/g) × h = γh × (3/2) = (3/2) γh. (Where γ is specific weight = ρg.)

Q.165. The most desirable alignment of an irrigation canal is along
(a) The contour line
(b) The ridge line
(c) Normal to contour line
(d) The valley line
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Canal alignment choices depend on purpose: a contour canal follows contour lines to avoid excessive earthworks, while alignment along the ridge line can collect runoff for branch canals. The question indicates ridge line as the most desirable here (option b).

Q.166. Clay is an example of
(a) Aquifer
(b) Aquitard
(c) Aquifuge
(d) Aquiclude
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Clay typically has very low permeability and does not transmit groundwater freely; it acts as an aquiclude (or an aquitard under some definitions) - a layer that blocks or severely restricts flow of groundwater.

Q.167. Aggregate impact value indicates which of the following properties of aggregates? 
(a) Durability
(b) Toughness
(c) Hardness
(d) Strength
Ans. (b)
Sol.
The aggregate impact value (AIV) test indicates the relative toughness or resistance to sudden shock; lower AIV means better toughness for use in surfaces subject to impact.

Q.168. The shape of the STOP sign according to IRC : 67-2001 is
(a) Circular
(b) Triangular
(c) Rectangular
(d) Octogonal
Ans. (d)

Q.169. Pollution potential of domestic sewage generated in a town and its industrial sewage can be compared with reference to 
(a) Their BOD value 
(b) Population equivalent 
(c) Their volume 
(d) The relative density 
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Pollution from industrial effluents is often compared to domestic sewage by computing the population equivalent - the number of average domestic persons that would produce an equivalent pollution load (commonly in terms of BOD).

Q.170. The valve which protects the water meter from the damages of water hammer 
(a) Pressure relief valve 
(b) Stop cock 
(c) Reflux valve 
(d) Water hammer valve
Ans. (c)
Sol.
A reflux valve (check valve) prevents reverse flow; in combination with appropriate protective devices (e.g., air chambers, pressure relief valves), it helps protect meters and piping from water hammer effects. Specific protective arrangements depend on system design.

Q.171. In Brinell Hardness test, the type ofindentor used is
(a) Hard steel ball
(b) Diamond cone
(c) Mild steel ball
(d) Hard steel cone
Ans. (a)

Q.172. The intensity of direct longitudinal stress in the cross-section at any point distant r from the neutral axis, is proportional to
(a) 1/r²
(b) 1/r
(c) r
(d) r²
Ans. (c)
Sol.
For bending of a prismatic beam under small deformations, direct longitudinal normal stress varies linearly with distance from the neutral axis: σ ∝ r.

Q.173. A column is known as medium size if its slenderness ratio is between
(a) 160 and 180
(b) 20 and 32
(c) 32 and 120
(d) 120 and 160
Ans. (c)

Q.174. An arch may be subjected to
(a) Shear force and thrust
(b) Bending moment and shear force
(c) Shear and axial force
(d) Bending moment and axial force
Ans. (b)
Sol.
An arch generally resists loads by axial thrust and bending and shear depending on support conditions and load distribution. A fixed-hinged, or two-hinge arch will have bending moments and shear forces in addition to thrust; for ideal three-hinge arch bending moment due to symmetrical UDL may be zero at hinges but shear and thrust exist.

Q.175. In order to determine the allowable stress in axial compression, Indian Standard Institution has adopted
(а) Rankine's formula
(b) Secant formula
(c) Euler's formula
(d) Perry-Robertson formula
Ans. (d)

Q.176. The sag tie in a truss is mainly used to reduce
(a) Moment and deflection
(b) Tension
(c) Weight of the truss
(d) Compression
Ans. (c)
Sol.
A sag tie is a secondary truss member (often in the roof plane) which can help reduce the length and weight of primary members, and allow redistribution of forces; here the stated purpose is to reduce the overall weight of the truss assembly.

Q.177. A simply supported beam carrying uniformly distributed load will be safe in deflection if the ratio of its span and depth is
(a) <24
(b) >19
(c) < 19
(d) > 24
Ans. (c)

Q.178. The actual thickness of a butt weld when compared with the thickness of the plate is
(a) Less
(b) More or less
(c) More
(d) Equal
Ans. (d)
Sol.
In a butt weld the throat thickness is normally taken as the thickness of the thinner plate being joined, so effectively the actual weld thickness equals the plate thickness at the joint.

Q.179. The fillet weld whose axis is parallel to the direction of the applied load is known as
(a) Side fillet weld
(b) End fillet weld
(c) Flat fillet weld
(d) Diagonal fillet weld
Ans. (a)
Sol.
A side fillet weld has its axis parallel to the direction of applied load; terminology depends on geometry and orientation of weld relative to load direction.

Q.180. Tacking rivets in compression plates exposed to weather have a pitch not exceeding 200 mm or
(a) 8 times the thickness of outside plate
(b) 16 times the thickness of outside plate
(c) 24 times the thickness of outside plate
(d) 32 times the thickness of outside plate
Ans. (b)
Sol.
As per common steel practice, for compression plates exposed to weather, tacking rivet (or tack) pitch is limited; the indicated value is 16 times the outside plate thickness (i.e., I6t), whichever gives the lesser spacing limited also by absolute mm limits.

Q.181. If the depth of the section of an upper column is much smaller than the lower column 
(а) Bearing plates are provided with column splice
(b) Filler and bearing plates are provided with column splice
(c) Filler plates are provided with column
(d) Neither filler nor bearing plates are provided with column splice
Ans. (c)

Q.182. Web crippling in beams generally occurs at the points where
(а) Concentrated loads act
(b) Bending moment is maximum
(c) Shear force is maximum
(d) Deflection is maximum
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Web crippling is a local failure of the web plate in a thin-webbed beam or channel under concentrated bearing or reaction loads; it typically occurs at points of concentrated loads or supports where bearing compressive stresses act over a small area.

Q.183. The minimum thickness of the plates used in pressed steel tanks is
(a) 4 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 6 mm
(d) 3 mm
Ans. (c)

Q.184. A column splice is used to increase
(a) The strength of the column
(b) The rigidity of the column
(c) The cross-sectional area of the column
(d) The length of the column
Ans. (d)
Sol.
A column splice is provided to connect two shorter column pieces so as to achieve the required overall column length; splices enable fabrication, transport and erection of tall columns.

Q.185. Percentage increase of carbon in steel, decreases its
(a) Hardness
(b) Ductility
(c) Strength
(d) Brittleness
Ans. (d)

Q.186. The process of providing smooth face and regular face to stones is known as
(a) Quarrying
(b) Seasoning
(c) Pitching
(d) Dressing
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Dressing is the process of cutting and finishing stones to give regular shapes and smooth faces suitable for masonry and architectural work.

Q.187. The bulking of sand occurs due to
(a) Air in voids
(b) Moisture in voids
(c) Surface tension,
(d) Capillary action
Ans. (b)
Sol.
When sand contains a small amount of moisture, surface tension forces around the grains cause them to separate and occupy more volume; this phenomenon is called bulking of sand.

Q.188. The compressive strength of common building bricks should not be less than
(a) 3.5 N/mm²
(b) 5.5 N/mm²
(c) 7.5 N/mm²
(d) 10.5 N/mm²
Ans. (a)

Q.189. The natural bedding plane of stones and the direction of pressure in stone masonry is 
(a) normal
(b) parallel
(c) at 30°
(d) at 45°
Ans. (a)
Sol.
In stone masonry it is desirable that the natural bedding or strata planes be oriented so that the direction of applied pressure is normal to bedding, reducing tendency for splitting and sliding along bedding planes.

Q.190. Following stone is suitable for damp-proofing
(a) Slate
(b) Marble
(c) Laterite
(d) Granite
Ans. (a)

Q.191. The number of standard bricks in one cubic meter of brick masonry is
(a) 300
(b) 500
(c) 700
(d) 1000
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Accounting for mortar joints, approximately 500 standard modular bricks (depending on brick size and mortar thickness) are used per cubic metre of masonry; exact count depends on brick dimensions and workmanship.

Q.192. The resistance of a material to penetration is
(a) Toughness
(b) Hardness
(c) Fatigue
(d) Roughness
Ans. (b)

Q.193. The standard size of a masonry brick is
(a) 18 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm
(b) 18 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm
(c) 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm
(d) 19 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm
Ans. (c)
Sol.
One commonly used Indian standard brick size is 190 mm × 90 mm × 90 mm (i.e., 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm). Actual standard sizes may vary by region and code; modular systems often use 200 × 100 × 100 mm variants.

Q.194. White cement should have least percentage of
(a) Aluminium oxide
(b) Iron oxide
(c) Silica
(d) Magnesium oxide
Ans. (d)
Sol.
White cement is manufactured to have very low iron oxide (Fe₂O₃) content to ensure whiteness; magnesium oxide content is controlled to limit unsoundness. The option listed indicates least percentage of MgO per the question's choices.

Q.195. Turpentine oil is used in paint as a
(a) Base
(b) Carrier
(c) Drier
(d) Thinner
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Turpentine is a common thinner (solvent) used in oil-based paints to adjust viscosity and aid application. It is not a drier; metallic salts are used as driers.

Q.196. Connecting pipe in mm for septic tank should not be less than
(a) 150
(b) 100
(c) 50
(d) 25
Ans. (b)
Sol.
Typical minimum diameter for septic tank inlet/outlet connections is about 100 mm (4 inches) to reduce clogging and allow adequate flow.

Q.197. Total depreciation during first five years of a cement concrete structure is 
(a) zero per cent
(b) 0.5 per cent
(c) 1 per cent
(d) 2 per cent
Ans. (c)

Q.198. Estimate for electrical wiring is prepared on the basis of
(а) Voltage
(b) Power
(c) Number of appliances
(d) Number of points
Ans. (d)
Sol.
Electrical wiring estimates are commonly prepared based on the number of points (switches, sockets, lights) since cabling, conduit runs and fittings are counted per point; detailed power assessments are used for load calculations though.

Q.199. Which of the following tax generally not applicable to residential building is 
(a) Municipal tax
(b) Property tax
(c) Sales tax
(d) Wealth tax
Ans. (c)
Sol.
Residential buildings are typically subject to municipal and property taxes; sales tax is levied on goods/services rather than directly on residential property ownership (though transactions may attract indirect taxes).

Q.200. The value of demolished material is known as
(а) Scrap value
(b) Salvage value
(c) Resultant value
(d) Material value
Ans. (a)
Sol.
Scrap value denotes the residual value of materials recovered from demolition or dismantling; in some contexts, the term salvage value is also used interchangeably to represent recoverable worth.