Government & Administration - Solved Questions (2012-2017) | UPSC Topic Wise Previous Year Questions PDF Download

Question 1: Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity   [2017-I]
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

NEW NCERT Class 8 Civics, Chapter 3, page 32 The take-off point for a democracy is the idea of consent, i.e. the desire, approval and participation of people. It is the decision of people that creates a democratic government and decides about its functioning. So, since democracy requires voters' decision making hence intelligence and character are called in. hence answer "A"

Question 2: One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of   [2017-I]

(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology

Correct Answer is Option (a)

First step towards bringing about equality is of course ending the formal system of inequality and privileges. The caste system in India prevented people from the 'lower' castes from doing anything except manual labour. In many countries only people from some families could occupy high positions. Attainment of equality requires that all such restrictions or privileges should be brought to an end.

Question 3: Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?   [2017-I]
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)

MIND IT: you've to find the wrong statements herethey're the right answers.

when the President's Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of the state or the advisors appointed by the President. Meaning "2" is definitely the consequence of proclamation. Hence all options involving "2" are wrong. Hence by elimination we are left with answer "B": 1 and 3 only.

Question 4: Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?    [2017-I]
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states unlike the American federation. So, "D" is not the feature of Indian federalism.

Question 5: Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in [2017-I]
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Balwant Rai G Mehta Committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of 'democratic decentralisation', which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

Question 6: The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that [2017-I]
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Parliamentary system is also known as Cabinet Government. It provides for collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature. Hence answer "C".

Question 7: Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:   [2017-I]

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

"Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and discuss everything, (hence) the decisions are taken in Cabinet meetings. That is why parliamentary democracy in most countries is often known as the Cabinet from of government." Therefore, some expert felt that cabinet from of Government helps in work distribution and thereby speeding up efficiency so B is the right answer. However, other experts went by the interpretation given in M. Laxmikanth's book on Indian Polity: "Parliamentary system is also known as cabinet Government. It provides for collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature." So should be the answer. UPSC has kept 'C' as the official answer.

Question 8: The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through.    [2017-I]
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (d)

The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion, etc. and Supplementary questions can be asked during the question hour. Therefore, all three are correct.

Question 9: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:    [2017-I]

1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.

2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Private member's bill as a bill introduced by any member of the parliament who's not a minister. Hence first statement is wrong.

• The Indian Express report in 2016 says only 14 private members bill have been passed since 1952. So statement 2 is also wrong.

Question 10: For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by    [2017-I]
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

Question 11: Consider the following statements:    [2017-I]

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.

2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)

India has first past the post system wherein a candidate who wins the election may not (need to) get majority (50%+1) votes. Statement #1 is wrong.
Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party. Meaning it's an 'informal consensus' among political parties, and not Constitutional provision. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.

Question 12: Right to vote and to be elected in India is a     [2017-I]
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right

Correct Answer is Option (c)

New NCERT Class 9: Democratic Politics, Page 109: Right to vote in elections is an important constitutional right.

New NCERT, Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution, Page 66 one of the important decisions of the framers of India Constitution was to guarantee every adult citizen in

India, the right to vote. [Article 326]. Combining the interpretation of both textbooks, "C" is the answer.

Question 13: Consider the following statements:    [2017-I]

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Election Commission has three election Commissioners.

Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Hence answer "D" only 3.

Question 14: Consider the following statements:    [2015-I]
1 The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)

The maximum strength of the legislative council is fixed at one third of the total strength of the legislative assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40. The chairman of the legislative council is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.

Question 15: With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:    [2015-I]

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.

2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.

3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The department of economic affairs under the ministry of finance is responsible for the preparation of union Budget that is presented to the parliament.

• Consolidated fund of India is a fund to which all receipts are credited and all payments are debited.
• No money can be appropriated (issued or drawn) out of the consolidated fund of India without the authorization from the parliament of India.

Public account of India is operated by executive action, that is, the payments from this account can be made without parliamentary appropriation. Such payments are mostly in the nature of banking transactions.

Question 16: There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the    [2015-I]
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Correct Answer is Option (d)

The executive in a Parliamentary system is responsible 1to the legislature for all its actions. The ministers are answerable to the parliament and responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Council of Ministers remains in office as long as they enjoy the support and confidence of the Lok Sabha.

Question 17: Consider the following statements: [2015-I]
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)

A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill. Rajya Sabha can discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants ( which is the exclusive privilage of the Lok-Sabha.

Question 18: When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by   [2015-I]
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses

Correct Answer is Option (a)
In India, if a bill has been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more than six months have elapsed, the President may summon a joint session for purpose of

passing the bill. The bill is passed by a simple majority of a joint sitting. Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between

the two houses over the passage of a bill.
If the bill in dispute is passed by a majority of the total number of member both the houses present and voting in the joint sitting, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the houses.

Question 19: Consider the following statements    [2015-I]
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (d)

The Executive powers of the Union of India is vested in the President. The Cabinet Secretary (and not the Prime Minister) is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board.

Question 20: Consider the following statements : [2014 - I]

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (a)

(a) Clause (3) of Article 77 (“Conduct of Business of the Government of India”) of the Constitution of India lays down as follows: “The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.

The Constitution of India mentions that, “All executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.” Therefore, only option (a) is correct.

Question 21: The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in    [2014 - I]
(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission

Correct Answer is Option (b)

It is the Parliament which has the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India. Parliament increased the number of judges from the original eight in 1950 to eleven in 1956, fourteen in 1960, eighteen in 1978, twenty-six in 1986 and thirty-one in 2008.

Question 22: Consider the following statements regarding a No- Confidence Motion in India:    [2014 - I]
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Article 75 says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to Loksabha. In other words, Lok Sabha can remove them by passing a no-confidence motion. But the word “no confidence motion” itself is not mentioned in Constitution. It comes from Rule 198 of Lok Sabha Rules. Rajya Sabha cannot pass or remove council of ministers by passing no-confidence motion. No confidence motion can be introduced, only in Lok Sabha.

Question 23: Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions

Correct Answer is Option (b)

The largest Committee is the committee of Estimates, given its 30 members

Question 24: Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?     [2014 - I]

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (b)

The governor has Constitutional discretion in cases of Reservation of bill for consideration of the President and Recommendation of the imposition of President's rule. Therefore, statement 1 and 3 are definitely right. Moreover Governor only appoints those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Chief Minister. So Governor doesn’t have “Discretion” in appointment of the minister. Therefore 2 is wrong.

Question 25: Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?    [2014 - I]
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The functions of the Cabinet Secretariat includes preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings & Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees. However Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries as per the provisions in budget is the task of finance ministry.

Question 26: Consider the following statements : [2014 - I]
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority

2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (c)

A constitutional Government needs to balance between individual liberty viz a viz State Authority

Question 27: Consider the following statements: [2013 - I]

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer is Option (b)

The first statement is not correct because its talks about chairman as well as the deputy chairman. The Vice- President of India is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha also chooses from amongst its members, a Deputy Chairman.

President: Elected members of parliament (MPs from Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha). Elected members of State legislative members, including that if NCT of Delhi and Pondicherry. 

Vice President: Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of the parliament. The second statement is correct.

Question 28: What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?    [2013 - I]
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Correct Answer is Option (a)

When a money bill returns to the Loksabha with amendments made by the Rajyasabha, it is open to Loksabha to accept or to reject any or all of the recommendations. When the Loksabha chooses to accept or decline the money bill with or without the recommendation, the money bill is deemed passed in both houses.

Question 29: Which one of the following statements is correct?    [2013 - I]
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

Correct Answer is Option (c)
No procedure has been laid down in the constitution of India for the removal of a governor from his/her post.

Question 30: Consider the following statements : Attorney General of India can [2013 - I]
1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The Attorney General of India has a post parallel to any minister in Parliament. He can take part in the proceedings of either house. He can be a member of any committee of Parliament. He has the right to speak in the Parliament but he has no right to vote.

Question 31: The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties [2013 - I]
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Parliament has exclusive power to make law with respect to any of the matters enumerated with the Union List. According to entry no 14 in the Union List it reads- ‘entering into treaties and agreements with foreign contries and implementing of treaties, agreement and convention with foreign countries’.

Question 32: In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?    [2013 - I]
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Minister/ministers can be removed by issuing no confidence motion in the parliament. All cabinet members are mandated by the constitution to be the member of either house of the parliament of India. The cabinet is headed by the prime minister and is advised by the cabinet secretary who also acts as the head of Indian Administrative service.

Question 33: Consider the following statements:   [2013 - I]

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Article – 75 (4): The ministers Shall hold office during the pleasure of the president.

Article – 75 (5): The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok-Sabha.

Article–78 (2): Prime minister shall furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation on the president may call far.

Question 34: In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment

motion is    [2012 - I]
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Adjournment motion:

1. It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the house to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
2. It is regarded as an extraordinary device, because it interrupts the normal business of the house.
3. It involves an element of censure against the government and Rajya Sabha cannot introduce Adjournment Motion.
4. The discussion on adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

Question 35: Consider the following statements: [2012 - I]
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

Correct Answer is Option (d)

None of the above statements are correct

1. Union Territories (Delhi and Pondicherry) are represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is not within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate election disputes. It is the Supreme Court and High Court which look into the disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the President of India.

Question 36: Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:    [2012 - I]
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Correct Answer is Option (b)

If the Lok Sabha Speaker wants to resign, the letter of his / her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. The Speaker is elected by the Lok-Sabha from amongst its Members. Usually the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok-Sabha.

Question 37: Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?   [2012 - I]
1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking

2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Inclusive governance Means that the benefit of governance Should reach the down trodden and to the last corner of the country.

Provisions given in option 2, 3 and 4 leads to the inclusive governance.

Permitting the Non-Banking Financial companies to do banking is not directly linked to the inclusive governance.

Question 38: In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?   [2012 - I]

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to frame charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (c)

1. Only 2nd and 3rd are correct statements.
2. CAG reports on execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finance.

Question 39: The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment [2012 - I]

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months

(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Article 75(I) of the Indian Constitution provides that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President. The Constitution permits a person to be appointed PM without his\her being a member of either House of the Parliament at the time of appointment. However he/she has to become a Member of either house of parliament with in Six Months from the date of his/her appointment as prime-minister.

Question 40: A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of    [2012 - I]
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Joint sitting is an extra-ordinary Machinery provided by the constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. The provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills of financial bills only and not to Money bills or constitutional amendment bills.