Class 10 Social Science: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 PDF Download

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

1. The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.

Q.1: Arrange the following in the correct sequence :
(i) Unification of Germany
(ii) Unification of Italy
(iii) Treaty of Constantinople
(iv) First World War began
(a) (iii) - (ii) - (i) - (iv)
(b) (ii) - (iii) - (iv) - (i)
(c) (i) - (ii) - (iii) - (iv)
(d) (iv) - (i) - (ii) - (iii)

Correct Answer is Option (a).
Treaty of Constantinople– 1832
Unification of Italy – 1859 to 1870
Unification of Germany – 1866 to 1871
Beginning of First World War – 1914

Q.2: Analyze the information given below considering one of the following correct options.
It was formed in 1834 at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German States. The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from over thirty to two.
(a) Napoleon Code
(b) Zollverein
(c) Conservatism
(d) Peasants' uprising

Correct Answer is Option (b).

In 1834, a customs union or Zollverein was formed at the initiative of Prussia and joined by most of the German States.

Q.3: Analyze the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
He was an Italian revolutionary born in Genoa in 1087, he became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. As a young man of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria.
(a) Napoleon Bonaparte
(b) Otto Von Bismarck
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini

Correct Answer is Option (d).
Giuseppe  Mazzini  was an Italian revolutionary who formed two Secret Societies ‘Young Italy’ in Marseille and ‘Young Europe’ in Berne.

Q.4: Napoleon invaded Italy in:
(a) 1821
(b) 1790s
(c) 1905
(d) 1797

Correct Answer is Option (d).

In 1796, the French Army of  Italy  under  Napoleon  invaded Italy with the aim of forcing the First Coalition to abandon Sardinia and forcing Austria to withdraw from Italy. Napoleon conquered most of Italy in the name of the French Revolution by 1799. So 1790s is the correct answer.

Q.5: In which regions was the Civil Code exported to?
(a) Switzerland and Italy
(b) Italy and Germany
(c) Switzerland and Germany
(d) Dutch Republic in Switzerland in Italy and Germany

Correct Answer is Option (d).

The Civil Code or Napoleon Code was introduced in 1804 and it was exported to the regions under French control. In the Dutch Republic, Switzerland, Italy and Germany.

Q.6: What is the other name of Black Soil?
(a) Regur
(b) Khadar
(c) Humus
(d) Bangar

Correct Answer is Option (a).

(a) Regur is black soil and the reason is due to its colour being black, which is ideal for growing cotton.
(b) Khadar is new Alluvial Soil.
(c) Humus is dark brown organic material that forms when the plants leaves and animal matter decays and form soil.
(d) Bangar is old Alluvial Soil.

Q.7: It takes almost a year to grow which crop?
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Rubber
(d) Sugarcane

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Sugarcane can take 9 to 24 months to harvest, depending on the climate.

Q.8: What is Primitive Subsistence Farming known as in north-eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland?
(a) Penda
(b) Horticulture
(c) Jhumming
(d) Milpa

Correct Answer is Option (c).
In north-eastern states of India like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland the primitive form of cultivation is called Jhumming.

Q.9: Which of the following are known as Coarse grains?
(a) Millets - Jowar Bajra and Ragi
(b) Oilseeds - Groundnut, Mustard, Coconut
(c) Rice and Wheat
(d) Pulses - Gram, Arhar Rajma

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Coarse grains are cereal grains other than main grains like rice and wheat. In some states besides rice and wheat, people eat Jowar, Bajra and Ragi in their meals.

Q.10: What is the area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area called?
(a) Waste land
(b) Net sown area
(c) Forest cover
(d) Gross cropped area

Correct Answer is Option (d).
Gross Cropped area = Area sown more than once in an agricultural year + Net sown area. Because they are either fallow lands or poor quality land and their cost of cultivation is very high.

Q.11: Another 40 percent people live in the Wallonia region and speak_____language.
(a) Spanish
(b) French
(c) Chinese
(d) Japanese

Correct Answer is Option (b).
Another 40 percent people in Wallonia region and speaks French.

Q.12: Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to become a __________ System instead of _____________ System.
(a) Unitary, Federal
(b) Unitary, State
(c) State, Unitary
(d) Federal, Unitary

Correct Answer is Option (d).
Sri Lanka has a Unitary System where the national government has all the powers. But Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to become a Federal System.

Q.13: In Sri Lanka which government has all the powers?
(a) Local Government
(b) State Government
(c) Rural Government
(d) Central Government

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Sri Lanka continues to be a Unitary System where the national government has all the powers.

Q.14: Choose the incorrect options:
(a) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies.
(b) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly.
(c) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country was possible only by respecting the feelings and interests of all communities.
(d) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and refused to share powers.

Correct Answer is Option (b).

No doubt Belgium and Sri Lanka both are democracies. Yet, they dealt with the question of Power Sharing differently.

In case of Belgium, the realisation of leaders resulted in mutually acceptable arrangements for sharing power, while Sri Lanka shows us that if a majority community wants to force its dominance over others and refuses to share power, it can undermine the unity of the country.

Q.15: Which major social group of Sri Lanka constituted the largest share in population ?
(a) French
(b) Dutch
(c) Sinhalas
(d) German

Correct Answer is Option (c).

Sri Lanka has diverse population. The major social groups are Sinhala (74%) and Tamil (18%)

Q.16: Country having holding together federation :
(a) USA
(b) Switzerland
(c) Australia
(d) India

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q. 17. What is known as the removal of business set by the government ?
(a) Liberation
(b) Federation
(c) Segregation
(d) Restriction

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Liberation means removing barriers from the economic activities by the state or central government.

Q.18: Nearly how much proportion of India is over-using their groundwater reserves?
(a) One-fourth
(b) One
(c) One-third
(d) Half

Correct Answer is Option (c).

Nearly one–third people of our country are over using their groundwater reserves.

Q.19: In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the
(a) State government
(b) Central government ministry
(c) Municipality
(d) District office

Correct Answer is Option (b).
In India measuring GDP is done by a central government ministry; This ministry, with the help of various government departments of all Indian states and territories collects information relating to total volume of goods and services and their prices and then estimates the GDI.

Q.20: Which sector produces a large number of goods and services through its various production activities?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (d).

The various production activities in the primary, secondary and tertiary sectors produce a very large number of goods and services.

Q.21: Under employment is also called
(a) Employed
(b) Unemployed
(c) Disguised employment
(d) Temporary employment

Correct Answer is Option (c).

The kind of underemployment which is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. Hence, it is also called disguised employment.

Q.22: Human Development Report is prepared and published by whom?
(a) UNDP
(b) World Bank
(c) IMF
(d) WHO

Correct Answer is Option (b).

Human Development Report is prepared and published by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) New York.

Q.23: ______________measures the proportion of literate population in the 7-and-above age group.
(a) Per Capita Income
(b) Infant Mortality Rate
(c) Net Attendance Ratio
(d) Literacy Rate

Correct Answer is Option (b).

Literacy rate measures the proportion of literate population in the 7-and-above age group.

Q.24: Find the incorrect option:
(a) Economic development is linked to environmental conservation.
(b) Sustainable development encourages development of current generation and conservation of resources for future generations.
(c) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders.
(d) Sustainable development is a long planned and persistent development.

Correct Answer is Option (d).

Q.25: Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following options.

(a) Marianna
(b) Philip Viet
(c) Germania
(d) La Italia

Correct Answer is Option (c).

Q.26: Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?
(i) The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire.
(ii) The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc.
(iii) British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity.
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Only (i)

Correct Answer is Option (a). 

The European powers sighted the much-disturbed Balkan region to fulfill their imperialist goals. The Balkan region consisted of the following countries of our times - Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro.

Q.27: Why were the weavers in Silesia revolted against contractors in 1845? Identify the appropriate reason from the following options.
(a) Contractors did not pay their dues
(b) Contractors appointed few on high posts
(c) Contractors used government policies

(d) Contractors gave them loans on high interests

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Q.28: Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.
(a) In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament.
(b) The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.
(c) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.
(d) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.

Correct Answer is Option (b). 

Q.29: Identify the soil with the help of clues given below –

• develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall
• is low in humus content
• found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(a) Forest soil
(b) Yellow soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Laterite soil

Correct Answer is Option (d).

A. Forest Soil is loamy and silty in valley sides, while coarse grained in the upper slopes.

B. Yellow Soil develops in areas of low rainfall or crystalline igneous rocks.

C. Black Soil is rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime, but poor in phosphorus contents.

D. Laterite soil develops in areas of high temperature and heavy rainfall.

Q.30: Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-renewable resources
(c) Actual resources
(d) Potential resources

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Renewable resources can be reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes, such as: solar energy and wind energy .

Q.31: Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below:
(i) It is good for democracy.
(ii) It creates harmony in different groups.
(iii) It brings transparency in the governance.
(iv) It brings socio- political competition among parties.

Options:
(a) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) & (iv)

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Q.32: How Judiciary acts as an umpire in a federal nation?
(a) Judiciary rules over Centre and State
(b) Centre and Judiciary work collectively
(c) Courts can change structure of Constitution
(d) Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution

Correct Answer is Option (d).

The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.

Q.33: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the only official language of the state.

Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language and religion.

Options:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a). 

Q.34: Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(a) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2
(b) I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2
(c) I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2
(d) I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3

Correct Answer is Option (a).
(i) Defence is included in Union List because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country.
(ii) Police is included in State list as states are entirely competent to enact laws on local importance matter.
(iii) Education is included in Concurrent List as the Indian constitution has provisions to ensure that the state provides education to all its citizens. Education being a concurrent list subject enables the central government to legislate it in the manner suited to it.
(iv) Information Technology is included in the Residuary Subjects as it was not present at the time when the Constitution was being written. Union Government has the powers to make laws regarding this subject.

Q.35: Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the exam in? Select the appropriate option.
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 25

Correct Answer is Option (c).
Scheduled languages are one that is included in the 8th schedule of the constitution of India. States have the freedom to use whatever language they decide to use for official purposes. English is not a scheduled language.

Q.36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following information.

• Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.
• It is called as a third tier of the Government.
• The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.

Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Federal system
(b) Unitary Federal system
(c) Decentralised system
(d) Unitary system

Correct Answer is Option (c).

The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.

Q.37: Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?

(i) More powers with Centre

(ii) Residuary subjects with Centre

(iii) Equal subjects with Centre and State

(iv) Currency and Railways with Centre

(a) (i), (iii) & (iv)

(b) (i), (ii) & (iv) 

(c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(d) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

Correct Answer is Option (b).

Q.38: Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution.

(i) The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.

(ii) Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution.

(iii) It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.

(iv) The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.

(a) (i) & (ii)

(b) (ii) & (iii)

(c) (i) & (iii)

(d) (ii) & (iv)

Correct Answer is Option (a). 

Q.39: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio- economic development has happened in a country.
Reason ( R): Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human Development Index.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (c).

Human Development Report compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.

Q.40: Choose the correct option from the following:

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Since Courier generate services rather than goods. Hence it falls in service sector which is also called the tertiary sector.  

Q.41: Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given options :
Table for Comparison of Three Countries
Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after every three years of service. She has been given an opportunity to choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job location. She calculates average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to Country A. Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable
(b) Has most equitable distribution of income
(c) National income of its citizens is higher
(d) Average income of its citizens is lower

Correct Answer is Option (b).

In country A, the variation of income from Citizen 1 to Citizen 5 is very less as compared to other countries.

Q.42: Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options.
(a) 12.6
(b) 13.5
(c) 14.7
(d) 15.2

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on height and weight that applies to adult men and women. Body Mass Index or BMI = Weight in Kg/ (Height in Meters)² 

Q.43: A woman works at a sweet shop in her village on a contract basis and gets meagre salary after working the entire day. She doesn’t get any holidays or paid leave, rather her employer deducts her salary whenever she is absent from work. Find out in which of the following sectors she is working?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Service Sector
(c) Organized Sector
(d) Unorganised Sector

Correct Answer is Option (d).

This woman works in an unorganised sector wherein his employment is not secure , he is generally low paid and is not regularly paid. His employers do not make provision for overtime payment, paid leaves or holidays, medical facilities, gratuity and provident fund.

Q.44: According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India was

• Primary Sector - 44%
• Secondary Sector - 25%
• Tertiary Sector  - 31%

Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? Select the most suitable option from the following:

(a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed

(b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector

(c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors

(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector

Correct Answer is Option (a).

Population pressure, landlessness, environmental constraints, and technological changes in primary sector are some of the causes of underemployment in primary sector.

Q.45: Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Crude oil reserves in the entire world are depleting, we need to find a sustainable substitute for it.
Reason (R): Oil and petrol prices are increasing day by day.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (b). 

Human beings used them indiscriminately and this has led to the depletion of resources.

Q.46: A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work. His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Of which type of employment is this an example?
(a) Disguised employment
(b) Seasonal employment
(c) Over employment
(d) Cyclical employment

Correct Answer is Option (a).

When more people are working than its requirement then it is called disguised unemployment. So, even if we remove a few people from the job, the process of production will not be affected.

Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option: 
Earlier, in 1845, weavers in Silesia had a revolt against contractors who supplied them raw material and gave them order for finished textiles but drastically reduced their payments. The journalist Wilhelm Wolff described the events in a Silesian Village as follows: In these villages (with 18,000 inhabitants) cotton weaving is the most widespread occupation... The misery of the workers is extreme. The desperate need for jobs has been taken advantage of by the contractors to reduce the prices of the goods they order ... On 4th June at 2 p.m. a large crowd of weavers emerged from their homes and marched in pairs up to the mansion of their contractor demanding higher wages. They were treated with scorn and threats alternately. Following this, a group of them forced there was into the house, smashed its elegant window-panes, furniture, porcelain... another group broke into the storehouse and plundered it of supplies of cloth which they tore to shreds... The contractor fled with his families to a neighboring village, which, however, refused to shelter such a person. Its returned after 24 hours 5 later having requisitioned the army. In the exchange that followed, eleven weavers were shot.

Q.47: When aid this incident take place? 
(a) In 1848 
(b) In 1846 
(c) In 1845 
(d) 1844

Correct Answer is Option (c)

On 4th June, 1845

Q.48: The revolt was between contractors and .............................. . 
(a) Laborers 
(b) Weavers 
(c) Peasants 
(d) Customers

Correct Answer is Option (b)

On 4th June, 1845, Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors.

Q.49: How many inhabitants lived in Silesia? 
(a) 15,000 
(b) 16,000 
(c) 17,000 
(d) 18,000

Correct Answer is Option (d)

In this village ( with 18,000 inhabitants cotton weaving is the most widespread occupation

Q.50: Another group of weavers look into: 
(a) Storehouse 
(b) Guest-house 
(c) House 
(d) Farm-house

Correct Answer is Option (a)

First group broke out into weavers’ house and another group broke out into his store-house.

Q.51: Who was Wilhelm Wolff? 
(a) Contractor 
(b) Weaver 
(c) Journalist 
(d) Poet

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.52: Why were the contractors wanted to reduce the prices of demanded goods?
(a) The desperate need for jobs 
(b) The low supply of goods 
(c) Absence of good weavers 
(d) Lack of availability of raw material

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Read the source given below and answer questions by choosing the most appropriate option: 

Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. Some regions are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. Some regions can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and some regions have an acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has an abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has a very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels. Resource planning is a complex process that involves: (i) identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources. (ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set-up for implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right from the First Five Year Plan launched after Independence.

Q.53: Which of the following areas is not a rich source of coal deposits? 
(a) Jharkhand 
(b) Chhattisgarh 
(c) Madhya Pradesh 
(d) Uttarakhand

Correct Answer is Option (d)

The states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits.

Q.54: How many stages are there in the process of resource planning? 
(a) Two 
(b) Three 
(c) Four 
(d) Five

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Resource planning is a technique or skill of proper utilization of resources. Resource planning consists of three stages, identification and inventory of resources, evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate and matching.

Q.55: When did India start putting efforts into achieving the goals of resource planning? 
(a) First Five Year Plan 
(b) Second Five Year Plan 
(c) Third Five Year Plan 
(d) Fourth Five Year Plan

Correct Answer is Option (b)

India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right from the First Five Year Plan launched after Independence.

Q.56: Which of the following has plenty of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development? 
(a) Arunachal Pradesh 
(b) Ladakh 
(c) Madhya Pradesh 
(d) Rajasthan

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Arunachal Pradesh has an abundance of water resources but lacks in infra structural development.

Q.57: Arrange the following in the correct sequence: Resource planning in India which involves: 
(i) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. 
(ii) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources. 
(iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans. 
(a) (i) - (ii) - (iii) 
(b) (iii) - (i) - (ii) 
(c) (ii) - (i) - (iii) 
(d) (i) - (iii) - (ii)

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.58: There are places in India which are rich in cultural heritage but deficient in water resources. Identify the states which are at prominent level from the following options. 
(a) Karnataka and Kerala 
(b) Haryana and Punjab 
(c) Rajasthan and Ladakh 
(d) Delhi and Telangana

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Uttar Pradesh lies in northern part of India. It is called northern plains of India, which made of alluvial soil brought by three important Himalayan rivers.

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the heo; of specified information.

Q.59: On the political map of India, which soil is found in (A) region? 

(a) Black Soil 
(b) Desert Soil 
(c) Alluvial Soil 
(d) Laterite Soil

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Marked region is Rajasthan where Thar Desert is situated. Desert Soil is also called Arid Soil.

Q.60: On the same map, on which two states marked (B) dam is constructed? 
(a) Andhra Pradesh & Kerala 
(b) Andhra Pradesh & Karnataka 
(c) Andhra Pradesh & Telangana 
(d) Andhra Pradesh & Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Marked (B) is Nagarjuna Sagar Dam which is built on river Krishna situated on the border of Andhra Pradesh & Telangana.