Class 10 Exam  >  Class 10 Notes  >  CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10  >  Class 10 English: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 3

Class 10 English: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 PDF Download

Class-X
Time: 90 Minutes

M.M: 40

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

  1. The Question Paper contains THREE sections. 
  2. Section A-READING has 18 questions. Attempt a total of 14 questions, as per specific instructions for each question. 
  3. Section B-WRITING & GRAMMAR has 12 questions. Attempt a total of 10 questions, as per specific instructions for each question. 
  4. Section C-LITERATURE has 30 questions. Attempt 26 questions, as per specific instructions for each question. 
  5. All questions carry equal marks. 
  6. There is no negative marking.

Section - A

I. Read the passage given below.

  1. Social media has become almost a necessity for us, in today’s world. It’s become so important and evolved so much, that we carry our social media with us throughout the day, on our phones. 
  2. One of the major benefits of social media is that you can connect with people all over the world, for free. This comes in handy if you have friends who have travelled abroad. You can send them messages on Facebook or Twitter or Instagram and they can respond quickly from wherever they are. Social media helps to fortify and maintain your personal relationships, even with people who are far away from you. If you have a family member that’s travelling, you won’t have to wait until they return to hear about their adventures. Just hop on Facebook or Instagram and start chatting and exchanging pictures. 
  3. This ability to communicate quickly and easily with people overseas is also very convenient for those who do business, in foreign lands. Social media platforms provide a cheap, easy way to quickly communicate your point to your customers or clients, who are across the world. You can send a private message, publicly share something or video chat, for free. Using social media for a company is very cost effective and time efficient. Staying connected to these people is important to improve your business relationship and keep your company running properly. 
  4. Staying connected to your social networks on the platforms that you use can be vital to your professional success. Through social media sites, you can find jobs, inform your community of business opportunities and career openings and you can even monetize your accounts. Keeping a well-maintained network will help you achieve success in your career. A good site to look at, if you’re trying to create a professional network, is LinkedIn. The site is designed specifically to help you advance in your career. You’ll open up plenty of new opportunities that you didn’t have, before. 
  5. Being an active participant in social media is a great way to learn new things. News outlets are constantly using social media, to help keep people in the loop. Social media is the way that news is heard and it’s the way that news is spread. You can make the argument that staying connected to social media is, in fact, staying connected to life. It’s not only good for sharing and spreading news, it’s a great place to find out about people’s opinions on various topics. For example, if you’ve built a sports community, you’ll learn about the sports that you love. You can build communities around politics, business, cars, family, education and pretty much whatever other topic you’d like. Social media will enhance your life. It will provide you the chance to communicate, connect and be involved like never before. You’ll stay connected with news outlets, family, friends and virtually whatever else you’d like to connect with.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any eight out of the ten questions by choosing the correct option.
Q.1: One of the major benefits of social media is that : 
(a) you can see what is happening all over the world. 
(b) you can connect with people all over the world for free. 
(c) you can talk to people far away from you easily. 
(d) you can connect with people you have never met before.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
One of the major benefits of social media is that you can connect with people all over the world, for free. This comes in handy if you have friends who have travelled abroad.


Q.2: Using social media for a company is :
(a very cost effective.
(b) time efficient.
(c) very profitable.
(d) Both (a) and (b).

Correct Answer is Option (d)
This ability to communicate quickly and easily with people overseas is also very convenient for those who do business, in foreign lands. Social media platforms provide a cheap, easy way to quickly communicate your point to your customers or clients, who are across the world.


Q.3: Being an active participant in social media is a great way to :
(a) meet new people.
(b) learn new things.
(c) increase your social circle.
(d) stay connected to life.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Being an active participant in social media is a great way to learn new things. News outlets are constantly using social media, to help keep people in the loop.


Q.4: In today’s world, social media has become a _______________________ for us.
(a) necessity
(b) luxury
(c) backbone
(d) support

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Social media has become almost a necessity for us, in today’s world. It’s become so important and evolved so much, that we carry our social media with us throughout the day, on our phones.


Q.5: Which of the following is NOT a social media platform?
(a) Facebook
(b) Instagram
(c) Google
(d) Twitter

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Google is a search engine used to search information on the Internet.


Q.6: For whom is the ability to communicate quickly and easily with people overseas very convenient?
(a) Those who live away from their families.
(b) Those who have connections with people in other countries.
(c) Those who travel to foreign lands a lot.
(d) Those who do business in foreign lands.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The ability to communicate quickly and easily with people overseas is also very convenient for those who do business, in foreign lands.


Q.7: Social media platforms that you use can be vital to your professional success because through them you can :
1. Create a business circle and increase your business connections.
2. Inform your community of business opportunities.

3. Find jobs.
4. Monetize your accounts.
5. Inform your community of career openings.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 

(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.8: Which is a good site to look at if you’re trying to create a professional network?
(a) Twitter
(b) Gmail
(c) LinkedIn
(d) Facebook

Correct Answer is Option (c)
LinkedIn is mainly used by professionals to develop a professional circle and network.


Q.9: Which of the following is NOT a feature of social media?
(a) Social media will enhance your life.
(b) Social media comes in handy if you have friends who have travelled abroad.
(c) Social media is the way that news is spread, even if it is not heard this way.
(d) Keeping a well-maintained network will help you achieve success in your career.

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Social media is the way that news is heard, and it’s the way by which news is spread.


Q.10: Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?
(a) Benefits of Social Media
(b) Social Media— A Necessity
(c) Importance of Staying Connected Through Social Media
(d) The Revolution of the Whole World Around the Social Media

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The passage discusses the various benefits one can derive if he/she remains connected through social media.


II. Read the passage given below.

  1. Dried fruits are basically fresh fruits that have been dried. Fruits are dehydrated by conventional sun-drying or other drying techniques. They shrivel up and the pulpy remains are the dry fruits that you enjoy at breakfast or during those mid-meal breaks. As the water content is removed, the fruits become energy-bombs with concentrated nutrients. 
  2. Some of the most common dry fruits and nuts are raisins, cashew nuts, almonds, walnuts, dates, figs, prunes and apricots. Some varieties of dried fruits like mangoes, pineapples, cranberries, etc., are also available in sugar-coated candied versions. Of these, dry fruits devoid of any additives are the best for your body. 
  3. Walnuts and almonds for the brain, cashews to fight migraine, apricots for healthy eyes and raisins for digestion — these are only a few benefits of dried fruits and nuts. Dry fruits also help the body in the following ways : 
  4. Loaded with essential nutrients, the benefits of dry fruits and nuts for health cannot be overlooked. Dry fruits increase your nutrient intake as they are rich in potassium, iron, folate, calcium and magnesium. The antioxidants boost your immunity, keeping you healthy and free from diseases and other illnesses. 
  5. People who include nuts and dried fruits in their diet are well-aware of dry fruits’ benefits for weight loss. When consumed in moderation, they help you reduce weight and stay fit. Those who swear by dry fruits are known to take in lesser fats, sugar and more essential nutrients for proper metabolism. 
  6. Raisins and prunes are rich in iron and are beneficial for those who are anaemic. Dry fruits are packed with nutrients like Vitamin B, minerals like phosphorous and copper and unsaturated fats that boost the regeneration of blood cells and haemoglobin in the body. Almonds, figs, pistachios and cashew nuts also give energy and build stamina. Raisins play a significant role in lowering systolic blood pressure. They control cholesterol and reduce inflammatory markers in the body. Almonds contain Vitamin E and monounsaturated fatty acids that prevent spikes in cholesterol levels and maintain it at a healthy optimum. Brazil nuts keep a check on blood pressure as they are a source of potassium, magnesium and calcium. As you can see, dry fruits and nuts reduce the risk of heart diseases, stroke and heart attacks. 
  7. Dry fruits are a rich source of beta carotene, an antioxidant that battles anxiety and depression in people. These antioxidants also improve memory. Dry fruits help to improve sleep and enhance learning and performance. 
  8. Are There Any Side Effects of Eating Dried Fruits? 
  9. Since dried foods do not contain water, they are packed with concentrated sugar and are high on calories. They also have reduced Vitamin C and lesser antioxidants than fresh fruits. This may pose a threat to our health if not consumed in moderation. Some of the side effects of eating dried fruits are: 
    • The high sugar content increases the risk of diabetes. 
    • Dried fruits with the extra calories can be a major reason for weight gain. 
    • They are also known to augment heart-related issues if consumed in unhealthy quantities.
    • Sulphites found in dried fruits can cause asthma attacks and also trigger allergies, rashes and stomach cramps in some cases.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer any six out of the eight questions by choosing the correct option
Q.11: After the water content is removed, the dry fruits become ____________ with concentrated nutrients. 
(a) healthier 
(b) energy-bombs 
(c) fatty sugar 
(d) unsaturated fats

Correct Answer is Option (b)
As the water content is removed, the fruits become energy-bombs with concentrated nutrients.


Q.12: Raisins and prunes are beneficial for those who :
(a) have high blood pressure.
(b) are anaemic.
(c) suffer from anxiety.
(d) have migraine.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Raisins and prunes are rich in iron and are beneficial for those who are anaemic.


Q.13: Some of the most common dry fruits and nuts are : 
1. Mangoes 
2. Cashew nuts 
3. Lychee 
4. Walnuts 
5. Dates 
6. Raisins 
7. Cranberries 
8. Apricots 
(a) 2, 4, 5, 6 and 8
(b) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7
(c) 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8
(d) 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Now-a-days mangoes, cranberries and pineapples are also dried but their sugar coated versions are available.


Q.14: Dried fruits pose a threat to our health if :
(a) they are not dried properly.
(b) they are not soaked in water.
(c) they are not taken in moderation.
(d) they are not taken in correct form.

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Since dried foods do not contain water, they are packed with concentrated sugar and are high on calories. They also have reduced Vitamin C and lesser antioxidants than fresh fruits. This may pose a threat to our health if not consumed in moderation.


Q.15: Brazil nuts keep a check on blood pressure as they are :
(a) monounsaturated fatty acids that prevent spikes. 

(b) packed with minerals like phosphorous and copper.
(c) source of nutrients like Vitamin B and C.
(d) a source of potassium, magnesium and calcium.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Brazil nuts keep a check on blood pressure as they are a source of potassium, magnesium and calcium.


Q.16: Which of the following is NOT a benefit provided by the antioxidants in the dried fruits?
(a) Keeping you healthy
(b) Boosting your immunity
(c) Keeping you free from diseases or illnesses
(d) Lowering your systolic blood pressure

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Dry fruits are a rich source of beta carotene, an antioxidant that battles anxiety and depression in people. These antioxidants also improve memory. Dry fruits help to improve sleep and enhance learning and performance.


Q.17: Which of the following dried fruits give energy and build stamina?
(a) Walnuts, apricots and almonds
(b) Raisins and prunes
(c) Almonds, figs, pistachios and cashew nuts
(d) Cashews nuts, raisins and Brazil nuts

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Almonds, figs, pistachios and cashew nuts also give energy and build stamina.


Q.18: Dried foods are packed with concentrated sugar and high on calories because:
(a) They are processed foods. 

(b) They do not contain water. 
(c) They are sautéed in watered sugar.
(d) They are energy boosting foods.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Some varieties of dried fruits like mangoes, pineapples, cranberries, etc., are also available in sugar-coated candied versions.


Section - B

III. Answer any five out of the six questions by selecting the most appropriate option for each.
Q.19: The hospital board clearly mentioned that you_______smoke in the hospital as it is a health hazard for all. 
(a) cannot 
(b) must not 
(c) need not 
(d) might not

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.20: There’s never ______ petrol left after Rahul uses the car.
(a) much
(b) little
(c) many
(d) a little

Correct Answer is Option (a)
After use, the petrol left will be less in quantity indicated by ‘never much’.


Q.21: I am taking driving lessons now. Hopefully, I ___________my driving test by November. 
(a) will take 
(b) would pass 
(c) will have taken 
(d) will be taking

Correct Answer is Option (c)
By November, the work would have been done – refers to Future Perfect tense.


Q.22: Which option displays the correct change of the following to reported speech?
Sunitha asked Venkat, “How much is the rent for your flat?”
(a) Sunitha asked Venkat how much was his rent for flat.
(b) Sunitha asked Venkat how much the rent for his flat was. 

(c) Sunitha enquires from Venkat that how much rent he pays.
(d) Sunitha told Venkat how much the rent for his flat was.

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.23: Which option displays the correct change of the following to reported speech?
She said, “I told Damanjit to send you an e-mail three days ago.”
(a She told that Damanjit had mailed you three days then.
(b) She informed me that Damanjit has mailed me three days before.
(c) She says that she has told Damanjit to send me an e-mail three days then.
(d) She said that she had told Damanjit to send an e-mail to me three days before.

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.24: The dog _______________ under the chair before the children arrived.
(a) has been hiding
(b) was hid 

(c) have hid
(d) had hidden

Correct Answer is Option (d)


IV. Answer any five out of the six questions given, with reference to the context below.
You are Debashree, a resident of Siliguri, Assam. You have to write a letter to the editor of a national daily drawing attention towards the difficulty faced by differently-abled people at tourist places.
Q.25: Select the option with relevant aspects that Debashree should select, for this letter.
(1) The newspaper’s name 

(2) Attached proof of the newspaper subscription
(3) Debashree’s address
(4) Formal tone
(5) Expected date of the letter’s receipt
(a) (1) and (5)
(b (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (3) and (5) 

(d) (1), (3) and (4)

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.26: Select the appropriate subject for this letter.
(a) Drawing attention towards differently-abled people 

(b) The Differently-abled: Neglected or Misunderstood?
(c) Tourist places are an inconvenience to differently-abled people
(d) Inconvenience Faced by the Differently-abled at Tourist Spots

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The subject of the letter must be a simple statement of fact or the problem, giving attractive headings is useful for news items or banners – not for letter to editors.


Q.27: Which option should Debashree select, to elaborate on the difficulties faced by the differently-abled?
(a) 

  • Absence of ramps for wheelchairs 
  • Unclean toilets 
  • High ticket-prices

(b) 

  • Unsuitable visiting timings 
  • Tourist guides untrained in sign language 
  • Lack of braille-script tourist pamphlets

(c) 

  • Absence of ramps for wheelchairs 
  • Tourist guides untrained in sign language 
  • Lack of braille-script tourist pamphlets

(d) 

  • Unclean toilets 
  • High ticket-prices
  • Unsuitable visiting timings

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.28: Debashree shares some suggestions in her letter, to address the issue.
Select the option that helps her complete these suggestions, appropriately.
In my opinion, the media can play a pivotal role in transforming people’s
(i)___________. Also,
(ii)___________against negligence to the needs of the differently-abled, at the tourist spots, shall go a long way in bringing about a positive change.
(a) 

(i) beliefs and traditions
(ii) composing songs 

(b)
(i) perceptions and attitudes
(ii) cautioning the authorities
(c)
(i) preferences 

(ii) protesting 
(d)
(i) interactions 

(ii) keeping minimum interference

Correct Answer is Option (b)


Q.29: Select the option that correctly justifies the choice of the concluding portion of this letter.
(1) I expect the authorities to take actions on this issue. Please post my thoughts in your newspaper.
(2) I hope my views get published in the columns of your newspaper so that this issue may garner more public support and awareness.
(a) Yes, to Option (1) because of the authoritative tone.
(b) No, to Option (1) because of the informal tone. 

(c) Yes, to Option (2) because of the tone of polite expectation. 
(d) No, to Option (2) because of the certainty in the tone.

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.30: Select the option that completes the concluding line appropriately.
I hope that my letter will _____________________
(a) help spread awareness about the issue.
(b) lead to action against all authorities responsible at tourist spots.
(c) improve circulation of the national daily.
(d) result in positive reviews by the readers.

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Section - C

V. Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow: 
Dear Teacher,
My Wanda will not come to your school anymore. Jake also. Now we move away to big city. No more holler. 'Pollack'. No more ask why funny name. Plenty of funny names in the city.
Yours truly, Jan Petronski

(The Hundred Dresses)

Q.31: Jan's tone in the writing of the letter is not:
(a) distressing 

(b) spiteful 
(c) hurt
(d) painful

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Distressing, hurt and painful mean aching. Spiteful means malicious or vindictive. Jan does not want to take revenge, so, he is not spiteful.


Q.32: What, according to the letter, was the primary reason that prompted Mr Petronski to take the decision to move to a big city?
(a) His wish to achieve success in the big city.
(b) His urge to join his relatives who mostly lived in the big city. 

(c) His anxiety over their poverty in the small city.
(d) His agony about his children being viewed as 'outsiders' by their schoolmates.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Mr. Petronski’s children were ridiculed and made fun of at school. They were made to think that they belonged to ‘another world’ or ‘outsiders’ in short.


Q.33: The dictionary says the following about migration: Migration involves the movement of people (birds, fish etc.) from one place to another with intentions of settling, permanently or temporarily, at a new location (geographic region).
Which of the following options INCORRECTLY uses 'migration'?
(a) After gold was found in the uninhabited region, there was a migration to that area.
(b) Bears sleep through winters. This migration helps bears to use their stored energy much more slowly.
(c) There was a mass migration of youngsters to the tagged locale, to assist the cause for charity.
(d) Scientists have studied the migration of fish over long distances in the river.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The bears do not move to another place during winters. They take long sleep during that season. This process is called hibernation and not migration.


Q.34: The phrase 'Pollack' reveals a discrimination on the basis of: 
(a) race
(b) gender 

(c) religion
(d) wealth

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Race is used to refer to persons based on some common social qualities. Here, the word ‘Pollack’ refers to discrimination on the basis of society to which Wanda belonged to.


Q.35: The line- Plenty of funny names in the city— suggests that the city: 
(a) is a melting pot of people from different parts of the world. 
(b) has foreign people willing to give opportunities to the poor.
(c) is a safe haven for immigrants if they have funny names. 

(d) has a special status for all who are willing to be funny.

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Melting pot of funny names means that people in city belong to different parts of the world.


VI. Read the given extract to attempt the questions that follow: 
He just felt a bit dizzy. Then he flapped his wings once and he soared upwards. "Ga, ga, ga, Ga, ga, ga, Gawcolah," his mother swooped past him, her wings making a loud noise. He answered her with another scream. Then his father flew over him screaming. He saw his two brothers and his sister flying around him curveting and banking and soaring and diving. Then he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly, and commended himself to dive and soar and curve, shrieking shrilly. 

(The First Flight)

Q.36: Pick the most appropriate reason why the young gull felt dizzy.
(a) He hadn't eaten anything for a day. 

(b) He was dizzy with excitement. 
(c) He was wary of heights.
(d) He was flying for the first time.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Dizzy here means giddy, a feeling which one experiences when someone is doing a new thing for the first time. Here, the young bird was flying for the first time.


Q.37: How would you describe the screams of the gulls in the given extract?
(a) Elation
(b) Bewilderment
(c) Shock
(d) Protection

Correct Answer is Option (a)
His parents were delighted and overjoyed, that is elated, when the young bird started flying. They were not bewildered or shocked (as they knew that he could fly). They were not trying to protect him by flying over him, they were just expressing their joy.


Q.38: The line "he completely forgot that he had not always been able to fly" implies the:
(a) great confidence the young gull had in his skills.
(b) naturalness of the act of flying for the young gull.
(c) satisfaction and joy of flying together as a family.
(d) desire of the young gull to leave his fears behind.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Flying is natural to birds. It was just that the young bird learnt it later that the birds are made for flying.


Q.39: The extract refers to the many movements of the young gull's brothers and sister. Choose the option that correctly sequences these movements.
(a) The young gull's brothers and sister flew by tilting their wings, rose high, made darting movements and plunged headfirst.
(b The young gull's brothers and sister flew by plunging headfirst, making darting movements, titled their wings and rose high.
(c) The young gull's brothers and sister flew with darting movements, tilted their wings, rose high and plunged headfirst.
(d) The young gull's brothers and sister flew by rising high, plunging headfirst, making darting movements and tilting their wings.

Correct Answer is Option (c)


Q.40: Who is the author of this story?
(a) G. L. Fuentes
(b) Liam O’ Flaherty
(c) Frederick Forsyth
(d) Eleanor Estes

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The title of the story is ‘His First Flight’.


VII. Read the given extract and answer the questions by choosing the correct option.
I saw it go
Merrily bouncing, down the street, and then
Merrily over — there it is in the water!
No use to say ‘O there are other balls’:
An ultimate shaking grief fixes the boy
As he stands rigid, trembling, staring down
All his young days into the harbour where
His ball went 

(The Ball Poem)

Q.41: The poet uses the ball as a symbol of the boy’s:
(a) sense of adventure.
(b) carefree childhood days. 

(c) ability to bounce back. 
(d) extended family.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The childhood days are full of fun and carelessness. These days, once lost, can never be regained.


Q.42: The poet feels that there is no point consoling the boy as:
(a) it would give him false hope.
(b) he might demand for a new ball. 

(c) it might distress him further.
(d) whatever he has lost, is irretrievable.

Correct Answer is Option (d)
The ball has gone down the alley and it is impossible to find the ball back in the vast water body where it has fallen.


Q.43: The word ‘harbour’ DOES NOT have a meaning similar to:
(a) Port
(b) Pier 

(c) Dock
(d) Cargo

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Port, pier and dock are the places where ships are moored. Cargo is the luggage that is loaded on the ship for transportation.


Q.44: ‘Merrily over — there it is in the water!’ The dash here is meant to convey:
(a) some familiar experience.
(b) a feeling of excitement.
(c) a sense of unexpected interruption.
(d) some thoughtful moments.

Correct Answer is Option (c)
This dash brings an interruption in the flow of the poem. This interruption is what the poet wants to convey in the mind of the reader about the sudden interruption in life due to loss of something or someone.


Q.45: The word that DOES NOT indicate a physical manifestation of sorrow in the boy, is:
(a) Worthless
(b) Shaking
(c) Trembling
(d) Rigid

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Shaking, trembling and rigid are not expressing only sorrow. The feeling of worthlessness develops sorrow.


VIII. Read the given extract and answer the questions by choosing the correct option.
He discovered the joys of being bowled over, tramped on and squashed every few minutes. He became an accepted member of the gang, an unlikely, silky little object among the shaggy crew, fighting like a tiger for his share at meal times and hunting rats in the old henhouse at night. He had never had such a time in his life. All the while, Mrs. Pumphrey hovered anxiously in the background, ringing a dozen times a day for the latest bulletins. 

(The Triumph of Surgery)

Q.46: Read the following statements, each of which describes the gist of the given extract.
Select the option that captures the essence of the extract correctly.
Statement (i) – It highlights the kind of comforts and luxuries that Tricki was used to at home.

Statement (ii) – It brings out a contrast between Tricki and Mrs. Pumphrey’s state of being.
Statement (iii) – It reflects that Tricki was happier at the surgery, and loved being with other dogs.

Statement (iv) – It shows Tricki’s journey with his peers at the surgery, and documents his recovery.
(a) Statements (i) and (ii) 
(b) Statements (iii) and (iv) 
(c) Statements (i) and (iii)
(d) Statements (ii) and (iv)

Correct Answer is Option (d)
Statement (i) is not correct as Tricki found having meal at doctor’s place more satisfying than at home. Statement (iii) is not correct as Tricki enjoyed his company more than others initially. So, only Statements (ii) and (iv) are correct.


Q.47: What does the reference to Tricki as a “silky little object” signify?
(a) Tricki was a very small and rather pampered dog.
(b) Tricki was comfortably attired in fine silks and warm coats.
(c) Unlike the other dogs, Tricki had lived in the lap of luxury with care and grooming.
(d) The narrator’s mockery of Tricki’s life and treatment with Mrs. Pumphrey.

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Silky here refers to his well grooming and little refers to his delicateness living a life of luxury.


Q.48: Why does the narrator describe being “tramped on and squashed” as joys? 
(a) To suggest the irony about the strange ways of dogs. 
(b) To mention the simple pleasures of canine life.
(c) To compare it to Tricki’s earlier play-time at the house.
(d) To direct attention towards Tricki’s successful recovery.

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Although these are treated as pathetic in human life, but in canine behaviour, these are normal routines or pleasures that need to be enjoyed.


Q.49: “All the while, Mrs. Pumphrey hovered anxiously in the background”.
Given below are different types of pet parenting styles described in Country Living, an e-magazine. Choose the option that best reflects the kind of pet owner Mrs. Pumphrey was. (i) Traffic Light pet owners have a healthy balance of rules and freedom and give clear and consistent signals for ‘yes’ and ‘no’.
(ii) Entranced pet owners have the best intentions, but as soon as their pet locks eyes with them and gives their command, they are at their pet’s beck and call.
(iii) The Goose pet owners go all-out in protecting their pet. They often limit their time away from their pet, especially puppies. 

(iv) The Baggage Handler pet owners love being close to their pets and going on adventures together. They are always mindful of the pet’s comfort and security.
(a) Option (i) 

(b) Option (ii) 
(c) Option (iii)
(d) Option (iv)

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Mrs. Pumphrey wants the best for her pet even though it appears to be strict, but as soon as she looks at her pet, she forgets all about it and becomes lenient.


Q.50: Pick the option that reveals Tricki’s characteristics in the context of ‘fighting like a tiger for his share at meal times and hunting rats in the old henhouse at night.’
(1) Selfish 

(2) Happy 
(3) Greedy 
(4) Confident
(5) Sturdy
(6) Cruel
(a) 2, 4 and 5 

(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 5 

(d) 3, 4 and 6

Correct Answer is Option (a)


IX. Attempt the following.
Q.51: "They looked like black mountains standing in front of me across the sky". What looked like black mountains?
(a) Black mountains
(b) Storm clouds
(c) Tall buildings
(d) Black plateau

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The aeroplane was stuck up in dark heavy storm clouds and posed threat to the plane like it was going to crash into them.


Q.52: What food did the seagull’s mother get for it?
(a) Earthworms
(b) Fish
(c) Insects
(d) Rodents

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The sea gulls were hunting for food in sea which is abundant in fish.


Q.53: How did Anne justify her being talkative in the essay?
(A) She discussed the subject topics in class.
(B) It is a habit.
(C) It is an inherited trait from her mother and you can’t do much about it.
(D) The class is boring.

Correct Answer is Option (c)
Anne Frank expressed that her mother is talkative and she has genetically got this habit. The genetic habits do not change and as a result, she could not stop being talkative herself.


Q.54: What tells you that Peggy wasn’t cruel?
(a) Protected small children from bullies. 

(b) Couldn’t stand animals getting mistreated.
(c) Did not make Wanda cry. 

(d) All of the above

Correct Answer is Option (d)


Q.55: The poet says, "Of a day I had rued". What is the meaning of "rued"?
(a) Ruined
(b) Held in regret 

(c) Ruled
(d) Conquered

Correct Answer is Option (b)
Rued means to repent or to regret some thing or event.


Q.56: Why does the poet decide not to condole the boy? 
(a) He is busy
(b) He is indifferent

(c) It will be of no use
(d) He is happy

Correct Answer is Option (c)
The poet knew from the reaction of the boy that he was too attached to the ball. As no amount of condoling could bring back the ball that had  gone down the stream, so he considered it to be of no use to condole the boy.


Q.57: The poem ‘A Tiger in the Zoo’ draws a contrast between _______________ and _______________.
(a) animals, human beings
(b) tiger in a zoo, tiger in a forest 

(c) tiger in a zoo, humans
(d) humans, tiger in forest

Correct Answer is Option (b)
The movements and reactions of a tiger in a zoo and a tiger in a jungle have been contrasted to in the poem.


Q.58: Who is the author of the story "A Triumph of Surgery"?
(a) James Herriot
(b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Robert Arthur
(d) Victor Canning

Correct Answer is Option (a)


Q.59: How did the narrator attempt at being friends with Anil?
(a) Flattering him 

(b) Teasing him 
(c) Introducing himself
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (a)
The narrator tried to flatter his friends to make them attracted towards himself and then draw benefits from them.


Q.60: Griffin’s body became as transparent as __________________.
(a) glass

(b) ice
(c) air
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Transparent as air means it cannot be touched whereas Griffin’s body was solid. Transparent as ice means it is clearly visible but Griffin’s body was invisible. Transparent as glass means it is see through but solid and can be touched.

The document Class 10 English: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 3 | CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 is a part of the Class 10 Course CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10.
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FAQs on Class 10 English: CBSE Sample Question Paper- Term I (2021-22) - 3 - CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10

1. What is the format of the Class-X English exam?
Ans. The Class-X English exam follows a term-based format. This means that the exam is divided into two terms, with each term having its own question paper. The given sample question paper is for Term I of the academic year 2021-22.
2. How much time is allocated for the Class-X English exam?
Ans. The Class-X English exam has a time duration of 90 minutes. Students need to manage their time effectively to complete all the sections within this time limit.
3. What is the marking scheme for the Class-X English exam?
Ans. The marking scheme for the Class-X English exam is based on a maximum marks (M.M) of 40. Each question in the exam carries a certain number of marks, and students are awarded marks based on the accuracy and quality of their answers.
4. How many sections are there in the Class-X English exam?
Ans. The Class-X English exam is divided into three sections: Section A, Section B, and Section C. Each section focuses on different aspects of the English language and requires students to demonstrate their reading, writing, and comprehension skills.
5. Are there any sample question papers available for the Class-X English exam?
Ans. Yes, CBSE provides sample question papers for the Class-X English exam. These question papers are designed to help students understand the exam pattern, question types, and marking scheme. The given article includes a sample question paper for Term I of the academic year 2021-22.
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