Government & Administration - Solved Questions (1995-2002) | UPSC Topic Wise Previous Year Questions PDF Download

Question 1: With reference to Indian polity, which one of the following statements is correct?    [2002]
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to the Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States

Correct Answer is Option (b)

President can issue an ordinance only when both houses of parliament are not in session (Art 123). No minimum age is prescribed for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court in the Constitution. The age of a Judge of the SC shall be determined by such authority and in such manner as parliament may by law provide. NDC is composed of the PM as its head, all Union Cabinet ministers, the CMs of all states, CMs/Administrators of all UTs and the members of the Planning Commission. There is no constitutional provision regarding the accountability of the planning commission the parliament.

Question 2: Consider the following statements with reference to India:   [2002]
1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (b)

The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers and salaries. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is 6 years or till he attains the age of 65 years or whichever is earlier.

Question 3: In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is: [2002]

(a) ₹ 5,000 and ₹ 2,500

(b) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 2,500

(c) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 5,000

(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 7,500

Correct Answer is Option (c)

As per the given options the right answer is (c). As if now (2018); The security deposit for Lok Sabah election is Rs 25,000 while for on Assembly election it is Rs 10,000. A de feasted indicate who fails to secure move than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit.

Question 4: The term of the Lok Sabha: [2002]
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The term of the LS can be extended by not more than one year at a time during the proclamation of national emergency under Article 352.

Question 5: Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?    [2002]
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee

Correct Answer is Option (a)

The finance commission will be governed by the principles to allocate grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the consolidated fund of India.

Question 6: Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of India?   [2001]
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer

Correct Answer is Option (d)

As per provisions under Article 149, the Comptroller and Auditor General shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States and of any other authority or body as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the Union and of the States as were conferred on or exercisable by the Auditor General of India immediately before the commencement of this Constitution in relation to the accounts of the Dominion of India and of the Provinces respectively.

Question 7: In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?   [2001]
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees in various ministries
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Parliamentary Committees are formed to dispose off the large volume of work in time but with detailed scrutiny. Their appointment, terms of office as well as functions etc are regulated by provisions under Article 118(1). These are of 2 kinds: Standing Committees and Ad-hoc Committees.

Question 8: In which one of the following areas does the State Government not have control over its local bodies?    [2001]
(a) Citizens’ grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters

Correct Answer is Option (a)

The State government does not have control over its local bodies in matters of Citizens’ grievances

Question 9: Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:      [2001]
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political parties
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission
3. A national level political party is one which is recognized in four or more states
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties recognised by the Election commission

Which of these statement are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (d)

All the statements are correct.

Question 10: Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct?    [2000]
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for consideration within 14 days
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration

Correct Answer is Option (a)

A Money bill can be introduced only in LS (not in RS) that too on the recommendation of the President.

Question 11: The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as:    [2000]
(a) decorum
(b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation
(d) yielding the floor

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Decorum means maintaining proper behaviour. Interpellation means formal right of a Parliament to submit formal question to the government. Crossing the floor means to vote against the party lines. Yielding the floor means the speaker giving part of his or her speaking time to another speaker. While this practice is allowed in some legislative bodies, it is not allowed in deliberative assemblies, unless specifically authorized in the rules.

Question 12: Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:     [2000]
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Under Article 76, impeachment procedure of the Attorney-General is not provided. He shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.

Question 13:  The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to:    [2000]
(a) distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Article 280; It shall be the duty of commission to make recommendations to the President as to:
(i) the distribution between union and states of the met proceeds of taxes, grants in aid of the revenues of the states out of the consolidated Fund of India, any matter referred to the commission by the president in the interests of sound finance.

Question 14: The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing international treaties:    [2000]
(a) with the consent of all the State
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State

Correct Answer is Option (d)
It is the sole prerogative of Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution.

Question 15: The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is:    [2000]
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Presently (2018) Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and odisa each have 5 seats reserved for schedule caste in the Lok- Sabha.
But according to the question, Madhya Pradesh is the appropriate ensure.

Question 16: Consider the following functionaries:    [2000]
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Minister
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence in the Order of Precedence is:
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Chief Justice of India, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Election Commissioner and Cabinet Secretary is the correct order of precedence.

Question 17: If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament:    [1997]
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he was to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn in

Correct Answer is Option (a)
Because no-confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (not in RS) by the opposition.

Question 18: In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousands in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means the population as ascertained by the: [1997]
(a) 1991 Census
(b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census
(d) 1961 Census

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The expression at present population in 1997 here means the previous census, i.e., 1971.

Question 19: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: [1997]

(a) A-3, B-4- C-1 D-2
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Oath or affirmation by the President under article 60; Oath or affirmation by Judge of SC, Members of Parliament, Ministers for the Union comes under Third Schedule of the Constitution.

Question 20: Which one of the following is not a principle of "Panchsheel"?   [1997]
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs

Correct Answer is Option (a)

The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence are a series of agreements between the People’s Republic of China and India. They were formed in 1954. The 5 principles are called the Panchsheel, which form the basis of the Non-Aligned Movement, were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru. Those are:

1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
2. Mutual non-aggression against anyone.
3. Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
4. Equality and mutual benefit
5. Peaceful co-existence

Question 21: Which one of the following is a part of the electoral college for the President but, not the forum for his impeachment?   [1996]
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies

Correct Answer is Option (d)

According to article 54, electoral college of President includes elected members of LS, RS and State legislative assemblies. Under article 61, members of state legislative assemblies do not take part in the process of impeachment of the president.

Question 22: Which one of the following statements about the duties of Prime Minister is correct?    [1996]
(a) Is free to choose his minister only from among members of either House of the Parliament
(b) Can choose his cabinet after consulting the President of India.
(c) Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
(d) Has only limited power in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary powers vested the President of India

Correct Answer is Option (c)

PM has complete discretion to choose his ministers in the Cabinet not necessarily from the two Houses of Parliament but can also choose any other person. That person should become member of either house within 6 months from the date he enters the office.

Question 23: Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time?    [1996]
(a) Boycott
(b) Gherao
(c) Bandh
(d) Hartal

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Captain Charles Cunningham Boycott was a British land agent whose ostracism by the local community in Ireland as part of a campaign for agrarian tenants' rights in 1880 gave the English language the verb to boycott, meaning "to ostracise".

Question 24: Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):   [1996]
Assertion (A): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? 

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Both statements are correct but do not explain the assertion. At present, the Minorities Commission has a Statutory status. 103rd Constitutional Amendment Bill provides for granting constitutional status to the Minorities Commission. The bill has not passed by the Houses of Parliament.

Question 25: Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?     [1995]
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home
Departments in the States
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States
concerned
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The Election commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country. The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.

Question 26: 

Which one of the following will fit in the place marked 'X'?    [1995]
(a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members
(c) Not more than 20 representative of Union Territories
(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of the Parliament

Correct Answer is Option (c)

The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution of India is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the states; up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President of India, if, in his/her opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House.

Question 27: Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?    [1995]
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature

Correct Answer is Option (d)

As Indian follows Universal Adult Suffrage elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature i. e., Las have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The State Legislature besides making laws also has one electoral power in electing the President of India. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly along with the elected members of Parliament are involved in this process.

Question 28: Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council even though the Constitution? (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?     [1995]
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer is Option (d)

There are only five states with bicameral legislature (Legislative assembly as well as Legislative Council) - UP, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Jammu & Kashmir

Question 29: Which of the following is the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?   [1995]
(a) West Bengal and Kerala
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka

Correct Answer is Option (b)

In Gujarat and Maharashtra the Chief Ministers come under the ambit of Lok Ayukta Act.

Question 30: Which of the followings political parties is/are national political parties?    [1995]
1. Muslim League
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers Party of India
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) None

Correct Answer is Option (d)

All the parties mentioned are state level parties.

Question 31: The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with:    [1995]
(a) de-nationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the north-east
(d) the problem of the Chakmas

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990) was concerned with electoral reforms. It suggested providing state funding in kind to political parties. It also suggested that a candidate should not be allowed to contest election from more than two constituencies.

Question 32: If in an election to a State legislative assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that:    [1995]
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate's victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election

Correct Answer is Option (d)

A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit. When a very large number of candidates contest the election, due to distribution of votes, the winning candidate may get less than 1/6th of valid voters.

Question 33: If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be:   [1995]
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 6

Correct Answer is Option (*)

In this question no data is provided for percentage of SC population. That's why the number of reserved seats for SCs cannot be predicted.

Allocation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha are made on the basis of proportion of Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the State concerned to that of the total population, vide provision contained in Article 330 of the Constitution of India read with Section 3 of the R. P. Act, 1950. Article 332 Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of the States:

(1) Seats shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, except the Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous districts of Assam, in the Legislative Assembly

of every State.

(2) Seats shall be reserved also for the autonomous districts in the Legislative Assembly of the State of Assam.

(3) The number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assembly of any State under clause (1) shall bear, as nearly as may be, the same proportion to the total number of seats in the Assembly as the population of the Scheduled Castes in the State or of the Scheduled Tribes in the State or part of the State, as the case may be, in respect of which seats are so reserved, bears to the total population of the State.