Constitution and Political System Previous Year Questions with Solutions

Q.1. Name the only erstwhile princely State in India that was allowed to have its own separate Constitution on its accession to India.    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Baroda
(d) Gwalior

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.2. Which of the following statements accurately captures India's position on torture?    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) India is a not a signatory to the UN Convention Against Torture.
(b) India has signed the UN Convention Against Torture but has not ratified it.
(c) The Supreme Court has asked the Union of India to introduce a domestic legislation against torture.
(d) Torture is defined as a crime in the Indian Penal Code.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.3. 'Basmati' rice is an example of what type of intellectual property?    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) Geographical indication
(b) Copyright
(c) Trade secret
(d) Domain name

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.4. In Part VIII of the Constitution of India, the Parliament is empowered to create local legislature and council of ministers for certain Union Territories. Name the Union Territory or Territories in India that have a legislative assembly and council of ministers.    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) NCT of Delhi only
(b) Chandigarh only
(c) NCT of Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir
(d) NCT of Delhi and Puducherry

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.5. Who is the only Judge of the Supreme Court of India to also have been the Vice-President of India?    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) Justice A. N. Ray
(b) Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah
(c) Justice Patanjali Sastri
(d) Justice P. N. Bhagwati

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.6. Who replaced Justice Ruth Bader Ginsburg on the Supreme Court of the United States?    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) Neil Gorsuch
(b) Brett Kavanaugh
(c) Amy Coney Barrett
(d) Sonia Sotomayor

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.7. Which of the following positions is not provided for in the Constitution of India?    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) Attorney General for India
(b) Solicitor General of India
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.8. In Kulbhushan Jadhav's case between India and Pakistan before the International Court of Justice, the 15-1 majority found Pakistan to be in violation of obligations under which international law instrument?    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) Vienna Convention on Consular Relations
(b) International Convention on Civil and Political Rights
(c) United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners
(d) United Nations Convention Against Torture

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.9. Who among the following was not a judge of the Supreme Court of India?    (AIELT, 2021)
(a) Justice R. Banumathi
(b) Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra
(c) Justice Manjula Chellur
(d) Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.10. Consider the following statements:
I. The Administer, appointed by the President, is the constitutional head of the Union Territory.
II. The relationship of the Union Territories with the Central Government is a part of the federal structure.
Which of the abovementioned statements is/are correct?    (NLUD 2020)
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I, II
(d) None

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.11. In September 2019, High Court of ____ has held that the right to have access to the internet is part of fundamental right to education and right to privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.    (NLUD 2020)
(a) Delhi
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Mumbai

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.12. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Delimitation Commission?    (NLUD 2020)
I. It determines the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all constituencies nearly equal.
II. The orders of Delimitation Commission have the force of law and can be challenged in a court of law.
III. Constitution of India has put a freeze on fresh delimitation until 2025.
IV. The constitution has also capped the number of Lok Shaba & Rajya Sabha seats to a maximum of 550 & 250 respectively
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) I, II, III
(c) II, III
(d) I, IV

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.13. Which of the following statements regarding Anti-defection Law is/are incorrect?    (NLUD 2020)
I. Grounds of disqualification on ground of defection are provided in the 10th Schedule to the Constitution.
II. If 1/3rd of the members of the political party defect from it than it is not defection.
III. Decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification of a member under Anti-Defection Law cannot be challenged in a court of law.
IV. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote.
(a) I, II,
(b) I, II, IV
(c) II, III
(d) I, II, III, IV

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.14. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding preventive detention?    (NLUD 2020)
I. National Security Act as well as Article 22, Constitution of India provide for preventive detention in certain cases
II. Maximum duration in case of preventive detention can be till 12 months
III. In case of preventive detention, accused has the right to be informed about the grounds of arrest at the time of arrest.
IV. In case of preventive detention, accused has no right to be represented by a lawyer.
(a) I, II
(b) III, IV
(c) I, III, IV
(d) I, II,IV

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.15. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India, 1950 prescribes the forms of oaths or affirmations for constitutional functionaries?    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) Sixth Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Fifth Schedule
(d) Third Schedule

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.16. Who declared a state of emergency in India under Article 352 of the Constitution of India in the year 1975?    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Giani Zail Singh
(c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(d) Sanjay Gandhi

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.17. Exchange of Enclaves between India and Bangladesh was executed through    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) 100 Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) 101 Constitutional Amendment Act
(c) 102 Constitutional Amendment Act
(d) 99 Constitutional Amendment Act

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.18. Article 44 of the Constitution of India is related to    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) Uniform Civil Code for citizens
(b) Provision of early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years
(c) The duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition
(d) Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.19. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended during nationa lemergency?    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) Article 19 and 21
(b) Article 14 and 21
(c) Article 14 and 19
(d) Article 20 and 21

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.20. Which among the following recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) Swaran Singh Committee
(b) Nehru Committee
(c) Gadgill Committee
(d) Mandal Commission

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.21. Under Article 25 of the Constitution of India, the right to profess, practice and propagate religion is subject to the following restrictions:
A. Public Interest
B. Morality
C. Health
D. Other Provisions of Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) A and B only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.22. Which of the following terms was inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution of India through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) Sovereign
(b) Democratic
(c) Secular
(d) Unity

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.23. Which of the following grounds can be invoked to restrict freedom of speech and expression according to the Constitution of India?    (DU LLB 2020)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. Sovereignty and Integrity of India
B. Friendly relations with foreign States
C. Security of the State
D. Contempt of court
(a) A, Band Donly
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.24. Which Amendment of the Constitution of India reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
(b) 69th Constitutional Amendment
(c) 61st Constitutional Amendment
(d) 83rd Constitutional Amendment

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.25. The Election Commission of India does not have the power to    (DU LLB 2020) 
(a) Register a political party
(b) Re - register a political party
(c) Conduct election to State Legislatures
(d) None of these

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.26. Which practices among the following constitute 'corrupt practice' in the Parliamentary election?    (DU LLB 2020)
(a) Bribery
(b) Procuring assistance of the government servants
(c) Promoting the feeling of hatred and enmity between different classes of citizens on ground of religion, caste etc.
(d) All of these

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.27. Among the following M.L.As., who was disqualified by the Governor during January 2017 under Article 192 of the Constitution for undertaking government contracts?     (CLAT, 2017)
(a) Srinivas Prasad of Karnataka
(b) Uma Shankar Singh of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Jayalalithaa of Tamil Nadu
(d) P.C. George of Kerala.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.28. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India authorize the Chief Justice of India to request a retired Judge to join the Supreme Court?    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) 129
(b) 128
(c) 127
(d) 126

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.29. A minority community may reserve upto _____ seats for members of its own community in an educational institution established and administered by it even if the institution receives aid from the State.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) 50%
(b) 40%
(c) 33%
(d) 27%

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.30. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016?    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
I. GST Act is a comprehensive direct tax on manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services throughout India.
II. The Act will transform India into a common market, harmonizing myriads of State and Central levies into a national goods and services tax which is expected to boost manufacturing and reduce corruption.
III. It provides for Constitution of a Goods and Services Tax Council by inserting Article 297A in the Constitution.
IV. GST will be based on input tax credit method.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) All of the above.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Directions (Qs. 31-35): The following questions consist of two statements, one labeled as 'Assertion' and the other as 'Reason'. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
Q.31. Assertion (A): The framers of the Indian Constitution were keen to preserve the democratic values to which Indians had attached the highest importance in their struggle for freedom.
Reason (R): The Constitution describes India as a Union of States, thereby implying the indestructible nature of its unity.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.32. Assertion (A): The "basic features" of the Constitution cannot be amended by exercising the power of Amendment under Article 368.
Reason (R): Though Fundamental Rights, as such are not immune from Amendment en bloc, particular Rights or Parts thereof may be held as "basic feature."    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.33. Assertion (A): Legislations which gives a wide power to the executive to select cases for special treatment, without indicating the policy, may be set aside as violative of equality.
Reason (R): Article 14 of tile Constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before law or equal protection of laws within the territory of India.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.34. Assertion (A): If the Constitution is flexible it may be playing at the whims and caprices of the ruling party.
Reason (R): The framers of the Indian Constitution were keen to avoid excessive rigidity.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.35. Assertion (A): A person suffering from AIDS can be restricted in his movements by law.
Reason (R): Where policy is laid down, discretion is not of reasonableness.    (NLU, Delhi, 2017)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.36. When was the Constitution of India adopted?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) 26 November, 1948
(b) 26 November, 1949
(c) 26 January, 1950
(d) 26 January, 1949

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.37. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, 1950 provides for the right to property?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Article 31
(b) Article 43
(c) Article 31A
(d) Article 300A

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.38. According to Article 1 clause (1) of the Constitution of India, 1950, "India, that is _____ . shall be a Union of States."    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Bharat
(b) Hindustan
(c) Republic of India
(d) Democratic Republic of India

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.39. The President of India exercise his powers ____.     (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) through Vice-President
(b) either directly or through officers subordinate to him
(c) through Cabinet Ministers
(d) through Prime Minister

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.40. How can Governor of a State by removed?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) By President of India anytime.
(b) By impeachment by that State legislature.
(c) By the Union Government at the request of the Chief Minister.
(d) By Supreme Court on a writ petition filed against the Governor.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.41. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, 1950, provides that the law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 141
(c) Article 129
(d) Article 372

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.42. When was Article 21A (right to education) inserted in Part III of the Constitution?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) 2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2003
(d) 2005

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.43. How many members the President can nominate to the Rajya Sabha?     (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.44. Who decides on the issue whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) President of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Finance Minister

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.45. Who amongst the following was not a Chief Justice of India?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(b) Justice R.M. Lodha
(c) Justice Krishna Iyer
(d) Justice J.S. Verma

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.46. Who was the first Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Jagjivan Ram
(b) Ram Suhag Singh
(c) Y.B. Chavan 
(d) Sharad Pawar

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.47. From the Constitution of which country, the procedure for amendment of the Constitution has been borrowed by India?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017) 
(a) Constitution of France
(b) Constitution of United States
(c) Constitution of Germany
(d) Constitution of South Africa.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.48. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) 17
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 22.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.49. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Money Bill?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) On the question whether a Bill is Money Bill or not, the decision of the President is final.
(b) A Bill is not to be deemed a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body.
(c) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in a Legislative Council.
(d) If the Legislative Assembly does not accept any of the recommendations of the Legislative Council, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by Legislative Assembly.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.50. Who presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.51. 'To provide free legal aid to an accused' is covered under ____.    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Discretion of the State
(d) Moral Rights

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.52. The Legislative Assembly of each State shall consists of _____.    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) not more than Five hundred fifty and not less than fifty members
(b) not more than Five hundred and not less than sixty members
(c) not more than Four hundred and not less than seventy members
(d) not more than and not less than as many members as decided by Parliament

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.53. The 'Collegium System' is ____.    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) a process to appoint judges in the High Courts and the Supreme Court of India
(b) a process to elect the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) a process to elect President and Vice- President of India
(d) a process to elect Leader of the Opposition Party in the Lok Sabha.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.54. In United States, the residuary power lies with ____.    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) States
(b) Federal Government
(c) States and Federal Government depending upon the subject-matter as the Constitution did not define it in clear and cogent terms
(d) Local Governments.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.55. Under which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India, 1950, the Supreme Court may grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence or order?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Article 131
(b) Article 134
(c) Article 136
(d) Article 143

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.56. Justice social, economic and political is _____.    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into account while making law
(b) an ideal enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
(c) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(d) guaranteed by Supreme Court through its writ jurisdiction.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.57. Which of the following amendments, amended the Preamble to the Constitution of India, 1950?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 43rd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 24th Amendment.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.58. Which among the following writs literally means "what is your authority"?    (D.U. LL.B., 2017)
(a) Mandamus
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.59. The Chairman of Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the Constituent Assembly was:    (CLAT, 2013)
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) J.B. Kripalani.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.60. The number of High Courts in India is:    (CLAT, 2013)
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 21 
(d) 28

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.61. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV of the Constitution of India?    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(I) Equal pay for equal work
(II) Uniform Civil Code
(III) Small family norm
(IV) Education through mother tongue at primary level
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and IV.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.62. Who decides whether a Member of Parliament is subject to any disqualification?    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Election Commissioner
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.63. ‘Regarding No-Confidence Motion, which is true    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) it is expressed against an individual minister or council of ministers
(b) no grounds have to be set out for the motion
(c) not less than 50 members have to support it for the Speaker to grant leave for its introduction
(d) it is always brought against the Prime Minister.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.64. Who is responsible for the registration of voters in India?    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Government
(b) Voters
(c) Political parties
(d) Election Commission.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.65. High Courts have been constituted in all the States in January, 2013 except    (NLU, Delhi, 2013)
(a) Assam
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Manipur
(d) Tripura

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.66. Pranab Kumar Mukherjee, 76 was declared elected as ____ President of India on 22nd July, 2012.    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) 10^th
(b) 11^th
(c) 12^th
(d) 13^th

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.67. Which among the following Vice-Presidents in India resigned from his office to contest for the post of President?    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) V. V. Giri
(b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) R. Venkataraman

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.68. Clemency of capital punishment is granted by:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Jail Superintendent
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(d) President of India.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.69. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India as:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Federal State
(b) Quasi-federal State
(c) Unitary State
(d) Union of the States.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.70. Choose the Fundamental Rights available to Indian citizens but not to aliens.    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
I. Freedom of speech and expression
II. Equality before the law
III. Right of minorities
IV. Protection of life and liberty
(a) I and III
(b) I and IV
(c) 11 and IV
(d) II and IE.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.71. In which of the following cases the Constitution of India allows an exception to the rule of equality?    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) President and Governor
(b) Prime Minister and Chief Minister
(c) Union Law Minister and Law Minister of a State
(d) Deputy Prime Minister and Deputy Chief Minister.

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.72. Under which Article of the Constitution of India has untouchability been abolished and its practice prohibited?    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 20
(d) Article 21

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.73. Right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights from the Constitution of India during the tenure of:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Charan Singh
(d) Indira Gandhi

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.74. A National Emergency in India remains in operation, with the approval of Parliament for.    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Maximum of 1 year
(b) Indefinite period
(c) Maximum of 2 years
(d) Maximum 3 years.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.75. Which of the following fundamental rights, guaranteed by the Constitution of India cannot be suspended during emergency?    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(l)(a)
(b) Right to Constitutional remedies under Articles 32 and 226
(c) Right under Articles 21 and 22
(d) Right under Articles 20 and 21.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.76. The current strength of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies in India is to be frozen up to:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) 2026
(b) 2016
(c) 2018
(d) 2015

Correct Answer is Option (a)

Q.77. Parliament or a State Legislature in India can declare a seat vacant, if a member absents himself without notice from the session for more than:     (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.78. A hung Parliament is a Parliament:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Which meets in between two regular sessions.
(b) In which no political party gets an absolute majority
(c) In which joint sessions of both the Houses of the Parliament take place.
(d) Constituted for emergency purpose.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.79. As per Constitutional requirement the Parliament of India shall meet at least:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Once a year
(b) Twice a year
(c) Thrice a year
(d) Four times a year.

Correct Answer is Option (b)

Q.80. Total number of ministers including Prime Minister shall not exceed _____ % of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
(a) 20%
(b) 14%
(c) 15%
(d) 18%

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.81. The reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj institutions is:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) 50% of total seats
(b) 33% of total population
(c) Proportionate to women population
(d) 33% of total scats.

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.82. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a/an:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Advisory body
(b) Consultative committee
(c) Co-ordinating and supervisory authority
(d) Administrative authority.

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.83. Constitution Amending Bill passed by the Parliament of India also requires to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than half of the States in regard to the:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Representation of States in Parliament
(d) Constitutional remedies

Correct Answer is Option (c)

Q.84. Right to education is added as Article 21A in the Constitution of India by:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) 86^th Constitutional Amendment, 2002
(b) 88^th Constitutional Amendment, 2003
(c) 89^th Constitutional Amendment, 2003
(d) 90^th Constitutional Amendment, 2003.

Correct Answer is Option (a) 

Q.85. Which among the following Indian Constitutional Amendments included 4 more languages in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India?    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) 89^th Amendment, 2003
(b) 90^th Amendment, 2003
(c) 91^st Amendment, 2003
(d) 92^nd Amendment, 2003

Correct Answer is Option (d)

Q.86. The official language of a Supreme Court is:    (D.U. LL.B., 2013)
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Any language convenient to the client
(d) All of the above.

Correct Answer is Option (b)