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GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

General Awareness

Q1: Select the one that does not belong based on its method of obtaining nutrition.
(a) Rafflesia
(b) Viscum
(c) Cuscuta
(d) Sequoia

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Ans: (d)

  • Rafflesia, Viscum, and Cuscuta are all examples of parasitic plants, which obtain nutrients from other plants.
  • Sequoia, on the other hand, is a tree that performs photosynthesis, making its own food using sunlight.
  • This difference in nutrition mode is why Sequoia is the odd one out.
  • In summary, Sequoia is a self-sustaining plant, while the others rely on other plants for their nutrients.

Q2: These crustaceans, known for their hard shells, are referred to as decapods, indicating they possess 10 legs. One pair of these legs is larger and functions as pincers, aiding in grasping and tearing foo(d) Which of the following qualifies as a decapod?
(a) Grasshopper
(b) Lobster
(c) Spider
(d) Squid

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Ans: (b)

  • Decapods are a specific group of crustaceans characterized by having 10 legs. This includes animals like lobsters and crabs.
  • The enlarged pincers on one pair of legs are essential for grasping and tearing food, which is a key feature of decapods.
  • Among the options, the lobster is the only one that fits the definition of a decapo(d)
  • Other options like grasshoppers, spiders, and squids do not belong to the decapod category.

Q3: Which of the following materials does not allow light to pass through it partially?
(a) Fog
(b) Frosted glass
(c) Butter paper
(d) Water

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Ans: (d)

  • Fog, frosted glass, and butter paper are all examples of materials that are translucent, meaning they allow some light to pass through but not clearly.
  • Water, on the other hand, is transparent, allowing light to pass through completely.
  • Thus, the correct answer is D, as it does not fit the definition of being translucent.

Q4: Which of the following is referred to as 'nature's aspirin' due to its active component that aids in pain relief?
(a) Extract of Cinchona leaves
(b) Seeds of coca plant
(c) Extract of willow bark
(d) Extract of chamomile flowers

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Ans: (c)

  • Extract of willow bark is known as 'nature's aspirin' because it contains salicin, which is similar to the active ingredient in aspirin.
  • This extract has been used for centuries to help with pain relief and inflammation.
  • Unlike other options, such as the extract of Cinchona leaves or seeds of coca plant, willow bark specifically targets pain relief.
  • Thus, it is recognized for its natural properties that can effectively alleviate discomfort.

Q5: Which gaseous pollutant is known to damage the chlorophyll found in plants?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Ozone

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Ans: (c)

  • Sulphur dioxide is a harmful gas that can significantly affect plants by destroying their chlorophyll.
  • This damage leads to reduced photosynthesis, which is essential for plant growth.
  • While other gases like carbon dioxide are vital for plants, sulphur dioxide is a pollutant that harms them.
  • Understanding the impact of these pollutants is crucial for environmental protection and agriculture.

Q6: Which of the following agreements pertains to the regulation of cross-border transport of dangerous waste and its disposal?
(a) Montreal Protocol
(b) Basel Convention
(c) Vienna Convention
(d) Bonn Convention

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Ans: (b)

  • Basel Convention is the correct answer as it specifically addresses the control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal.
  • This agreement aims to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of hazardous waste.
  • It establishes guidelines for the proper management and disposal of such waste, ensuring that it is handled safely.
  • Other options like the Montreal Protocol focus on substances that deplete the ozone layer, not hazardous waste.

Q7: What represents the 'World Wide Fund for Nature'? 
(a) The giant panda
(b) Tiger
(c) Elephant
(d) Rhinoceros

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Ans: (a)

  • The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) uses the giant panda as its symbol because it is an endangered species and represents the need for conservation.
  • The choice of the panda highlights the importance of protecting wildlife and their habitats.
  • Other options like Tiger, Elephant, and Rhinoceros are also endangered but are not the official symbol of WWF.
  • Thus, the correct answer is the giant panda, which effectively communicates WWF's mission.

Q8: Who formulated the principles of electrolysis?
(a) Michael Faraday
(b) Isaac Newton
(c) Albert Einstein
(d) James Clerk Maxwell

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Ans: (a)

  • Michael Faraday is the scientist known for his significant contributions to the field of electrolysis.
  • He established the laws of electrolysis, which describe how electric current affects chemical reactions in solutions.
  • These laws are fundamental in understanding how substances are decomposed or deposited during electrolysis.
  • Faraday's work laid the groundwork for many modern applications in chemistry and electrochemistry.

Q9: Vultures and hyenas are classified as what type of animal?
(a) Producers
(b) Herbivores
(c) Decomposers
(d) Scavengers

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Ans: (d)

  • Vultures and hyenas are known as scavengers because they feed on the remains of dead animals.
  • They play a crucial role in the ecosystem by helping to clean up carcasses, which prevents the spread of disease.
  • Unlike producers, which create their own food, or herbivores, which eat plants, scavengers rely on the leftovers from other animals.
  • Understanding their role helps us appreciate the balance of nature and the importance of every creature in the food chain.

Q10: Who was the creator of India's inaugural supercomputer, PARAM 8000?
(a) Vijay P. Bhatkar
(b) Sankar Kumar Pal
(c) Raj Reddy
(d) Anil Kumar

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Ans: (a)

  • Vijay P. Bhatkar is recognized as the mastermind behind the development of PARAM 8000, which was India's first supercomputer.
  • This supercomputer marked a significant milestone in India's computing capabilities during the 1990s.
  • It was developed to enhance research and development in various scientific fields.
  • Understanding the importance of supercomputers, Bhatkar's work laid the foundation for future advancements in technology in India.

Q11: Which layer of the Sun can be seen exclusively during a total solar eclipse?
(a) Core
(b) Corona
(c) Photosphere
(d) All of these

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Ans: (b)

  • Corona is the outermost layer of the Sun's atmosphere and is only visible during a total solar eclipse when the Moon completely covers the Sun's bright surface.
  • The Core is the innermost part of the Sun where nuclear fusion occurs, but it is not visible.
  • The Photosphere is the visible surface of the Sun, but it is obscured during a total solar eclipse.
  • Thus, the correct answer is the Corona, as it becomes visible only during this rare event.

Q12: Triton is the largest natural satellite of which planet?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Neptune
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus

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Ans: (b)

  • Triton is known as the largest moon of the planet Neptune.
  • It is unique because it has a retrograde orbit, meaning it moves in the opposite direction to Neptune's rotation.
  • This moon is also notable for its thin atmosphere and geysers that erupt nitrogen gas.
  • In contrast, the other options like Jupiter, Saturn, and Uranus have their own large moons, but Triton is specifically associated with Neptune.

Q13: Which constellation contains the Pole Star?
(a) Ursa major
(b) Ursa minor
(c) Cassiopeia
(d) Scorpius

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Ans: (b)

  • Ursa minor is the constellation that includes the Pole Star, also known as Polaris.
  • The Pole Star is significant because it is located nearly at the north celestial pole, making it a reliable point of reference for navigation.
  • While Ursa major is a well-known constellation, it does not contain the Pole Star.
  • Other options like Orion and Scorpius are prominent constellations but do not include the Pole Star either.

Q14: Who was the first Indian woman to be crowned Miss Universe in 1994?
(a) Aishwarya Rai
(b) Lara Dutta
(c) Harnaaz Sandhu
(d) Sushmita Sen

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Ans: (d)

  • Sushmita Sen made history by becoming the first Indian woman to win the Miss Universe title in 1994.
  • This achievement was significant as it showcased the beauty and talent of Indian women on a global stage.
  • Her victory inspired many young women in India to pursue their dreams in various fields.
  • Sushmita's win remains a proud moment in Indian pageantry and continues to be celebrate(d)

Q15: Which nation is referred to as the Land of Tulips?
(a) Australia
(b) Netherlands
(c) France
(d) Spain

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Ans: (b)

  • Netherlands is famously known as the Land of Tulips due to its vast fields of these beautiful flowers.
  • The country has a rich history of tulip cultivation, especially during the Dutch Golden Age.
  • Every spring, millions of tourists visit the Keukenhof Gardens to see the stunning tulip displays.
  • While other countries grow tulips, none are as iconic for them as the Netherlands.

Q16: Which of the following is not considered a gallantry award?
(a) Bharat Ratna
(b) Kirti Chakra
(c) Param Vir Chakra
(d) Ashoka Chakra

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Ans: (a)

  • Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in India, given for exceptional service towards the nation, but it is not a gallantry awar(d)
  • Kirti Chakra, Param Vir Chakra, and Ashoka Chakra are all awards specifically given for acts of bravery and valor.
  • Gallantry awards recognize individuals for their courage, especially in military or dangerous situations.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Bharat Ratna, as it does not fall under the category of gallantry awards.

Q17: Florence Nightingale is also known as
(a) The Iron Lady
(b) The Lady with the Lamp
(c) The Lady with Miracle Touch
(d) The Healing Lady

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Ans: (b)

  • Florence Nightingale is famously referred to as The Lady with the Lamp due to her dedication to nursing during the Crimean War.
  • She would often walk through the wards at night, carrying a lamp, which symbolized her commitment to caring for wounded soldiers.
  • This title highlights her role in transforming nursing into a respected profession.
  • Her efforts in healthcare reform and sanitation have made her a significant figure in medical history.

Q18: Arctic Circle is an imaginary line that encircles the Earth at 
(a) 66.5° North
(b) 23.5° South
(c) 45° North
(d) 10° South

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Ans: (a)

  • Arctic Circle is located at a latitude of 66.5° North, marking the boundary of the polar region.
  • This line indicates the point where the sun does not set during the summer solstice and does not rise during the winter solstice.
  • It is important for understanding climate and daylight patterns in the northern hemisphere.
  • Other latitudes mentioned do not correspond to the Arctic Circle, making option A the correct choice.

Q19: Who was the tirthankara in Jainism?
(a) Siddhartha Gautama
(b) Mahavira
(c) Parshivanatha
(d) Ashoka

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Ans: (b)

  • Mahavira is recognized as the 24th tirthankara in Jainism, playing a crucial role in establishing the religion's principles.
  • He emphasized the importance of non-violence, truth, and asceticism.
  • While Siddhartha Gautama is known as the Buddha, he is not associated with Jainism.
  • Parshivanatha is another tirthankara but not the last one, which is Mahavira.

Q20: 'Loquacious' refers to someone who is .
(a) One who studies the science of language
(b) One who talks a lot
(c) One who has knowledge of literature
(d) One who is very quiet

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Ans: (b)

  • Loquacious describes a person who is very talkative or chatty.
  • In this context, the correct answer is B, which means "one who talks a lot."
  • The other options refer to different meanings, such as studying language or being quiet.
  • Understanding the meaning of loquacious helps in recognizing how it relates to communication styles.

Q21: Which of the following is not a book authored by Anita Desai?
(a) Talkative Man
(b) In Custody
(c) Journey to Ithaca
(d) The Village by the Sea

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Ans: (a)

  • Talkative Man, In Custody, and Games at Twilight are all works by Anita Desai.
  • Journey to Ithaca is written by Anita Desai, but Games at Twilight is also hers.
  • The correct answer is Talkative Man, which is not a novel by her.
  • Thus, the option A is the right choice as it does not belong to her list of novels.

Q22: Who is credited with the phrase 'Unity in diversity' to characterize India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

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Ans: (c)

  • Jawaharlal Nehru is recognized for coining the phrase 'Unity in diversity' to express the idea of India's rich cultural variety.
  • This phrase emphasizes the importance of different cultures, languages, and religions coexisting harmoniously within the country.
  • Nehru believed that despite these differences, the people of India share a common identity and spirit.
  • His vision was to promote national integration while respecting the unique characteristics of various communities.

Q23: The artwork depicted in the image is a significant tempera painting on a poplar wood panel created by Sandro Botticelli. It is among the most discussed and debated paintings globally. Can you name it?
(a) La Primavera
(b) The Birth of Venus
(c) Liberty Leading the People
(d) Irises

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Ans: (a)

  • La Primavera is a famous painting by Sandro Botticelli, known for its vibrant colors and intricate details.
  • This artwork is often regarded as a symbol of spring and rebirth, showcasing various mythological figures.
  • It has sparked much discussion and debate over its meaning and interpretation throughout history.
  • Being a tempera painting on poplar wood, it highlights Botticelli's unique style and technique.

Q24: 'Chikankari' is a well-known embroidery technique originating from which city?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Indore
(c) Udaipur
(d) Lucknow

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Ans: (d)

  • Chikankari is a traditional form of embroidery that is particularly associated with Lucknow, a city in India.
  • This intricate embroidery style is characterized by its delicate and detailed patterns, often done on fabrics like cotton and silk.
  • It has a rich history and is known for its floral designs and geometric patterns, making it a popular choice in fashion.
  • Lucknow is celebrated for preserving and promoting this unique art form, which attracts many artisans and tourists alike.

Q25: With which sport is the term 'Pommel Horse' related?
(a) Gymnastics
(b) Table Tennis
(c) Ice hockey
(d) Polo

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Ans: (a)

  • Pommel Horse is a piece of equipment used in gymnastics, specifically for male gymnasts.
  • This apparatus requires athletes to perform various acrobatic movements while maintaining balance.
  • It is not associated with sports like billiards, ice hockey, or polo.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Gymnastics, as it directly relates to the use of the Pommel Horse.

Q26: Who is referred to as the 'Golden Girl'?
(a) PT Usha
(b) Karnam Malleswari
(c) Saina Nehwal
(d) Mary Kom

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Ans: (a)

  • PT Usha is famously known as the 'Golden Girl' due to her remarkable achievements in athletics.
  • She gained this nickname because of her outstanding performances and medals in various competitions, particularly in the 1980s.
  • Her speed and dedication made her a prominent figure in Indian sports, inspiring many.
  • While other athletes like Karnam Malleswari and Saina Nehwal are also celebrated, PT Usha holds this specific title.

Q27: Which Vitamin supports the metabolisation of carbohydrates in the body?
 (a) B1 
(b) B2 
(c) B3 
(d) B12

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Ans: (a)
Vitamin B1 or Thiamine supports metabolisation of carbohydrates.

Q28: What is the minimum value that can be assigned to '*', ensuring that the number is divisible by 11?
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 4

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Ans: (d)

  • To determine the minimum value for '*', we need to check the divisibility rule for 11. This rule states that the difference between the sum of the digits in odd positions and the sum of the digits in even positions should be either 0 or a multiple of 11.
  • By substituting different values for '*', we find that when '*' is 4, the number meets the divisibility condition.
  • Thus, the least value for '*' that allows the number to be divisible by 11 is 4.

Q29: Which generation of computers is associated with artificial intelligence?
(a) First generation
(b) Fourth generation
(c) Fifth generation
(d) Second generation

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Ans: (c)

  • Fifth generation computers are designed to utilize artificial intelligence to perform tasks that require human-like reasoning and learning.
  • They focus on natural language processing, machine learning, and knowledge representation.
  • In contrast, the first, second, third, and fourth generations primarily focused on hardware advancements and basic programming.
  • Thus, the correct answer is the fifth generation, as it represents the era where AI technologies are integrated into computing.

Q30: The region around a star where a planet is at the perfect distance to allow liquid water to exist is referred to as 
(a) Goldilocks zone
(b) Habitable zone
(c) Living zone
(d) Both A and B 

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Ans: (d)

  • Goldilocks zone and Habitable zone are terms that describe the same concept: the ideal distance from a star where conditions are just right for liquid water.
  • This zone is crucial for the possibility of life as we know it, as water is essential for all known forms of life.
  • Options A and B both accurately describe this area, making option D the correct choice.
  • Thus, the answer is both A and B, as they refer to the same concept of a suitable environment for life.

Current Affairs

Q31: Who was the recipient of the 'Song of the Year' award at the Grammy Awards 2023?
(a) Bonnie Raitt for Just like that
(b) Brandi Carlile for Broken Dreams
(c) Taylor Swift for All Too Well
(d) Beyonce for Break My Soul

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Ans: (a)

  • Bonnie Raitt won the prestigious 'Song of the Year' award at the Grammy Awards 2023 for her song Just like that.
  • This award recognizes the songwriter's skill and the impact of the song in the music industry.
  • Raitt's win highlights her talent and contribution to music, showcasing her as a respected artist.
  • The Grammy Awards are known for celebrating the best in music, making this achievement significant.

Q32: When is the International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination observed annually?
(a) December
(b) June
(c) September
(d) March

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Ans: (d)

  • The International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination is observed every year on March 21. This day is significant as it promotes the fight against racial discrimination worldwide.
  • The date was chosen to honor the Sharpeville Massacre in South Africa, which occurred on March 21, 1960, when police opened fire on a peaceful protest against apartheid laws.
  • This observance encourages governments and organizations to take action against racial discrimination and to promote equality.
  • It serves as a reminder of the ongoing struggle for human rights and the importance of standing against racism in all its forms.

Q33: Who has been appointed as the External Auditor for the International Labour Organisation?
(a) Girish Chandra Murmu
(b) Shashi Kant Sharma
(c) Rajiv Mehrishi
(d) None of these

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Ans: (a)

  • Girish Chandra Murmu has been chosen as the External Auditor for the International Labour Organisation (ILO).
  • This position involves overseeing the financial operations and ensuring transparency within the ILO.
  • The role is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the organisation's financial practices.
  • Murmu's experience in auditing and governance makes him a suitable candidate for this important role.

Q34: In which Indian state was Asia's largest 4-metre International Liquid Mirror Telescope inaugurated?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) West Bengal

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Ans: (c)

  • Uttarakhand is the state where Asia's largest 4-metre International Liquid Mirror Telescope has been inaugurate(d)
  • This telescope is significant because it uses a unique liquid mirror technology, which is different from traditional telescopes.
  • It is located in a region that provides clear skies, making it ideal for astronomical observations.
  • The inauguration of this telescope marks a major advancement in India's capabilities in the field of astronomy.

Q35: Which team claimed the first title in the Women's Premier League?
(a) Delhi Capitals
(b) Mumbai Indians
(c) Gujarat Giants
(d) Chennai Super Kings

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Ans: (b)

  • Mumbai Indians emerged as the champions of the inaugural Women's Premier League, showcasing their dominance in the tournament.
  • This victory marked a significant achievement for the team, highlighting their strong performance throughout the league.
  • The Women's Premier League aims to promote women's cricket and provide a platform for female athletes to shine.
  • Winning the first title sets a high standard for the team and inspires future competitions in women's sports.

Q36: What is the focus of 'International Yoga Day 2023'?
(a) Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
(b) Yoga for Unity and Tranquility
(c) Yoga for Home and Yoga with family
(d) Yoga for Well Being

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Ans: (a)

  • International Yoga Day 2023 emphasizes the theme of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam, which means "the world is one family." This highlights the importance of unity and connection among all people.
  • The theme encourages individuals to practice yoga as a means to foster harmony and peace across the globe.
  • By promoting this theme, the day aims to inspire collective well-being and understanding through the practice of yoga.
  • Overall, it reflects a vision of global togetherness and the role of yoga in achieving it.

Q37: Who has been recognized as the wealthiest sports team owner in the Forbes billionaire list for 2023?
(a) Steve Ballmer
(b) Mukesh Ambani
(c) Shah Rukh Khan
(d) Jerry Jones

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Ans: (b)

  • Mukesh Ambani has been identified as the richest sports owner according to the Forbes billionaire list for 2023.
  • This ranking highlights his significant wealth and influence in the sports industry.
  • Ambani's ownership of the Mumbai Indians, a successful cricket team in the Indian Premier League, contributes to his status.
  • The list reflects the financial power of sports team owners and their impact on the sports worl(d)

Q38: What is the name of the first robotic check-in assistant introduced by Emirates in 2023?
(a) Meraz
(b) Sara
(c) Ava
(d) Stuart

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Ans: (b)

  • Sara is the name of the world's first robotic check-in assistant that Emirates launched in 2023.
  • This innovative assistant is designed to enhance the check-in experience for passengers.
  • It represents a significant step in automation within the airline industry.
  • By using robotics, Emirates aims to improve efficiency and customer service at airports.

Q39: Which crown was worn by King Charles III during his significant coronation ceremony?
(a) St. Charles' Crown
(b) St. John's Crown
(c) St. Francis' Crown
(d) St. Edward's Crown

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Ans: (d)

  • St. Edward's Crown is the traditional crown used in the coronation of British monarchs.
  • This crown symbolizes the royal authority and is made of gold, adorned with precious stones.
  • King Charles III chose this crown to represent the continuity of the monarchy during his historic event.
  • The use of this crown connects him to the rich heritage of British royalty.

Q40: To commemorate the opening of the new Parliament building, which denomination of coin was released by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
(a) ₹ 75
(b) ₹ 50
(c) ₹ 30
(d) ₹ 100

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Ans: (a)

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi released a special coin to celebrate the inauguration of the new Parliament building.
  • The denomination of the coin is ₹ 75, which signifies the 75th anniversary of India's independence.
  • This release is a way to honor the significance of the new building in India's democratic process.
  • Other options like ₹ 50, ₹ 30, and ₹ 100 do not represent the specific coin released for this occasion.

Life Skills

Q41: Your friends are teasing the new student by using terrible names. How would you respond?
(a) You will join them and call the new student by horrible names.
(b) You will suggest some more horrible and funnier names to your friends to enjoy.
(c) You will tell your friends that this is a mean thing to do and will try to stop them.
(d) You will advise the new student to accept such treatment.

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Ans: (c)

  • Choosing to tell your friends that their behavior is mean is the right approach. It shows empathy and support for the new student.
  • Joining in or encouraging the teasing only makes the situation worse and can hurt the new student's feelings.
  • By standing up against the bullying, you promote a more positive and inclusive environment.
  • It's important to be kind and help others feel accepted, especially in a new setting.

Q42: Respect means __________.
(a) Regard for the feelings, wishes and traditions of others
(b) Admiring someone for his/her qualities and achievements
(c) Accepting people for who they are even if they are different from you
(d) All of these

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Ans: (d)

  • Respect encompasses a wide range of behaviors and attitudes. It involves regarding the feelings, wishes, and traditions of others, which shows consideration and understanding.
  • Additionally, it includes admiring individuals for their unique qualities and achievements, recognizing their value.
  • Moreover, respect means accepting people for who they are, even if they differ from you, promoting inclusivity and harmony.
  • Thus, the correct answer is All of these, as it captures the full essence of what respect entails.

Q43: You are enjoying a game of cricket with your friends in the park when your mother calls you for dinner. What is the best course of action?
(a) Yell at your mother for interrupting your game.
(b) Kindly inform your friends that you have to stop playing because it's time for dinner.
(c) Walk away from your friends without saying a wor(d)
(d) None of these.

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • The best response is to kindly inform your friends that you need to stop playing because it's dinner time. This shows respect for both your friends and your mother.
  • Yelling at your mother is disrespectful and leaving without saying anything can hurt your friends' feelings.
  • Being polite and communicating your need to leave is the most considerate choice.
  • It’s important to balance fun with family responsibilities, and this option does just that.

Q44: What are the essential components of successful teamwork?
(a) Communication
(b) Problem solving
(c) Leadership
(d) All of these

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Effective teamwork relies on several key elements, including communication, which ensures that all team members are on the same page.
  • Problem solving is crucial as it allows the team to address challenges collaboratively.
  • Time management helps the team to meet deadlines and stay organize(d)
  • Therefore, the correct answer is All of these, as all these components contribute to a successful team dynamic.

Q45: If an unknown person comes to your door, what should you do?
(a) Immediately open the door
(b) Ask him to leave
(c) Inform your parents
(d) Offer him a glass of water

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • It's important to prioritize your safety when dealing with strangers. Instead of opening the door right away, it's wise to inform your parents or a trusted adult about the situation.
  • They can help assess the situation and decide the best course of action.
  • Always be cautious and avoid engaging with unknown individuals without proper supervision.
  • Remember, your safety comes first, so it's better to be safe than sorry.

Achievers Section

Q46: What is the correct interpretation of the graph presented?
(a) It shows a steady increase in sales.
(b) It indicates a decline in customer satisfaction.
(c) It illustrates a fluctuation in monthly revenue.
(d) It represents a constant number of new users.

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • Fluctuation in monthly revenue means that the revenue varies from month to month, which is what the graph depicts.
  • The graph does not show a steady increase or decline, but rather changes over time.
  • Understanding the graph helps in making informed decisions based on revenue trends.
  • Recognizing these patterns is crucial for effective business planning.

Q47: Identify the following: It is a feature of Windows 10 that offers comprehensive details about the files, folders, and drives on your computer.
(a) Windows Store
(b) File Explorer
(c) Cortana
(d) Taskbar

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

  • File Explorer is the tool in Windows 10 that allows users to view and manage their files and folders.
  • It provides a user-friendly interface to navigate through the storage on your computer.
  • With File Explorer, you can see detailed information about your files, folders, and drives.
  • This makes it easier to organize and access your data efficiently.

Q48: Select the false statements.
 I. Darwin's finches are a collection of around 10 species of songbirds. 
II. Carnivorous animals possess wide incisors and flat molars. 
III. Coniferous trees such as cedar, Acacia, and cactus feature needle-like foliage. 
IV. Male Dayak fruit bats have mammary glands that produce milk.
(a) I, II and III only
(b) I and III only
(c) I, III and IV only
(d) I, II, III and IV

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Darwin's finches are indeed a group of about 10 species of songbirds, so statement I is correct.
  • Carnivores typically have sharp teeth for tearing meat, not broad incisors and flattened molars, making statement II incorrect.
  • Conifer trees like cedar have needle-like leaves, but Acacia and cactus do not, which makes statement III incorrect.
  • Male Dayak fruit bats do not produce milk, so statement IV is also incorrect.
  • Thus, the incorrect statements are I, II, and III, leading to the answer being A.

Q49: Some breathe through lungs, some breathe through skin, and we breathe through tiny holes in the body. What are these tiny holes called?
(a) Gills
(b) Holes
(c) Spiracles
(d) Heart

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)
The spiracles are present on insects.

Q50: Where is the headquarters of NASA?
(a) New York
(b) San Francisco
(c) Washington, (D.C.)
(d) Dallas

GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)
NASA is the space research organisation of USA.

The document GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 | GK Olympiad for Class 6 is a part of the Class 6 Course GK Olympiad for Class 6.
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FAQs on GK Olympiad Model Test Paper -2 - GK Olympiad for Class 6

1. What is the purpose of the GK Olympiad Model Test Paper for Class 6?
Ans.The GK Olympiad Model Test Paper for Class 6 is designed to help students enhance their general knowledge and awareness of current affairs, life skills, and achievers in various fields. It serves as a practice tool for students to prepare for the GK Olympiad examination.
2. How can students benefit from participating in the GK Olympiad?
Ans.Participating in the GK Olympiad allows students to improve their knowledge base, enhance their critical thinking skills, and develop a competitive spirit. It also helps them gain recognition and may provide opportunities for scholarships and awards.
3. What topics are typically covered in the GK Olympiad for Class 6?
Ans.The GK Olympiad for Class 6 typically covers a wide range of topics, including current affairs, historical events, geographical facts, life skills, and notable achievers in various fields such as science, sports, and arts.
4. How can students prepare effectively for the GK Olympiad?
Ans.Students can prepare effectively for the GK Olympiad by regularly reading newspapers, using GK books, taking practice tests, and participating in discussions about current events. Joining study groups and attending coaching classes can also be beneficial.
5. What is the importance of life skills in the GK Olympiad syllabus?
Ans.Life skills are important in the GK Olympiad syllabus as they equip students with essential skills for everyday life, such as decision-making, problem-solving, and effective communication. These skills are crucial for personal development and future success.
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