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Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation. 

Logical Reasoning

Q1: Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next.
42 40 38 35 33 31 28
(a) 25 22
(b) 26 23
(c) 26 24
(d) 25 23

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Ans: (c)

This is an alternating subtraction series in which 2 is subtracted twice, then 3 is subtracted once, then 2 is subtracted twice, and so on.

Q2: How many 5's are present in the following sequence, each of which is directly preceded by 4 but not directly followed by 9? 3 5 9 5 4 5 5 3 5 8 4 5 6 7 3 5 7 5 5 4 5 2 4 5 9 0
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

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Ans: (b)

  • In the sequence, we need to find the 5's that are immediately preceded by 4 and not followed by 9.
  • The valid occurrences are: [4 5] 5, [4 5] 6, and [4 5] 2.
  • Counting these, we find there are 3 such occurrences.
  • Thus, the answer is 3.

Q3: Aruna knows that her friend's anniversary is between 10th and 15th, and Sameer knows that it is between 12th and 18th, but they both know that it is on Sunday. If on 10th it is Wednesday, then what is the exact date of the anniversary?
(a) 12th
(b) 13th
(c) 14th
(d) 15th

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Ans: (c)

If Wednesday is on 10th, then Sunday is on 14th. So, it means that the anniversary is on 14th.  

Q4: Pointing towards a girl, Sonu said, "She is the mother of my paternal grandfather's son." How is the girl related to Sonu?
(a) Mother
(b) Grandmother
(c) Aunt
(d) Sibling

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Ans: (b)

Grandfather's son means either son or uncle.

Mother of uncle or son is grandmother.

Q5: Find the odd one out in the given series.
43, 88, 179, 358
(a) 43
(b) 88
(c) 179
(d) 358

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Ans: (c)
Each time, we are multiplying by 2 and then adding 2. 43 x 2 = 86 + 2 = 88 88 x 2 = 176 = 176 + 2 = 178 (actual) 178 x 2 = 356 + 2 = 358 So, 179 is the odd one out..  

Q6: Find the missing number that will complete the following series: 8, 14, 26, ?, 68, 98
(a) 32
(b) 44
(c) 52
(d) 48

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Ans: (b)

  • The series starts with the numbers 8, 14, 26, and we need to find the missing number.
  • The difference between the numbers is increasing: 14 - 8 = 6, 26 - 14 = 12.
  • The next difference should be 18 (which is 6, 12, and then 18), so 26 + 18 = 44.
  • The final differences confirm the pattern, leading to the missing number being 44.

Q7: If a meaningful English word can be created using the first, fourth, seventh, and eleventh letters of the word EXPLORATION, what is the third letter of the word formed? If there are multiple such words, provide 'Y' as the answer, and if no word can be formed, provide 'Z' as the answer.
(a) N
(b) Y
(c) A
(d) Z

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Ans: (b)

  • The letters taken from EXPLORATION are E, L, A, and N.
  • These letters can form meaningful words such as LEAN and LANE.
  • Since multiple words can be created, the answer is Y.
  • Thus, the correct response is Y indicating that more than one word can be formed.

Q8: Complete the following series:
BFJ, CGK, DHL, ___
(a) PEI
(b) MRI
(c) EMI
(d) EIM

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Ans: (c)
The pattern followed is: + 4, + 4 + 4.

B + 4 = F, F + 4 = J = BFJ

C + 4 = G, G + 4 = K = CGK

D + 4 = H, H + 4 = L = DHL

Similarly,

E + 4 = I, I + 4 = M = EIM

Q9: In a certain code language, MIRACLE is coded as ACEILMR. How will BUILDER be coded in the same language?
(a) BEDRILU
(b) BDEILRU
(c) BDEJLRT
(d) CDEIJRT

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Ans: (b)

  • The letters of the word BUILDER are arranged in alphabetical order.
  • When we sort the letters, we get BDEILRU.
  • This means that the code for BUILDER in this language is BDEILRU.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

Q10: If in a certain language, LIGHT is coded as OLJKW, how can SOUND be written in that code?
(a) VHRJK
(b) VRXQG
(c) VYTRD
(d) VRUYT

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Ans: (b)

The pattern followed is: + 3, + 3, + 3.

So, LIGHT = L + 3 = O, I + 3 = L, G + 3 = J, H + 3 = K, T + 3 = W

hence, OLJKW

So, SOUND = S + 3 = V, O + 3 = R, U + 3 = X, N + 3 = Q, D + 3 = G

Hence, VRXQG

Science Section

Q11: What happens if a magnet is left to itself over a long period of time?
(a) It loses its magnetic property.
(b) Its magnetic property gets stronger.
(c) No effect on properties of magnet.
(d) It starts dissolving at its own.

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Ans: (a)

If a magnet is left to itself over a long period of time, it gets demagnetised, i.e. it loses its magnetic property.  

Q12: Ritesh was working on a project regarding opaque objects. He made a list of opaque objects but was not sure whether all are opaque objects or not. Which one of the following is not an opaque object?
(a) Mirror
(b) Wooden board
(c) Piece of rock
(d) Glass sheet

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Ans: (c)

Glass sheet is a transparent object, not an opaque object.

An opaque object is an object through which light cannot pass. The light is either reflected, scattered, or absorbed.

Q13: Piyush does not consume protein-rich food for a long time. Which of the following disorders can he face?
(a) Poor vision
(b) Swelling of face
(c) Weak teeth
(d) Bleeding gums

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Ans: (b)

Deficiency of proteins in the diet for a long time results in swelling of the face, swollen neck, undergrowth of the body, etc. This is because proteins are the building blocks of the body and should be taken in sufficient amounts.  

Q14: When HCl present in the stomach is secreted in a large quantity, it causes troubles. What is the remedy for this?
(a) Use of NaOH
(b) Use of Milk of Magnesia
(c) Use of water
(d) Use of pepsin

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Ans: (b)
Magnesium hydroxide reduces stomach acid and increases water in the intestines which may induce defecation. Magnesium hydroxide is used as a laxative to relieve occasional constipation (irregularity) and as an antacid to relieve indigestion, sour stomach, and heartburn.  

Q15: Which of the following best explains why lifting a heavy object with a single fixed pulley and rope makes the task seem easier?
(a) The direction of the force required to lift the object is changed.
(b) The force needed to move the object is applied over a longer distance.
(c) More effort is exerted while moving the object.
(d) Less force is necessary to lift the object.

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Ans: (a)

  • A fixed pulley alters the direction of the force applied, which allows you to pull down instead of lifting up.
  • This change in direction makes it feel easier to lift the object, as you can use your body weight to assist.
  • While the amount of work done remains the same, the way you apply your force is more efficient.
  • Thus, the correct explanation is that the direction of the force is changed, making the task seem easier.

Q16: An object appears green under white light. If white light is then passed through a clear blue plastic onto the same object, what color will the object look like?
(a) Green
(b) Magenta
(c) Black
(d) Yellow

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Ans: (c)

  • The object will appear black because the blue plastic only allows blue light to pass through.
  • Since the object reflects green light under white light, the blue plastic blocks this green light.
  • As a result, the object does not reflect any light, making it appear black.
  • This demonstrates how color perception changes based on the light that is filtered through different materials.

Q17: Knocking a nail into a wooden block with a hammer involves conversion between different forms of energy. Which of the following options present the correct order for this conversion?
(a) Chemical energy → (sound energy + heat energy) → kinetic energy
(b) Chemical energy → kinetic energy → (sound energy + heat energy)
(c) Chemical energy → kinetic energy → heat energy
(d) (Sound energy + heat energy) → kinetic energy → chemical energy

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Ans: (b)

  • The process starts with chemical energy from the muscles when you lift the hammer.
  • This chemical energy is converted into kinetic energy as you swing the hammer down.
  • Upon impact, the kinetic energy is transformed into sound energy (the noise of the hammer hitting the nail) and heat energy (due to friction).
  • Thus, the correct order of energy conversion is: Chemical energy → kinetic energy → (sound energy + heat energy).

Q18: Read the following given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1: Jupiter does not experience short seasons like the Earth. Statement 2: Jupiter is more tilted than the Earth.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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Ans: (c)

  • Jupiter's seasons are very different from Earth's because it has a slight axial tilt.
  • Statement 1 is true: Jupiter does not have short seasons like Earth.
  • Statement 2 is false: Jupiter is not more tilted than Earth; it is actually less tilted.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that statement 1 is true while statement 2 is false.

Q19: A clock is started at noon. By 20 minutes past 5 PM on the same day, the angle through which the hour hand has turned is
(a) 150°
(b) 160°
(c) 145°
(d) 155°

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Ans: (b)

  • The hour hand moves 30° for each hour.
  • From noon to 5:20 PM, there are 5 hours and 20 minutes.
  • In 5 hours, the hour hand turns 150° (5 x 30°).
  • In 20 minutes, the hour hand moves an additional 10° (1/3 of 30°).
  • So, the total angle turned is 150° + 10° = 160°.

Q20: Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) To increase the magnetic strength, increase the number of strokes while creating magnets.
(b) To increase the magnetic strength, increase the number of coils around the nail.
(c) Magnetic force is a pulling force only.
(d) A magnet may lose its magnetic property when heated to a very high temperature.

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Ans: (c)

  • Magnetic force can actually do both: it can pull and push depending on the interaction of the poles.
  • When two magnets are close, if opposite poles meet, they attract (pull), and if like poles meet, they repel (push).
  • Thus, saying that magnetic force is only a pulling force is incorrect.
  • The other statements about increasing strokes or coils and losing magnetism when heated are true.

Q21: Which of the following methods is used to separate mixtures based on their physical properties?
(a) Filtration
(b) Sedimentation
(c) Distillation
(d) Chromatography

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Ans: (b)

  • Sedimentation is a process that allows heavier and insoluble particles to settle at the bottom of a liquid, effectively separating them from lighter components.
  • Filtration is used to separate solids from liquids, while distillation separates liquids based on boiling points.
  • Chromatography separates substances based on their movement through a medium.
  • Thus, sedimentation is specifically effective for separating based on weight and solubility.

Q22: An aqueous solution turns blue litmus solution red. The addition of excess of sodium hydroxide would reverse the change. What is the chemical nature of the solution before and after the addition of sodium hydroxide?
(a) Acidic, Basic
(b) Basic, Acidic
(c) Neutral, Acidic
(d) Neutral, Basic

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Ans: (a)

An aqueous solution turns blue litmus solution red, it means the given solution is acidic in nature. Since sodium hydroxide is basic in nature, the excess addition of sodium hydroxide would change the nature of the solution to basic. Therefore, the basic solution turns red litmus solution to blue again.  

Q23: A few characteristics are listed here: (i) Good conductors (ii) Transparent (iii) Lustrous (iv) Solid (v) Opaque (vi) Insulators. The characteristics generally shown by metals are
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) only
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
(c) (ii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (vi) only

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Ans: (b)

  • Metals are known for being good conductors of electricity and heat.
  • They also have a lustrous appearance, meaning they shine when polished.
  • Most metals are solid at room temperature and are typically opaque, meaning you cannot see through them.
  • Therefore, the correct combination of characteristics that metals exhibit is (i), (iii), (iv), and (v).

Q24: Pigments of photosynthesis are present in which organelle of the plant cell?
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondrion

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Ans: (b)

In plants, photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts, which contain the chlorophyll. Chloroplasts are surrounded by a double membrane and contain a third inner membrane, called the thylakoid membrane, that forms long folds within the organelle.  

Q25: Melting point of substance X is -10°C and boiling point is 115°C. Which of the following statements about the particles of X is incorrect?
(a) Particles of X have maximum interparticle forces at -20°C.
(b) Particles of X have maximum interparticle distance at 105°C.
(c) Particles of X have a definite shape but no definite volume at -5°C.
(d) Particles of X do not have a definite shape and definite volume at 120°C.

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Ans: (c)

  • At -5°C, substance X is in a liquid state. In this state, particles do not maintain a definite shape but do have a definite volume.
  • At -20°C, the particles experience maximum interparticle forces, indicating they are more tightly packed.
  • At 105°C, the particles are further apart, leading to maximum interparticle distance.
  • At 120°C, the particles are in a gaseous state, lacking both definite shape and volume.

Q26: What is the main function of the roots in plants?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Absorption of water and minerals
(c) Reproduction
(d) Support the plant in soil

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Ans: (b)
The main function of the roots in plants is the absorption of water and minerals from the soil. Roots anchor the plant firmly in the ground and also store nutrients. They play a crucial role in the plant's overall growth and health.

Q27: Rama placed a glass of cold water on the table. After a while, she observed water droplets forming on the outside of the glass. What is the source of this water?
(a) It leaked through the glass.
(b) It came from the table.
(c) It came from the air.
(d) The water droplets are formed because of sublimation.

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Ans: (c)

  • The water droplets on the glass are due to the process of condensation.
  • As the glass is cold, the water vapour present in the air cools down and turns into liquid.
  • This happens because the air around the glass is warmer than the glass itself.
  • Thus, the water droplets form on the outer surface of the glass from the moisture in the air.

Q28: What is the cause of milkiness of limewater?
(a) Presence of H2O
(b) Presence of Ca(OH)2
(c) Presence of CaCO3
(d) Presence of CO2

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Ans: (c)
Carbon dioxide passed into limewater gives a milky solution. This is due to the insoluble suspension of calcium carbonate formed. Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)  

Q29: Shelly is drinking orange juice and finds it sour. Which acid makes the orange juice taste sour?
(a) Citric acid
(b) Acetic acid
(c) Formic acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid

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Ans: (a)

Citric acid is responsible for the sour taste of orange juice.  

Q30: Read the given statements and select the correct option:
Statement 1: Cotton plant is usually grown in the places having black soil and warm climate.
Statement 2: Cotton fibres are separated from the seeds by the process of spinning.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is true because the cotton plant thrives in black soil and a warm climate.
  • Statement 2 is false; cotton fibres are actually separated from the seeds through a process called ginning, not spinning.
  • Thus, while the first statement is correct, the second one is incorrect.
  • Therefore, the correct option is that Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q31: What is the other name of sundial, which was used to measure time in olden days?
(a) Samrat Yantra
(b) Qutub Yantra
(c) Magneto Graphs
(d) Hourglass

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Ans: (a)
In olden days, shadows caused by objects placed in the sun were used to measure time. Such a device is called a sundial or Samrat Yantra.  

Q32: Which one of the following pollutants causes ozone holes?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Chlorofluorocarbon

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Ans: (d)
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other halogenated ozone depleting substances (ODS) are mainly responsible for man-made chemical ozone depletion.  

Q33: Reena soaked some moong seeds in water overnight. The next day, after draining the water, she wrapped the seeds in a wet cloth. After one day, she noticed small white structures emerging from the seeds. These small white structures will develop into ______.
(a) Stems
(b) Leaves
(c) Roots
(d) Fruits

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Ans: (c)

  • The small white structures that Reena observed are called radicles.
  • These radicles are the initial stage of root development in plants.
  • As the seeds germinate, these structures will grow into roots, anchoring the plant and absorbing water and nutrients.
  • Thus, the correct answer is roots.

Q34: Read the given statements and select the correct ones:
(a) Hemp fibres are obtained from the leaves of its plant.
(b) Examples of bast fibres are jute, hemp and sisal.
(c) Silk cotton is obtained from silky hair that surrounds the seeds of kapok trees.
(d) Wool on burning gives the smell of burning hair.

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Ans: (b)

  • Hemp fibres are actually derived from the stem of the plant, not the leaves, making statement (i) incorrect.
  • Statements (ii), (iii), and (iv) are accurate: bast fibres include jute, hemp, and sisal; silk cotton comes from the kapok tree; and burning wool does smell like burning hair.
  • Thus, the correct combination of statements is (ii), (iii), and (iv).

Q35: Refer to the given statements and select the option that correctly fills the blanks in any two of them: 
(i) Stamens form the ______ reproductive part of a plant. 
(ii) Roots absorb water and ______ from the soil. 
(iii) Pea plant has ______ flowers. 
(iv) ______ is a short stalk that attaches leaf to the stem.
(a) (i)-Female; (ii)-Minerals
(b) (ii)-Starch; (iii)-Incomplete
(c) (iii)-Complete; (iv)-Style
(d) (i)-Male; (iv)-Petiole 

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Ans: (d)

  • Stamens are known as the male reproductive parts of a plant, which play a crucial role in reproduction.
  • In the context of plants, the petiole is the short stalk that connects the leaf to the stem, allowing for support and nutrient transport.
  • The other options do not correctly match the statements provided, making option (d) the right choice.

Q36: In the given food chain, who is the secondary consumer?
Grass -> Grasshopper -> Frog -> Snake
(a) Snake
(b) Frog
(c) Grasshopper
(d) Grass

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Ans: (b)
The food chain follows the order as given below: Producer -> Primary consumer -> Secondary consumer -> Tertiary consumer
Hence, Grass -> Grasshopper -> Frog -> Snake
Frog = Secondary consumer

Q37: Which of the following statements regarding air is incorrect?
(a) Air contains dust particles and water vapour.
(b) Air neither has fixed shape nor has fixed volume.
(c) Air has mass and occupies space.
(d) Air is not compressible.

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Ans: (d)

  • Air is a mixture that includes dust particles and water vapour, making option (a) true.
  • Air does not have a fixed shape or volume, which supports option (b) as correct.
  • Air has mass and takes up space, confirming option (c) is accurate.
  • However, option (d) is incorrect because air is compressible, meaning it can be squeezed into smaller volumes.

Q39: Select the statement that is not true.
(a) Salmon migrates from freshwater to the sea for breeding.
(b) Arctic tern travels the longest migration route by an animal.
(c) Seasonal mass movement of animals from one place to another is called migration.
(d) Chameleon changes the color of its skin to blend with the environment.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Salmon actually migrate from the sea to freshwater to breed, not the other way around.
  • The Arctic tern is known for having the longest migration route among animals.
  • Migration refers to the seasonal mass movement of animals from one location to another.
  • Chameleons are famous for their ability to change skin color to adapt to their surroundings.

Q40: Select the incorrect match.
(a) Fern - Spores
(b) Dahlia - Stem
(c) Bryophyllum - Leaf
(d) Sweet potato - Root

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Ans: (b)

  • Dahlia is a plant that primarily reproduces through tuberous roots, not by stems.
  • In contrast, ferns reproduce using spores, Bryophyllum uses leaves for propagation, and sweet potato is known for its root structure.
  • Thus, the match for Dahlia is incorrect as it is associated with stems instead of roots.

Q41: Which of the following is incorrect regarding skeletal support system of different organisms?
(a) Earthworms have liquid skeleton where liquid filled spaces inside the body serve as a support system
(b) Skeletal muscles work in pairs
(c) Snakes have bristles on the under surface of the body to support movement.
(d) Birds have hollow bones with air filled cavities.

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Ans: (c)

Earthworm has bristles on the underside of the body to support movement. The bristles are connected with muscles. The bristles help to get a good grip on the ground. 

Q42: Which of the following are indications of higher speed?
(i) Given distance has been covered in a shorter time.
(ii) Given distance has been covered in a longer time.
(iii) Larger distance is covered in a given time.
(iv) Shorter distance is covered in a given time.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)

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Ans: (d)

Higher speed is indicated by the following statements:

(i) Given distance has been covered in a shorter time.

(iii) Larger distance is covered in a given time.

Q43: Which of the following parts of the eye is matched incorrectly with its function?
(a) Iris - Controls the amount of light entering the eye.
(b) Pupil - Light enters the eye through it.
(c) Cornea - An image of an object seen is formed on it.
(d) Eyelid - Shields the eye from dust, flies, rain, etc.

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Ans: (c)

 The cornea is responsible for focusing light, but it does not form an image. Instead, the retina is where the image of an object is actually formed. The other parts are correctly matched with their functions.

Q44: Which of the following types of rocks is also referred to as natural glass?
(a) Gneiss
(b) Obsidian
(c) Basalt
(d) Sandstone

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Ans: (b)

  • Obsidian is a type of rock that is formed from volcanic activity.
  • It is created when lava cools quickly, resulting in a glassy texture.
  • This rapid cooling prevents the formation of crystals, giving it a smooth appearance.
  • Because of its glass-like quality, it is often called natural glass.

Q45: Unscramble the provided letters to identify a type of material: U B R E R B. Which of the following items cannot be produced using this material?
(a) Truck tyres
(b) Incandescent light bulb
(c) Eraser
(d) Hose pipe

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Ans: (b)

  • Rubber is the material formed from the letters.
  • It is commonly used in making truck tyres, erasers, and hose pipes.
  • However, incandescent light bulbs are not made from rubber.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) because rubber is not suitable for light bulbs.

Achievers Section

Q46: Match the items in column A with their functions in column B.

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6(a) I – z, II – x, III – y
(b) I – x, II – z, III – y
(c) I – y, II – z, III – x
(d) I – y, II – x, III – z

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Proteins are called the body-building foods as they help muscles to grow. Carbohydrates are called energy-giving foods as they provide essential energy to the body to work. Vitamins do not provide any energy to the body, but help in keeping the body healthy. 

Q47: Some points have been listed down while learning about biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
(i) It can be torn into small pieces.
(ii) Soak these pieces in water for a day.
(iii) Make a thick paste and spread it on a net or sieve.
(iv) Let water drain off completely.
(v) Use an old cloth or newspaper to remove the extra water from the paste and dry it.
(vi) Use this paste to get beautiful patterns.
Which process are the above points related to?
(a) Recycling paper
(b) Reducing dangerous effects of plastic
(c) Recycling plastic
(d) Reusing clothes

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

Steps involved in the process of recycling paper:

  • Paper is torn into small pieces.
  • Soak these pieces in water for a day.
  • Make a thick paste and spread it on a net or sieve.
  • Let water drain off completely.
  • Use an old cloth or newspaper to remove the extra water from the paste and dry it.
  • Use this paste to get beautiful patterns.

Q48: Which of the following is a process used to separate hair of different textures during the processing of wool?
(a) Sorting
(b) Scouring
(c) Dyeing
(d) Shearing

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

Sorting is the process of separating hair of different textures during the processing of wool.

It is done after scouring.

Q49: Which of the following is a reversible change?
(a) Baking of bread
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Making of curd from milk
(d) Sublimation of naphthalene balls

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)
Sublimation is a reversible change. When a substance sublimes on heating, it changes directly from the solid to gaseous state without passing through the liquid state. Desublimation, or deposition, is the reverse of this process in which a gas is directly converted into solid state on cooling.

Therefore, sublimation is a reversible change that can be undone or reversed.

Q50: Which of the following is an example of a regular reflection?
(a) Reflection on a lake
(a) Reflection on a plane mirror
(a) Reflection on a flowing river
(a) None of these

Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (b)

Reflection on a plane mirror is an example of a regular reflection.

Reflection is the change in direction of a wavefront at an interface between two different media so that the wavefront returns into the medium from which it originated. Common examples include the reflection of light, sound and water waves.

The document Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 | Science Olympiad Class 6 is a part of the Class 6 Course Science Olympiad Class 6.
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FAQs on Science Olympiad Previous Year Paper - 3 - Science Olympiad Class 6

1. What topics are typically covered in the Class 6 Science Olympiad exam?
Ans. The Class 6 Science Olympiad exam generally covers topics such as living organisms, their habitats, basic human anatomy, environmental science, and fundamental physics concepts like force and energy. It may also include scientific reasoning and application of scientific principles in everyday life.
2. How can I prepare effectively for the Class 6 Science Olympiad?
Ans. To prepare effectively for the Class 6 Science Olympiad, students should review their school science textbooks, practice previous year question papers, and take mock tests. Joining study groups and using online resources or educational apps can also enhance understanding of concepts.
3. Are there any specific books recommended for Class 6 Science Olympiad preparation?
Ans. Yes, some recommended books for Class 6 Science Olympiad preparation include "Olympiad Success Science Class 6" by Dinesh and "Science Olympiad Guide" by Career Point. Additionally, NCERT textbooks serve as a solid foundation for understanding the concepts.
4. What is the marking scheme for the Class 6 Science Olympiad exam?
Ans. The marking scheme for the Class 6 Science Olympiad exam typically consists of multiple-choice questions, where each correct answer is awarded one mark. There may be no negative marking for incorrect answers, but this can vary by organization, so it's best to check the specific guidelines.
5. When is the Class 6 Science Olympiad usually conducted?
Ans. The Class 6 Science Olympiad is usually conducted annually, with specific dates varying each year. It typically takes place in the winter months, around November or December, so it's essential to check the official website for the exact schedule and registration details.
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