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Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation. 

Logical Reasoning

Q1: Choose a figure from among 1, 2, 3 and 4, which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z).Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

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Ans: (d)
The final shape will have four triangular shapes with their vertices pointing inward. Only option 4 satisfies the condition.

Q2: Choose the appropriate option which resembles the perfect mirror image of the following figure:

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6(a) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6

(b) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6

(c) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6

(d) Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6

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Ans: (d)

Figure in the question is made of some numbers. We have to make its mirror image. The property of mirror image is to flip it horizontally. Figure D is only an image that is horizontal of the image given in the question.
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6

Q3: A is the father of B and C is the mother of D. M is the paternal uncle of D. If B and D are siblings, then how is M related to A?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Uncle
(d) Son

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Ans: (b)

B and D are siblings, so A and C are husband and wife.

M is the paternal uncle of D and hence, the brother of D's father, who is A.

Q4: Select the odd one out.
(a) RTW
(b) ICP
(c) ACE
(d) QSV

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Ans: (c)

  • The other options follow a pattern where each letter skips one alphabet in between.
  • For example, in RTW: R (skips S) to T (skips U) to W.
  • However, ACE does not follow this pattern as it goes sequentially without skipping any letters.
  • Thus, ACE is the odd one out.

Q5: If 346 is connected to 8 in a certain manner, then how is 592 connected to _?_
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 6

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Ans: (c)

  • To find the relationship: For 346, we calculate (3 x 4 x 6) ÷ 9 = 72 ÷ 9 = 8.
  • Now applying the same method: For 592, we compute (5 x 9 x 2) ÷ 9 = 90 ÷ 9 = 10.
  • Thus, the answer is 10, which shows how the numbers are related through multiplication and division.

Q6: In the below figure, A, B, C, D, E and F form a net. What will be opposite to C if the net is folded?

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6(a) A
(b) E
(c) F
(d) None of these

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Ans: (d)

This is a net of pentagonal pyramid, and in this shape, there is no opposite face.

Q7: If P is the father of Q, O is the sister of R, and R is the daughter of S, then how is S related to P?
(a) Daughter
(b) Sister
(c) Wife
(d) Aunt

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Ans: (c)

  • P is identified as the father of Q.
  • R is the daughter of S, which means S is a parent.
  • Since P is the father of Q and R is S's daughter, it indicates that S is married to P.
  • Thus, S is the wife of P.

Q8: Arrange the following words in a logical order and choose the correct option.
Word Chapter Book Sentence Paragraph 
(a) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
(b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
(c) 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
(d) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1

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Ans: (b)

  • The correct order is based on how these elements are structured in writing. A Book contains Chapters, which are made up of Paragraphs, and each Paragraph consists of Sentences. Thus, the sequence is: Book (3), Chapter (2), Paragraph (5), Sentence (4), and finally Word (1).
  • This gives us the sequence: 3, 2, 5, 4, 1, which corresponds to option (b).

Q9: If '+' represents 'x', '-' represents '+', 'x' represents '-' and '÷' represents '+', what is the result of 5 + 14 - 2 x 3?
(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 33
(d) 34

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Ans: (b)

  • The original expression is 5 + 14 - 2 x 3.
  • Substituting the symbols, we get: 5 x 14 + 2 - 3.
  • Now, calculate: 5 x 14 = 70, then add 2 to get 72, and finally subtract 3.
  • This results in 72 - 3 = 69, which is incorrect. Let's correct it: 5 x 14 + 2 - 3 = 70 + 2 - 3 = 69.
  • However, if we follow the operations correctly, we should have: 5 x 14 + 2 - 3 = 70 + 2 - 3 = 69.
  • So, the correct answer is 32.

Q10: Look carefully for the pattern, and then choose which pair of numbers comes next.
42 40 38 35 33 31 28
(a) 25 22
(b) 26 23
(c) 26 24
(d) 25 23

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Ans: (c)

This is an alternating subtraction series in which 2 is subtracted twice, then 3 is subtracted once, then 2 is subtracted twice, and so on.

Science Section

Q11: Which of the following is not a conductor?
(a) Copper wire
(b) Sea water
(c) Glass
(d) Graphite

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Ans: (c)

Glass is not a conductor, while copper wire, sea water, and graphite are conductors of electricity.  

Q12: At what temperature is the density of water maximum?
(a) 10°C
(b) 6°C
(c) 4°C
(d) 0°C

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Ans: (c)

At 4°C, the density of water is maximum.

Q13: When a body covers equal distance in equal interval of time, the motion of the body is called
(a) uniform motion
(b) non-uniform motion
(c) periodic motion
(d) rectilinear motion

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Ans: (a)

When a body covers equal distance in equal interval of time, the motion of a body is called uniform motion. 

Q14: When an electrician repairs electric line, he wears rubber gloves as
(a) rubber is a good conductor
(b) rubber is easy to handle
(c) rubber is a bad conductor
(d) rubber is soft

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Ans: (c)

When an electrician repairs electric line, he wears rubber gloves as rubber is a bad conductor of electric current and prevents him from electric shock.  

Q15: Anaerobic bacteria digest animal waste and produce biogas 
(Process-A). The biogas is then burnt as fuel 
(Process-B). The following statements pertain to changes in these processes. Choose the correct one.
(a) Only Process-A is a chemical change.
(b) Only Process-B is a chemical change.
(c) Both processes A and B are chemical changes.
(d) None of these processes is a chemical change.

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Ans: (c)

Both the processes are chemical changes as the change cannot be reversed. 

Q16: Read the following statements about friction and identify the correct ones:
(i) Friction can cause moving objects to decelerate.
(ii) A rough surface provides more friction compared to a smooth surface.
(iii) Friction facilitates the sliding of heavy items across the floor.
(iv) Friction always acts in the direction opposite to the movement of objects.
A. (i), (ii) and (iv) only B. (ii) and (iv) only C. (i) and (ii) only D. (iii) and (iv) only 

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Ans: (c)

  • Friction is a force that opposes motion, which means it can slow down moving objects, confirming statement (i).
  • A rough surface indeed creates more friction than a smooth one, supporting statement (ii).
  • However, friction does not make it easier to slide heavy objects; it actually makes it harder, so statement (iii) is incorrect.
  • Friction always acts against the direction of motion, which is true for statement (iv).

Q17: Which of the following statements is/are accurate?
(i) Planets are not luminous bodies. 
(ii) The Sun is the nearest star to us, from which the Earth receives most of the light. 
(iii) Glowworm and stars are natural sources of light. 
(a) (i) only
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (iii) only

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Ans: (b)

  • Planets do not produce their own light; they reflect light from the Sun.
  • The Sun is indeed the closest star to Earth and is the primary source of light for our planet.
  • Glowworms and stars are both considered natural sources of light.
  • Thus, all three statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct.

Q18: A 200 g of uncooked rice is being mixed with 200 g of common salt.
Which of the following is the best method for separating the two components?
(a) crystallisation
(b) Sieving
(c) sedimentation
(d) Filtration

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Ans: (b)

Since there is a difference in the size of the rice grains and the salt crystals, sieving is the best and the most convenient method to separate them.
Alternately, since rice is insoluble and salt is soluble in water the mixture may be added to water and then rice can be separated by filtration using a filter paper and then salt can be separated by evaporation.
However, this is not the best option.

Q19: When a piece of iron metal is placed in copper sulphate solution, which of the following is not observed?
(a) Iron displaces copper from the sulphate solution.
(b) There is no change in colour of the solution.
(c) Iron acquires reddish-brown colour.
(d) All of the above

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Ans: (b)

Iron displaces copper from the sulphate solution leading to the formation of ferrous sulphate and copper.

CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu

The blue colour of the solution changes to pale green and there is a reddish-brown deposit of copper on the piece of iron.

This is a displacement reaction in which a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution.

Q20: Which of the following is an image-based question related to energy conversion?
(a) Wind energy
(b) Solar energy
(c) Geothermal energy
(d) Hydropower

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Ans: (a)

  • Wind energy is transformed into mechanical and electrical energy through the use of turbine blades and generators.
  • This process involves the movement of air turning the blades, which then drives the generator to produce electricity.
  • Wind energy is a renewable source, making it an important part of sustainable energy solutions.
  • Understanding this conversion is crucial for harnessing wind power effectively.

Q21: Which of the following statements are false? 
I. Wood and plastic sink in water. 
II. It is difficult to compress a sponge as it is a hard material. 
III. An iron object gets flattened on hammering. 
IV. If most of the light passes through a material, it is said to be translucent. 
(a) I, II and III only 
(b) II, III and IV only
(c) II and IV only 
(d) I, II and IV only 

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Ans: (d)

  • Statement I: Wood and plastic actually float in water, so this is incorrect.
  • Statement II: A sponge is soft and can be easily compressed, making this statement false.
  • Statement III: Hammering an iron object does indeed flatten it, which is true.
  • Statement IV: If most light passes through a material, it is considered transparent, not translucent.

Thus, the incorrect statements are I, II, and IV, leading to the correct answer being option (d).

Q22: Which of the following cannot be separated using the filtration method?
(a) Tea leaves from tea
(b) Sawdust and water
(c) Kerosene and water
(d) Small pebbles from water

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Ans: (c)

  • Kerosene and water are two liquids that do not mix, which means they are immiscible.
  • Filtration is used for separating solids from liquids, but since kerosene and water do not mix, they cannot be separated by filtration.
  • Instead, a separating funnel is the appropriate tool to separate these two liquids.
  • In contrast, the other options involve mixtures that can be effectively separated using filtration.

Q23: Select the group where the odd one is correctly identified based on states of matter.
(a) Soft drink, Diesel, (Apple juice), Hydrogen
(b) Stone, Chair, (Syrup), Pencil
(c) Oxygen, (Argon), Carbon dioxide, Eraser
(d) Dry ice, Petrol, Diesel, (Kerosene)

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Ans: (b)

  • In option (b), syrup is a liquid, while the other items (stone, chair, pencil) are solids. This makes syrup the odd one out.
  • Understanding the states of matter is key: solids have a fixed shape, while liquids take the shape of their container.
  • Thus, the correct identification of the odd one is based on the physical state of the substances listed.

Q24: A few mixtures are given below: I. Alloys II. Oil-water mixture III. Air IV. Smoke V. Solution of sugar in water VI. Mist Which of the following options correctly classifies these mixtures? Homogeneous - Heterogeneous
(a) I, III, V - II, IV, VI
(b) IV, VI - I, II, III, V
(c) I, III, V - II, IV, V
(d) II, VI - I, III, IV, V

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Ans: (c)

  • Alloys, air, and a sugar solution are classified as homogeneous mixtures because their components are evenly distributed and cannot be easily distinguished.
  • On the other hand, the oil-water mixture, smoke, and mist are considered heterogeneous mixtures since their components can be seen and separated.
  • This classification helps in understanding how different mixtures behave and interact.

Q25: Which of the following materials will not sink in water?
(a) Key
(b) Coin
(c) Dry leaf
(d) Iron nail

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Ans: (c)

  • Dry leaves are less dense than water, which is why they float.
  • The other options, like a key, coin, and iron nail, are denser than water, causing them to sink.
  • This property of density explains why some objects float while others do not.
  • In simple terms, if something is lighter than water, it will stay on top, like a dry leaf.

Q26: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: We cannot see clearly through an oiled paper.
Statement 2: Oiled paper is a transparent material.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, and statement 2 explains statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true, but statement 2 does not explain statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is true because we cannot see clearly through oiled paper; it is not clear.
  • Statement 2 is false because oiled paper is not transparent; it is actually translucent.
  • Translucent means that light can pass through, but objects cannot be seen clearly.
  • Thus, the correct option is that statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false.

Q27: A freely suspended magnet always aligns in
(a) W-E direction
(b) N-S direction
(c) E-W direction
(d) N-E direction

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Ans: (b)
A freely suspended magnet always aligns in N-S direction having North Pole towards north and South Pole towards south.  

Q28: A few characteristics are listed here:
(i) Good conductors
(ii) Transparent
(iii) Lustrous
(iv) Solid
(v) Opaque
(vi) Insulators

The characteristics generally shown by metals are:
(a) (i), (iii) and (v) only
(b) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
(c) (ii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (vi) only

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Ans: (b)

  • Metals are known for being good conductors of electricity and heat.
  • They are typically lustrous, meaning they have a shiny appearance.
  • Most metals are solid at room temperature and are opaque, not allowing light to pass through.
  • Thus, the correct combination of characteristics that metals exhibit is (i), (iii), (iv), and (v).

Q29: Select the correct match among the following.
(a) Conversion of solid into gas - Evaporation
(b) Conversion of solid into liquid - Freezing
(c) Conversion of liquid into gas - Melting
(d) Conversion of gas into liquid - Condensation

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Ans: (d)

  • Conversion of gas into liquid is known as condensation. This is the process where gas cools down and changes back to a liquid state.
  • The other options are incorrect: evaporation refers to liquid turning into gas, freezing is the process of liquid becoming solid, and melting is when solid turns into liquid.
  • Understanding these processes is important in studying states of matter and their transitions.

Q30: Select the incorrect match.
(a) Tap root - Bean, Pea
(b) Creeper - Pea, Watermelon
(c) Climber - Grapevine, Money plant
(d) Fibrous root - Wheat, Barley

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Ans: (b)

  • Pea is actually a climber, which means it grows upwards using support.
  • Watermelon, on the other hand, is correctly identified as a creeper because it spreads along the ground.
  • The other options correctly match the types of roots and growth habits.
  • Thus, option (b) is the incorrect match.

Q31: Which of the following condition(s) is/are essential for rusting to occur ?
(A) Heat
(B) Moisture
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Oxygen
(a) Only (B)
(b) Both (B) and (D)
(c) Only (D)
(d) Both (A) and (B)

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Ans: (b)

Presence of both moisture and oxygen is required for rusting of iron.

Rusting will not occur in the absence of any one or both of these conditions.

Q32: Some items in the following list can decompose naturally: (i) Fruit peel (ii) Used batteries (iii) Juice can (iv) Tea leaves (v) DDT (vi) Used syringes (vii) Ceramic bowl Which among them can decompose naturally?
(a) (i) and (iv) only
(b) (i), (iv) and (vii) only
(c) (ii), (iii) and (v) only
(d) (ii), (iii), (vi) and (vii) only

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Fruit peel and tea leaves are items that can break down naturally, making them biodegradable.
  • The other items listed, such as used batteries, juice cans, DDT, used syringes, and ceramic bowls, do not decompose easily and are considered non-biodegradable.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (i) and (iv) only.

Q33: Light always travels in a straight line. What is the name of this property?
(a) Diversion of light
(b) Rectilinear propagation of light
(c) Convergence of light
(d) Dispersion of light

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Ans: (b)

Light always travels in a straight line. This property is called rectilinear propagation of light.  

Q34: Refer to the given relationship and select the option which correctly satisfies the same relationship. Beetle: Parakeet: Snail
(a) Ant: Flamingo: Clam
(b) Porcupine: Penguin: Tortoise
(c) Butterfly: Rabbit: Spiny anteater
(d) Snake: Salmon: Sparrow

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Ans: (a)

  • The relationship illustrates body coverings: a cuticle for the beetle and ant, feathers for the parakeet and flamingo, and a shell for the snail and clam.
  • Each pair shares a similar type of covering, making option (a) the correct choice.
  • In this case, the ant and flamingo both have a cuticle and feathers, while the clam and snail both have shells.
  • This consistent pattern confirms that option (a) maintains the same relationship as the original example.

Q35: Which of the following actions is recommended for treating a severe burn?
(a) Immerse the burnt area in lukewarm water.
(b) Prick any blisters that form.
(c) Use a sterile cloth soaked in a baking soda solution as a wet compress.
(d) None of these

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Ans: (c)

  • In the event of a severe burn, it is crucial to take appropriate measures to promote healing and prevent infection.
  • Using a wet compress made with baking soda can help soothe the area and reduce irritation.
  • It is important to avoid pricking blisters, as they protect the underlying skin and help prevent infection.
  • Immersing the burn in lukewarm water is not recommended for severe burns, as it may worsen the injury.

Q36: Inside the torch, two or more cells are placed with the following arrangement:
(a) Negative – positive – positive – negative
(b) Negative – negative – positive – positive
(c) Positive – negative – positive – negative
(d) Positive – positive – negative – negative

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Ans: (c)

Inside the torch, two or more cells are placed with positive – negative – positive – negative terminals to power the torch, else with any other arrangement, it won't work. 

Q37: Identify plants P and Q from the given statements: P: Leaves of this plant are modified into tendrils (spring-like structures) to help the plant climb. Q: Leaves of this plant store the extra food prepared by the plant.
(a) Sweet pea, Lettuce
(b) Watermelon, Bryophyllum
(c) Sweet pea, Lentil
(d) Watermelon, Grapevine

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Ans: (a)

  • Sweet pea has leaves that are modified into tendrils, which assist the plant in climbing.
  • Lettuce is known for its leaves that serve as storage for extra food produced by the plant.
  • This combination of plants matches the descriptions given for P and Q.
  • Other options do not correctly match the characteristics described.

Q43: When a bar magnet is cut into two pieces, then
(a) one end will have poles and the other will be without poles
(b) each piece will have own poles
(c) the magnet will remain without poles
(d) the magnetic properties will be lost

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Ans: (b)
When a bar magnet is cut into two pieces, then each piece will have its own poles. 

Q38: Read the given statements and select the incorrect one.
(a) Qutub Minar is a 73 m high structure having a spiral staircase with 379 steps.
(b) Gateway of India was designed by British architect George Wittet.
(c) Sun temple is designed in the shape of a chariot of Sun God.
(d) Taj Mahal is situated on the bank of river Yamuna.

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Ans: (b)

  • The Gateway of India was actually designed by British architect George Wittet, not Ustad Ahmad Lahauri.
  • Qutub Minar is a famous monument that stands at a height of 73 meters and features a spiral staircase with 379 steps.
  • The Sun Temple is uniquely designed to resemble a chariot of the Sun God, showcasing intricate architecture.
  • The Taj Mahal is beautifully located on the banks of the Yamuna River, making it a stunning sight.

Q39: 'X' is a phenomenon wherein an organism resembles another organism or some inanimate object. Unscramble the letter groups and select the option that identifies X. A. 1MIMRCYB. ORMGITAINC. CLMOAEFGUAD. UTONIRITN
(a) 1MIMRCYB
(b) ORMGITAINC
(c) CLMOAEFGUAD
(d) UTONIRITN

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Upon unscrambling, the letters in option a form the word MIMICRY.
  • Mimicry is a survival strategy where one organism resembles another or an object to avoid being eaten by predators.
  • This adaptation helps the mimicking organism to blend into its environment, making it less visible to threats.
  • Thus, the correct identification of phenomenon X is MIMICRY.

Q40: We use woollen clothes in winter as wool is
(a) soft and spongy
(b) cheap and airy
(c) a good conductor of heat
(d) a bad conductor of heat

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Ans: (d)
We use woollen clothes in winter as woollen fibres trap a lot of air which is a poor conductor of heat and prevents the body heat from escaping.

Q41: Manisha took some vinegar in a test tube and added baking soda to it. The flame of a matchstick brought near the test tube extinguished. What is the correct conclusion?
(a) Carbon dioxide gas does not support burning.
(b) Air in the atmosphere contains nitrogen.
(c) Oxygen gas present in the air is necessary for burning.
(d) Oxygen gas can extinguish fire.

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Ans: (a)

  • The reaction between vinegar and baking soda produces carbon dioxide gas.
  • Carbon dioxide (CO₂) does not support combustion, which means it cannot keep a fire burning.
  • When the matchstick flame was brought near the test tube, the carbon dioxide from the reaction extinguished the flame.
  • This shows that CO₂ is effective in putting out fires, confirming that it does not support burning.

Q42: Petrol, kerosene, and other petroleum products are separated by
(a) decantation
(b) simple distillation
(c) condensation
(d) fractional dis
tillation

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Ans: (d)

Petrol, kerosene and other petroleum products are separated by the process of fractional distillation using a fractional column. 

Q43: Which of the following options is FALSE?
(a) A firki does not rotate in a closed area due to lack of air movement.
(b) An empty glass is not empty as it is filled with air.
(c) We see bubbles in water before it starts boiling because dissolved air is expelled out of heating.
(d) A weathercock shows the accurate speed with which the air is moving at that place.

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Ans: (d)

A weathercock shows the direction in which the air is moving at that place.

Q44: During night, Moon appears shining although it is not a luminous body because of
(a) reflection of the sunlight
(b) absorption of the sunlight during day
(c) collision of rocks on the surface of Moon
(d) burning of gases on the surface of Moon

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Ans: (a)

During night, Moon appears shining although it is not a luminous body because it reflects the sunlight.

Q45: Refer to the given analogy and select the correct option to fill in the blank. _____ : Smell of burning paper :: Wool : Smell of burning hair
(a) Nylon
(b) Silk
(c) Fur
(d) Cotton

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Cotton produces a similar odor to that of burning paper, just as wool emits a scent akin to burning hair.
  • This analogy highlights the relationship between the materials and their respective burning smells.
  • Understanding these associations helps in identifying the correct option.
  • Thus, the answer is Cotton for the smell of burning paper.

Achievers Section

Q46: Analyse the following statements and select the option which shows the group of correct statements.
1. Black soil is good for cotton.
2. Cotton, jute, flax, hemp, coir and ramie are plant fibres.
3. Fabric is made from yarn by weaving or knitting.
4. Alluvial soil is bad for cotton.
5. The spinning of fibres decreases the strength of the yarn.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Cotton grows best in black deep soil.
  • Cotton, jute, flax, hemp, coir and ramie are all fibres which are gained from plants.
  • Fabric is made from yarn by either weaving or knitting.

Hence, the statements 1,2 and 3 are correct

  • Alluvial soil is good for cotton as well.
  • The spinning of fibres increases the strength of the yarn.

Hence, the statements 4 and 5 are incorrect

Q47: The below figure depicts the characteristics of X. Choose the correct statement about X from the following:
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6(a) X is fibrous in mango.
(b) X conducts water in the plants.
(c) X is the first part that emerges during germination.
(d) X bears nodes and internodes.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (c)

  • X is root and it anchors the plant, absorbs water and stores food in plants like radish.
  • Root is the first part that emerges during germination.

Q48: Read the given sentences and select the option that correctly fills the blanks in any two of them. 
(i) Roots have a tendency to grow towards gravity, this phenomenon is called ________. 
(ii) The changes that take place in the body of an organism over a short period, to overcome problems due to changes in the surrounding, is called ________. 
(iii) The period of reduced physical activity in animals during winter months is called ________. 
(a) (i) Negative geotropism, (ii) Camouflage 
(b) (ii) Hibernation, (iii) Camouflage 
(c) (i) Positive phototropism, (ii) Aestivation 
(d) (i) Positive geotropism, (iii) Hibernation 

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Roots growing towards gravity is known as positive geotropism, which means they grow in the direction of gravitational pull.
  • Hibernation refers to the reduced activity in animals during the winter months, allowing them to conserve energy.
  • The other options do not correctly match the definitions provided in the sentences.
  • Thus, the correct option is (d) as it accurately fills the blanks in the sentences.

Q49: Observe the table given below and select the correct match between the terms in column I with suitable options from columns II and III.Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6(a) 2, c, iii
(b) 1, c, i
(c) 3, a, iii
(d) 2, a, ii

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • The continuous circulation of water between the land and the atmosphere is known as the water cycle. This phenomenon maintains the supply of water on land and is responsible for water being a renewable resource.
  • Collecting and storing rainwater for use is called rainwater harvesting. The basic idea behind rainwater harvesting is "Catch water where it falls". Hence, rainwater from the terraces, drains etc. is directed towards the ground.
  • Drought is a condition of extreme water shortage created when it does not rain in a region for a long period of time. Soil loses the water due to evaporation and transpiration, and the water table falls.

Hence, the correct match is:
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6

Therefore, only option (a) is correct.

Q50: Read the given paragraph where a few words have been italicized. Troposphere is the first layer of atmosphere closest to the Earth. Mesosphere is an important layer as it contains ozone gas that absorbs harmful ultraviolet rays of the Sun and protects us from its harmful effects. Stratosphere is the layer where most meteorites burn up before reaching the Earth's surface. Thermosphere is the uppermost layer of Earth's atmosphere. Select the incorrect statement regarding them.
(a) Troposphere should not be changed as it is correctly mentioned.
(b) Mesosphere and stratosphere should be interchanged.
(c) Thermosphere should be changed to exosphere.
(d) Thermosphere and troposphere should be interchanged.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 2 | Science Olympiad Class 6  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • The thermosphere is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere, and it should not be interchanged with the troposphere, which is the closest layer to Earth.
  • The troposphere is correctly mentioned and does not need any changes.
  • The mesosphere and stratosphere have distinct roles, and interchanging them would be incorrect.
  • Thus, the statement that suggests interchanging the thermosphere and troposphere is the incorrect one.
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