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Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7 PDF Download

Note: The questions provided in this document are similar to the questions that were asked in the actual Olympiad exam. So, we recommend you study these for your Olympiad preparation.

Logical Reasoning Section

Q1: Directions: In the following question, there is a relationship between the two terms to the left of (: :) and the same relationship holds between the two terms to its right, out of which one term is missing. Choose the missing term from the given options.
63 : 126 : : 215 : ?

(a) 621
(b) 342
(c) 344
(d) 243

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Ans: (c)

According to the question,

43 - 1 = 63

(4 + 1)3 + 1 = 126

Similarly,

63 - 1 = 215

(6 +1)3 + 1 = 344

Q2: Pointing towards a man in a photograph, Urvi said ''He is the only son of my father's mother-in-law''. How is the man related to Urvi?
(a) Father
(b) Cousin
(c) Maternal uncle
(d) Paternal grandfather

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Ans: (c)

  • The phrase "my father's mother-in-law" refers to Urvi's grandmother on her father's side.
  • The only son of Urvi's grandmother would be Urvi's uncle.
  • Since this uncle is the son of her father's mother, he is also Urvi's maternal uncle.
  • Thus, the man in the photograph is Urvi's maternal uncle.

Q3: In a specific coding system, 'MASTER' is represented as 'BNUTSF'. How would 'REVISION' be encoded in that same system?
(a) TJPOSFWJ
(b) TGXKUKQP
(c) FSJWJTOP
(d) SFWJTJPO

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Ans: (c)

  • The code shifts each letter in 'MASTER' to the next letter in the alphabet, with a specific pattern.
  • For example, 'M' becomes 'B', 'A' becomes 'N', and so on.
  • Applying the same pattern to 'REVISION', we find that it translates to 'FSJWJTOP'.
  • Thus, the correct encoded form of 'REVISION' is 'FSJWJTOP'.

Q4: How many K's are present in the provided sequence that is directly followed by a vowel and directly preceded by a consonant?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

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Ans: (c)

  • To find the answer, we need to look for the letter K in the arrangement.
  • We check if each K is preceded by a consonant and followed by a vowel.
  • After examining the sequence, we find that there are three K's that meet these criteria.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (c) Three.

Q5: Find the missing terms in the given pattern:
E, M, F, L, G, K, ?, ?
(a) H, J
(b) J, H
(c) S, A
(d) J, I

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Ans: (a)

The given pattern is made up of two series:

(i) E, F, G, ?

(ii) M, L, K, ?

Now, in the first series, the pattern is to add 1.

So, E + 1 = F

F + 1 = G

G + 1 = H

In the second series, the pattern is to subtract 1.

So, M - 1 = L

L - 1 = K

K - 1 = J

Therefore, the missing terms are H and J.

Q6: If ACE : IKM, then which of the following is true?
(a) DFH : UYZ
(b) RTV : ZBD
(c) PQR : WXY
(d) GHI : PST

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Ans: (b)

According to the question,

ACE : IKM

The pattern followed is as follows:

A + 8 = I

C + 8 = K

E + 8 = M

Now, out of the given options, the same rule is applied for option 2 as follows:

R + 8 = Z

T + 8 = B

V + 8 = D

Q7: Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ...
What number should come next?
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 27
(d) 53

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Ans: (b)

In this series, each number is repeated, then 13 is subtracted to arrive at the next number.

So, 27 - 13 = 14

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q8: If P represents '–', Q represents '+', R represents '÷' and S represents '×', what is the result of 15 P 12 Q 12 R 4 S 3?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13

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Ans: (c)

  • First, replace the symbols with their meanings: 15 P 12 Q 12 R 4 S 3 becomes 15 – 12 + 12 ÷ 4 × 3.
  • Next, follow the order of operations: perform division and multiplication first.
  • Calculate 12 ÷ 4 = 3, then 3 × 3 = 9.
  • Now, substitute back: 15 – 12 + 9 = 15 – 3 = 12.

Q9: Town P is located to the West of town Q. Town R is situated to the South of town P. Town S is positioned to the East of town R and South of town Q. What direction is town S from town P?
(a) North-West
(b) South-East
(c) South-West
(d) North-East

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Ans: (b)

  • To determine the direction of town S from town P, we first note that town P is to the West of town Q.
  • Next, town R is South of town P, placing it directly below town P.
  • Then, town S is East of town R and also South of town Q, which means it is positioned to the South-East of town P.
  • Thus, the correct answer is South-East.

Q10: Some girls are arranged in a line. Sheetal is positioned 15th from the left side, while Sapna is 10th from the right side. There are 3 girls seated between Sheetal and Sapna. How many girls are there in total in the row, given that Sapna is to the right of Sheetal?
(a) 26
(b) 27
(c) 29
(d) 28

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Ans: (d)

  • To find the total number of girls, we first note that Sheetal is 15th from the left and Sapna is 10th from the right.
  • There are 3 girls between them, which means the positions are: Sheetal (15th), 3 girls, and then Sapna.
  • So, the position of Sapna from the left can be calculated as: 15 (Sheetal's position) + 3 (girls in between) + 1 (for Sapna) = 19th from the left.
  • Now, since Sapna is 10th from the right, we can set up the equation: Total girls = Position from left + Position from right - 1 = 19 + 10 - 1 = 28.

Science Section

Q11: Which one of the following countries has tropical rainforests?
(a) Brazil
(b) Australia
(c) Austria
(d) China

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Ans: (a)

Rainforest is found generally near the equator. Places near the equator receive more sunshine and, therefore, more rainfall. This makes the place hot and humid. Temperatures vary from 15oC to 40oC generally near the equator. Rain forests are also present in some tropical areas.Tropical rainforests are warm and moist; while temperate rainforests are cool. To be a tropical rainforest, forested areas must lie between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. One third of the world's tropical rainforests are in Brazil.

Q12: Which of the following organisms have spiracles through which air enters in their body?
(a) Plants
(b) Fishes
(c) Mammals
(d) Insects

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Ans: (d)

Cockroaches and other insects breathe through spiracles and tracheae. There is a network of hollow tubes running through the body of an insect. These hollow tubes are called trachea. Each trachea opens on the body surface in the form of very small pore. These pores are called spiracles.

Q13: When ice transforms into water at 0°C, which of the following statements is/are true? I. Work is performed to break the molecular structure of ice in its solid form. II. Energy is taken in to increase the temperature. III. Energy is taken in to lower the temperature.
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II only
(d) I and III only

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Ans: (b)

  • Statement I is correct because work is indeed done to break the bonds in the solid ice structure as it melts.
  • Statement II is also correct since energy is absorbed during the melting process, which raises the temperature of the water formed.
  • Statement III is incorrect because energy is not absorbed to decrease the temperature; rather, it is absorbed to change the state from solid to liquid.
  • Thus, the correct answer is (b) I and II only, as both these statements accurately describe the process of melting ice.

Q14: If the aqueous solution of a substance tastes bitter, then the substance– 
(a) Base
(b) Acid 
(c) Salt 
(d) None of these

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Ans: (a)
Bases have bitter taste and soupy in touch.

Q15: The oxides which react with both acids and bases are– 
(a) Metallic oxides 
(b) Non-metallic oxides 
(c) Amphoteric oxides 
(d) Neutral oxides

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Ans: (c)
Amphoteric oxides are the oxides which react both with acids as well as bases.

ZnO + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
ZnO + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO+ H2O

Q16: The strength of the magnetic field produced by an electromagnet 
(a) Can be adjusted 
(b) Remains the same 
(c) Can only be adjusted by increasing the number of turns in the coil 
(d) None of these 

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Ans: (a)

  • The magnetic field strength of an electromagnet is not fixed; it can be adjusted based on various factors.
  • By changing the current flowing through the coil or the number of turns in the coil, the strength can be increased or decreased.
  • This flexibility is what makes electromagnets useful in many applications, as they can be tailored to specific needs.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that the magnetic field strength can be varied.

Q17: The formula of washing soda is – 
(a) CuSO4 . 5H2
(b) Na2CO3 . 10H2
(c) Na2SO4 . 10H2
(d) ZnSO4 . 7H2O

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Ans: (b)
The formula of washing soda is Na2CO3·10H2O

Q18: Sunil and Rohit start at one end of a street (the origin), and run to the other end, then head back. On the way back, Sunil is ahead of Rohit. Which statement is correct about the distances run and the displacements from the origin before reaching the origin?
(a) Sunil has run a greater distance and his displacement is greater than Rohit’s.
(b) Rohit has run a greater distance and his displacement is greater than Sunil’s.
(c) Sunil has run a greater distance but his displacement is lesser than Rohit’s.
(d) Rohit has run a greater distance but his displacement is lesser than Sunil’s.

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Ans: (c)

  • Sunil and Rohit both run to the end of the street and then return to the origin.
  • During the return, Sunil is ahead of Rohit, meaning he has covered more ground.
  • However, since they both started and ended at the same point (the origin), their displacement from the origin is the same.
  • Thus, Sunil has run a greater distance but his displacement is lesser than Rohit’s because Rohit has not gone as far back.

Q19: What is the role of lactic acid production in our body during intense exercise?
(a) It provides energy in shortage of oxygen.
(b) It excretes waste substance from the body.
(c) Its decreases heart rate.
(d) It helps to decrease blood sugar level.

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Ans: (a)

During intense exercise, there may not be enough oxygen available to complete the process, so a substance called lactate is made. Our body can convert this lactate to energy without using oxygen.

Q20: A student, while setting up the experiment to show that CO2 is evolved during respiration, committed some errors shown in the figure below:

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

What changes should be made in the setup to get the desired results?
KOH solution should be taken in the small test tube inside the flask and germinating seeds in the beaker.
Water should be taken in the beaker and KOH solution in the flask.
KOH solution should be taken in the small test tube inside the flask and water should be taken in the beaker.
Water should be taken in the flask and KOH solution in the small test tube.

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Ans: (c)

KOH solution should be taken in the small test tube inside the flask and water should be taken in the beaker.

Q21: The ash which is collected after burning of magnesium ribbon is dissolved in water to give a solution X. What is the nature of the solution X when it is tested with indicators?
(a) It turns blue litmus red and phenolphthalein pink, hence it is an acidic solution.
(b) It turns red litmus blue and phenolphthalein pink, hence it is a basic solution.
(c) It turns blue litmus red and gives no colour with phenolphthalein, hence it is an acidic solution.
(d) It does not change colour of red or blue litmus and phenolphthalein, hence it is a neutral solution.

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Ans: (b)

  • When magnesium ribbon is burned, it produces magnesium oxide, which is basic in nature.
  • When this ash is dissolved in water, it forms a solution that turns red litmus blue, indicating it is a basic solution.
  • Additionally, it turns phenolphthalein pink, which further confirms its basicity.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that the solution is basic.

Q22: Select the incorrect method of separation.
(a) Blood cells and plasma - Centrifugation
(b) Salt and water - Evaporation
(c) Iron filings and sand - Sieving
(d) Petrol and water - Separating funnel

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Ans: (c)

  • Blood cells and plasma are separated using centrifugation, which spins the mixture to separate components based on density.
  •  Petrol and water can be separated using a separating funnel, which allows the two liquids to layer and be drained separately.
  • Iron filings and sand are not separated by threshing, but rather by sieving, which uses a mesh to filter out different particle sizes.
  • Salt and water can be separated by evaporation, where water evaporates, leaving salt behind.

Q23: Which of the following animals breathe through skin?
(a) Earthworms
(b) Fishes
(c) Cockroaches
(d) Whales

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Ans: (a)

Earthworms breathe through their skin. The skin of an earthworm always remains moist, which helps in breathing.

Q24: Refer to the diagram given below.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

Bees hover over the flowers to collect nectar from them. During this, bees carry X from one flower to the other. Which part of the flower should the bees touch in order to collect X?
(a) Q
(b) P
(c) S
(d) R

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Ans: (a)

While collecting nectar, the bees also carry pollen grains with them. Pollen grains are produced in the anther which is represented by Q.

Q25: Of the two test tubes shown in the picture, one contains an acid and the other contains water.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

Which of the following is a suitable indicator to detect the contents of the test tube?
(a) Methyl orange
(b) Clove oil
(c) Phenolphthalein
(d) Red litmus paper

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Ans: (a)

  • Methyl orange shows red colour in acidic medium and would remain orange with water.
  • Hence, option (a) is correct.
  • Clove oil would retain its odour with both acid and water.
  • Phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic as well as neutral medium.
  • Both acid and water will have no effect on red litmus paper.

Q26: Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1: SO2 gas when dissolved in water turns China rose indicator dark pink/magenta. Statement 2: SO2 is a non-metallic oxide and forms an acidic solution in water.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.

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Ans: (a)

  • Both statements are true: SO2 gas does indeed turn the China rose indicator dark pink/magenta when dissolved in water.
  • SO2 is a non-metallic oxide: It reacts with water to form an acidic solution, which explains the color change in the indicator.
  • Correct explanation: Statement 2 accurately explains why statement 1 is true, as the acidic nature of the solution affects the indicator's color.
  • Thus, the correct option is (a), as both statements are true and the second statement explains the first.

Q27: Select the accurate statement.
(a) The production of hydrogen gas occurs when vinegar is mixed with baking soda.
(b) Heat energy is consistently released during a physical transformation.
(c) A brown residue appears on an iron nail when it is submerged in a blue copper sulfate solution.
(d) Crystallization is a type of chemical transformation.

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Ans: (c)

  • The correct answer is (c) because when an iron nail is placed in a blue copper sulfate solution, a chemical reaction occurs, leading to the formation of a brown deposit of copper on the nail.
  • This happens due to the displacement reaction where iron displaces copper from the solution.
  • Options (a) and (b) are incorrect as they misrepresent the reactions and processes involved.
  • Option (d) is also incorrect because crystallization is a physical change, not a chemical one.

Q28: In higher plants, usually the haploid (half) set of chromosomes is present in
(a) embryo
(b) endosperm
(c) shoot apex
(d) pollen

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Ans: (d)

From the options given, only pollen represents the male gamete structure. Therefore, it will have half the number of chromosomes present in other cells.

Q29: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1: Cartilage is present at the end of the bones at the joints and upper part of the ear.
Statement 2: Cartilage is not a flexible tissue.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

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Ans: (c)

  • Statement 1 is true because cartilage is indeed found at the ends of bones in joints and in the ear.
  • Statement 2 is false because cartilage is actually a flexible tissue, allowing for movement and support.
  • Thus, the correct option is that Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.
  • This means that while cartilage serves important functions, it is not accurate to say it lacks flexibility.

Q30: What is the study of light called?
(a) Optics
(b) Geology
(c) Selenography
(d) Astronomy

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Ans: (a)

Optics is the study of light. Optics, a segment of physics, evaluates and analyses the properties and behaviours of light.

Q31: P has fine hair-like structures called cilia, all over its body that help it to obtain food. P could be:
(a) Amoeba
(b) Paramecium
(c) Jellyfish
(d) Yeast

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Ans: (b)

  • Paramecium is a single-celled organism that is covered in tiny hair-like structures known as cilia.
  • These cilia help it to move and also assist in feeding by sweeping food particles into its oral groove.
  • Amoeba, on the other hand, uses pseudopodia for movement and feeding, while yeast and jellyfish do not have cilia.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Paramecium, as it is specifically known for having cilia all over its body.

Q32: A strong alkali: 
(a) undergoes partial dissociation to produce OH ions. 
(b) undergoes complete dissociation to produce OH ions. 
(c) Does not undergo dissociation. 
(d) All of the above.

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Ans: (b)
Strong alkalis undergoes complete ionisation in water that produces a high concentration of hydroxide ions into the solution.

Q33: Which of the following statements is incorrect? 
(a) Bases in their aqueous solution produces OH ion. 
(b) Litmus paper is an acid-base indicator. 
(c) Sulphuric acid is a weak acid. 
(d) Baking soda is a bee sting reliever.

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Ans: (c)
Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) is a strong acid which completely ionises into ions.
Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

Q34: According to the pH measurement scale, arrange the following in descending order of their nature. 
(a) Sodium hydroxide > Sulphuric acid > Water 
(b) Water > Sodium hydroxide > Sulphuric acid 
(c) Sodium hydroxide > Water > Sulphuric acid 
(d) Sulphuric acid > Water > Sodium hydroxide

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Ans: (c)
The pH value of a solution indicates the acidic or basic nature of the solution. If the pH value is less than 7 (e.g., sulphuric acid), then the solution is acidic in nature and if more than 7 (e.g. sodium hydroxide), then the solution is basic in nature. Therefore, the correct decreasing order of solutions based on pH value is : 
Sodium hydroxide > water > sulphuric acid 

Q35: Read the following statements and identify the one that is false.
(a) Natural fibres are sourced exclusively from plants.
(b) Cotton fibres that have been removed from the seeds are known as lint.
(c) Yarns are utilized to create fabrics through knitting or weaving.
(d) The cotton plant thrives best in black soil due to its moisture retention capabilities.

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Ans: (a)

  • Natural fibres can come from both plants and animals, not just plants. This makes option (a) incorrect.
  • Option (b) is true because lint refers to the cotton fibres that are separated from the seeds.
  • Option (c) is correct as yarns are indeed used in the processes of knitting and weaving to make fabrics.
  • Option (d) is also accurate since the cotton plant does grow well in black soil, which helps retain moisture.

Q36: Which of the following statements is correct regarding vitamin C?
(a) It keeps the eyes healthy and helps to prevent night blindness.
(b) Its deficiency causes pellagra.
(c) It helps to prevent goitre.
(d) It is richly present in orange and its deficiency causes scurvy.

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Ans: (d)

  • Vitamin C is essential for our health and is found in high amounts in oranges.
  • A lack of vitamin C can lead to a condition known as scurvy, which causes symptoms like fatigue and bleeding gums.
  • The other options mention conditions related to different vitamins, such as night blindness (Vitamin A), pellagra (Niacin), and goitre (Iodine).
  • Thus, the correct statement is that vitamin C is abundant in oranges and its deficiency results in scurvy.

Q37: Directions: Analyse the two statements given below and select the correct option.
Statement I: Patanwadi sheep is found in Gujarat.
Statement II: Patanwadi wool is used for hosiery.
(a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct reason for I.
(b) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct reason for I.
(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

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Ans: (b)

  • Statement I: This is true. Patanwadi sheep are indeed found in the state of Gujarat, particularly in the Saurashtra region.
  • Statement II: This is also true. The wool produced by Patanwadi sheep is used for hosiery and other textile products due to its quality.
  • Reasoning: While both statements are true, the use of Patanwadi wool for hosiery is not the reason for the sheep being found in Gujarat. They are found there due to environmental conditions suitable for sheep farming and wool production, but the use of the wool is a separate characteristic of the breed. Therefore, option (b) accurately captures that both statements are true but not causally linked.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q38: Select the accurate statement.
(a) Phloem tubes are exclusively located in the leaves of plants since this is where sugars are produced.
(b) Anaemia happens when there is a lack of red blood cells.
(c) Blood has significantly more white blood cells than red blood cells.
(d) None of these

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Ans: (d)

  • Phloem tubes are not limited to the leaves; they are present throughout the plant, transporting sugars made in the leaves to other parts.
  • Anaemia is actually related to a deficiency of red blood cells, not white blood cells.
  • In a healthy individual, there are far more red blood cells than white blood cells in the blood.
  • Thus, the correct choice is None of these as all other statements are incorrect.

Q39: Identify which part of a plant is least involved in gas exchange processes:
(a) Stomata
(b) Lenticels
(c) Roots
(d) Leaves

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Ans: (c)

Stomata are critical for gas exchange in the leaves.
Lenticels are involved in gas exchange in stems.
Roots primarily absorb nutrients and water.
Leaves perform gas exchange via stomata.

Q40: Which part of a plant primarily facilitates photosynthesis?

(a) Roots
(b) Stems
(c) Leaves
(d) Flowers

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Ans: (c)

  • Roots: Mainly responsible for anchoring the plant and absorbing water and nutrients from the soil.

  • Stems: Support the plant and transport nutrients and water between roots and leaves, but they are not the primary site for photosynthesis.

  • Leaves: The main site for photosynthesis, where chlorophyll captures sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen.

  • Flowers: Primarily involved in reproduction and do not play a significant role in photosynthesis.

Thus, the correct answer is leaves, as they are specifically adapted for photosynthesis.

 Q41: Refer to the given statements about an animal:
• It has thick and long hair on its body.
• It has large chest and lungs.
• It has strong hooves and horns.
Identify the animal and select the correct option.
(a) Snow leopard
(b) Yak
(c) Tiger
(d) Camel

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Ans: (b)

  • Thick and long hair indicates that the animal is adapted to cold environments, which is typical for the Yak.
  • The presence of a large chest and lungs suggests it needs to breathe well in high altitudes, where Yaks are commonly found.
  • Strong hooves and horns are characteristics of Yaks, helping them navigate rugged terrains.
  • Other options like Snow leopard and Tiger do not fit all the criteria, making Yak the correct choice.

Q42: Which of the following is a benefit of vegetative propagation?
(a) The traits of a species can be preserved using this method.
(b) This method allows for the multiplication of plants that have limited or no sexual reproduction.
(c) It is a quick, simple, and cost-effective way to produce many offspring.
(d) All of these

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Ans: (d)

  • Vegetative propagation is a method of plant reproduction that does not involve seeds.
  • One of the main advantages is that the traits of a species can be conserved, ensuring that the new plants are identical to the parent.
  • This method is particularly useful for plants that do not reproduce sexually, allowing for their multiplication.
  • Additionally, it is rapid, easier, and less expensive compared to other methods, making it a preferred choice for many gardeners and farmers.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is that all these points highlight the advantages of vegetative propagation.

Q43: Forests are a valuable source of 
(a) Timber 
(b) Medicinal plants 
(c) Resin and gum
 (d) All of these 

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • Forests provide a wide range of resources that are essential for various industries and health.
  • They are a significant source of timber, which is used in construction and furniture.
  • Additionally, forests are rich in medicinal plants that are used in traditional and modern medicine.
  • Moreover, they produce resin and gum, which have various applications in products like adhesives and cosmetics.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is All of these as forests contribute multiple resources.

Q44: The ________ reacts with ________ to form salt and water. This reaction is known as _________ reaction. 
(a) Acid, Water, Combination 
(b) Acid, Base, Neutralization 
(c) Base, Water, Decomposition 
(d) Acid, Base, Displacement

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (b)
The acid reacts with base to form salt and water. This type of reaction is known as neutralisation reaction.

Q45: Priyal washed a stain of vegetable curry on her suit with a cloth washing bar then it turned brownishred. This shows that the: 
(a) Stain was of turmeric and the cloth washing bar was basic. 
(b) Stain was of turmeric and the cloth washing bar was acidic. 
(c) Stain was of ice-cream and the cloth washing bar was acidic.
(d) Stain was of yellow paint and the cloth washing bar was acidic.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (a)
Turmeric is an acid base indicator, which changes colour when the solution turns acidic or basic. Turmeric contains a chemical called curcumin, which remains yellow in an acidic or neutral solution, but turns red in a base.

Achievers Section

Q46: Observe the image below and the colour of the solutions when universal indicator is added to them.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

Select from the options provided, the combination of acid and base respectively that could justify the picture.
(a) HCl + NH4OH
(b) HCl + NaOH
(c) CH3COOH + NaOH
(d) CH3COOH + NH4OH

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (b)

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

Since the salt solution formed gives a green colour with universal indicator, the salt is a neutral salt and will be formed in a neutralization reaction between a strong acid and a strong base.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

Hence, option (b) is correct.

NOTE: Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid and Ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH) is a weak base.

Q47: Silk is a continuous filament made up of secretions by the salivary glands of the silkworm. These secretions contain two proteins, X that makes up the filament and Y, which is a gum that holds the filaments together.
'X' and 'Y' respectively are:
Fibroin and Sericin
Sericin and Myosin
Sericin and Fibroin
Myosin and Fibroin

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (a)

Silk is a natural protein fibre, some forms of which can be woven into textiles. The fibre is composed mainly of fibroin protein, which is produced by the larvae (silk worms) to form cocoons. Sericin is the binding protein which binds the solid fibre (fibroin).

Q48: Read the given paragraph and select the correct statement regarding it. In human beings, there are various types of teeth present in the mouth for tearing, cutting and chewing. X type of teeth are for biting and cutting. Y type of teeth are used for crushing and grinding, and are absent in milk teeth set. Z type of teeth are used for tearing the food.
(a) X are total 6 in number in the mouth of an adult.
(b) Y are total 2 in number in the upper jaw of an adult.
(c) Z are total 6 in number in the lower jaw of an adult.
(d) X, Y and Z are total 10 in number in the upper jaw of an adult.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (d)

  • In humans, there are different types of teeth that serve specific functions: X for biting and cutting, Y for crushing and grinding, and Z for tearing food.
  • Option D states that X, Y, and Z together total 10 teeth in the upper jaw of an adult, which is correct based on the classification of teeth.
  • Other options incorrectly state the number of specific types of teeth, making them inaccurate.
  • Understanding the types of teeth and their functions helps clarify why option D is the right choice.

Q49: Study the following diagrams carefully and select the option which shows the correct statements regarding them.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

Statements:
(a) (A) shows xylem and (B) shows phloem.
(b) (A) has end walls between cells and (B) has no end walls between cells.
(c) In (A), transport of water and minerals is taking place; in (B), transport of food is taking place.
(d) In (A), transport of food is taking place; in (B), transport of water and minerals is taking place.
(e) (A) has no end walls between cells and (B) has end walls between cells.
(f) (A) shows phloem (B) shows xylem.
(a) (f), (b) and (d)
(b) (a), (b) and (c)
(c) (a), (c) and (e)
(d) (f), (c) and (e)

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (c)

For transportation in plants, there are two main tissues viz. xylem and phloem. These are composed of narrow tube-like structures. Xylem is responsible for transport of water, while phloem is responsible for transport of food.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

(A) shows xylem and (B) shows phloem.

Q50: Observe the following classification of 'Changes around us' and analyse the statements that follow.

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7

I. 'W' could be digestion of food.
II. 'X' could be cutting of a log of wood into pieces.
III. 'Y' could be rotting of fruits and vegetables.
IV. 'Z' could be evaporation of water from the water bodies.
Which of the above statements regarding 'W', 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' are FALSE?
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) II and III
(d) III and IV

Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7  View Answer

Ans: (a)

  • Digestion of food is a chemical change.
  • Cutting of a log of wood into pieces is a physical change.
  • Rotting of fruits and vegetables is a chemical change. It occurs when saprophytic microbes decompose the organic matter by secreting some digestive enzymes.
  • Evaporation of water from the water bodies is a physical change.

Hence, statements I and IV are false.

The document Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 | Science Olympiad Class 7 is a part of the Class 7 Course Science Olympiad Class 7.
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FAQs on Science Olympiad Model Test Paper - 1 - Science Olympiad Class 7

1. What topics are typically covered in the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper for Class 7?
Ans. The Science Olympiad Model Test Paper for Class 7 typically covers a variety of topics including basic concepts of physics, chemistry, biology, environmental science, and earth science. Students may encounter questions on scientific principles, experiments, and real-world applications related to these subjects.
2. How can students prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad?
Ans. Students can prepare effectively for the Science Olympiad by reviewing their class notes, studying textbooks, and practicing previous years' question papers. Additionally, they can use online resources, participate in study groups, and take mock tests to enhance their understanding and speed in solving questions.
3. What is the scoring pattern for the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper?
Ans. The scoring pattern for the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper usually consists of a certain number of questions, each carrying equal marks. There may be negative marking for incorrect answers, so students should be cautious while guessing. It's essential to check the specific guidelines provided for the particular exam year.
4. Are there any specific skills that students should focus on for the Logical Reasoning section of the exam?
Ans. Yes, students should focus on developing critical thinking, analytical skills, and the ability to recognize patterns and relationships. Practicing puzzles, sequences, and logical deductions can help improve these skills, which are crucial for performing well in the Logical Reasoning section.
5. How important is the Achievers Section in the Science Olympiad Model Test Paper?
Ans. The Achievers Section is quite important as it typically includes higher-order thinking questions that challenge students to apply their knowledge and understanding of scientific concepts. Performing well in this section can significantly enhance a student's overall score and demonstrate their proficiency in science.
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